VetPrep Questions

B 85% 70-90% of all feline mammary tumors are malignant. Spaying a cat before 6 months of age reduces the risk for mammary tumors by 7 fold. The statistics for dogs is a 50:50 chance of malignancy for a single mammary mass.

A 10-year old female spayed Siamese cat presents for a new lump the owner found a month ago. She was spayed last year before she was adopted from the shelter. The owner states that the lump has grown over the last month, and it doesn't seem to bother the cat. On exam, the 2 cm lump is located on the left 2nd mammary gland, and no other lumps are noted. The lump is freely moveable, and chest radiographs are clear. What is the chance that this tumor is malignant? a. 20% b. 85% c. 50% d. 5%

A blood pressure The correct answer is blood pressure. Cats with hyperthyroidism are likely to develop hypertension. If this is severe enough (>180-200 mmHg systolic), they can be at risk for acute retinal detachment or hemorrhage resulting in blindness. Prompt resolution of the hypertension is critical to prevent further damage to the eye and other organs.

A 10-year old male castrated cat that you have previously diagnosed with hyperthyroidism presents to you for acute onset of blindness. You perform an ophthalmic exam and note retinal hemorrhage. What diagnostic test should you perform first? a. Blood pressure b. Total T4 levels c. Serum BUN and creatinine d. Free T4 levels by equilibrium dialysis e. Coagulation times

B vesicular stomatitis VS affects horses, cattle and pigs with similar clinical signs. It is a viral disease of high morbidity and low mortality that appears about every 7 to 10 years in the Southwestern United States. Yearly outbreaks occur in southern Mexico and northern South America. Black flies and midges appear to be the vectors. Affected premises should be quarantined.

You are called one hot summer day to see a group of horses in New Mexico which are slobbering and not eating their hay. Three out of 20 horses seem to be visibly affected. On physical exam of the first one, you find fever of 104 F (40 C) and obvious oral ulcers as shown in the image, mainly on the tongue. What is your tentative diagnosis? a. Glanders b. Vesicular Stomatitis c. Foot and Mouth disease d. Bovine Papular Stomatitis e. African Horse Sickness

B 60 ml The correct answer is 60 ml. In order to raise the PCV 1% you will need to give 1ml/kg of packed red blood cells. So it takes 6mls to raise this cat's PCV by 1%. If we are going to increase it by 10% we will need 60ml of packed red blood cells.

You have a 6-kg cat that you wish to raise his PCV from 15 to 25%. You plan to administer packed red blood cells. How many milliliters of packed red blood cells will this cat need? a. 30 ml b. 60 ml c. 120 ml d. 15 ml

A left lung The correct answer is left lung. On a right lateral radiograph, the right side is down. In this situation, the right lung lobes are compressed and the left lung lobes inflated, accentuating a mass in the left lung. On a left lateral radiograph, the left lobes are compressed and a mass in the left lung can be concealed due to compression of the lung surrounding the mass.

If a mass appears in the lungs on a right lateral radiograph but not on a left lateral radiograph, where is the mass located? a. Left lung b. Mediastinum c. Body wall d. Right lung

D doxycycline The correct answer is doxycycline. There is also evidence that clindamycin can cause stricture formation. For this reason, it is recommended that after pilling a cat with doxycycline, it is followed with a small volume (5-10 mls) of water.

Oral administration of which of these drugs has been implicated as a cause of esophageal strictures in cats? a. Azithromycin b. Potassium bromide c. Diazepam d. Doxycycline

A shed thru saliva The correct answer is shedding of virus via saliva. The main mode of transmission is via saliva. It requires prolonged, close contact. Cats may shed the virus for months to years. Transmission may also occur through reuse of instruments and blood. Virus is shed in saliva, tears, urine, and feces.

What is the main mode of transmission for feline leukemia virus? a. Shedding of virus via saliva b. Aerosol transmission c. Shedding of virus via feces d. Fomite transmission

E tooth rot abscess The correct answer is tooth root abscess. Commonly the first molar teeth are involved. Clinical signs include weight loss, quidding (dropping half chewed feed), halitosis, swelling, and unilateral purulent nasal discharge.

What is the most common cause of maxillary sinusitis in a horse, as seen in the necropsy image below? a. Foreign body b. Guttural pouch mycosis c. Dentigerous cyst d. Brachygnathia e. Tooth root abscess

B SCC The correct answer is squamous cell carcinoma.

What is the most common neoplasia seen in the equine stomach? a. Lymphosarcoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Mesothelioma d. Gastric adenocarcinoma

B high Ca/P Excessive intake of vitamin D is associated with an increase in 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 levels. At high levels, 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 competes with 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 for its receptors on the intestines and bone causing increased absorption of Ca and P from the intestinal tract and resorption of bone causing increased levels of circulating Ca and P. A common source of confusion is that this is in contrast to PTH which causes high Ca but generally causes unchanged or normal phosphorus because it also enhances renal phosphorus excretion.

What profile would you expect in a dog with hypervitaminosis D? a. Low Ca, High P b. High Ca, High P c. High Ca, Low P d. Low Ca, Low P

B sheep MCF virus is ovine herpes virus-2 (OvHV-2) and is carried by 95-99% of sheep in North America which show no symptoms. It is also carried by 75% of domestic goats, 40% of muskox, 37% of bighorn sheep, 25% of pronghorn antelope, 62% of mouflon sheep, and by a small percentage of elk, mule deer, and white tailed deer. Susceptible hosts include cattle, water buffalo, deer, pigs, and bison; bison are the most susceptible.

What species is the principle carrier and vector of Malignant Catarrhal Fever (MCF) virus in North America? a. Bison b. Sheep c. Donkey d. Cattle e. Horse

C fibrosarcoma The correct answer is fibrosarcoma. Vaccine-associated fibrosarcomas are very well documented in cats.

What tumor type is a cat predisposed to developing at vaccination sites? a. Lymphoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Fibrosarcoma d. Melanoma

B Timothy hay The correct answer is timothy hay. Of these choices, the only feed with low potassium is timothy hay. A low potassium diet is the most important nutritional modification in the treatment of HYPP. Regular exercise and feeding smaller, frequent meals can also reduce clinical signs. This disease is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion, and owners should be discouraged from breeding affected animals.

Which of these would be appropriate for a horse with hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP)? a. Brome hay b. Timothy hay c. Beet molasses d. Alfalfa hay

B Ivermectin 2x, early summer/fall This case describes the appearance of the horse bot fly, Gasterophilus spp. Gasterophilus is frequently asymptomatic but treatment is recommended because bots can cause gastritis and frequently are a source of annoyance and stress to horses. In addition, the larval instars can cause stomatitis, and colic. The key to answering this question regarding optimal treatment and management is an understanding of the Gasterophilus life cycle. Gasterophilus undergoes complete metamorphosis, including three larval instars and only one generation is produced per year. The general cycle typically begins with the female ovipositing 150-1,000 eggs on a horse during the early summer months directly on single hairs of the horse's front legs (especially around the cannon bone area) as well as the abdomen, flanks, and shoulders. The eggs are approximately 1-2mm long and are pale to grayish yellow attached near the tip of the hair. The eggs develop into first instar larvae within five days and they are stimulated to emerge by the horse licking or biting at the fully developed eggs. The larvae then crawl to the mouth or are ingested and subsequently bury themselves in the tongue or gingiva and remain for approximately 28 days. The larvae molt to the second stage and move into the stomach. The second and later third stage larvae typically attach to the lining of the stomach in the non-glandular portion near the junction of the esophageal and cardiac regions where they remain immobile for the following 9 to 12 months. The third instar larvae are relatively large, between 1-2cm long with a rounded body, narrow, hooked mouthparts, and spines. The hooked mouthparts enable the larvae to securely attach to the lining of the stomach and intestinal tract. After the third instar larvae have matured, they detach from the gastrointestinal tract and pass from the horse's body in the feces. The larvae burrow into the soil or dried manure where they pupate and remain for the next one to two months. This stage of the life cycle occurs between late winter and early spring. Based on this life cycle, the recommended management protocol is typically to treat with an avermectin to control adults and all larval stages by administering in the early summer, shortly after any eggs are seen and again in the fall at the end of the botfly season. Such a control program will substantially reduce fly numbers.

You are asked to perform a necropsy on a 17-year old Standardbred mare on a large horse ranch. Although not related to the cause of death, you notice the parasite shown in the image within the stomach. You tell the owner that this parasite is also responsible for the eggs that he sees seasonally on the hair of the front legs of his horses. The owner asks what should be done about this. You discuss the importance of promptly cleaning up feces and transporting feces away. In addition, which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for ongoing control of this parasite? a. Administer ivermectin twice annually, once in the early spring and again in the winter b. Administer ivermectin twice annually, once in the early summer and again in the fall c. There is no need to treat these parasites because they are not associated with disease in horses d. Administer fenbendazole twice annually, once in the early summer and again in late summer e. Administer fenbendazole twice annually, once in the early spring and again in the fall

A laminitis The correct answer is laminitis secondary to endotoxemia. Laminitis, endotoxemia, and diarrhea are commonly associated with grain overload and appropriate therapy to evacuate any remaining stomach contents, ameliorate endotoxin and prevent laminitis should be instituted immediately. Laxatives such as mineral oil are commonly administered.

A horse presents to your clinic after ingesting a large amount of grain. What is your major concern? a. Laminitis b. Acidosis c. Impaction d. Choke e. Torsion

B desmopressin acetate The correct answer is desmopressin acetate (DDAVP). Administration of desmopressin results in release of von Willebrand factor, which will help this patient with clotting. Given this dog's breed and elevated BMBT there is a very strong likelihood she is afflicted with von Willebrand's disease. In Dobermans this results in an inability to form a clot. This can be life threatening if the dog is taken to surgery. A whole blood transfusion does not provide an adequate source of von Willebrand factor but may be necessary if the patient's bleeding cannot be controlled despite appropriate pre-operative measures. 1,25 dihydrocholecalciferol is the active form of vitamin D which aids intestinal resorption of calcium. The BMBT does not assess factors 2, 7, 9, or 10 and therefore vitamin K is not indicated.

A 1-year old female spayed Doberman Pinscher has presented after being hit by a car. Initial chest radiographs show mild contusions, and the patient appears to be otherwise stable. A right mid-shaft long oblique femoral fracture has been identified. Routine pre-operative blood work is unremarkable. A buccal mucosal bleeding test (BMBT) is elevated at 6 minutes. What will you administer prior to surgery? a. 1,25 dihydrocholecalciferol b. Desmopressin acetate c. Vitamin k d. Whole blood transfusion

A sarcoptes infestation The key to this question is that Sarcoptic mange is extremely pruritic and can be transmitted to people, including this dog's owner. Diagnosis of this disease is usually based on clinical impression and potential for exposure to the mites. A positive skin scraping would be most definitive, but scrapes often come back negative and trial therapy would need to be instituted. Demodex is not transmittable to people and does not typically cause extreme pruritus like Sarcoptes. Lymphoma and squamous cell carcinoma are less likely because they typically would occur in older animals and neither are usually particularly itchy.

A 1-year old mixed breed stray dog is presented for extreme pruritis and the lesion shown in the picture. The dog was recently found and adopted off the street and has been itching despite being bathed and treated with flea preventatives. The owner reports that she has been itching and developing rashes on her own body since adopting this dog. Your physical exam shows that the dog has several additional similar lesions on the other legs, chest, and ventral abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Sarcoptes infestation b. Demodex infection c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Cutaneous lymphoma

B EDM The horse in this question has clinical signs most consistent with EDM; cervical vertebral malformation (wobblers) is also a possibility, but was not provided as an answer. The cause of EDM is unknown, but this disease typically affects young horses (< 2-3 years of age; but older horses can develop disease). Clinical signs are a result of diffuse neuronal fiber degeneration of various portions of the central nervous system. This disease has been associated with low serum vitamin E concentrations, suggesting that oxidative damage may play a role in the development of disease. EMND is typically associated with muscle tremors, shifting of weight while standing, muscle atrophy and recumbency. Botulism is associated with generalized muscle weakness. Cauda equina syndrome causes analgesia of the perineum. EPM can cause a range of clinical signs, but is typically with asymmetric neurologic deficits.

A 1.5-year old Quarter Horse gelding is presented to you for symmetric ataxia, weakness, and spasticity of all limbs, but worse in the hind limbs. When walking, the horse frequently drags his toes and the hind limbs frequently interfere with one another. Based on the signalment, history and physical examination findings, which of the following is the most likely cause of these clinical signs? a. Equine Motor Neuron Disease (EMND) b. Equine Degenerative Myeloencephalopathy (EDM) c. Cauda Equina Syndrome d. Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis (EPM) e. Botulism

D exploratory laparotomy to remove ovarian remnant This is a classic description of ovarian remnant syndrome, which is when a cat goes into estrus after previously having an ovariohysterectomy (OVH). This can occur anywhere from weeks to years after OVH and typically the clinical signs consistent with estrus are sufficient to conclude that the cat is in estrus and has ovarian tissue present. Additional diagnostic tests that are consistent with ovarian remnant syndrome include: Serum estrogen >70 pmol/L indicate that the cat has estrogen production from the ovary. The problem with this test is that estrogen measurements may fluctuate and can be unreliable. Serum progesterone >6 nmol/L after induced ovulation is sufficient to conclude that corpora lutea formed and released progesterone. Testing for serum LH levels can also help confirm the diagnosis. In intact queens, LH is consistently maintained at basal levels due to negative feedback from ovarian estradiol secretion. After OVH, this control is lost and LH concentrations increase. LH <1 ng/mL is consistent with the presence of an ovary as it is in this case. Surgery is the treatment of choice. Many practitioners prefer to do surgery during estrus or diestrus when the ovarian tissue is enlarged and easier to locate. Remnants may be bilateral so a complete exploratory laparatomy is necessary. Ovarian tissue is most commonly at the ovarian pedicle but can also be in the mesentery or elsewhere.

A 1.5-year-old spayed female cat presents with a 7-day history of vocalizing, rolling, and allowing a male neutered cat in the household to mount her. The cat has gone through one similar episode 1 month ago. She otherwise has been behaving normally and has no other health problems. You performed an ovariohysterectomy on the cat at 3 months of age. You perform vaginal cytology which shows some cornified epithelial cells but is inconclusive. You measure serum lutenizing hormone of 0.2 ng/ml (normal for an ovariectomized female is >1 ng/ml). Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action? a. Measure serum testosterone levels b. Measure serum estrogen and progesterone levels c. Order MRI of the brain to rule out a pituitary tumor d. Exploratory laparotomy to remove the ovarian remnant

A cn vii The correct answer is CN VII. This is the facial nerve which is responsible for motor of the facial muscles as well as sensation in the ear and lacrimation. CN V is mostly responsible for sensation. CN III is the oculomotor nerve and serves in movement of the eye. CN VI is also involved in movement of the eye.

A 10 year male castrated German Shepherd dog presents for an acute onset of ptosis, drooping of the lip, and drooping of the cheek all on the left side. What nerve has been damaged? a. CN VII b. CN V c. CN VI d. CN III

D perianal fistula The correct answer is perianal fistula. This is seen mainly in older German Shepherds, and licking the anus is a common presenting complaint. The key finding is the presence of multiple draining tracts in the perianal region that can actually be quite deep.

A 10-year old German Shepherd presents to you with the complaint of licking the anal area and scooting. On examination, you find numerous ulcerated tracts in the perianal area that are draining purulent fluid. What is the diagnosis? a. Anal sac abscess b. Anal sac impaction c. Clostridial colitis d. Perianal fistula

C hemangiosarcoma The correct answer is hemangiosarcoma. Hemangiosarcoma of the heart has a predilection for the right auricle of dogs, with Golden Retrievers being predisposed. Stabilization of this patient will require pericardiocentesis; prognosis is guarded and may include chemotherapy, pericardiectomy, or rarely auriculectomy. Chemodectoma arises from the ascending aorta and heart base; lymphoma is rare in the heart of dogs and is more commonly metastatic than a single mass. Idiopathic pericardial hemorrhage is incorrect because of the clear evidence of a mass.

A 11-year old male castrated Golden Retriever presents for collapse with muffled heart sounds on examination. You ultrasound the heart and obtain the following image; the right atrium (RA) and right ventricle (RV) are labeled. A large mass is seen in the right atrioventricular groove with pericardial effusion. What is the likely diagnosis? a. Chemodectoma b. Pulmonary adenocarcinoma c. Hemangiosarcoma d. Idiopathic pericardial hemorrhage e. Lymphoma

A lipoma The cells depicted are well-differentiated adipocytes. These cells are large, appear in aggregates or sometimes singly, and contain fat that stains negatively with Wright's, such that the cytoplasm appears clear. The cells possess a small, round or ovoid, pyknotic nucleus that may be compressed and located in the periphery of the cell. This benign tumor is a lipoma, which is common in dogs. If the mass hinders the animal, it may be removed surgically. Infiltrative lipomas, and their malignant counterpart, liposarcomas, are less common. When sampling for cytology, frequently the first indication that a lipoma has been aspirated is the clear, oily appearance of the material ejected from the aspiration needle onto the slide. Care must be taken while staining to ensure that the material does not wash off the slide, as fat does not adhere readily to the glass surface. Note: Gentle heat fixing of greasy material to a slide may be of benefit in keeping adipose cells adherent to slides during staining. This can be accomplished by holding a slide over a Bunsen burner or lighter or gentle heating on a heating tray/bar for a few seconds so that the side opposite to that containing the cellular material is slowly warmed. The slide must be left to cool completely before staining. Slides coated with poly-l-lysine, which are used for Papanicolaou staining and/or increased adherence of tissue sections to slides, are also helpful in promoting cellular adherence and eliminating loss of cells during staining. Sometimes, local fat will be aspirated and cannot be reliably differentiated from the adipose cells of a lipoma. If there is any doubt as to the presence of a discrete mass, surgical removal with histological evaluation is recommended.

A 13-year old spayed female Miniature Poodle presents with two mobile, soft, well-circumscribed, subcutaneous sternal masses, 3 cm and 6 cm in diameter, respectively. The owner had noticed one mass three months previously. Fine needle aspiration of both masses is performed and smears are prepared. A representative field of both specimens is illustrated below (Wright's 20X). What is your diagnosis? a. Lipoma b. Fungal granuloma c. Mast cell tumor d. Mesenchymal neoplasia (sarcoma)

C renal neoplasia The signalment and progressive unilateral paresis are most suspicious for renal neoplasia of budgerigars. Affected birds develop paresis due to pressure exerted on the sciatic nerve by a renal tumor. There is typically normal flexion and extension of the hip joint with decreased flexion, extension, and sensation below the knee as described here. Disc disease is uncommon in birds. Lead toxicity can lead to peripheral neuropathy and paresis but typically there are more multifocal or other accompanying signs such as polyuria/polydipsia, gastrointestinal signs, wing droop, head tilt, or convulsions. Marek's disease typically affects younger animals. Botulism typically presents with flaccid paralysis of the legs, wings, and neck.

A 16-year old budgerigar presents with progressive unilateral paresis of the right leg (see image). There is normal flexion and extension of the hip joint with decreased flexion, extension, and sensation below the knee. The remainder of your skeletal and neurologic examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is most likely in this bird? a. Marek's disease b. Intervertebral disc disease c. Renal neoplasia d. Botulism e. Lead toxicosis

A HYPP The correct answer is hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP). HYPP is seen in Quarter Horses due to a point mutation in a key part of a skeletal muscle sodium channel subunit. This results in elevation of the resting membrane potential to increase the likelihood of depolarizing. Excess concentrations of potassium can result in failure of the sodium channels to inactivate. Therefore, treatment is directed at decreasing dietary potassium.

A 2-year old Quarter Horse presents for intermittent muscle fasciculation followed by weakness. What condition should you suspect? a. Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis b. Myotonia c. Stringhalt d. Tetanus e. Grass tetany

B metronidazole The correct answer is metronidazole. You should know that fenbendazole is actually the treatment of choice for Giardia, but metronidazole has historically been the most widely accepted option. If fenbendazole is not offered as an answer choice, choose metronidazole. If fenbendazole were offered as an answer choice, it would be the best option.

A 2-year old male castrated Border Collie presents for a 1-week history of small bowel diarrhea. A fecal flotation shows numerous Giardia cysts. What is the treatment of choice for this dog? a. Decoquinate b. Metronidazole c. Albendazole d. Ipronidazole

C c6-t2 The correct answer is C6-T2. In a dog, the spinal cord is divided into the four regions listed above. Upper motor neuron signs include hyper-reflexia of spinal reflexes and increased muscle tone. Lower motor neuron signs include decreased or absent spinal reflexes and decreased muscle tone. A lesion between the C6-T2 spinal cord segments would result in lower motor neuron signs in the thoracic limbs and upper motor neuron signs in the pelvic limbs, as described in the patient in the question. A lesion between C1-C5 spinal cord segments would manifest as upper motor neuron signs in the thoracic and pelvic limbs. Lesions between T3-L3 spinal cord segments would not affect the thoracic limbs, but would manifest as upper motor neuron signs in the pelvic limbs. Lesions between L4-S3 spinal cord segments would result in normal thoracic limbs and lower motor neuron signs in the pelvic limbs.

A 2-year old male castrated mixed breed dog presents for an altered gait after being hit by a car. On physical exam, the thoracic limbs had decreased biceps and triceps reflexes and decreased muscle tone. The pelvic limbs had hyper-reflexive patellar and gastrocnemius reflexes and increased muscle tone. Where is the spinal cord lesion? a. T3-L3 b. C1-C5 c. C6-T2 d. L4-S3

A 43 days The correct answer is 43 days gestation. The fetal skeleton ossifies at 42-45 days in the dog and 35-39 in the cat. In the dog, a mineralized fetus can usually be seen around 42-46 days. The scapula, humerus, and femur can be made out around 46-51 days. The ribs can be seen at 52-59 days. Teeth and toes can be seen at 58-63 days.

An owner brings her 4-year old female Labrador Retriever to your clinic because she believes she might be pregnant. She does not remember when the dog's last heat cycle was. The dog's abdomen appears fairly distended and you take a lateral abdominal radiograph which is shown below. What would be the earliest time you would expect to be able to see fetal skeletons on abdominal radiographs in the dog? a. 43 days gestation b. 33 days gestation c. 53 days gestation d. 23 days gestation

A tape test for O equi The correct answer is a scotch tape test to confirm Oxyuris equi, the equine pinworm. While all of these diagnostic tests are important when you suspect parasitism, the scotch tape test will enable you to observe the eggs stuck to the hair. The egg laying activity by the female worm is what causes the intense pruritis. Occasionally, eggs can be found in a flotation, which may give you a false negative interpretation if not found. A superficial skin scrape is a great alternative for this case; however, Chorioptes spp. tend to infest breeds with feathered legs. An infestation of Strongyloides vulgaris or Cyathostomes will likely cause colic, diarrhea, and lethargy.

A 2-year-old Quarter horse filly presents with a history of intense pruritis and alopecia in the perineal area (see image). The owners indicated that they noticed the filly rubbing her tail head and perineal area along fences for a period of one week. What diagnostic test will you use to confirm your top differential? a. A scotch tape test to confirm Oxyuris equi b. A fecal flotation to confirm Oxyruis equi c. A scotch tape test to confirm Strongyloides vulgaris d. A fecal flotation to confirm Cyathostomiasis e. A superficial skin scrape to confirm Chorioptes spp.

C Etube feeding The cat described likely has hepatic lipidosis. Cats that are greater than 2 years of age and obese have the greatest risk for hepatic lipidosis. Often these cats are indoor-only and have had a recent stress in their life. An obese cat that is not eating with the above symptoms is most likely to have hepatic lipidosis. An ALP elevation that is greater in magnitude than GGT is also suggestive of hepatic lipidosis. A bile duct obstruction, cholangiohepatitis, lymphoma, and FIP are other differentials but are less likely with the given information.

A 4 -year old domestic short haired cat presents for anorexia and weight loss of 1 week. Physical exam reveals a body condition score of 7/9, jaundice of the skin and sclera, and dehydration of 4%. Temperature is normal. Bloodwork shows: ALT=303 (25-97 U/L) GGT=1.8 (0-6 U/L) ALP=1170 (0-45 U/L) bilirubin=3.0 (0-0.1 mg/dl) Radiographs show an enlarged liver. What is the most important treatment for the cat's likely diagnosis? a. Oral clavulanic acid and amoxicillin for 4 weeks b. Parenteral vitamin K injections c. Esophagostomy tube feeding d. Oral S-adenosylmethionine for at least 1 month

D culture the discharge for bacteria The correct answer is to culture the discharge for bacteria. The most likely diagnosis for this horse is equine strangles. Strangles most commonly affects younger horses (<5 years of age), but can cause disease in any age horse. The etiologic agent of this disease is Streptococcus equi subsp. equi. The diagnostic test of choice to confirm this is bacterial culture. While awaiting culture results, the horse should be separated from any other horses, as strangles is highly contagious to other horses. Antibiotic therapy is controversial and thought to lengthen the course of disease rather than shorten it when given at this stage; also, it may possibly interfere with the natural immunity acquired from natural infection. S. equi infection is not reportable in all states (or countries), and so it may not need to be reported universally.

A 4 year old mare has bilateral swelling and drainage of the mandibular lymph nodes. Rectal temperature is 101.8F (38.8C). Which of the following is the most appropriate plan for this horse? a. Administer penicillin b. Administer corticosteroids c. Inform the state veterinarian d. Culture the discharge for bacteria

B regress in a year, give symptomatic support Craniomandibular osteopathy (CMO) is seen in young dogs and is exemplified in this radiograph. Terrier breeds predominate, but CMO can be seen in any breed. The disease is self-limiting and regresses typically by 1 year old. It is thought to be a type of hypertrophic osteodystrophy (HOD) and occurs mostly in the mandible but can also affect the tympanic bulla, temporal bones, and temporomandibular joints. Treatment is supportive with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories to control pain, similar to HOD. Radiographic signs will also regress with time.

A 4-month-old terrier cross presents for inability to eat. The puppy is bright, alert, and responsive on exam. Heart rate is 148, respiratory rate is panting, and temperature is 101.8 F (38.8 C). The puppy is extremely painful when his lower jaw is palpated, and cries and pulls away when you attempt to open his mouth. Sedated oral exam is unremarkable. Radiographs are available for review (see image). What do you tell the owner about prognosis? a. Chemotherapy can prolong quality of life for a few of months, however prognosis is grave. b. This will regress within a year, and symptomatic support is needed for discomfort. c. This can be cured with antibiotics based on culture and sensitivity. NSAIDs can be used for discomfort. d. Surgical removal of dentigerous cysts will likely be curative, however long term dental disease is common.

D string foreign body The correct answer is string foreign body. The radiographic description is classic for string foreign bodies. Panleukopenia is not likely because of the radiographic findings, and you would also expect more systemic signs such as respiratory disease and fever. With pancreatitis cats do not vomit as commonly as dogs. They usually show vague nonspecific signs. Hepatic lipidosis would not result in an acute onset of vomiting.

A 4-year old domestic short haired male cat presents for an acute onset of vomiting and anorexia of one day duration. On physical exam you note the cat is depressed and approximately 5% dehydrated. Radiographs show an abnormally increased amount of plication of the small intestines. What is your most likely diagnosis? a. Lymphoma b. Hepatic lipidosis c. Pancreatitis d. String foreign body e. Panleukopenia

A zinc Zinc responsive dermatopathy occurs most frequently in the Siberian Husky. Other species such as cattle, goats, and humans have a similar condition. The exact cause is unknown, but it has been linked to defective intestinal absorption of zinc. Lesions may vary in severity. The response is typically seen within days. The key to answering this question appropriately was to recognize the signalment of the patient, the location of the lesions which is characteristic of zinc responsive dermatopathy, and the fact that there was no infectious etiology such as demodex identified.

A 4-year old female spayed Siberian Husky presents for further evaluation as a result of developing crusting and hyperkeratosis around the eyes, nose, and mouth. A skin scraping did not identify an etiology. How would you treat this dog? a. Zinc supplementation b. Daily wiping with chlorhexidine pads c. Corticosteroids d. Ivermectin treatment

A ivermectin Colic with an associated painful mass at the root of the mesenery is suspicious for verminous arteritis caused by damage to the cranial mesenteric artery and its branches by Strongylus vulgaris. The strongyle egg shown in the picture confirms the cause in this question. A number of anthelmintics are effective including benzimidazoles, pyrantel and ivermectin. Praziquantel is effective against tapeworms. Rifampin and metronidazole are antibacterial drugs. Piperonyl butoxide is a pesticide synergist used in insecticide mixtures in horses.

A 4-year old male Thoroughbred horse presents to you for colic. During your work up, you note a painful enlargement at the root of the mesentery on rectal palpation. You suspect that the cause of the horse's colic are adults from the egg shown in the picture below. Which of the following drugs effectively kills the adult organisms that can cause this condition? a. Ivermectin b. Piperonyl butoxide c. Praziquantel d. Metronidazole e. Rifampin

A fanconi syndrome The correct answer is Fanconi syndrome. Fanconi syndrome is an inherited disease in Basenjis. The disease involves renal tubular defects causing an abnormal loss of electrolytes and solutes leading to hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, and metabolic acidosis. DM is less likely because serum glucose is normal. The lab abnormalities present in this dog are not consistent with pyelonephritis. Pyometra is not a viable choice as the signalment describes a male.

A 4-year old male castrated Basenji presents for polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. Blood work shows P=2.5 (2.9-5.3 mg/dl), K= 3.1 (3.9-5.1 mEq/L), total CO2= 12 (17-25 mmol/L). The remainder of the blood work is within normal limits. Urinalysis shows 3+ glucose. Which of the following is your most likely differential diagnosis? a. Fanconi syndrome b. Pyometra c. Diabetes mellitus d. Pyelonephritis

D fenbendazole The organism is Giardia which can be recognized as a trophozoite with two nuclei outlined by adhesive discs. Giardia should be distinguishable from trichomonads which have a single nucleus and an undulating membrane. The best treatments for Giardia are either fenbendazole or metronidazole.

A 5-month old female cat presents to you for weight loss, chronic diarrhea and steatorrhea. The organism seen in a stained fecal smear is shown in the image below (this is a magnified 40X image, the organism is approximately 15 x 8 um). Which treatment is most appropriate? a. Sulfadimethoxine b. Penicillin c. Tylosin d. Fenbendazole

D gastrointestinal parasites The correct answer is gastrointestinal parasites. You should perform a fecal float and smear. This cat probably has severe diarrhea and has been straining. Dysautonomia is possible but very rare. Panleukopenia does not usually result in a rectal prolapse, but is a cause of diarrhea.

A 5-month old kitten presents to you with a rectal prolapse, as shown in the photo. What is the most common cause of rectal prolapse in a kitten? a. Panleukopenia b. Trauma c. Dysautonomia d. Gastrointestinal parasites

C cuterebra Cuterebra is a fly that lays its eggs on soil or plants. The eggs stick to the animal's fur when they come into contact. The eggs hatch, and the larvae either penetrate the skin, are ingested when the animal grooms, or they enter the animal's body through a natural opening, such as the nose. In most cases, the larvae migrate to areas just under the skin on the head, neck, or trunk of the animal. In dogs, cats, and ferrets, who are not the usual hosts of this parasite, the larvae may also migrate to the brain, eye, eyelids, or throat. As the larva grows under the skin, it produces a nodule or swelling. A small opening develops in the skin, through which it breathes. A small amount of drainage may occur around this breathing hole. The treatment is to incise the skin if needed to remove the larva. You have to make sure to remove the larva in whole and not crush it. If it is damaged or crushed, it can cause an anaphylactic reaction. Ctenocephalides is a flea, Ancylostoma is the hookworm, and Culicoides are tiny gnats that most often bother horses and livestock.

A 5-year old indoor/outdoor male neutered short hair presents for a wound on the chest. The owner noticed a hole in the skin and thought he had a ruptured abscess. On close examination of the wound, you notice a larva inside the hole. Which organism is most likely under the skin? a. Culicoides b. Ctenocephalides c. Cuterebra d. Ancylostoma

C L caudal cruciate lg rupture, meniscal cart tear The correct answer is left cranial cruciate ligament rupture with meniscal cartilage tear. The cranial motion of the tibia and medial thickening of the joint (also known as medial buttress) is consistent with the commonly torn cranial cruciate ligament. The clicking heard on flexion and extension is consistent with damaged medial meniscus cartilage found in the stifle.

A 5-year old male castrated Mastiff presents for left pelvic limb lameness. The medial aspects of both stifles are thickened. Manipulation of the left stifle reveals cranial motion of the tibia relative to the femur and a clicking sound from the joint on flexion and extension. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Left cranial cruciate ligament rupture with no meniscal cartilage tear b. Left caudal cruciate ligament rupture with no meniscal cartilage tear c. Left cranial cruciate ligament rupture with meniscal cartilage tear d. Left luxating patella

A portal systemic shunt The correct answer is a portal-systemic shunt. Ptyalism is a sign commonly seen with PSS in cats but not dogs, and the copper-colored iris is a striking and almost pathognomonic finding in conjunction with other clinical findings. Hemolytic anemia could cause icterus but not the change in iris color. Animals with polycystic kidney disease would not have a copper-colored iris. Toxoplasma can cause ocular signs such as uveitis but would not have a copper iris.

A 6-month old cat presents for having ptyalism and for being underweight. On physical examination, you note a bright copper color to the cat's iris bilaterally. What is this suggestive of? a. Portal systemic shunt b. Hemolytic anemia c. Toxoplasmosis d. Polycystic kidney disease

D treatment unsuccessful, cull cow This is a case of Actinomyces bovis or "lumpy jaw". The keys to the diagnosis are the firm mass that is immobile over the mandible. The presence of "sulfur granules" in the discharge is also a characteristic finding with this disease. Unfortunately, simply making the diagnosis is not sufficient to answer this question correctly. All of the answer choices are potential treatments for lumpy jaw but this represents a moderate to severe case which is unlikely to respond to treatment due to difficulty in achieving the necessary antibiotic concentration over a sustained period. Therefore, the best answer choice in this case is to cull the cow.

A 6-year old Friesian cow presents to you with a mass on the left mandible (see image). The farmer reports that the mass has developed over the last several weeks and the cow has recently had some difficulty eating and lost weight. On examination, the mass is firm, immobile, and painful on manipulation. You note a thick discharge with small granular particles. Based on the most likely diagnosis, what should you tell the farmer? a. Treatment with sodium iodide intravenously is likely curative but the cow's milk and meat will not be suitable for human consumption for 120 days b. Intravenous penicillins are likely to be effective c. The most effective treatment is oral sodium iodide d. Treatment is unlikely to be successful and the cow should be culled

A topical cyclosporine/steroid The correct answer is topical cyclosporine and a topical steroid. The treatment of KCS is aimed at reducing immune destruction of the lacrimal glands. Topical cyclosporine (Optimmune) and a topical steroid (frequently in a triple antibiotic/steroid ointment) are the treatment of choice. You should be cautious using steroids in acute cases due to the risk of corneal ulceration.

A 6-year old West Highland White Terrier comes in to see you for the mucopurulent ocular discharge as seen in the photo below. A Schirmer tear test shows no tear production. What is the treatment of choice for chronic canine keratoconjunctivitis sicca? a. Topical cyclosporine and a topical steroid b. Topical cyclosporine and systemic corticosteroids c. Systemic antibiotics and corticosteroids d. Systemic cyclosporine and antibiotics

B Hypothyroidism The correct answer is hypothyroidism. The clinical signs, physical exam findings, and lab work abnormalities are classical for hypothyroidism. Other common abnormalities seen with hypothyroidism include pyoderma, neuromuscular signs (ataxia, knuckling, vestibular signs, etc), markedly elevated triglycerides, and a mild normocytic, normochromic anemia. Hyperthyroidism rarely occurs in dogs. You would expect to see polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia with hyperadrenocorticism.

A 6-year old female spayed English Pointer presents for lethargy and weight gain. The owner notes that the dog is eating and drinking a normal amount, but the dog is still gaining weight. A physical exam reveals weak pelvic limbs, facial nerve paralysis, a symmetrically patchy haircoat, and seborrhea. Lab work reveals a normocytic, normochromic anemia with a PCV of 29% (35-57%), lipemic serum, and cholesterol of 1090 mg/dl (135-278 mg/dl). What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Hyperthyroidism b. Hypothyroidism c. Pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism d. Adrenal dependent hyperadrenocorticism

B retrobulbar abscess The answer is a retrobulbar abscess. Acute, painful exophthalmos is usually due to retrobulbar abscessation. These lesions are usually painful and may be swollen. These animals are frequently systemically ill with fever and leukocytosis. Causes of retrobulbar abscesses include penetrating wounds, foreign bodies, spread from dental or sinus infection, and hematogenous spread. Glaucoma does not cause exophthalmos, although, chronically it can cause buphthalmos which may appear similar. Anterior uveitis also does not cause exophthalmos.

A 6-year old intact male domestic short haired cat presents with acute onset exophthalmos of the right eye in the past 2 days. He is painful on palpation around his eye and head. The eye can be retropulsed some, but there is resistance present. He has not been eating in the past day and has a rectal temperature of 103.4F (39.7 C). What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Anterior uveitis b. Retrobulbar abscess c. Glaucoma d. Orbital neoplasia

B osteosarcoma The correct answer is osteosarcoma. Chondrosarcoma, fibrosarcoma and hemangiosarcoma can all be primary bone tumors but are much less common in dogs than osteosarcoma.

A 6-year old male neutered Weimaraner presents for left forelimb lameness. Radiographs are shown below and show a mixed productive and destructive lesion affecting the left distal radius with accompanying soft tissue swelling. The lesion does not cross the joint. What is the most common primary bone tumor in the dog? a. Chondrosarcoma b. Osteosarcoma c. Multiple myeloma d. Hemangiosarcoma e. Fibrosarcoma

E mannheimia hemolytica Other agents may also be isolated, but this is recognized as the worst pathogen in bovine pulmonary disease. It was formerly called Pasteurella hemolytica.

A 7-month old feedlot steer has died after exhibiting severe fever, dyspnea, cough and respiratory distress. On post mortem there is evidence of fibrinopurulent bronchopneumonia (see image). What bacterium is most likely to be the cause of this syndrome? a. Bovine herpes virus type 4 b. Mycoplasma bovis c. Pasteurella multocida d. Trueperella pyogenes ( formerly Arcanobacterium pyogenes) e. Mannheimia hemolytica

E corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis The correct answer is Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis. This is a description of caseous lymphadenitis. This disease of sheep and goats is of economic importance because it causes weight loss and ill thrift, can become a herd problem, and could be a public health concern.

A 7-year old doe presents with abscessation of the supramammary lymph nodes. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Caprine arthritis and encephalitis virus b. Trueperella pyogenes c. E. coli d. Mycoplasma mycoides e. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

C ACTH stim test The correct answer is ACTH stimulation test. The chemistry profile above is highly suggestive of hypoadrenocorticism. An ACTH stimulation test would give a definitive diagnosis for Addison's disease if the plasma cortisol concentration is low after ACTH administration. A bile acids test is not indicated since liver function is not in question. Thoracic radiographs may show microcardia, hypoperfused lungs, and rarely megaesophagus. ECG abnormalities would be consistent with hyperkalemia, which includes wide, flat, or absent P waves, widened QRS complexes, tall spiking T waves, and bradycardia.

A 7-year old female spayed Standard Poodle presents with weakness and lethargy. A chemistry panel shows a Na+ = 130 mEq/L (142-152 mEq/L), K+ = 6.5 mEq/L (3.9-5.1 mEq/L), BUN 55 mg/dl (8-28 mg/dl), creatinine 1.9 mg/dl (0.5-1.7 mg/dl). The test to run for a definitive diagnosis would be which of the following? a. Electrocardiogram b. Bile acids test c. ACTH stimulation test d. Thoracic radiographs

B Immiticide (melarsomine) The correct answer is Immiticide (melarsomine). The dog in this radiograph has the classic findings for heartworm disease, including right sided ventricular enlargement with very prominent pulmonary arteries. Heartworm in the dog is caused by Dirofilaria immitis. The treatment of choice for heartworm is Immiticide which is given by intramuscular injection. Furosemide is a treatment for congestive heart failure, which this dog shows no evidence of. Terbutaline is a bronchodilator, which would be of little use in this case. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are useful for the treatment of pneumonia and other infections but are not effective against heartworm. Pericardiocentesis is obviously the treatment for pericardial effusion, but this dog's radiographs do not show the classic globoid heart you might see with pericardial effusion. Adulticidal treatments for heartworm are melarsomine and thiacetarsamide.

A 7-year old male intact Chesapeake Bay Retriever presents to your clinic with the presenting complaint of an intermittent cough. On exam, the dog is bright and alert with a temperature of 100.5F (38.1 C), heart rate of 110 beats per minute and respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. You perform chest radiographs which are shown below. A CBC shows a hematocrit of 39% (35-57%), neutrophil count of 8,659/ul (2,900-12,000/ul), monocyte count of 984/ul (100-1,400/ul) and eosinophil count of 1,980/ul (0-1,300/ul). What is the treatment of choice for the most likely diagnosis? a. Enrofloxacin b. Immiticide (Melarsomine) c. Terbutaline d. Furosemide e. Pericardiocentesis

E prednisone This is a case of lymphoma. The cytology depicts the classic finding of a population of lymphoid cells that are predominantly lymphoblasts based on their size and characteristics. If you were unsure about their size due to magnification, there is a neutrophil in the lower left corner for comparison. The lymphoblasts are considerably larger than the neutrophil. Mature lymphocytes would be smaller than a neutrophil. Note that there is a mitotic figure in the middle of the slide. There are many treatments and protocols for lymphoma and some of the main agents known to have efficacy are prednisone, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, vincristine, L-asparaginase, and lomustine. There are many other efficacious chemotherapeutics for lymphoma but carboplatin is not considered a first line treatment for lymphoma in dogs. The other drugs listed are antifungal (itraconazole), antibiotic (doxycycline) and anti-parasitic (milbemycin).

A 7yo Lhasa Apso presents to you for lethargy and inappetance. On your exam, you detect mandibular lymphadenopathy and perform a fine needle aspirate. You see the aspirate detected here. Which of these treatments would be given to this patient as part of a first line therapy? a. Doxycycline b. Milbemycin c. Carboplatin d. Itraconazole e. Prednisone

C hypoVitA The correct answer is hypovitaminosis A. The functions of vitamin A are related to epithelial maintenance, vision, and skeletal development. In birds, problems with the skeleton or vision are rarely seen with vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A deficiency can manifest as squamous metaplasia of the oral mucous membranes or glands. Glands may be entirely converted to squamous epithelium with keratin material and can look like abscesses or pustules but are essentially keratin cysts. They should be differentiated from lesions of pox, Candida, and Trichomonas. Lesions of the conjunctiva, nasolacrimal duct, upper GI tract, and upper respiratory tract can occur. Presenting signs may include severe dyspnea or respiratory signs.

A budgerigar is showing signs of squamous metaplasia of the oral mucosa, conjunctiva, and upper airways. It has developed associated bacterial sinusitis (see image). In a pet bird, what are these clinical signs most suggestive of? a. Hypervitaminosis D b. Hypovitaminosis D c. Hypovitaminosis A d. Hypocalcemia e. Iodine deficiency

A infectious bronchitis The correct answer is infectious bronchitis. This is caused by a coronavirus. It is spread by aerosol and ingestion and usually affects all exposed birds. The clinical signs and necropsy findings are as described in the question. The disease can be clinically indistinguishable from mild forms of Newcastle disease, laryngotracheitis, and infectious coryza. Virus isolation is needed to obtain a definitive diagnosis.

A chicken operation has recently been ravaged by a respiratory disease affecting almost all of the chickens in the flock. The chickens are coughing and sneezing and many have facial swelling. You necropsied many of the chickens and found mucoid exudate in the bronchi, thickened air sacs, and in a few of the chickens, interstitial nephritis was present. Which of these diseases is likely? a. Infectious bronchitis b. Fowl cholera c. Infectious bursal disease d. Aspergillus

C ivermectin in early fall This is a cattle warble called Hypoderma. The 2 species are H. bovis and H. lineatum. They undergo a long migration in tissues and only emerge from the back of the animal in spring. The crucial treatment time is early fall when larvae are just beginning to migrate in tissues. Organophosphates or one of the macrocyclic lactones (ivermectin, doramectin, eprinomectin or moxidectin) are effective.

A client brings the one-half inch grub shown in the image to you one spring day, telling you it emerged from a hole in the back of one of his prize show cattle. He wants to know what to treat his cattle with and when. a. Moxidectin now, in spring b. Ivermectin in February c. Ivermectin in early fall d. Thiabendazole in early fall e. Organophosphates in summer

C neorickettsia helminthoeca The correct answer is Neorickettsia helminthoeca. This rickettsial organism is the causative agent of salmon poisoning. It is carried in the fluke, Nanophyetus salmincola, which requires the snail, Oxytrema silicula in its life cycle. The snail is what confines occurrence of salmon poisoning to the northwest coast.

A dog presents with acute onset vomiting, hemorrhagic diarrhea and fever. On fecal examination, you find many large fluke eggs. You question the owner and discover that the dog was recently in Oregon on a boating trip. What agent is most likely causing the clinical signs in this dog? a. Oxytrema silicula b. Nanophyetus salmincola c. Neorickettsia helminthoeca d. Rickettsia rickettsii

A pseudomonas The correct answer is Pseudomonas. Pseudomonas is the most common agent causing bacterial keratitis in the horse. The gram negative cytology provides further evidence that it is the likely culprit. Staphylococcus can cause keratitis in horses but is gram positive. E. coli and Pasteurella are not agents that are commonly involved with keratitis in the horse.

A horse presents to you with a corneal ulcer. You are concerned because it appears to be infected, as shown in this image. You perform cytology and find gram negative rods. What is the most likely organism infecting the corneal ulcer in this horse? a. Pseudomonas b. E. coli c. Pasteurella multocida d. Staphylococcus spp

B full body lyme sulfur dip, itraconazole This cat has a ringworm infection caused by Microsporum canis. This fungi fluoresces blue under a Wood's lamp in 50% of cases. The best treatment for ringworm infection would include a combination topical and oral therapy. Lyme sulfur dip or an antifungal shampoo containing miconazole would be acceptable. Oral antifungals such as itraconazole or fluconazole are most effective with the least side effects. Povidone-iodine scrub has not been shown to be effective against ringworm. Lufenuron is classified as an insect development inhibitor because of its ability to inhibit chitin synthesis, thus in the past has been said to have some effect against fungal infections. This has been debated and not widely supported as a treatment for ringworm. Doxycycline is an antibiotic and would not be effective in treatment of fungal disease. Athlete's foot cream (clotrimazole) may have some effect at treating the lesion. Most over-the-counter creams such as this also include a steroid like betamethasone which would not be desired. Although this lesion appears to be localized to the nasal area, ringworm may also be subclinical and this cat may have infection elsewhere in the skin that is not grossly visible. Therefore, the best therapy is a combination of topical and oral.

A middle aged MN stray cat is left on the doorstep of your clinic. The cat has a large dry crusted area of alopecia over his nose. A skin scraping of the area is negative. The lesion fluoresces under Wood's lamp examination (see image). Which of the following would be the best treatment? a. Doxycycline b. Full body lyme sulfur dip, itraconazole c. Athlete's foot cream (clotrimazole) d. Povidone-iodine scrub e. Lufenuron

D tyzzer's disease The correct answer is Tyzzer's disease. This is the most likely cause because of the age of the foal and the acute nature of the disease. Tyzzer's disease is caused by Clostridium piliformis, which causes an acute necrotizing hepatitis. It affects only foals from about 1-6 weeks of age. Theiler's disease is a condition of adult horses. Clostridium novyi is rare in horses and seen much more in sheep and cattle. Herpesvirus can cause hepatitis but is usually seen at or very soon after birth.

A one-month old foal develops fever, icterus, and diarrhea acutely. Bloodwork shows hyperfibrinogenemia, hypoglycemia, and elevated liver enzymes. Which of these conditions is most likely? a. Herpesviral hepatitis b. Theiler's disease c. Clostridium noyvi type B d. Tyzzer's disease

D pyrrolizidine alkaloid The correct answer is pyrrolizidine alkaloid. The clinical signs described are typical for pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity. Consumption of this plant typically results in abnormalities in hepatic cell division; thus resulting in large hepatocytes known as megalocytosis.

An 11-year old Peruvian Paso presents with a history of progressive weight loss. Serum chemistry shows elevation in sorbitol dehydrogenase, lactate, alkaline phosphatase, and a decrease in albumin. A vast amount of Crotalaria spp. is seen in the pasture. What type of toxin does Crotalaria spp. possess? a. Cyanide b. Nitrate c. Organophosphate d. Pyrrolizidine alkaloid

B furosemide and enalapril The radiograph here shows a severe symmetrical alveolar pattern in the perihilar region extending to the right and left caudal lung lobes. The heart is tall on the lateral view causing dorsal elevation of the trachea. This, in conjunction with the physical findings, is compatible with left congestive heart failure (CHF) secondary to mitral valve regurgitation. The dog also has hepatic congestion evident by enlargement on the radiograph. Treatment for CHF include diuretics (furosemide/Lasix, hydrochlorothiazide, spironolactone), arterial vasodilators (enalapril, benazepril, amlodipine, hydralazine), positive inotropes (pimobendan), and venodilators (nitroglycerine). Clavamox and enrofloxacin are antibiotics which could be used to treat pneumonia, but that is not this dog's problem. Immiticide is the treatment for heartworm. Atenolol is a beta blocker and not part of the management of mitral regurgitation or CHF. Atropine or a pacemaker would be indicated for conduction problems.

An 11-year old female Pomeranian presents to you for coughing and exercise intolerance. On exam: Wt: 9.25 lbs, T: 101.2F (38.4 C), HR: 132 bpm, RR: Panting, mucous membranes are pink. She has mild tracheal sensitivity and a grade III-IV/VI left apical holosystolic murmur and grade II/VI right apical holosystolic murmur. Femoral pulses are strong and synchronous, with a regular rhythm. She has harsh lung sounds bilaterally. On abdominal palpation, you note hepatomegaly. You find bilateral luxating patellas. You take chest radiographs (see image) and decide to treat the dog based on these findings. Which medication plan is most appropriate? a. Oxygen and atenolol b. Furosemide and enalapril c. Clavamox and enfrofloxacin d. Atropine and a temporary pacemaker e. Immiticide (Melarsomine)

E sulfadimethoxine (albon) This is an image of Isospora from a cat. Isospora are parasitic coccidia that can cause diarrhea as this cat is showing. Treatment for coccidia is usually with sulfonamides such as sulfadimethoxine or trimethoprim sulfa. For the other drugs listed: Droncit- Primarily for cestodes (tapeworms) Revolution- For fleas, heartworms, hookworms, roundworms, and ear mites Strongid- Primarily for roundworms and hookworms Clavamox- A broad spectrum antibacterial Metronidazole- Primarily for anaerobes, also used for giardia

An 8-week old Abyssinian cat recently obtained from a cattery presents to you for an examination and the owner reports that the cat has had diarrhea. On fecal float, you find multiple structures like the one shown in the photo (see image). What should you treat the cat with? a. Praziquantel (Droncit) b. Metronidazole (Flagyl) c. Pyrantel (Strongid) d. Selamectin (Revolution) e. Sulfadimethoxine (Albon) f. Amoxicillin and clavulanate (Clavamox)

C laminitis The correct answer is laminitis. Although the specific toxic principle in black walnuts responsible for causing laminitis or acute lameness in horses is unknown, evidence suggests juglone (a napthaquinone) plays a role. Do not use black walnuts for horse bedding.

Black walnut toxicity causes what condition in horses? (pic of Black walnut shavings) a. Colic b. Hypersalivation c. Laminitis d. Pulmonary edema

E 7, 3 The answer is VII, III. Closure of the eyes is performed by the orbicularis oculi muscle innervated by the facial nerve. Opening of the eye is by the levator palpebrae superioris innervated by the oculomotor nerve. The trigeminal nerve supplies sensory innervation to the eye.

Closure of the eyes is mediated by cranial nerve ____ and opening the eyes is mediated by CN ____. a. VII, V b. V, III c. III, VII d. V, VII e. VII, III

D SCC The correct answer is squamous cell carcinoma. White cats or cats with areas of white fur on the face or ears are predisposed to developing squamous cell carcinoma from UV light. These lesions are usually ulcerative and appear around the nose, ears, or eyelids.

Coat color and sun exposure likely predisposed this cat to developing the tumor seen in the photo. a. Mast cell tumor b. Melanoma c. Basal cell tumor d. Squamous cell carcinoma

A treat for lice This is a blood sucking genus of louse, and can cause severe anemia. The anemic calves become thin and more susceptible to diseases like pneumonia. You can tell this is a louse and not a tick or a mite because lice are insects with 6 legs and ticks and mites are arachnids with 8 legs. The three genera of blood sucking cattle lice are Solenopotes, Linognathus, and Hematopinus.

In January you examine a group of dairy calves which range in age from 2 to 7 months, with a complaint of hair loss and pruritus. The calves are thin and mucous membranes are pale. One has developed bronchopneumonia, and is also febrile and depressed. You do a skin scraping and find the parasite shown in the image, which your technician identifies as Hematopinus sp. The CBC shows the calves to be severely anemic. What treatment recommendation should you now make to the dairy owner? a. Treat all calves for lice b. Treat all calves with long acting tetracycline c. Treat all calves with hematinics d. Vaccinate all calves against Mannheimia hemolytica e. Treat all calves for mange

B hyperCa, hypoP The correct answer is hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia. Patients with primary hyperparathyroidism would have hypercalcemia and normo to hypophosphatemia due to the law of mass action in which phosphorus decreases as calcium increases and vice versa.

In canine patients with primary hyperparathyroidism, a chemistry panel would show: a. Hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia b. Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia c. Hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia d. Hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia

C mosquito control The condition described here is the dry form of avian (fowl) pox. This is a relatively slow spreading disease that can be spread by contact or by mosquitoes that may harbor infective virus for greater than a month. In the dry form of the disease, the main sign is raised, whitish wart-like lesions on unfeathered areas (head, legs, vent, etc.). The lesions heal in about 2 weeks. Unthriftiness, decreased egg production and retarded growth may be seen. Mortality is low with this form of the disease. The wet form mainly involves the oral cavity and upper respiratory tract. Lesions are diphtheritic and can ulcerate or erode mucous membranes. Marked respiratory involvement can lead to mortality. A diagnosis is usually based on flock history and presence of these lesions. This is a pox virus and there is no specific effective treatment but there is a vaccine. Disease control is best accomplished by preventive vaccine as sanitation alone will not prevent spread of disease. Several vaccines are available and a single application results in permanent immunity. There are not many tick borne poultry diseases but they may include spirochaetosis and Pasteurella infection. Raising the temperature 5 degrees may be part of the treatment for infectious bronchitis in chickens. Disinfecting pens +/- quarantine is done for quail bronchitis, aspergillosis, and ulcerative enteritis. Antibiotics in the drinking water are most effective for preventing secondary bacterial infections and for mycoplasma but not preventing spread of the virus.

Many turkeys on a poultry farm develop whitish "wart-like" nodules and scabs on the comb, wattles, feet, and vent. Which management intervention would help prevent spread of the disease? a. Immediate removal of fecal waste b. Raise the room temperature 5 degrees c. Mosquito control d. Add antibiotics to the drinking water e. Thoroughly disinfect pens and equipment f. Tick control

D 7-10 days The correct answer is 7-10 days. Canine parvovirus mainly affects puppies and young dogs less than a year of age. Transmission of the virus is through contact with infected feces and fomites such as hands, toys, the dog's hair coat. The virus is very resilient in the environment and is resistant to many types of disinfectants. It replicates in the crypt epithelium of the gut and causes epithelial necrosis and hemorrhagic diarrhea. The virus can also affect the heart of young puppies, causing myocarditis. This occurs less commonly now since most bitches are immunized against the virus, which allows for maternal antibodies to protect young puppies from this form of the disease.

Once infected, for what period of time is canine parvovirus usually shed? a. 1-2 months b. 5-6 months c. 2-3 months d. 7-10 days

B photosensitization Photosensitization mainly affects unpigmented skin where photodynamic agents have accumulated making the skin hyper-reactive to UV light. The cause of this photosensitization can be primary, in which case a plant-derived compound (such as hypericum) or chemical is injected, ingested or topically applied, is the cause. Alternatively, the cause can be secondary due to hepatic damage/failure where the liver fails to remove ingested chlorophyll-breakdown products like phylloerythrin, which accumulates in the skin and results in UV damage (sunburn). You need to determine whether this is primary or secondary by checking liver enzymes and bilirubin levels.

Several 16 to 20 month old Holstein dairy heifers who have been out in pasture have developed large areas of skin sloughing, which appears to affect mainly the white unpigmented areas (see photo). Based on this observation, what is the best diagnosis? a. Ordinary sunburn b. Photosensitization c. Malignant Catarrhal Fever, skin form d. Insect hypersensitivity e. Allergic dermatitis

A change feed, treat The correct answer is to change feed and begin treatment of the animals affected with woody tongue, as the response is often good. Sodium iodide and antibiotics are effective. Given the presentation and clinical signs, these animals have probably begun to ingest very rough and stemmed (scabrous) feed items that have injured their mouths. Upon injury, the normal inhabitant Actinobacillus lignieresii invades the soft tissues and causes the characteristic woody tongue granulomatous inflammation. These animals don't have rabies, and there is no need to cull them. Change feed before additional animals are affected. Do not use aminoglycosides as they have an extremely long withdrawal period.

Several beef cows present with a history of decreased appetite and excessive salivation. On physical exam, their tongues are firm on palpation, nodular, and painful (see image). You diagnose actinobacillosis. What is your recommendation to the owner? a. Change feed and treat b. Isolate animals at once c. Isolate affected animals and submit one of them for necropsy d. Begin therapy with an aminoglycoside e. Sell affected animals for meat

D Clostridium perfringens type C The age of these affected pigs along with the rapid course of hemorrhagic and necrotic enteritis help you come to this conclusion. As with many Clostridial diseases, vaccination is the most effective means of control. Other important clostridial diseases of swine include C. perfringens type A, C. difficile, C. tetani, C. botulinum, C. novyi, C. septicum, and C. chauvoei.

Several litters of 2 to 3 day old pigs have recently died rapidly with hemorrhagic enteritis. Post mortem lesions include mucosal hemorrhage, necrosis and emphysema in the small intestines. What pathogen is most likely to cause these signs? a. Enterotoxigenic E. coli b. Haemophilus parasuis c. Salmonella choleraesuis d. Clostridium perfringens type C e. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

E 0.16% You do not need to know anything about the disease in this question in order to get the correct answer. You are told that the disease is recessive and has a carrier rate of 8% Because the trait is recessive, homozygotes will be the only individuals affected. In order for a foal to be born homozygous for the trait, BOTH parents MUST be carriers. The chances of both parents being carriers is 8% x 8% (or 0.08 x 0.08) = 0.0064 or 0.64%. If both parents are carriers, the offspring has a 1 in 4 chance of inheriting two mutant alleles (50% chance for each allele from each parent). Since the chances of both parents being carriers is 0.64% and the chance of having a homozygous offspring in that case is 1 in 4, the overall expected frequency of diseased foals is 0.0064 x 0.25= 0.0016 or 0.16%.

Severe combined immunodeficiency is a lethal autosomal recessive trait in Arabian foals. Heterozygotes are clinically normal. If the heterozygote carrier rate for the genetic mutation is 8%, what is the expected frequency of Arabian foals that are homozygous for the mutated allele? a. 0.64% b. 2% c. 4% d. 0.064% e. 0.16% f. 25%

C tritrichomonas foetus, ronidazole Tritrichomonas foetus is a flagellated parasite most commonly found in kittens that have had an unresponsive diarrhea. The parasite can be very difficult to diagnose. It is most often responsive to Ronidazole. Paragonimus is a lung fluke. The eggs are typically passed in the feces. Fenbendazole and Praziquantel have been effective against this parasite. Giardia is unlikely if the ELISA is negative as it is a very sensitive test. Taenia is a tapeworm and is not a flagellated parasite. It is treated with Praziquantel. Cryptosporidium is a coccidian that invades the small intestinal villi after ingestion of infected oocysts. It can be diagnosed with PCR. It is treated with clindamycin, azithromycin, or tylosin most commonly. It is usually an opportunist, so evaluation for underlying disease is appropriate. Enterobius vermicularis, or pinworm, is a parasite of people and primates but not cats and dogs.

Suzie-Q, a 6-month old female spayed domestic short hair was recently adopted from the humane society. She has had watery diarrhea since adoption. Her fecal float and Giardia ELISA tests were negative. She was treated with metronidazole with no clinical improvement. You soak a cotton tip swab with saline and swab the rectum. You see elongated motile oval shaped protozoan organisms that do not look like Giardia lamblia. What organism might this be and what is the appropriate therapy? a. Cryptosporidium, Clindamycin b. Giardia intestinalis, Fenbendazole c. Tritrichomonas foetus, Ronidazole d. Paragonimus kellicotti, Praziquantel e. Enterobius vermicularis, Fenbendazole f. Taenia taeniaformis, Praziquantel

C low potassium The cat in the image is exhibiting cervical ventroflexion, which is a general sign of weakness. The most common cause for this presentation is hypokalemia (low potassium), which can be caused by a variety of reasons (such as chronic renal failure). This weakness can also be caused by a number of different problems other than low potassium, including myasthenia gravis; polymyopathies caused by toxoplasmosis, immune-mediated disease, or hyperadrenocorticism; and neuropathies caused by organophosphate poisoning, thiamine deficiency, or botulism.

The cat in the image below presents for lethargy, depression, and weakness. The cat can't seem to lift his head (as seen in this image). You recommend running a chemistry panel on the cat. What potential finding explains can explain the findings? a. High urea nitrogen b. Low calcium c. Low potassium d. Low phosphorus e. High glucose

B disruption of the function of the plumage Feathers serve a critical waterproofing and insulatory function which is disrupted by oil and can rapidly result in hypothermia. Other concerns for oiled birds include GI irritation from ingestion of oil during preening, hemolytic anemia, and pneumonia due to inhalation of oil. Treatments include heat, supportive care, and activated charcoal. Once stabilized, frequent high pressure, warm, mild detergent baths and clean warm water rinses until water beads freely off of the feathers is important. Birds should be placed in warm air flow until dry and they should be maintained on self-skimming ponds for several days after washing to ensure full waterproofing.

The goose shown in the image below was found weak on the shore of a local pond where oil had been dumped. The goose was covered in oil, dehydrated and weak but responsive. Which of the following is an important acute clinical effect of oil on affected birds? a. Nephrotoxicity b. Disruption of function of the plumage c. Hepatotoxicity d. Lead toxicity e. Contact dermatitis

A bacillary hemoglobinuria Also known as redwater, bacillary hemoglobinuria is caused by germination of Clostridium Novyi type D spores in the liver after anaerobic damage by migrating liver fluke larvae. Cl. Novyi was formerly called Cl. hemolyticum. Vaccination can prevent this disease.

The image shows an infarct in the liver discovered on post mortem exam of a mature beef cow which died one hour before in a western mountain pasture, after being observed to appear normal one day earlier. There is also dark red urine in the bladder. The pasture contains native plants, some pine trees, and a marshy area with water plants. The cows are unvaccinated and were never wormed. Given this history and the lesion found, the most likely cause of death is _________. a. Bacillary hemoglobinuria b. Pine needle poisoning c. Blue-green algae toxicity d. Viral hepatitis e. Death camas toxicity

B acidifying diet This cat most likely has a struvite bladder stone. This cannot be determined without a stone analysis, but based on the signalment of the patient, the crystalluria, and the radiograph, this is the most likely type. These types of stones typically form in urine with a high pH. Therefore, an acidifying diet would be appropriate for stone dissolution. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common type of stone to form in acidic urine. For this type, an alkalinizing diet would be the most appropriate. Clavamox would only be indicated if this cat had a urinary tract infection sensitive to this antibiotic. This cat had a negative urine culture. Metacam can be used short-term to help with pain and inflammation associated with the cystitis from this condition but unfortunately Metacam is no longer recommend for use in cats in the United States. Potassium citrate is a supplement that can be given in addition to an alkalinizing diet to prevent the formation of calcium oxalate stones. This would be contraindicated in this case.

Tommy, a 4-year old male neutered domestic short hair, presents to you for frequent urination. Urinalysis reveals 4+ struvite crystals. An abdominal radiograph shows a 1 cm round calculus in the bladder. Tommy does not have a urethral blockage, and urine culture is negative. The owner says surgery to remove this stone is not an option due to finances. Which of the following would be the most important treatment for Tommy? a. Metacam b. Acidifying diet c. Potassium citrate d. Clavamox e. Alkalinizing diet

B vomiting The correct answer is vomiting. Xylazine frequently causes vomiting in cats. In fact, veterinarians use Xylazine when they wish to induce emesis in cats. It can also cause decreased PCV, mydriasis, and diuresis.

What is a common side effect of xylazine administration in cats? a. Anuria b. Vomiting c. Polycythemia d. Miosis e. Seizures

C ileocolic artery The correct answer is ileocolic artery. The site for colonic resection is limited by tension on the ileocolic artery when trying to suture your new end of colon to the rectum. Sometimes the tension is too great and instead of a colocolic anastomosis, an ileocolic anastomosis must be performed. Essentially you are trying to connect a section of ascending colon to the rectum. Now that can be pretty far! Performing an ileocolic anastomosis is not ideal because you eliminate the ileocecal valve, and that may predispose the animal to bacterial overgrowth. The caudal mesenteric artery gives branches to the rectum and descending colon. The left colic artery also feeds the descending colon. The pudendal artery supplies the external genitalia. The ileocolic artery provides blood supply to the ascending and transverse colon.

When performing a subtotal colectomy on a feline patient, what blood vessel limits the amount of colon that you are able to remove? a. Caudal Mesenteric artery b. Pudendal artery c. Ileocolic artery d. Left Colic artery

C streptococcus suis The correct answer is Streptococcus suis. Streptococcus suis and H. parasuis both cause polyarthritis, polyserositis, fever, and pneumonia in young piglets up to several weeks of age. Both can cause fibrinopurulent inflammation as well as meningitis and convulsions. Erysipelas and M. hyosynoviae typically occur in grower and finisher pigs and do not result in pneumonia. Diamond-shaped skin lesions (thus the name "diamond skin disease") are pathognomonic for Erysipelas. Fusobacterium necrophorum causes lameness via footrot or laminitis.

Which infectious agent causes the clinical presentation of pigs most similar to Haemophilus parasuis (Glasser's disease)? a. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae b. Fusobacterium necrophorum c. Streptococcus suis d. Mycoplasma hyosynoviae

D cyproheptadine The correct answer is cyproheptadine. Other appetite stimulants used for stimulating food consumption include mirtazipine, diazepam and oxazepam.

Which of the following drugs is known for stimulating appetite in small animals? a. Acyclovir b. Omeprazole c. Tetracycline d. Cyproheptadine

A moraxella bovis The correct answer is Moraxella bovis. Thelazia is the eye worm. Histophilus somni is a cause of many syndromes, but is rarely found in the eye. E. coli is not an ocular pathogen.

Which of the following is a causative agent of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis as shown in this image? a. Moraxella bovis b. E. coli c. Thelazia d. Histophilus somni

B brucella melitensis B. melitensis is a severe pathogen in humans, as are B. abortus from cattle, B. suis from pigs and B. canis from dogs.

Which of the following zoonotic pathogens is most likely to be acquired via raw goat milk? a. Bacillus anthracis b. Brucella melitensis c. Brucella abortus d. Brucella suis e. Clostridium difficile

C recipient red blood cells, donor plasma The correct answer is recipient red blood cells, donor plasma. In a minor crossmatch, you are looking to see if the factors in the plasma of the donor are going to react to the recipient's red blood cells.

Which of these are used in the minor cross match for blood products when looking for a compatible blood donor for a dog? a. Donor red blood cells, recipient plasma b. Donor red blood cells, donor plasma c. Recipient red blood cells, donor plasma d. Recipient red blood cells, recipient plasma

C neomycin The correct answer is neomycin. Aminoglycosides are one of the most common causes of renal tubular nephrosis and acute renal failure. Of the aminoglycosides, neomycin is probably the most nephrotoxic, followed by gentamicin, amikacin, and streptomycin. The other big class of nephrotoxic drugs is non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

Which of these drugs has the greatest potential for causing acute renal failure in the horse? a. Dexamethasone b. Oxytetracycline c. Neomycin d. Xylazine e. Diphenhydramine

D atracurium The correct answer is atracurium. Atracurium is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. Other neuromuscular blockers include pancuronium, d-tubocurarine and succinylcholine. Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. Fentanyl is an opioid. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist. Edrophonium and neostigmine are cholinesterase inhibitors used to reverse neuromuscular blockers.

Which of these drugs is a neuromuscular blocker when given to a dog? a. Naloxone b. Fentanyl c. Edrophonium d. Atracurium e. Neostigmine

A thiopental The correct answer is thiopental. Thiopental is an ultra-short acting barbiturate. Recovery depends on redistribution to tissues, including fat. Because sighthounds have very little fat, they have prolonged recoveries and greater complications with these drugs.

Which of these drugs should not be used in Greyhounds? a. Thiopental b. Propofol c. Ivermectin d. Morphine

B dopamine The correct answer is dopamine. Adrenergic vasopressors are frequently used to treat hypotension during anesthesia. Drugs in this category are dopamine, dobutamine, ephedrine, phenylephrine, and norepinephrine. Atropine and glycopyrrolate are anticholinergic drugs. Hydralazine is a vasodilator used to treat hypertension.

Which of these is an adrenergic vasopressor in dogs? a. Atropine b. Dopamine c. Hydralazine d. Glycopyrrolate

C auriculopalpebral nerve block The correct answer is auriculopalpebral nerve block. Blocking this branch of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) disrupts the motor innervation to the orbicularis oculi, which is the muscle that closes the eye. In the horse, this muscle is very strong and can prevent a thorough ocular exam. To perform this block, lidocaine is injected subcutaneously at the caudal aspect of the zygomatic arch where the nerve is palpable. Because this is a motor nerve, the eye will not be able to close as well, but there is no anesthesia of the tissue.

Which of these nerve blocks is used to examine the eyes of a horse? a. Trigeminal nerve block b. Corneal nerve block c. Auriculopalpebral nerve block d. Oculomotor nerve block

A clostridium tetani This camel is showing signs of tetanus. The organism was likely introduced into the body through the castration wound. It is recommended that camels are vaccinated against tetanus prior to castration. Reference: Trop Anim Health Prod. 2004 Apr;36(3):217-24. While rabies may cause paralysis of the tongue and difficulty swallowing, the recent history of castration in this camel makes tetanus most likely. Trypanosoma evansi is transmitted via biting flies and causes a slow wasting disease in camels.

You are called out to examine a 4-year old dromedary who was castrated 10-days ago and is now not eating. The groin and prepucial area is extremely swollen. The camel is unable to stand and is drooling. His neck is extended and he appears to be unable to swallow. Which of the following is most likely responsible for these symptoms? a. Clostridium tetani b. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus c. Trypanosoma evansi d. Rabies virus

E 4 to 8 liters of fresh whole blood IV In the case of an acute blood loss such as this, the most important treatment is whole blood. Other sodium-containing fluids may be beneficial while the blood is being collected if this will not result in losing time in getting the whole blood into this cow. In most cases the single blood transfusion results in recovery. After about 24 hours the cow will exhibit melena as the digested blood reaches the rectum.

You are called to examine and treat a valuable 3 year old show cow that appeared normal yesterday but has collapsed and is too weak to get up (see photo). You examine her and find T=102F or 38.9 C, HR=130, and RR=42. Her heart is pounding very loudly. The mucous membranes of her eyes, mouth and vulva are all very pale. You diagnose an acutely bleeding abomasal ulcer. What is the most important treatment? a. 20 liters of 1.3% sodium bicarbonate IV b. 4 liters of commercial plasma IV plus vitamin k c. 40 liters of saline IV d. 40 liters balanced electrolytes orally e. 4 to 8 liters of fresh whole blood IV

A thelazia Thelazia is a genus of nematode worms (eyeworms) which are found in the ocular tissues. Adults are usually found in the eyelids, tear glands, tear ducts, or the nictitating membrane. They may be found in the eyeball itself under the conjunctiva or in the vitreous. Thelazia are transmitted by Diptera (flies) which do not bite but feed on tears. Toxocara, which causes ocular larval migrans, usually causes granulomas which may be seen in the retina and appear more circular.

You are doing a summer externship in South America and performing physical exams on a variety of animals. You are performing a fundic exam on the eye of a horse and note what appears to be a worm migrating through the conjunctiva (see image). Because of the location and appearance of this parasite, you suspect this is which of the following? a. Thelazia b. Oxyuris c. Toxocara d. Dirofilaria

C oxytocin/lavage uterus Most texts state that the placenta in a mare is retained after greater than 3 hours post-parturition; therefore, this would be considered a retained placenta. Oxytocin, along with uterine lavage, will cause the uterus to contract and facilitate expulsion of the placenta. Strong physical traction on the retained placenta is generally considered contraindicated, as you may tear the placenta and leave remnants of it within the uterus, resulting in possible complications. Broad-spectrum antimicrobials are often administered to decrease the incidence of metritis but alone would not be appropriate.

You are examining a 13-year old Standardbred brood mare 5 hours after parturition. You note that the placenta is still present in the reproductive tract of the mare (see image). What is the most appropriate therapy? a. Do nothing; the placenta is not considered retained until 12 hours post-parturition and it will likely be expelled by this time b. Administer penicillin (IM) until the placenta is expelled on its own c. Administer oxytocin (IM or IV) and lavage the uterus to facilitate removal d. Place physical traction on the placenta and remove it manually

C Dg thru insecticide, Os thru pesticide Dermanyssus gallinae (the common red mite) maintains the majority of the population in the environment so it is important to monitor and treat the environment including the cracks and crevices where mites tend to reside. Ornithonyssus sylviarum mites (northern fowl mites) spend their entire life cycle on the bird. This allows them to multiply more rapidly and makes it essential to treat the birds themselves to control the problem.

You are visiting a small "back-yard" flock of chickens and examining the animals. You find several small gray-red mites (approx 0.7 mm) on several of the chickens which you recognize as Dermanyssus gallinae and Ornithonyssus sylviarum. How are these mites best controlled? a. Control of both Dermanyssus gallinae and Ornithonyssus sylviarum relies on thorough insecticidal treatment of the environment b. Control of both Ornithonyssus sylviarum and Dermanyssus gallinae relies on application of approved pesticides to affected birds c. Dermanyssus gallinae is controlled primarily by thorough insecticidal treatment of the environment and Ornithonyssus sylviarum must be controlled by application of approved pesticides to affected birds d. Ornithonyssus sylviarum is controlled primarily by thorough insecticidal treatment of the environment and Dermanyssus gallinae must be controlled by application of approved pesticides to affected birds

D Se deficiency The correct answer is selenium deficiency. The pale muscle and clinical signs are classic for vitamin E and selenium deficiency. This is important to remember! Other things that should be on your differential list for this case include cardiotoxic plants.

You are working with a farmer who is having trouble with calves between the age of 2 weeks and 6 months. They are alert, but weak, dyspneic and die suddenly. On necropsy they have pale cardiac and skeletal muscles. What is the farmer's problem? a. Sorghum toxicity b. Lightning strike c. Copper deficiency d. Selenium deficiency

D demodex The correct answer is Demodex. Demodex mites are a natural inhabitant of skin. Clinical signs of a Demodex infection usually occur in puppies or immune-suppressed animals. The other mites listed are considered contagious.

You diagnose a dog with mites. Which of the following mites is not contagious to other dogs? a. Cheyletiella spp. b. Sarcoptes spp. c. Psoroptes spp. d. Demodex spp.

A anthrax The correct answer is anthrax. Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis. The black blood from the orifices, incomplete rigor mortis, and acute death is very characteristic of the disease in cattle. Lesions occur in the reticuloendothelial system and vasculature. Do not perform a necropsy on the animal as you would potentially release spores into the environment. You should notify the authorities if you suspect the disease.

You go to a ranch to evaluate the sudden death of a bull. There is black, bloody discharge from all orifices. There is incomplete rigor mortis despite being dead for a day. What is your most likely diagnosis? a. Anthrax b. Moldy sweet clover toxicity c. Tetanus d. Botulism e. Grass staggers

E atipamezole Atipamezole (trade name: Antisedan), an alpha-2 antagonist, is the reversal agent for medetomidine (trade name: Dormitor). Medetomidine is an alpha-2 agonist. Xylazine would be another example of an alpha-2 agonist. Yohimbine is its reversal agent. Other alpha-2 agonists are clonidine, detomidine, dexmedetomidine and romifidine 2-pralidoxime is a reversal agent for cholinesterase inhibitors. Flumazenil is a reversal agent for benzodiazepines Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist of acetylcholine and may be dangerous to use after administration of alpha-2 agonists. This is because alpha-2 agonists cause marked vasoconstriction and high afterload on the heart. Giving atropine and increasing the heart rate can place further stress on the heart. You do not want to set in motion peripheral vasoconstriction and compensatory bradycardia brought on by the alpha-2, then increase the heart rate against that high afterload. This could make for an unhappy heart in the event underlying subclinical heart disease is present.

You need to perform a CBC and take thoracic radiographs on a somewhat fractious cat. You sedate the cat with an intramuscular injection of medetomidine. While on the X-ray table, you become concerned that the cat is not doing well and you decide you want to reverse the effects of medetomidine. What should you give the cat? a. Atropine b. 2-pralidoxime c. Flumazenil d. Xylazine e. Atipamezole

E urate The correct answer is urate. Animals with portosystemic shunts are very predisposed to developing urate uroliths due to their inability to metabolize purines appropriately.

You perform an abdominal ultrasound to evaluate a Yorkshire Terrier with a suspected liver shunt. After finding the shunt vessel, you complete the ultrasound and find several calculi in the bladder. What is the most likely type of stone? a. Cysteine b. Struvite c. Xanthine d. Calcium oxalate e. Urate

D not contagious, other cat may be fine Feline infectious peritonitis is not a contagious disease. It is a disease that is caused by a mutation of feline enteric coronavirus. It is unknown why in some patients this virus mutates and causes the FIP syndrome. It is most likely to occur in young or immunocompromised cats. Her other cat is not necessarily going to get FIP just from exposure. In fact, the majority of the cat population has been exposed to the feline enteric coronavirus. Because most cats in the general population have been exposed, it makes interpretation of coronavirus titers difficult. The titers can be elevated due to prior exposure and not from FIP. The titers can only be interpreted in lieu of clinical signs, blood results, etc. L-lysine is an anti-viral medication that may have some benefit for suppression of herpes virus but would not be a prevention or treatment choice for coronavirus. The coronavirus is shed in the cat's feces during active infection with coronavirus. Some infected cats do not shed the virus. The virus attacks the intestinal tract and causes GI upset. PCR on the feces would detect coronavirus, but does not distinguish between the enteric coronavirus and the mutated FIP form of the virus.

You see an 8-month old kitten with the effusive form of feline infectious peritonitis and perform euthanasia. The kitten was having severe diarrhea around the house when it became ill. The owner has a 2 year old cat at home and wants to know what this cat's prognosis is since it has been exposed to the sick kitten. Currently this cat is clinically healthy. What do you tell her? a. Perform a PCR on the cat's feces to see if the virus is being shed b. Place the cat on L-lysine to prevent or suppress any infection with FIP c. You recommend a coronavirus titer to determine it the cat is actively infected d. Feline infectious peritonitis is not contagious and because her other cat died of FIP does not mean this cat will succumb to the disease e. Her other cat may develop symptoms within the next two weeks because FIP is highly contagious