US OB Examination Review Questions
Which of the following would be the least likely indication for a first-trimester sonogram? a. Evaluate pelvic pain b. Define the cause of vaginal bleeding c. Gender identification d. Diagnosis of multiple gestations
Gender identification
Enlargement of the frontal horns and narrowing of the occipital horns is termed : a. Holoprosencephaly b. DWM c. Colpocephaly d. Apert syndrome
Colpocephaly
The anechoic midline brain structure located between the frontal horns and the lateral ventricles is the : a. CSP b. Cavum vergae c. Corpus callosum d. Fourth ventricle
CSP
Which of the following will also typically be absent with agenesis of the corpus callosum? a. Cerebellar vermis b. CSP c. Third ventricle d. Fourth ventricle
CSP
Which of the following would not be decreased in the presence of Edwards syndrome? a. Estriol b. hCG c. Alpha-Fetoprotein d. All would be decreased
All would be decreased
An abnormal division in the lip is referred to as : a. Micrognathia b. Cleft lip c. Anophthalmia d. Cebocephaly
Cleft lip
Talipes equinovarus is associated with : a. Clubfoot b. Syndactyly c. Rhizomelia d. Rockerbottom feet
Clubfoot
Twins whose bodies are connected at some point are said to be : a. Fraternal b. Conjoined c. Identical d. Stuck
Conjoined
Pyelectasis refers to: a. Enlargement of the urinary bladder, ureter, and renal calices b. Dilation of the ureter c. Dilation of the renal pelvis d. Enlargement of the ureter only
Dilation of the renal pelvis
Pelvocaliectasis refers to : a. Dilation of the renal pelvis and calices b. Enlargement of the fetal pelvis c. Ectopic location of the kidney within the pelvis d. Dilation of the ureter within the pelvis
Dilation of the renal pelvis and calices
Asymmetry in fetal weight between twins is indicative of: a. Discordant growth b. Preeclampsia c. Dichorionic diamniotic twinning d. Intrauterine infections
Discordant growth
Twins that result from the fertilization of two separate ova are called : a. Diamniotic b. Dizygotic c. Monozygotic d. monochorionic
Dizygotic
The "keyhole" sign describes the sonographic findings of a(n) : a. Enlarged bladder and dilated urethra b. Bilateral renal agenesis c. Unilateral renal agenesis d. Dilation of the renal pelvis and proximal ureter
Enlarged bladder and dilated urethra
All of the following are associated with spina bifida except : a. Splaying of the laminae b. Enlarged posterior fossa c. Lemon sign d. Banana sign
Enlarged posterior fossa
What organ(s) produces amniotic fluid after 12 weeks? a. Fetal liver and the spleen b. Fetal intestines and lungs c. Fetal intestines and the liver d. Fetal kidneys
Fetal kidneys
Biophysical profile scoring is conducted : a. Until the fetus corporates b. For 10 minutes c. For 45 minutes d. For 30 minutes
For 30 minutes
Facial anomalies, when discovered, should prompt the sonographer to analyze the brain closely for signs of : a. Holoprosencephaly b. Dandy-Walker malformation c. Schizencephaly d. Hydranencephaly
Holoprosencephaly
Fetal TORCH is frequently associated with : a. Maternal hypertension b. Twin-twin transfusion syndrome c. Intracranial calcifications d. Renal cystic disease
Intracranial calcifications
Which of the following would be the most likely fetal cranial findings with TORCH infections? a. Intracranial calcifications b. Cerebral atrophy c. Porencephaly d. Scaphocephaly
Intracranial calcifications
Which of the following is located on both sides of the midline? a. Interhemispheric fissures b. Third and fourth ventricle c. Lateral ventricles d. Third ventricle and cerebral aqueduct
Lateral ventricles
The blood returning from the lungs through the pulmonary veins enters into the : a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle
Left atrium
Twins having one placenta and one amniotic sac are referred to as : a. Dichorionic monoamniotic b. Dichorionic diamniotic c. Monochorionic diamniotic d. Monochorionic monoamniotic
Monochorionic monoamniotic
Which of the following is also referred to as trisomy 13? a. Down syndrome b. Edwards syndrome c. Turner syndrome d. Patau syndrome
Patau syndrome
The premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before the birth of the fetus describes : a. Placenta previa b. Placental abruption c. Ectopic cordis d. Subchorionic hamartoma
Placental abruption
All of the following are associated with a thick placenta except : a. Fetal infections b. Rh isoimmunization c. Placental insufficiency d. Multiple gestations
Placental insufficiency
Factors that increase the likelihood of having multiple gestations include all of the following except : a. Advanced maternal age b. Ovulation induction drugs c. Poor nutritional state d. Maternal predisposition for twins
Poor nutritional state
Following an intracranial hemorrhage, a cyst is noted within the cerebrum that communicates with the lateral ventricle. This is referred to as : a. Schizencephaly b. Lissencephaly c. Holoprosencephaly d. Porencephaly
Porencephaly
Which of the following artifacts is caused by attenuation of the sound beam? a. Reverberation artifact b. Comet tail artifact c. Posterior shadowing d. Posterior enhancement
Posterior shadowing
Nonimmune hydrops is associated with all of the following except : a. RH isoimmunization b. Pleural effusion c. Turner syndrome d. Fetal infections
RH isoimmunization
Which of the following is a sex chromosome anomaly associated with hypogonadism and subnormal intelligence in males? a. Down syndrome b. Edwards syndrome c. c d. Turner syndrome
Syndactyly
All of the following are associated with amniotic band syndrome except : a. Amputation of fetal parts b. Anencephaly c. Facial clefting d. Synechiae
Synechiae
A cloverleaf skull and hydrocephalus is seen with : a. Achondrogenesis b. Osteogenesis imperfecta c. Sirenomelia d. Thanatophoric dysplasia
Thanatophoric dysplasia
A cloverleaf-shaped skull is related to : a. Trisomy 18 b. Meckel-Gruber syndrome c. Trisomy 13 d. Thanatophoric dysplasia
Thanatophoric dysplasia
Placenta accreta denotes : a. The abnormal attachment of the placenta to the myometrium b. The premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall c. The invasion of the placenta into the myometrium d. The condition of having the fetal vessels rest over the internal os
The abnormal attachment of the placenta to the myometrium
Cleft lip, hypotelorism, and microphthalmia are all sonographic features of : a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. Turner syndrome
Trisomy 13
All of the following are associated with duodenal atresia except : a. Trisomy 21 b. Esophageal atresia c. VACTERL association d. Turner syndrome
Turner syndrome
Monosomy X refers to : a. Edwards syndrome b. Patau syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Turner syndrome
Turner syndrome
Which of the following can occur as a result of monozygotic twinning? a. Monochorionic diamniotic twins b. Monochorionic monoamniotic twins c. Dichorionic diamniotic twins d. All of the above
All of the above
Fraternal twins result from : a. Monozygotic twinning b. Dizygotic twinning c. Heterotopic pregnancies d. Monochorionic pregnancies
Dizygotic twinning
A 38-year-old pregnant woman presents to the sonography department for an obstetrical sonogram with abnormal maternal serum screening. Her alpha-fetoprotein and estriol are low, whereas her hCG is elevated. These laboratory findings are most consistent with : a. Edwards syndrome b. Patau syndrome c. Triploidy d. Down syndrome
Down syndrome
Echogenic small bowel is most often associated with : a. Down syndrome b. Edwards syndrome c. Patau syndrome d. Turner syndrome
Down syndrome
Nuchal thickening is most commonly associated with : a. Patau syndrome b. Hydranencephaly c. Down syndrome d. Cebocephaly
Down syndrome
THere is a definite link between microtia and what syndrome? a. Rays syndrome b. VACTERL syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
Down syndrome
All of the following are associated with oligohydramnios except : a. Bilateral renal agenesis b. Infantile polycystic kidney disease c. Premature rupture of membranes d. Duodenal atresia
Duodenal atresia
Which of the following would be most likely associated with an excessive amount of amniotic fluid? a. Duodenal atresia b. Hepatomegaly c. Bilateral renal agenesis d. Physiologic bowel herniation
Duodenal atresia
The isolated enlargement of the fetal thyroid is referred to as : a. Fetal goiter b. Cystic hygroma c. Lymphangioma d. Cervical teratoma
Fetal goiter
All of the following are associated with a thin placenta except : a. Preeclampsia b. IUGR c. Fetal hydrops d. Long-standing diabetes
Fetal hydrops
a coexisting pericardial effusion and a pleural effusion is consistent with the diagnosis of : a. Tetralogy of Fallot b. Pentalogy of Cantrell c. Fetal hydrops d. Potter syndrome
Fetal hydrops
The most accurate measurement for estimating gestational age is : a. BPD b. HC c. Transcerebellar measurement d. Lateral ventricle
HC
A functional bowel disorder within the fetus that is caused by the absence of intestinal nerves is found in : a. Gastroschisis b. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome c. Omphalocele d. Hirschsprung disease
Hirschsprung disease
All of the following are associated with omphalocele except : a. Trisomy 18 b. Pentalogy of Cantrell c. Intrauterine growth restriction d. Hirschsprung disease
Hirschsprung disease
The placenta releases ________ to maintain the corpus luteum. a. Human chorionic gonadotropin b. Follicle-stimulating hormone c. Luteinizing hormone d. Gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
Human chorionic gonadotropin
Another name for pelvocaliectasis is : a. Caliectasis b. Hydrocele c. Hydronephrosis d. Pyonephrosis
Hydronephrosis
What is the most common fetal abnormality noted during an obstetric sonogram? a. Anencephaly b. Spina bifida c. Cleft lip d. Hydronephrosis
Hydronephrosis
An increase distance between the orbits is referred to as : a. Hypotelorism b. Hypertelorism c. Anophthalmia d. Micrognathia
Hypertelorism
Before 9 weeks, the fetal kidneys are located within the : a. Renal fossae b. Pelvis c. Chest d. Umbilical cord
Pelvis
Which of the following would cause a bladder outlet obstruction? a. Posterior urethral valves b. Fetal ovarian cyst c. Pelviectasis d. Pelvocaliectasis
Posterior urethral valves
Pregnancy-induced maternal high blood pressure and excess protein in the urine after 20 weeks' gestation is termed : a. Preeclampsia b. Gestational diabetes c. Eclampsia d. Gestational trophoblastic disease
Preeclampsia
Webbed fingers or toes are termed : a. Clinodactyly b. Syndactyly c. Polydactyly d. Whren syndrome
Syndactyly
What term is defined as fusion of the digits? a. Clinodactyly b. Polydactyly c. Syndactyly d. Rhizodactyly
Syndactyly
A 22-week fetus with clinodactyly, an echogenic intracardiac focus, and hyperechoic bowel is noted during a screening obstetrical sonogram. These findings are most consistent with : a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 13 c. Monosomy X d. Trisomy 18
Trisomy 21
Webbing of the neck and short stature is found in infertile female patients with a history of : A. trisomy 21 B. Triploidy c. trisomy 13 d. Turner syndrome
Turner syndrome
The dilation of the renal collecting system secondary to the obstruction of normal uterine flow defines : a. Nephrocalcinosis b. Hydronephrosis c. Renal calculi d. Urinary stasis
Hydronephrosis
The reduction in blood return to the maternal heart caused by gravid uterus compressing the maternal inferior vena cava describes : a. Edwards syndrome b. Pulmonary obstructive syndrome c. Supine hypotensive syndrome d. Recumbent hypotensive syndrome
Supine hypotensive syndrome
The fetal heart is fully formed by : a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 8 weeks d. 10 weeks
10 weeks
The cisterna magna should not exceed _____ in the transcerebellar plane. a. 4mm b. 2mm c. 8mm d. 10mm
10mm
NT measures are typically obtained between a. 1 and 5 weeks b. 5 and 8 weeks c. 8 and 11 weeks d. 11 and 14 weeks
11 and 14 weeks
normally, physiologic bowel herniation resolves by : a. 8 weeks b. 10 weeks c. 24 weeks d. 12 weeks
12 weeks
The second trimester typically refers to weeks : a. 12 through 26 b. 13 through 26 c. 10 through 28 d. 26 through 42
13 through 26
The fetal stomach should be visualized by : a. 6 weeks b. 14 weeks c. 20 weeks d. 18 weeks
14 weeks
The normal gestational sac will grow : a. 2mm per day b. 3mm per day c. 1cm per day d. 1mm per day
1mm per day
Fertilization typically occurs within _____ after ovulation. a. 40 hours b. 12 hours c. 24 hours d. 56 hours
24 hours
The cervix should measure at least _____ in length. a. 4cm b. 5cm c. 3cm d. 8mm
3cm
Which of the following is a sex chromosome anomaly? a. Edwards syndrome b. Trisomy 13 c. Down syndrome d. 45, x
45, x
Normal diploid cells have : a. 46 chromosomes b. 23 chromosomes c. 21 chromosomes d. 69 chromosomes
46 chromosomes
The thickness of the nuchal fold in the second trimester should not exceed : a. 3mm b. 6mm c. 10mm d. 12mm
6mm
What measurement should the renal pelvis not exceed prior to 20 weeks' gestation? a. 2mm b. 10mm c. 7mm d. 1.2 cm
7mm
The fetal lip typically closes by : a. 18 weeks b. 8 weeks c. 13 weeks d. 6 weeks
8 weeks
Advanced maternal age is considered to be : a. >25 years of age b. >30 years of age c. >35 years of age d. >32 years of age
>35 years of age
The placenta is considered too thick when it measures : a. >4mm b. >4cm c. >8mm d. >3.5cm
>4cm
Intrauterine growth restriction is defined as : a. A small-for-dates fetus b. A fetus that falls below the 10th percentile for gestational age c. A fetus that is immunocompromised and has decreased umbilical cord Doppler ratios for gestational age d. A fetus that fall below the fifth percentile for gestational age
A fetus that falls below the 10th percentile for gestational age
Eventration of the diaphragm is best described as : a. A lack of muscle in the dome of the diaphragm b. A defect in the anterior lateral wall of the diaphragm c. A defect in the posterolateral wall of the diaphragm d. Congenital absence of the diaphragm
A lack of muscle in the dome of the diaphragm
The measurement that should carefully scrutinized in cases of IUGR is the : a. AC b. Femur length c. Biparietal diameter d. Head circumference
AC
The type of renal cystic disease associated with adult liver and pancreatic cysts is : a. MCDK b. ARPKD c. ADPKD d. VATER
ADPKD
A protein produced by the yolk sac and fetal liver that is found in excess in the maternal circulation in the presence of a neural tube defect is : a. Folate b. hCG c. Estriol d. AFP
AFP
Which of the following is associated with enlarged echogenic kidneys and microscopic renal cysts? a. MCDK disease b. Obstructive cystic dysplasia c. Hydronephrotic syndrome d. ARPKD
ARPKD
For the normal biophysical profile, the amniotic fluid pocket should measure : a. Greater than 4 cm in two perpendicular planes b. At least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes c. Greater than 5 cm in two perpendicular planes d. At least 3 cm in two perpendicular planes
At least 1 cm in two perpendicular planes
The form of inheritance in which at least one parent has to be a carrier of an abnormal gene for it to be passed to the fetus is : a. Autosomal recessive b. Autosomal dominant c. Inherited dominant d. Inherited recessive
Autosomal dominant
The renal cystic disease that results in the development of cysts late in adulthood is : a. Multicystic dysplastic renal disease b. Autosomal dominant polycystic disease c. Autosomal recessive polycystic disease d. Obstructive cystic dysplasia
Autosomal dominant polycystic disease
The "keyhole" sign would be seen in all of the following situations except : a. Urethral atresia b. Prune belly syndrome c. Autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease d. Posterior urethral valves
Autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease
Hepatomegaly would be seen in conjunction with : a. Down syndrome b. Edwards syndrome c. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome d. Hirschsprung disease
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
Macroglossia is most commonly found with : a. Anencephaly b. Holoprosencephaly c. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome d. Cystic hygroma
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
The growth disorder syndrome synonymous with organ, skull, and tongue enlargement is : a. Klinefelter syndrome b. Apert syndrome c. Meckel-Gruber syndrome d. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
IUGR is evident when the EFW is? a. Above 90th percentile b. Below 90th percentile c. Above the 10th percentile d. Below the 10th percentile
Below the 10th percentile
The nuchal fold measurement is typically obtained : a. Before 12 weeks 6 days b. Between 11 weeks and 13 weeks 6 days c. Between 15 weeks and 21 weeks d. After 24 weeks
Between 15 weeks and 21 weeks
Which of the following is a benign congenital neck cysts found most often near the angle of the mandible? a. Epignathus b. Branchial cleft cysts c. Thyroglossal duct cyst d. Fetal goiter
Branchial cleft cysts
The earliest invasive fetal karyotyping technique that can be performed is : a. Amniocentesis b. Cordocentesis c. CVS d. PUBS
CVS
With what procedure is placental tissue obtained? a. Amniocentesis b. Cordocentesis c. CVS d. Trophoblastic resection technique
CVS
The structre located between the two lobes of the cerebellum is the : a. Cerebellar vermis b. Cerebellar tonsils c. Falx cerebri d. Corpus callosum
Cerebellar vermis
The most common placental tumor is the : a. Choriocarcinoma b. Maternal lake c. Chorioangioma d. Allantoic cyst
Chorioangioma
Which of the following is associated with echogenic bowel? a. Fetal anemia b. Cystic fibrosis c. Radial ray syndrome d. Portal hypertension
Cystic fibrosis
A large, mostly cystic mass containing a thick, midline septation is noted in the cervical spine region of a fetus. This most likely represents a(n) : a. Sacrococcygeal teratoma b. Cystic hygroma c. Cephalocele d. Anophthalmia
Cystic hygroma
All of the following are sonographic features of holoprosencephaly except : a. Cystic hygroma b. Proboscis with cyclopia c. Fused thalamus d. Monoventricle
Cystic hygroma
What cerebral malformation is as a result of agenesis or hypoplasia of the cerebellar vermis? a. Arnold-Chiari II malformation b. Schizencephaly c. Mega cisterna magna d. DWM
DWM
All of the following are sonographic features of alobar holoprosencephaly except : a. Cyclopia b. Monoventricle c. Dorsal cyst d. Fused thalamus
Dorsal cyst
In the first trimester, normal hCG levels will : a. Double every 48 hours b. Triple every 24 hours c. Double every 24 hours d. Double every 12 hours
Double every 48 hours
Cloacal exstrophy is associated with all of the following except: a. Omphalocele b. Spina bifida c. Encephalocele d. Imperforate anus
Encephalocele
What is a treatment that separates abnormal placental vascular connections between twins that are suffering from TTTS? a. Cleavage-laser resection treatment b. Endoscopic-guided laser photocoagulation c. Endemic translocation of placental vessels d. Circumvallate resection of shared placental vasculature
Endoscopic-guided laser photocoagulation
An oral teratoma is referred to as : a. Macroglossia b. Epignathus c. Micrognathia d. Ethmocephaly
Epignathus
What is the opening located right anteromedially within the diaphragm? a. Foramen of Bochdalek b. Foramen of Morgagni c. Foramen of Monro d. Foramen ovale
Foramen of Morgagni
What is the normal opening in the lower middle third of the atrial septum? a. Foramen of Magendie b. Foramen of Monro c. Foramen ovale d. Ductus arteriosus
Foramen ovale
What cerebral abnormality are atypical facial features most commonly associated with? a. DWM b. Schizencephaly c. Lissencephaly d. Holoprosencephaly
Holoprosencephaly
Fusion of the lower poles of the kidneys describes : a. Renal agenesis b. Horseshoe kidney c. Moiety d. Meckel-Gruber syndrome
Horseshoe kidney
In VACTERL association, the letter "L" stands for : a. Limb b. Lung c. Liver d. Larynx
Limb
Fetal stool is termed : a. Plicae b. Meconium c. Laguna d. Lanugo
Meconium
Twins that have the threat of being conjoined are : a. Monochorionic monoamniotic b. Monochorionic diamniotic c. Dizygotic d. Dichorionic diamniotic
Monochorionic monoamniotic
Which form of monozygotic twinning is least common? a. Monochorionic diamniotic b. Monochorionic monoamniotic c. Dichorionic diamniotic d. Dichorionic biamniotic
Monochorionic monoamniotic
Which of the following may also be referred to as Turner syndrome? a. Down syndrome b. Trisomy 15 c. Trisomy 13 d. Monosomy X
Monosomy X
Identical twins result from : a. Monozygotic twinning b. Dizygotic twinning c. Heterotopic pregnancies d. Monochorionic pregnancies
Monozygotic twinning
The abnormal twin in acardiac twinning is also referred to as the : a. Pump twin b. Parasitic twin c. Stuck twin d. Vanishing twin
Parasitic twin
The clinical manifestations of supine hypotensive syndrome include all of the following except : a. Proteinuria b. Tachycardia c. Nausea d. Pallor
Proteinuria
What is described as the absence of the pulmonary valve, which in turn prohibits blood flow from the right ventricle into the pulmonary artery and essentially to the lungs? a. Pulmonary atresia b. Pulmonary stenosis c. Pulmonary sequestration d. Pulmonary effusion
Pulmonary atresia
What is the term for underdevelopment of the lungs? a. Pulmonary atresia b. Pulmonary stenosis c. Pulmonary agenesis d. Pulmonary hypoplasia
Pulmonary hypoplasia
All of the following are clinical findings consistent with a complete molar pregnancy except : a. Vaginal bleeding b. Hypertension c. Uterine enlargement d. Small for dates
Small for dates
What chromosomal aberration is most often associated with holoprosencephaly? a. Anophthalmia b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 13 d. Trisomy 18
Trisomy 13
Which of the following is also referred to as Patau syndrome? a. Trisomy 18 b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 12 d. Trisomy 13
Trisomy 13
Which of the following would result in compensatory hypertrophy? a. Unilateral renal agenesis b. Bilateral renal agenesis c. Pelvic kidney d. Horseshoe kidneys
Unilateral renal agenesis
An obstruction at the ureterovesical junction would lead to dilation of : a. Bladder and urethra b. Bladder, urethra, and ureters c. Bladder, urethra, ureters and renal collecting system d. Ureter and renal collecting system
Ureter and renal collecting system
The bending of the fifth digit toward the fourth digit is called : a. Syndactyly b. clinodactyly c. polydactyly d. Stabodactyly
clinodactyly
THe trophoblastic cells produce : a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. hCG
hCG
What hormone maintains the corpus luteum during pregnancy? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. Follicle-stimulating hormone d. hCG
hCG
The triple screen typically includes an analysis of : a. hCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and estriol b. Fetal NT, alpha-fetoprotein, and inhibin A c. hCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and inhibin A d. hCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and PAPP-A
hCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and estriol
When the placenta completely covers the internal os, it is referred to as : a. Low-lying previa b. Marginal previa c. Partial previa d. total previa
total previa
Monozygotic twins result from : a. A single zygote that splits b. Two zygotes that are fertilized by the same sperm c. Two morulla d. A single zygote that is fertilized by two sperm
A single zygote that splits
Which of the following would be the most likely cause of bilateral, enlarged echogenic fetal kidneys and oligohydramnios? a. ARPKD b. MCKD c. Renal cystic dysplasia d. ADPKD
ARPKD
Which of the following is not a component of prune belly syndrome? a. Megacystits b. Undescended testis c. Dilated urinary bladder and urethra d. Abdominal muscle hypertrophy
Abdominal muscle hypertrophy
The most severe form of holoprosencephaly is : a. Lobar b. Alobar c. Semilobar d. Lobular
Alobar
Which term relates the number of amniotic sacs? a. Chorionicity b. Placentation c. Amnionicity d. Embryology
Amnionicity
The disorder associated with fetal amputation is : a. Achondroplasia b. Osteogenesis imperfecta c. Thanatophoric dysplasia d. Amniotic band syndrome
Amniotic band syndrome
group of abnormalities associated with the entrapment of fetal parts and fetal amputations is : a. Cystic hygroma b. Edwards syndrome c. Ethmocephaly d. Amniotic band syndrome
Amniotic band syndrome
The most common site of fertilization is within the : a. Isthmus of the uterine tube b. Uterine fundus c. Cornu of the uterine tube d. Ampulla of the uterine tube
Ampulla of the uterine tube
The mitral valve is located : a. Between the right atrium and the left atrium b. Between the right ventricle and the right atrium c. Between the left ventricle and the left atrium d. Between the left atrium and the aorta
Between the left ventricle and the left atrium
The tricuspid valve is located : a. Between the right atrium and left atrium b. Between the right ventricle and the right atrium c. Between the left ventricle and left atrium d. Between the left atrium and the aorta
Between the right ventricle and the right atrium
The third ventricle is located : a. Anterior to the thalamus b. Anterior to the cerebellar vermis c. Between the two lobes of the thalamus d. Superior to the corpus callosum
Between the two lobes of the thalamus
All of the following are associated with polyhydramnios except : a. Omphalocele b. Gastroschisis c. Esophageal atresia d. Bilateral multicystic dysplastic kidney disease
Bilateral multicystic dysplastic kidney disease
Which of the following would be most likely associated with oligohydramnios? a. Duodenal atresia b. Hepatomegaly c. Bilateral renal agenesis d. Physiologic bowel herniation
Bilateral renal agenesis
What is the stage of conceptus that implants within the decidualized endometrium? a. Blastocyst b. Morula c. Zygote d. Ovum
Blastocyst
Fetal meconium typically consists of all of the following except : a. Skin b. Hair c. Bile d. Blood
Blood
Rounded head shape is referred to as: a. Dolichocephaly b. Brachycephaly c. Cebocephaly d. Craniosynostosis
Brachycephaly
Doppler assessment of the middle cerebral artery : a. Helps to determine whether fetal anorexia is occuring b. Is valuable in diagnosing the extent of ventriculomegaly c. Can evaluate the fetus for hypoxia d. Is important to determine whether TORCH complications are present
Can evaluate the fetus for hypoxia
In VACTERL association, the letter "C" stands for : a. Cerebellar b. C-spine c. Cranial d. Cardiac
Cardiac
An absent sacrum and coccyx is referred to as : a. Sirenomelia b. Caudal regression syndrome c. Achondroplasia d. Radial ray defect
Caudal regression syndrome
Close-set eyes and a nose with a single nostril is termed : a. Cebocephaly b. Cyclopia c. Ethmocephaly d. Epignathus
Cebocephaly
The normal umbilical cord insertion point into the placenta is : a. Central b. Superior margin c. Inferior margin d. Lateral margin
Central
The fetal gut develops at the end of the fifth menstrual week and can be divided into all of the following except : a. Midgut b. Foregut c. Centralgut d. Hindgut
Centralgut
The most common pelvic mass associated with pregnancy is the : a. Uterine leiomyoma b. Dermoid cyst c. Theca luteum cyst d. Corpus luteum cyst
Corpus luteum cyst
physiologic ovarian cyst that develops after ovulation has occurred is the : a. Theca internal cyst b. Graafian cyst c. Corpus luteum cyst d. Cystic teratoma
Corpus luteum cyst
Fusion of the orbits is termed : a. Microglossia b. Cebocephaly c. Cyclopia d. Ethmocephaly
Cyclopia
What is an inherited disorder in which mucus secreting organs such as the lungs, pancreas, and other digestive organs produce thick and sticky secretions instead of normal secretions? a. Hirschsprung disease b. Cystic fibrosis c. Multiple sclerosis d. Turner syndrome
Cystic fibrosis
The maternal contribution to the placenta is the : a. Chorionic vera b. Decidua vera c. Decidua basalis d. Chorion frondosum
Decidua basalis
The first sonographically identifiable sign of pregnancy is the : a. Amnion b. Yolk sac c. Decidual reaction d. Chorionic activity
Decidual reaction
Typically, with a miscarriage, the serum hCG value will be : a. Elevated b. Decreased c. This laboratory finding is not helpful d. Unchanged
Decreased
All of the following are clinical or sonographic findings consistent with LBWC except : a. Ventral wall defects b. Decreased MSAFP c. Marked scoliosis d. Shortened umbilical cord
Decreased MSAFP
Normally, the S/D ratio : a. Increases with advancing gestation b. Decreases with advancing gestation c. Reverses occasionally during a normal pregnancy d. Has an absent diastolic component
Decreases with advancing gestation
The most common cause of cardiac malposition is : a. Diaphragmatic hernia b. Omphalocele c. Gastroschisis d. Pulmonary hypoplasia
Diaphragmatic hernia
The condition in which the heart is located outside the chest wall is termed : a. CAM b. Coarctation of the heart c. Cardiac sequestration d. Ectopic cordis
Ectopic cordis
The most common cause of pelvic pain with pregnancy is : a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Heterotopic pregnancy c. Missed abortion d. Molar pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy
Bladder exstrophy describes : a. Absence of the cloaca b. Protrusion of the bladder into the umbilicus c. External position of the bladder d. Enlargement of the bladder
External position of the bladder
What is the name of the dominant follicle prior to ovulation? a. Graafian b. Corpus luteum c. Morula d. Corpus albicans
Graafian
What is the anomaly of the spine in which there is absence of all or part of a vertebral body and posterior element? a. Kyphosis b. Scoliosis c. Kyphoscoliosis d. Hemivertebra
Hemivertebra
The most common abnormality of the fetal liver is : a. Gallstones b. Hepatocellular lymphadenopathy c. Cirrhosis d. Hepatomegaly
Hepatomegaly
Ovulation induction drugs not only increase the likelihood of multiple gestations, but also increase the likelihood of : a. Maternal diabetes b. Ovarian prolapse c. Heterotopic pregnancies d. Choriocarcinoma
Heterotopic pregnancies
Which of the following laboratory findings would not be consistent with trisomy 21? a. High AFP b. Low estriol c. High hCG d. Low PAPP-A
High AFP
Fetal presentation is determined by identifying the fetal part that is closest to the : a. Placenta b. External os of the cervix c. Maternal umbilicus d. Internal os of the cervix
Internal os of the cervix
Mother with gestational diabetes run the risk of having fetuses that are considered : a. Nutritionally deficient b. Acromegalic c. microscomic d. Macrosomic
Macrosomic
A structural abnormality that results from an abnormal development describes : a. Syndrome b. Chromosomal deviation c. Malformation d. Congenital misrepresentation
Malformation
Insertion of the umbilical cord at the edge of the placenta is referred to as : a. Velamentous cord insertion b. Partial cord insertion c. Marginal cord insertion d. Nuchal cord insertion
Marginal cord insertion
What is often used to medically treat an ectopic pregnancy? a. Dilation and curettage b. Dilation and evacuation c. Open surgery d. Methotrexate
Methotrexate
What fetal suture is located within the frontal bone along the midline of the forehead? a. Squamosal suture b. Sagittal suture c. Lambdoidal suture d. Metopic suture
Metopic suture
The term for small eyes is : a. Microphthalmia b. Micrognathia c. microcephaly d. Microglossia
Microglossia
A small mandible is termed : a. Macroglossia b. Epignathus c. Micrognathia d. Ethmocephaly
Micrognathia
Which of the following locations for an ectopic pregnancy would be least likely? a. Isthmus of the tube b. Ampulla of the tube c. Ovary d. Interstitial of the tube
Ovary
The quadruple screen includes an analysis of the following except : a. hCG b. Alpha-Fetoprotein c. Inhibin A d. PAPP-A
PAPP-A
What is described as the number of pregnancies in which the patient has given birth to a fetus at or beyond 20 weeks gestational age or an infant weighing more than 500 g? a. Gravidity b. Parity c. Primigravida d. Primiparous
Parity
The sonographic "bat-wing" sign is indicative of : a. Pericardial effusion b. Pulmonary atresia c. Pleural effusion d. Endocardial cushion defects
Pleural effusion
having more than the normal number of digits is : a. Polydactyly b. Clinodactyly c. Multidigitopia d. Sirenomelia
Polydactyly
An excessive amount of amniotic fluid is termed : a. Polyhydramnios b. Oligohydramnios c. Esophageal atresia d. Amniotic fluid index
Polyhydramnios
The most common fetal cardiac tumor is the : a. Rhabdomyoma b. Chordae tendineae c. Cardiomyoma d. CAM
Rhabdomyoma
During a first-trimester sonogram, you note a round,cystic structure within the fetal head. This most likely represents the : a. Prosencephalon b. Mesencephalon c. Rhombencephalon d. Prosencephalon
Rhombencephalon
In what location does gastroschisis occur more often? a. Left lateral of the cord insertion b. Right lateral of the cord insertion c. Just superior to the fetal bladder d. Base of the umbilical cord
Right lateral of the cord insertion
The moderator band is located within the : a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle
Right ventricle
Which of the following is a true statement about the fetal heart? a. The apex of the heart will be angled to the right of the midline b. The apex of the heart is positioned closest to the spine c. The normal fetal heart will fill approximately two-third of the fetal chest d. The chamber closest to the fetal spine is the left atrium
The chamber closest to the fetal spine is the left atrium
Which of the following is true for the diagnosis of clubfoot? a. The metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula b. The metatarsals are perpendicular to the tibia and fibula c. The carpals and metacarpals lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula d. The tibia, fibula, and patella are perpendicular to the femur
The metatarsals and toes lie in the same plane as the tibia and fibula
The interthalamic adhesion (massa intermedia) passes through the : a. Third ventricle b. Fourth ventricle c. Cisterna magna d. CSP
Third ventricle
Cyclopia would most likely be associated with : a. Trisomy 8 b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 13
Trisomy 13
Sonographically, you identify a fetus with fusion of the thalami and a monoventricle. Which chromosomal abnormality would be most likely? a. Trisomy 8 b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 13
Trisomy 13
What is an opening within the septum that separates the right and left ventricles? a. Endocardial cushion b. Tricuspid regeneration c. VSD d. ASD
VSD
Which of the following is considered to be the most common cardiac defect? a. Hypoplastic right heart syndrome b. Transposition of the great vessels c. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome d. VSD
VSD
A velamentous cord insertion is associated with which of the following? a. Placenta increta b. Placental abruption c. Vasa previa d. Circumvallate placenta
Vasa previa
Doppler sonography reveals vascular structures coursing over the internal os of the cervix. This finding is indicative of : a. Vasa previa b. Placenta previa c. Placenta increta d. Abruptio placentae
Vasa previa
The abnormal insertion of the umbilical cord into the membranes beyond the placental edge is termed : a. Placenta previa b. Placental abruption c. Marginal insertion d. Velamentous insertion
Velamentous insertion
Dangling cord sign is associated with : a. Ventriculomegaly b. Hydranencephaly c. Lissencephaly d. Meckel-Gruber syndrome
Ventriculomegaly
What structure connects the embryo to the yolk sac? a. Vitelline duct b. Yolk stalk c. Amnion d. Chorionic stalk
Vitelline duct
The first structure noted within the gestational sac is the : a. Yolk sac b. Embryo c. Decidual reaction d. Chorionic sac.
Yolk sac
What structure lies within the extraembryonic coelom? a. Gestational sac b. Embryo c. Yolk sac d. Amnion
Yolk sac
The structure created by the union of sperm and egg is the : a. Blastocyst b. Zygote c. Morula d. Ampulla
Zygote
Which of the following would not increase the likelihood of multiple gestations? a. Gestational diabetes b. Maternal age of >40 years c. Maternal history of twins d. ART
Gestational diabetes
A succenturiate lobe of the placenta refers to a : a. Bilobed placental lobe b. Circumvallate placental lobe c. Accessory lobe d. Circummarginate placental lobe
Accessory lobe
The visualization of the fetal stomach within the fetal chest is most indicative of : a. Pulmonary sequestration b. Diaphragmatic hernia c. Turner syndrome d. CAM
Diaphragmatic hernia
The term that indicates the presence of two separate placentas is : a. Dichorionic b. Bichorionic c. Monoamniotic d. Diamniotic
Dichorionic
Twins having two placentas and one amniotic sac are referred to as : a. Monochorionic diamniotic b. Biamniotic dichorionic c. Dichorionic diamniotic d. Dichorionic biamniotic
Dichorionic diamniotic
The sonographic examination of twins reveals a triangular extension of the placenta at the base of the membrane. This finding is indicative of : a. Monochorionic monoamniotic twins b. Monochorionic diamniotic twins c. Dichorionic diamniotic twins d. Monochorionic diamniotic twins
Dichorionic diamniotic twins
Which of the following is the most common renal anomaly? a. Horseshoe kidneys b. Pelvic kidneys c. Renal agenesis d. Duplex collecting system
Duplex collecting system
A strawberry-shaped skull is associated with : a. Edwards syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Patau syndrome
Edwards syndrome
Typically, with anencephaly, the MSAFP value will be : a. Elevated b. Decreased c. This laboratory finding is not helpful d. Unchanged
Elevated
All of the following are characteristics of spina bifida occulta except : a. Closed defect b. Elevated MSAFP c. Sacral dimple d. Hemangioma
Elevated MSAFP
Which of the following conditions does not affect the orbits? a. Cebocephaly b. Cyclopia c. Ethmocephaly d. Epignathus
Epignathus
The number of pregnancies is defined as : a. Gravidity b. Parity c. Primigravida d. Primiparous
Gravidity
The abdominal circumference should include all of the following except : a. The fetal stomach b. The fetal thoracic spine c. The umbilical vein d. The kidneys
The kidneys
Twins having two placentas and one amniotic sac are referred to as : a. Monochorionic diamniotic b. Monoamniotic dichorionic c. Dichorionic monoamniotic d. This does not occur
This does not occur
A molar pregnancy, omphalocele, and small, low-set ears are found most often with : a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. Triploidy
Triploidy
What is defined as the area located posterior to the broad ligaments and adjacent to the uterus, which contains the ovaries and fallopian tubes? a. Adnexa b. Paraovarian c. Pouch of Douglas d. Space of Retzius
Adnexa
The absence of the eyes is termed : a. Agyria b. Epignathus c. Hypertelorism d. Anophthalmia
Anophthalmia
All of the following are sonographic features of pentalogy of Cantrell except : a. Omphalocele b. Gastroschisis c. Cleft sternum d. Diaphragmatic defect
Gastroschisis
Hepatomegaly would least likely be associated with : a. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome b. Fetal anemia c. Intrauterine infections d. Gastroschisis
Gastroschisis
A group of anomalies characterized by a small or an absent left ventricle is : a. Turner syndrome b. Hypoplastic right heart syndrome c. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome d. Coarctation of the aorta
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
All of the following are associated with gastroschisis except : a. Normal cord insertion b. Multiple chromosomal abnormalities c. Elevated MSAFP d. Periumbilical mass
Multiple chromosomal abnormalities
The "lying down" adrenal sign would be seen in all of the following situations except : a. Unilateral renal agenesis b. Bilateral renal agenesis c. Potter syndrome d. Pyelectasis
Pyelectasis
Micrognathia is a condition found in : a. Dandy-Walker malformation b. Hydranencephaly c. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome d. Trisomy 18
Trisomy 18
The choroid plexus cyst could be associated with an increase risk of : a. Trisomy 13 b. Trisomy 4 c. Arnold-Chiari II malformation d. Trisomy 18
Trisomy 18
Acardiac twinning results from : a. Poor maternal nutrition b. Dizygotic gestations c. Abnormal links between the placental vessels d. Twin embolization syndrome
Abnormal links between the placental vessels
TRAP syndrome may also be referred to as : a. TTRS b. Vanishing twin syndrome c. Twin embolization syndrome d. Acardiac twinning
Acardiac twinning
Absence of the skull is : a. Hydranencephaly b. Schizencephaly c. Acrania d. Ventriculomegaly
Acrania
All of the following are clinical features of an ectopic pregnancy except : a. Pain b. Vaginal bleeding c. Shoulder pain d. Adnexal ring
Adnexal ring
All of the following are contributing factors for an ectopic pregnancy except : a. Pelvic inflammatory disease b. Assisted reproductive disease c. IUCD d. Advanced paternal age
Advanced paternal age
The "sunburst" of the cerebral sulci is a sonographic finding of : a. DWM b. Agenesis of the corpus callosum c. Colpocephaly d. Hydranencephaly
Agenesis of the corpus callosum
The inner membrane surrounding the fetus is referred to as the : a. Placenta b. Chorion c. Amnion d. Yolk sac
Amnion
The most common location of an ectopic pregnancy is the : a. Ovary b. Interstitial portion of the uterine tube c. Cornual portion of the uterine tube d. Ampullary portion of the uterine tube
Ampullary portion of the uterine tube
A cystic hygroma is the result of : a. Alcohol consumption in the first trimester b. An abnormal development of the roof of the fourth ventricle c. Occlusion of the internal carotid arteries d. An abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the soft tissue
An abnormal accumulation of lymphatic fluid within the soft tissue
The lemon sign denotes : a. An abnormal shape of the fetal skull b. A normal shape of the cerebellum c. An abnormal shape of the cerebellum d. A normal shape of the fetal skull
An abnormal shape of the fetal skull
Which of the following would be least likely associated with an elevated MSAFP? a. Pentalogy of Cantrell b. Anorectal atresia c. Gastroschisis c. Omphalocele
Anorectal atresia
The most common cause of hypertelorism is : a. Dandy-walker malformation b. Anencephaly c. Anterior cephalocele d. Holoprosencephaly
Anterior cephalocele
The foruth ventricle is located : a. Posterior to the CSP b. Between the frontal horns of the lateral ventricles c. Anterior to the cerebellar vermis d. Medial to the third ventricle
Anterior to the cerebellar vermis
Which of the following is a genetic disorder that includes craniosynostosis, midline facial hypoplasia, and syndactyly? a. Lobar holoprosencephaly b. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome c. Arnold-Chiari II malformation d. Apert syndrome
Apert syndrome
The measurement obtained between the lateral walls of the orbits is referred to as the : a. Interlocular diameter b. Binocular diameter c. Ocular diameter d. Biparietal diameter
Binocular diameter
What is the term for the fetal presentation that is head down? a. Breech b. Crown c. Cephalic d. Vertical
Cephalic
Which of the following forms of fetal presentation is the most common? a. Cephalic b. Complete breech c. Frank breech d. Transverse
Cephalic
A malignant form of GTD is : a. Choriocarcinoma b. Hydatidiform mole c. Anembryonic d. Hydropic villi
Choriocarcinoma
The outer membrane of the gestation is referred to as the : a. Placenta b. Chorion c. Amnion d. Yolk sac
Chorion
With a normal pregnancy, the first structure noted within the decidualized endometrium is the : a. Yolk sac b. Chorionic sac c. Amniotic cavity d. Embryo
Chorionic sac
The maternal serum screening of a mother with a fetus with trisomy 18 will reveal : a. Decreased hCG, elevated alpha-fetoprotein, and normal estriol b. Increased hCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and estriol c. Increased alpha-fetoprotein, increased hCG, and decreased estriol d. Decreased hCG, alpha-fetoprotein, and estriol
Decreased hCG, elevated alpha-fetoprotein, and normal estriol
Typically, the first sonographic manifestation of TTTS is : a. Oligohydramnios b. Polyhydramnios c. Dichorionic twinning d. Discordant fetal growth
Discordant fetal growth
All of the following may be visualized at the correct level of the head circumference except : a. Third ventricle b. Thalamus c. Cavum septum pellucidum d. Falx cerebelli
Falx cerebelli
The double fold of dura mater that divides the cerebral hemispheres is the : a. Cerebellum b. CSP c. Corpus callosum d. Falx cerebri
Falx cerebri
Fluid surrounding the fetal testicle is referred to as : a. Hydroureter b. Hydronephrosis c. Hydrocele d. Hydroscrotum
Hydrocele
Tetralogy of Fallot consists of all of the following except : a. Overriding aortic root b. VSD c. Pulmonary stenosis d. Left ventricular hypertrophy
Left ventricular hypertrophy
Which of the following would be least likely associated with immune hydrops? a. Fetal hepatomegaly b. Fetal splenomegaly c. Anasarca d. Leiomyoma
Leiomyoma
The lack of sulci within the fetal cerebrum is a reliable indicator of : a. Agenesis of the corpus callosum b. Lissencephaly c. Schizencephaly d. Porencephaly
Lissencephaly
In the TPAL designation, the "L" refers to : a. Living children b. Lethal anomalies c. Live births d. Lost pregnancies
Live births
Which of the following would not be normally located within the midline of the fetal brain? a. CSP b. Lobes of the thalamus c. Third ventricle d. Falx cerebri
Lobes of the thalamus
All of the following may be sonographic findings in the presence of an ectopic pregnancy except : a. Pseudogestational sac b. Corpus luteum cyst c. Adnexal ring d. Low beta-hCG
Low beta-hCG
All of the following are sonographic findings of esophageal atresia except : a. Absent stomach b. Polyhydramnios c. Macrosomia d. Intrauterine growth restriction
Macrosomia
The thalamic tissue located within the third ventricle of the brain that can become enlarged with Arnold-Chiari II malformation is the : a. Corpus callosum b. Cerebellar vermis c. Cavum septum pellucidum d. Massa intermedia
Massa intermedia
Pools of maternal blood noted within the placental substance are referred to as : a. Accessory lobes b. Decidual casts c. Chorioangiomas d. Maternal lakes
Maternal lakes
The syndrome associated with an occipital cephalocele, cystic renal disease, and polydactyly is : a. Meckel-Gruber syndrome b. Potter syndrome c. VACTERL association d. Sirenomelia syndrome
Meckel-Gruber syndrome
An omphalocele is associated with all of the following except : a. Pentalogy of Cantrell b. Trisomy 18 c. Patau syndrome d. Meconium aspiration syndrome
Meconium aspiration syndrome
Sirenomelia is commonly referred to as : a. Radial ray defect b. Rhizomelia c. Mermaid syndrome d. Rockerbottom feet
Mermaid syndrome
What is the most common fetal renal tumor? a. Neuroblastoma b. Nephroblastoma c. Mesoblastic nephroma d. Wilms tumor
Mesoblastic nephroma
A normal shaped skull is termed : a. Dolichocephaly b. Brachycephaly c. Mesocephaly d. Scaphocephaly
Mesocephaly
What is the term for a smaller than normal ear? a. Microphthalmia b. Micronatia c. Microtia d. Micrognathia
Microtia
All of the following would be associated with a lower-than-normal hCG level except : a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Molar pregnancy c. Blighted ovum d. Spontaneous abortion
Molar pregnancy
The most common location of a cystic hygroma is within the : a. Axilla b. Neck c. Chest d. Groin
Neck
The most common malignant adrenal pediatric tumor is the : a. Nephroblastoma b. Pheochromocytoma c. Hepatoblastoma d. Neuroblastoma
Neuroblastoma
All of the following are characteristics of spina bifida cystica except : a. Banana sign b. Lemon sign c. Enlarged massa intermedia d. Normal MSAFP
Normal MSAFP
During an 18-week sonogram, multiple cysts of varying sizes are noted within the renal fossa of a male fetus. The other kidney appears to be normal. Which of the following would be an associated finding? a. Megacystis b. Ovarian dysgenesis c. Hypospadias d. Normal amniotic fluid
Normal amniotic fluid
Absent long bones with the hands and feet arising from the shoulders and hips describes : a. Micromelia b. Mesomelia c. Phocomelia d. Arthrogryposis
Phocomelia
Which of the following would increase the likelihood of developing placenta previa? a. Vaginal bleeding b. Previous cesarean section c. Corpus albicans d. Chorioangioma
Previous cesarean section
What hormone, produced by the corpus luteum, maintains the thickened endometrium? a. Estrogen b. Progesterone c. hCG d. Luteinizing hormone
Progesterone
Which of the following would a newborn most likely suffer from if he or she were born prior to 32 weeks as a result of multiple gestation complications? a. Ascites b. Pulmonary hypoplasia c. Amnionitis d. Preeclampisa
Pulmonary hypoplasia
A separate mass of nonfunctioning fetal lung tissue is referred to as : a. Pulmonary adenomatoid malformation b. Pulmonary sequestration c. CAM d. Bat wing sign
Pulmonary sequestration
Absence of the radius is referred to as : a. Talipes equinovarus b. Clubfoot c. Radial ray defect d. Phocomelia
Radial ray defect
The twin that will appear larger in the TTTS is the : a. Donor b. Recipient c. Both will be the same d. Both will be demised
Recipient
With Rh isoimmunization, the maternal antibodies cross the placenta and destroy the fetal : a. Spleen b. Red blood cells c. Liver d. White blood cells
Red blood cells
Failure of the kidneys to form is called : a. Hydronephrosis b. Renal dysplasia c. Renal agenesis d. Renal ectopia
Renal agenesis
The "lying down" adrenal sign describes the sonographic findings of : a. Enlarged bladder and urethra b. Renal agenesis c. MCKD disease d. Posterior urethral valves
Renal agenesis
Optimal scan plane to visualize micrognathia is : a. Transverse b. Axial c. Sagittal d. Coronal
Sagittal
Rhizomelia denotes : a. Long upper extremities b. Shortening of an entire limb c. Shortening of the proximal segment of a limb d. Shortening of the distal segment of a limb
Shortening of the proximal segment of a limb
What condition is associated with bilateral renal agenesis, oligohydramnios, and fusion of the lower extremities? a. SCT b. Caudal displacement syndrome c. Sirenomelia d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
Sirenomelia
A myelomeningocele is associated with : a. Down syndrome b. Spina bifida c. Edwards syndrome d. Patau syndrome
Spina bifida
All of the following are sonographic findings of Arnold-Chiari II malformation except : a. Enlarged massa intermedia b. Hydrocephalus c. Obliteration of the cisterna magna d. Strawberry sign
Strawberry sign
What is it called when a twin fetus, suffering from TTTS, experiences severe oligohydramnios and becomes closely adhered to the uterine wall? a. Acardiac monster b. Vanishing twin c. Acardiac twin d. Stuck twin
Stuck twin
A sonographic examination was performed on a pregnancy patient who complained of vaginal bleeding. Sonographically, a crescent-shaped anechoic area is noted adjacent to the gestational sac. The gestational sac contained a 6-week single live IUP. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Molar pregnancy c. Subchorionic hemorrhage d. Anembryonic gestation
Subchorionic hemorrhage
Which of the following best describes transposition of the great vessels? a. The aorta arises from the left ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from the right ventricle b. The aorta arises from the right ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle c. The aortic arch is narrowed and positioned anterior to the pulmonary vein d. The presence of an omphalocele and ectopic cordis
The aorta arises from the right ventricle, and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle
Which of the following is not a true statement about the normal fetal heart? a. The ventricular septum should be uninterrupted and of equal thickness to the left ventricular wall b. There is a normal opening within the atrial septum c. Between the right ventricle and the right atrium, one should visualize the tricuspid valve d. The mitral valve is positioned closer to the cardiac apex than the tricuspid valve
The mitral valve is positioned closer to the cardiac apex than the tricuspid valve
An abnormal connection between the esophagus and trachea is termed : a. Esophageal-duodenal herniation b. Double bubble sign c. Esophageal atresia d. Tracheoesophageal fistula
Tracheoesophageal fistula
The most common sonographic appearance of pulmonary sequestration is a(n) : a. Dilated pulmonary artery and hypoechoic chest mass b. Pleural effusion and ipsilateral hiatal hernia c. Triangular, echogenic mass within the chest d. Anechoic mass within the chest
Triangular, echogenic mass within the chest
The most frequently encountered chromosomal abnormality associated with holoprosencephaly is : a. Triploidy b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 13
Trisomy 13
All of the following are associated with an abnormal NT except : a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 16 c. Trisomy 18 d. Turner syndrome
Trisomy 16
A strawberry-shaped skull is commonly associated with : a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 15 c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 13
Trisomy 18
Bilateral choroid plexus cysts, micrognathia, and rockerbottom feet are sonographic findings of a 27-week fetus with an omphalocele. These findings are most consistent with : a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 13 c. Trisomy 18 d. Triploidy
Trisomy 18
Absent nasal bones in an increased nuchal measurement is most consistent with the sonographic markers for : a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 13 c. Triploidy d. Trisomy 18
Trisomy 21
An EIF would most likely be associated with : a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 13 c. Trisomy 8 d. Turner syndrome
Trisomy 21
An absent or hypoplastic nasal bone is most likely associated with : a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 15 c. Trisomy 18 d. Tuner syndrome
Trisomy 21
An increased nuchal fold is most likely associated with : a. Dandy-walker malformation b. Trisomy 21 c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 13
Trisomy 21
What chromosomal anomaly is associated with echogenic bowel? a. Trisomy 18 b. Trisomy 13 c. Trisomy 21 d. Triploidy
Trisomy 21
The demise of a twin can lead to the development of neurological complications in the living twins as a result of : a. Twin embolization syndrome b. TTTS c. TRAP syndrome d. Dichorinicity
Twin embolization syndrome
The demise of a twin during the second or third trimester can lead to : a. TTTS b. Twin embolization syndrome c. Twin peak sign d. Acardiac twinning
Twin embolization syndrome
The most common cause of hydrocephalus in utero is : a. Cerebral hemorrhage b. Holoprosencephaly c. Brain tumors d. Aqueductal stenosis
Aqueductal stenosis
A lemon-shaped skull is related to : a. Trisomy 2 b. Arnold-Chiari II malformation c. Thanatophoric dysplasia d. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
Arnold-Chiari II malformation
Fetal contribution to the placenta is the : a. Chorionic vera b. Decidua vera c. Decidua basalis d. Chorion frondosum
Chorion frondosum
Which term relates the number of placentas? a. Chorionicity b. Zygosity c. Amnionicity d. Cleavage
Chorionicity
The abnormal lateral ventricle shape in which there is a small frontal horn and enlarged occipital horn is referred to as : a. Cebocephaly b. Banana sign c. Colpocephaly d. Cephalocele
Colpocephaly
The condition in which the frontal horns are small and the occipital horns are enlarged is referred to as : a. Ethmocephaly b. Hydrocephalus c. Colpocephaly d. Encephalitis
Colpocephaly
With which of the following syndromes is brachycephaly associated most often? a. Edwards syndrome b. Patau syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Turner syndrome
Down syndrome
What is the fetal shunt that connects the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch? a. Foramen ovale b. Ductus arteriosis c. Ductus venosis d. Foramen of Bochdalek
Ductus arteriosis
The congenital absence of part of the esophagus is termed : a. Duodenal atresia b. VACTERL association c. Down syndrome d. Esophageal atresia
Esophageal atresia
The sonographic finding of a fluid-filled cranium with absence of cerebral tissue is consistent with : a. Hydrocephalus b. Hydranencephaly c. Holoprosencephaly d. Schizencephaly
Hydranencephaly
The "I" in OEIS complex stands for : a. Imperforate anus b. Ilial dysfunction c. Irregular bladder enlargement d. Iniencephaly
Imperforate anus
Which of the following would be the most difficult to detect sonographically? a. Cleft lip and palate b. Isolated cleft lip c. Isolated cleft palate d. isolated median cleft
Isolated cleft palate
Which of the following is described as the situation in which the placental edge extends into the lower uterine segment but ends more than 2 cm away from the internal os? a. Low-lying placenta b. Marginal previa c. Partial previa d. Total previa
Low-lying placenta
Upon sonographic interrogation of a 28-week pregnancy, you note that when pressure is applied to the fetal skull, the skull can be easily distorted. This is sonographic evidence of : a. Arnold-Chiari II malformation b. Achondroplasia c. Thanatophoric dysplasia d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Fusion of the orbits and holoprosencephaly are associated with : a. Edwards syndrome b. Turner syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Patau syndrome
Patau syndrome
What condition is pregnancy-induced maternal high blood pressure and excess protein in the urine after 20 weeks' gestation? a. Gestational diabetes b. Preeclampsia c. Porencephaly d. Maternal mirror syndrome
Preeclampsia
Which of the following would increase the likelihood of a fetus developing sirenomelia and caudal regression syndrome? a. Previous cesarean section b. Preexisting maternal diabetes c. Previous ectopic pregnancy d. Elevated human chorionic gonadotropin
Preexisting maternal diabetes
What is the term for conjoined twins attached at the sacral region? a. Sacralpagus b. Omphalopagus c. Pyopagus d. Thoracopagus
Pyopagus
Which of the following is not a sonographic sign of a dichorionic diamniotic gestation? a. Twin peak sign b. Lambda sign c. Delta sign d. T sign
T sign
The shunting of blood from one twin to the other is termed : a. TTTS b. Twin embolization syndrome c. Twin peak syndrome d. Conjoined twins
TTTS
A fetus with a karyotype revealing it has 69 chromosomes and sonographic findings of webbed fingers and intrauterine growth restriction most likely has : a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Triploidy d. Turner syndrome
Triploidy
Theca lutein cysts would most likely be linked with molar pregnancy and : a. Down syndrome b. Intrauterine growth restriction c. Triploidy d. Monosomy X
Triploidy
Another name for Patau syndrome is : a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 16 c. Trisomy 18 d. Trisomy 13
Trisomy 13
Which of the following would most likely involve the development of a cystic hygroma? a. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome b. Hydranencephaly c. Turner syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome
Turner syndrome
All of the following complications are associated with multiple gestations except : a. Preterm delivery b. High birth weight c. Maternal anemia d. Maternal preeclampsia
High birth weight
Compared with a normal IUP, the ectopic pregnancy will have a : a. High hCG b. Low hCG c. Markedly elevated hCG d. High AFP
Low hCG
Cryptorchidism describes : a. Bilateral pelvic kidneys b. Urethral atresia c. Undescended testicles d. Ovarian dysgenesis
Undescended testicles
An omphalocele may contain : a. Fetal liver b. Ascites c. Fetal colon d. All of the above
All of the above
The band of tissue that allows communication between the right and left cerebral hemispheres is the : a. Falx cerebri b. Corpus callosum c. Cerebellar vermis d. CSP
Corpus callosum
Sonographically, a normal appearing 7-week IUP is identified. Within the adnexa, an ovarian cystic structure with a thick, hyperechoic rim is also discovered. What does this ovarian mass most likely represent? a. Theca lutein cyst b. Corpus luteum cyst c. Corpus albicans d. Ectopic pregnancy
Corpus luteum cyst
Which of the following is also referred to as trisomy 21? a. Edwards syndrome b. Patau syndrome c. Meckel-Gruber syndrome d. Down syndrome
Down syndrome
The "double bubble" sign is indicative of : a. Esophageal atresia b. Duodenal atresia c. Hydrocephalus d. Anorectal atresia
Duodenal atresia
The most common form of diaphragmatic hernia is the : a. Foramen of Morgagni b. Foramen of Magendie c. Foramen of Luschka d. Foramen of Bochdalek
Foramen of Bochdalek
Which of the following should not be included in the correct level for a HC measurement? a. Falx cerebri b. Fourth ventricle c. Thalamus d. CSP
Fourth ventricle
With what structure does the posterior fossa cyst associated with DWM communicate? a. Fourth ventricle b. Third ventricle c. Cerebellar vermis d. Cerebral aqueduct
Fourth ventricle
What is the fetal presentation when the fetal buttocks are closest to the cervix? a. Footling breech b. Frank breech c. Complete breech d. Transverse
Frank breech
Something that is idiopathic is said to be : a. Caused by a functional abnormality b. Related to fetal development c. From an unknown cause d. Found incidentally
From an unknown cause
All of the following are clinical features of placental abruption except : a. Vaginal bleeding b. Uterine tenderness c. Abdominal pain d. Funneling of the cervix
Funneling of the cervix
Evidence of polyhydramnios should warrant a careful investigation of the fetal : a. Genitourinary system b. Gastrointestinal system c. Extremities d. Cerebrovascular system
Gastrointestinal system
Pentalogy of Cantrell includes all of the following findings except : a. Cardiovascular malformations b. Diaphragmatic malformations c. Omphalocele d. Gastroschisis
Gastroschisis
Which of the following best describes a choledochal cyst? a. It is the cystic dilation of the common bile duct b. It is the herniation of the abdominal contents into the umbilical cord c. It is the congenital absence of the abdominal contents into the umbilical cord d. It is the inflammation of the biliary tree caused by extrinsic obstruction
It is the cystic dilation of the common bile duct
Fetal lung maturity can be assessed using the : a. LS ratio b. Systolic to diastolic ratio c. Estriol to alpha-fetoprotein ratio d. Lung size formula
LS ratio
An EIF is most often seen within the : a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle
Left ventricle
All of the following are consistent with a complete hydatidiform mole except : a. Heterogeneous mass within the endometrium b. Bilateral theca lutein cysts c. Hyperemesis gravidarum d. Low hCG
Low hCG
Which of the following is the most likely metastatic location for GTD? a. Rectum b. Pancreas c. Spleen d. Lungs
Lungs
Numerous noncommunicating anechoic masses are noted within the left renal fossa of a fetus at 20 weeks gestation. What is the most likely etiology of these masses? a. ARPKD b. ADPKD c. MCDK disease d. Hydronephrosis
MCDK disease
Which of the following laboratory values would be significant in the detection of an abdominal wall defect? a. MSAFP b. Human chorionic gonadotropin c. Maternal serum amylase d. Estradiol
MSAFP
An unusual protuberance of the tongue is termed : a. Epignathus b. Macrognathia c. Pharyngoglossia d. Macroglossia
Macroglossia
A cisterna magna that measure 15 mm and a normal appearing cerebellum is most likely : a. Arnold-Chiari II malformation b. Schizencephaly c. Mega cisterna magna d. DWM
Mega cisterna magna
A large space between the first and second toes is termed : a. Polydactyly b. Clubfoot c. Ulnaration d. Sandal gap
Sandal gap
What is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in the neonate and the most common form of fetal renal obstruction? a. UVJ obstruction b. UPJ obstruction c. Vesicoureteral reflux d. Urethral atresia
UPJ obstruction
All of the following would be associated with oligohydramnios except : a. Bilateral MCDK disease b. Unilateral renal agenesis c. Bilateral renal agenesis d. ARPKD
Unilateral renal agenesis
Which of the following best describes the optimal instance to take the femur length measurement? a. When the epiphyseal plates are clearly identified and the shaft is parallel to the sound beam b. When the diaphysis of the femur is parallel to the sound beam c. When the long axis of the femoral shaft is perpendicular to the the sound beam d. When the femoral shaft is parallel to the sound beam
When the long axis of the femoral shaft is perpendicular to the the sound beam
Which of the following is not part of the biophysical profile? a. Fetal swallowing b. Flexion of the limb c. Amniotic fluid d. Fetal breathing
Fetal swallowing
The majority of amniotic fluid is composed of : a. Fetal blood b. Fetal serous fluid c. Maternal serous fluid d. Fetal urine
Fetal urine
What is the maternal dietary supplement that has been shown to significantly reduce the likelihood of the fetus suffering from a neural tube defect? a. AFP b. Estriol c. Folate d. Pregnancy protein A
Folate
Mother with pregestational diabetes, as opposed to gestational diabetes, have an increased risk of a fetus with : a. Neural tube defects b. Proteinuria c. TORCH d. Diethylstilbestrol
Neural tube defects
All of the following are associated with omphalocele except : a. Normal cord insertion b. Multiple chromosomal abnormalities c. Elevated MSAFP d. Periumbilical mass
Normal cord insertion
Increased S/D ratio is associated with all of the following except : a. IUGR b. Placental insufficiency c. Allantoic cysts d. Perinatal mortality
Allantoic cysts
OEIS complex is also referred to as: A. Bladder exstrophy B. Omphalocele C. Potter syndrome D. Cloacal exstrophy
Cloacal exstrophy
The term that indicated the presence of two separate amniotic sacs is : a. Dichorionic b. Bichorionic c. Monoamniotic d. Diamniotic
Diamniotic
The normal heart will fill approximately _______ of the fetal chest. a. One half b. One-fourth c. One-fifth d. One-third
One-third
Achondroplasia is associated with all of the following except : a. Frontal bossing b. Flattened nasal bridge c. Trident hand d. Absent mineralization of the skull
Absent mineralization of the skull
A disorder that results in abnormal bone growth and dwarfism is : a. Osteogenesis imperfecta b. Achondroplasia c. Radial ray defect d. Caudal regression syndrome
Achondroplasia
The most common nonlethal skeletal dysplasia is : a. Achondrogenesis b. Achondroplasia c. Thanatophoric dysplasia d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
Achondroplasia
Which of the following artifacts is produced when the sound beam is barely attenuated through a fluid or a fluid-containing structure? a. Reverberation artifact b. Comet tail artifact c. Posterior shadowing d. Acoustic enhancement
Acoustic enhancement
All of the following are produced by the placenta except : a. Alpha-Fetoprotein b. hCG c. PAPP-A d. Inhibin A
Alpha-Fetoprotein
The protein that is produced by the yolk sac, fetal gastrointestinal tract, and the fetal liver is : a. Alpha-fetoprotein b. hCG c. PAPP-A d. Inhibin A
Alpha-fetoprotein
Which of the following best describes hypospadias? a. OEIS complex in the presence of a hydrocele b. The chronic obstruction of the renal pelvis and urethra c. The underdevelopment of the scrotum in the presence of a hydrocele d. An abnormal ventral curvature of the penis
An abnormal ventral curvature of the penis
Prune belly syndrome is caused by : a. An enlarged bladder b. Unilateral renal agenesis c. Bilateral renal agenesis d. Hypospadias
An enlarged bladder
Which of the following would not typically produce an elevation in hCG? a. Down syndrome b. Anembryonic pregnancy c. Triploidy d. Molar pregnancy
Anembryonic pregnancy
The congenital maldevelopment of the rectum and absence of anal opening is termed : a. Jejunal atresia b. Intussusception c. Anorectal atresia d. Duodenal atresia
Anorectal atresia
Which of the following is considered to be the most common type of colonic atresia? a. Duodenal atresia b. Jejunal atresia c. Anorectal atresia d. Intussusception
Anorectal atresia
The third ventricle communicates with the fourth ventricle at the : a. Foramen of Magendie b. Foramen of Luschka c. Foramen of Monro d. Aqueduct of Sylvius
Aqueduct of Sylvius
The group of fetal head and brain abnormalities that often coexists with spina bifida is referred to as : a. Dandy-Walker malformation b. Budd-Chiari syndrome c. Arnold-Chiari II malformation d. Amniotic band syndrome
Arnold-Chiari II malformation
What abnormality results in limitation of the fetal limbs as a result of joint contractures? a. Acromegaly b. Radial ray defect c. Achondrogenesis d. Arthrogryposis
Arthrogryposis
The condition associated with the absence of the sacrum and coccyx : a. LBWC b. Caudal regression syndrome c. Thanatophoric dwarfism d. Heterozygous achondroplasia
Caudal regression syndrome
At what level is the nuchal fold measurement obtained? a. Cavum septum pellucidum b. Occipital horns of the lateral ventricle c. Brain stem d. Foramen magna
Cavum septum pellucidum
In the early gestation, where is the secondary yolk sac located? a. Chorionic activity b. Bas of the umbilical cord c. Embryonic cranium d. Amniotic cavity
Chorionic activity
What are the fingerlike projections of gestational tissue that attach to the decidualized endometrium? a. Decidua capsularis b. Decidua vera c. Chorionic villi d. Placental substance
Chorionic villi
During a 12-week sonogram, bilateral echogenic structures are noted within the lateral ventricles of the fetal cranium. These structures most likely represent : a. Cerebral tumors b. Cerebral hemorrhage c. Anencephalic remnants d. Choroid plexus
Choroid plexus
The narrowing of the aortic arch is indicative of : a. Tetralogy of Fallot b. Coarctation of the aorta c. Ebstein anomaly d. Hypoplastic right heart syndrome
Coarctation of the aorta
What is the most common form of GTD? a. Complete molar pregnancy b. Partial molar pregnancy c. Invasive mole d. Choriocarcinoma
Complete molar pregnancy
What is another name for the most common chromosomal abnormality? a. Edwards syndrome b. Triploidy c. Down syndrome d. Turner syndrome
Down syndrome
Widened pelvic angles and duodenal atresia are most consistent with the sonographic markers for : a. Triploidy b. Patau syndrome c. Down syndrome d. Edwards syndrome
Down syndrome
What structure shunts blood into the IVC from the umbilical vein? a. Ductus venosus b. Ductus arteriosus c. Foramen ovale d. Foramen of Luschka
Ductus venosus
Congenital maldevelopment of the proximal portion of the small intestine is termed : a. VACTERL association b. Esophageal atresia c. Duodenal atresia c. Jejunal atresia
Duodenal atresia
The condition in which there is no nose and a proboscis separating two close-set orbitis is : a. Ethmocephaly b. Epignathus c. Micrognathia d. Cebocephaly
Ethmocephaly
All of the following would be an indication for a thirs-trimester sonogram except : a. Evaluate NT b. Evaluate fetal presentation c. Evaluate fetal growth d. Evaluate gestational age
Evaluate NT
Another name for the chorionic sac is the : a. Chorionic cavity b. Extraembryonic coelom c. Amniotic sac d. Gestational sac
Gestational sac
A group of anomalies characterized by a small or an absent right ventricle is : a. Turner syndrome b. Hypoplastic right heart syndrome c. Hypoplastic left heart syndrome d. Coarctation of the aorta
Hypoplastic right heart syndrome
A reduction in the distance between the orbits is referred to as : a. Anophthalmia b. Micrognathia c. Hypertelorism d. Hypotelorism
Hypotelorism
What is the term for enlargement of the urinary bladder? a. Posterior urethral valves b. Urethral atresia c. Prune belly syndrome d. Megacystis
Megacystis
The most common form of monozygotic twins is : a. Monochorionic diamniotic b. Dichorionic monoamniotic c. Monochorionic monoamniotic d. None of the above
Monochorionic diamniotic
What would be most likely confused for a uterine leiomyoma? a. Placental infarct b. Chorioangioma c. Myometrial contraction d. Placenta previa
Myometrial contraction
All of the following are sonographic signs of Ebstein anomaly except : a. Enlarged right atrium b. Fetal hydrops c. Narrowing of the aortic arch d. Malpositioned tricuspid valve
Narrowing of the aortic arch
the anechoic space along the posterior aspect of the fetal neck is the : a. Nuchal fold b. Nuchal cord c. Nuchal translucency d. Rhombencephalon
Nuchal translucency
All of the following are associated with esophageal atresia except : a. Down syndrome b. VACTERL association c. Edwards syndrome d. Oligohydramnios
Oligohydramnios
Conjoined twins that are attached at the abdomen are referred to as : a. Omphalopagus b. Thoracopagus c. Ileopagus d. Craniopagus
Omphalopagus
A bell-shaped chest and multiple fetal fractures are indicative of : a. Thanatophoric dysplasia b. Caudal regression syndrome c. Achondrogenesis d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
Osteogenesis imperfecta
The accumulation of fluid around the lungs is termed : a. Ascites b. Extracorporeal effusion c. Peripleural fluid d. Pleural effusion
Pleural effusion
Duodenal atresia and esophageal atresia are associated with : a. Oligohydramnios b. Polyhydramnios c. Normal amniotic fluid index d. Anhydramnios
Polyhydramnios
Obstruction at the level of the UPJ would lead to dilation of the: a. Renal pelvis and bladder b. Bladder and ureter c. Ureter and renal pelvis d. Renal pelvis and calices
Renal pelvis and calices
The development of fluid-filled cleft within the cerebrum is consistent with : a. Holoprosencephaly b. Lissencephaly c. Schizencephaly d. Hydranencephaly
Schizencephaly
The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is referred to as : a. Kyphosis b. Scoliosis c. Splaying d. Achondroplasia
Scoliosis
Which statement is true concerning fetal outflow tracts? a. The normal pulmonary artery should be positioned posterior to the aorta and should be visualized passing under it b. The normal pulmonary artery should be positioned anterior to the aorta and should be visualized crossing over it c. The right ventricular outflow tract leads to the aorta d. The left ventricular outflow tract leads to the pulmonary artery
The normal pulmonary artery should be positioned anterior to the aorta and should be visualized crossing over it
What is macroglossia most often associated with? a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Triploidy d. Turner syndrome
Trisomy 21
Which of the following is most often associated with duodenal atresia? a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. Triploidy
Trisomy 21
Which of the following are fetal rhabdomyomas associated with? a. Tracheoesophageal fistulas b. Tuberous sclerosis c. Eventration of the diaphragm d. Tuberculosis
Tuberous sclerosis
Which of the following would be least likely associated with an elevation in MSAFP? a. Anencephaly b. Turner syndrome c. Spina bifida d. Myelomeningocele
Turner syndrome
The normal umbilical cord has : a. One vein and one artery b. Two veins and two arteries c. Two veins and one artery d. Two arteries and one vein
Two arteries and one vein
The embryonic heart begins as : a. Two tubes b. Four tubes c. Eight folds d. One tube
Two tubes
The migration of the embryologic bowel into the base of the umbilical cord at 9 weeks is referred to as : a. Physiological bowel herniation b. Pseudo-omphalocele c. Omphalocele d. Gastroschisis
Physiological bowel herniation
All of the following are signs of Arnold-Chiari II malformation except : a. S-shaped spine b. Banana sign c. Lemon sign d. Colpocephaly
S-shaped spine
The exaggerated distance between the first toe and the second toe is : a. Trident toes b. Sandal gap c. Phocomelia d. Mesomelia
Sandal gap
The most common location of an ectopic kidney is within the : a. Lower abdomen b. Pelvis c. Chest d. Contralateral quadrant
Pelvis
Sonographically, you visualize a mass extending from the distal spine of a fetus. This mass could be all of the following except : a. SCT b. Meningocele c. Meningomyelocele d. Phocomeningocele
Phocomeningocele
The herniation of the bowel into the base of the umbilical cord before 12 weeks is termed : a. Gastroschisis b. Omphalocele c. Hernia umbilicus d. Physiologic herniation
Physiologic herniation
Penetration of the placenta beyond the uterine wall would be referred to as : a. Placenta accrete b. Placenta increta c. Placenta previa d. Placenta percreta
Placenta percreta
One of the most common causes of painless vaginal bleeding in the second and third trimesters is : a. Spontaneous abortion b. Abruptio placentae c. Placenta previa d. Placenta accreta
Placenta previa
Painless second-trimester vaginal bleeding is most often associated with : a. Placental abruption b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Miscarriage d. Placenta previa
Placenta previa
Which protein is not produced by the developing placenta? a. Alpha-fetoprotein b. hCG c. Estriol d. PAPP-A
Alpha-fetoprotein
All of the following are observed during a biophysical profile except : a. Fetal tone b. Thoracic movement c. Fetal breathing d. Fetal circulation
Fetal circulation
Which of the following is not consistent with the diagnosis of nonimmune hydrops? a. Hypoplastic mandible b. Pleural effusion c. Ascites d. Subcutaneous edema
Hypoplastic mandible
The artifact seen posterior to solid structures such as fetal bones is referred to as : a. Acoustic shadowing b. Posterior enhancement c. Reverberation artifact d. Edge artifact
Acoustic shadowing
An anechoic mass is noted within the umbilical cord during a routine sonographic examination. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Hemangioma b. Vasa previa c. Chorioangioma d. Allantoic cyst
Allantoic cyst
The triple screen typically includes : a. Alpha-fetoprotein, estriol, and hCG b. Alpha-fetoprotein, amniotic fluid index, and hCG c. Alpha-fetoprotein, estriol, and PAPP-A d. PAPP-A, inhibin A, and hCG
Alpha-fetoprotein, estriol, and hCG
The birth defect in which the sex of the fetus cannot be determined defines : a. Renal agenesis b. Ovarian dysgenesis c. Clitorimegaly d. Ambiguous genitalia
Ambiguous genitalia
Which of the following can occur as a result of dizygotic twinning? a. Monochorionic diamniotic twins b. Monochorionic monoamniotic twins c. Dichorionic diamniotic twins d. All of the above
Dichorionic diamniotic twins
All of the following are characteristic sonographic findings of achondrogenesis except : a. Micromelia b. Absent mineralization of the pelvis c. Multiple dislocated joints d. Polyhydramnios
Multiple dislocated joints
Nonimmune hydrops and ovarian dysgenesis are found in fetuses affected by : a. Trisomy 21 b. Trisomy 18 c. Trisomy 13 d. Turner syndrome
Turner syndrome
All of the following are sonographic findings consistent with ectopic pregnancy except : a. Decidual thickening b. Complex free fluid within the pelvis c. Bilateral, multiloculated ovarian cyst d. Complex adnexal mass separate from the ipsilateral ovary
Bilateral, multiloculated ovarian cyst
Typically, with gastroschisis, the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein value will be : a. Elevated b. Decreased c. This laboratory finding is not helpful d. Unchanged
Elevated