Virology Harr/Bank

12. Which technique is used for the confirmation of infection with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV-1)? A. Western blot (immunoblot) assay B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) C. Complement fixation D. p24 Antigen testing

ANS: A

15. The most rapid definitive diagnosis of a genital herpes simplex (HSV-2) infection in a 20-year-old man is made by which method? A. Direct immunofluorescence test for viral antigen in vesicle fluid B. Titer of serum and seminal fluid for antibodies to herpes simplex C. Detection of antiherpes simplex in seminal fluid D. Cell culture of vesicle fluid

ANS: A

17. A 60-year-old male gardener from New York State was hospitalized with flulike symptoms and eventually diagnosed with encephalitis. While working in his garden, he noticed several dead birds around his bird feeder. The region was known to be heavily infested with mosquitoes. What is the most likely cause of his illness? A. West Nile virus B. Epstein-Barr virus C. Parvovirus D. Hantavirus

ANS: A

18. A 30-year-old male patient who was a contractor and building inspector in the southwestern United States complained of difficulty breathing and was admitted to the hospital with severe respiratory disease. The physician noted a high fever and cough. Two days before, the patient had inspected an old warehouse, abandoned and infested with rodents. The patient was given intravenous antibiotics, but 2 days into therapy the pneumonia worsened and he developed pulmonary edema. Which organism should be suspected of causing his illness? A. Hantavirus B. Rotavirus C. West Nile virus D. Norwalk-like virus

ANS: A

2. Which virus is the most common etiological agent of viral respiratory diseases in infants and children? A. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) B. Measles virus C. Coxsackie A virus D. Coxsackie B virus

ANS: A

21. A 6-month-old male infant was hospitalized with a respiratory infection. He was diagnosed with apnea and bronchiolitis. Further testing revealed congenital heart disease. Bacterial cultures were negative for Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae. What further testing should be done? A. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) B. Rotavirus C. Norwalk virus D. HIV

ANS: A

23. A 40-year-old female experienced a respiratory infection after returning home from a visit to her homeland of China. A rapid onset of pneumonia in the lower respiratory area prompted the physician to place her in isolation. She was diagnosed presumptively with severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) and placed on a respirator. What type of testing should be done next to diagnose this disease? A. Molecular technique and cell culture B. Latex agglutination test C. Blood culture D. Complement fixation

ANS: A

30. An immunocompromised patient was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hemorrhagic cystitis. Which combination of virus and specimen would be most appropriate to diagnose a viral cause of this disorder? A. BK virus—urine B. Human papilloma virus—skin C. Hepatitis B virus—serum D. Epstein-Barr virus—serum

ANS: A

4. Which of the following viruses is implicated along with Epstein-Barr virus as a cause of infectious mononucleosis? A. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) B. Coxsackie A virus C. Coxsackie B virus D. Hepatitis B virus

ANS: A

5. The most common causes of viral pneumonia in adults are: A. Influenza and adenovirus B. Hepatitis A and B viruses C. Coxsackie A and B viruses D. Herpes simplex and CMV

ANS: A

9. Which virus has been implicated in adult gastroenteritis resulting from ingestion of contaminated food (especially shellfish) and water? A. Norwalk-like viruses B. Rotavirus C. Hepatitis C virus D. Coronavirus

ANS: A

Presence of this HBV serologic marker indicates a person is highly infectious. A. HBs antigen B. HBc antigen C. Anti-HBs D. Anti-HBc

ANS: A

23. Complications of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection include all the following EXCEPT: a. Acute glomerulonephritis b. Reye's syndrome c. Thrombocytopenia purpura with hemolytic anemia d. Splenic hemorrhage and rupture

ANS: A Complications of EBV infections are splenic hemorrhage and rupture, hepatitis, thrombocytopenia purpura with hemolytic anemia, Reye's syndrome, encephalitis, and other neurologic syndromes. REF: page 715 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

20. What is another name for HHV-3? a. Varicella-zoster b. Cytomegalovirus c. Herpes simplex d. Epstein-Barr

ANS: A Eight species of human herpesviruses (HHV) are currently known: herpes simplex virus type I (HSV-1); herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2); varicella-zoster virus (VZV), also known as HHV-3; Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), also known as HHV-4; cytomegalovirus (CMV), also known as HHV-5; human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6); human herpesvirus 7 (HHV-7), and human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8), also known as Kaposi's sarcoma herpes virus (KSHV). REF: page 713 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

11. What is a primary cell culture? a. This is where tissue is removed from an animal, arranged in a monolayer, and very little cell division occurs. b. It is a culture that can divide, but passage is limited to 50 generations. c. It has variable numbers of chromosomes and indefinite passage. d. This describes are the only cells the specimen will be plated on.

ANS: A Primary cell cultures are obtained from tissue and removed from an animal. The tissue is finely minced and then treated with an enzyme such as trypsin to further disperse individual cells. The cells are then seeded onto a surface to form a monolayer. With primary cell lines, only minimal cell division occurs. REF: page 710 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

40. What infectious agent causes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru, and "mad cow" disease? a. Prion b. Bacteria c. Virus d. Parasite

ANS: A Prions, proteinaceous infectious particles, cause a group of disease in mammals called transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs). Examples of TSEs include Kuru and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans, scrapie in sheep, bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE, or mad cow disease) in cattle, and chronic wasting disease in elk. REF: page 739 OBJ: Level 2 - Interpretation

34. What is the most common virus isolated from infants with lower respiratory infections and causes croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and interstitial pneumonia? a. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) b. LASSA c. Rotavirus d. Norovirus

ANS: A RSV is the most common virus isolated from infants with lower respiratory tract infections and causes croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and interstitial pneumonia. REF: page 728 OBJ: Level 2 - Interpretation

37. What viruses cause rabies? a. Lyssavirus b. Lassavirus c. Marburgvirus d. Calicivirus

ANS: A Rabies is caused by several strains of viruses belonging to the genus Lyssavirus. REF: page 732 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

27. What virus is the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants and children? a. Rotavirus b. Influenzae virus c. Torovirus d. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

ANS: A Rotaviruses are the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants and children. REF: page 720 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

7. All the following methods are used by the laboratory to diagnose viral infections EXCEPT: a. Chemiluminescence b. Direct detection c. Culture d. Serologic assays

ANS: A The laboratory uses three major methods to diagnose viral infections: direct detection of the virus in the clinical specimens, isolation of the virus in culture, and serologic assays to detect viral antibodies. REF: page 708 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

3. What is the sequence of viral infection, then destruction of a host cell? a. Attachment, penetration, replication, cell lysis b. Penetration, attachment, replication, cell lysis c. Replication, penetration, attachment, cell lysis d. Penetration, replication, attachment, cell lysis

ANS: A The virus first attaches to the host cell. Next, the genome penetrates into the host cell. Once in the host cell, the virus uses the host cell machinery to replicate itself. Once replication is complete and the new viruses are assembled and ready to go, the cell is lysed to release the new viruses. REF: page 706 OBJ: Level 2 - Interpretation

30. What virus causes the Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome? a. Sin Nombre virus b. Dobrava virus c. Junin d. Lassa

ANS: A The virus that occurred in mice and had infected the couple in New Mexico was ultimately characterized as a new Hantavirus; it was named Sin Nombre ("no name") virus. The disease caused by this virus is now known as Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome. REF: page 722 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

15. All of the following are problems that are inherent with using serologic methods to diagnose viral infections, EXCEPT: a. The host does not produce specific antibodies to viruses. b. Serologic assays measure host response rather than directly detecting the virus. c. The antibody-producing capabilities of human hosts vary widely. d. The antibody level does not correlate with the activity level of the infection.

ANS: A Viral serology provides limited information, and certain problems are inherent in the methods. First, serologic assays measure host response rather than directly detecting the virus. Second, the antibody-producing capabilities of human hosts vary widely and the antibody level does not necessarily correlate with the acuteness or acuity level of the infection. REF: page 712 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

2. What requirements do viruses have for replication? a. They must be inside a living cell. b. They must be in an environment where all the necessary amino acids are present. c. They can use a dead cell to replicate. d. They need to be around dead, decaying flesh so that all the amino acids and enzymes are present.

ANS: A Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they must be inside a living cell to replicate. REF: page 706 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

22. A young male hunter encountered a fox in his path during a walk in the woods. The fox was staggering but appeared nonthreatening. The man tried to avoid contact but was attacked and bitten on the leg. The bite broke the skin but was not deep. Wildlife officials were unable to locate the fox for testing. What procedure should take place next for the hunter? A. Spinal tap with CSF testing for rabies virus B. Administration of hyperimmune antirabies globulin and rabies vaccine C. Biopsy of the wound site D. Throat culture and blood culture

ANS: B

25. A young father of two small children complained of a rash on the torso of his body. The children had been diagnosed with chickenpox and confined to their home. The father had experienced chickenpox as a child and knew he did not have the same rash as his children. What is the most likely cause of the father's rash? A. Herpes simplex 1 virus B. Varicella-zoster virus C. Herpes simplex 2 virus D. Epstein-Barr virus

ANS: B

26. The organs of a 65-year-old male were donated soon after a fatal auto accident. Three recipients of his corneas and kidneys died within weeks after receiving his organs. Which of the following viruses most likely caused the death of these recipients? A. HIV B. Rabies C. Norwalk-like D. Rotavirus

ANS: B

28. SITUATION: A patient tested positive for HIV-1 infection using a reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) method. However, 1 week later a second blood sample was collected and sent to a reference lab that performed a confirmatory test by Western blot. The Western blot test was negative. What best explains these results? A. The samples for RT-PCR and Western blot were not from the same patient B. RT-PCR is more sensitive for early detection C. The RT-PCR result was falsely positive D. The RT-PCR test detected HIV-2 and the Western blot is specific for HIV-1

ANS: B

29. SITUATION: A pregnant women was seen by her obstetrician with signs of flulike illness during her second trimester. NAT tests were ordered for Toxoplasma gondii, rubella, cytomegalovirus, and herpes simplex 1 and 2. All test results were negative. However, after delivery, the newborn exhibited signs of an infection and failed to survive. Which virus causes a 90% transplacental infection rate when found in the mother? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis D D. Hepatitis G

ANS: B

6. Which virus belonging to the Reoviridae group causes gastroenteritis in infants and young children but an asymptomatic infection in adults? A. Coxsackie B virus B. Rotavirus C. Respiratory syncytial virus D. Rhabdovirus

ANS: B

Chronic carriers of HBV A. have chronic symptoms B. continue to carry HBV C. do not transmit infection D. carry HBV but are not infectious

ANS: B

How is hepatitis B transmitted? A. Contaminated food and water B. Blood and body fluids C. Respiratory droplets D. Airborne

ANS: B

Which hepatitis virus is spread by the fecal-oral route? A. Hepatitis B B. Hepatitis A C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis D

ANS: B

Which serologic marker would be expected to be found in the serum of someone successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B virus (HBV)? A. Anti-HBe B. Anti-HBs C. Anti-HBc D. Anti-HDV

ANS: B

16. Adenoviruses produce all the following types of infections EXCEPT: a. Acute hemorrhagic cystitis b. Meningitis c. Acute respiratory distress d. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis

ANS: B Although half of all adenovirus infections are asymptomatic, the virus causes about 10% of all pneumonia and 5% to 15% of all gastroenteritis in children. The virus causes upper respiratory tract infections, acute respiratory distress, epidemic keratoconjunctivitis, acute hemorrhagic cystitis, and pharyngoconjunctival fever. REF: page 713 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

12. What is a diploid cell culture? a. This is where tissue is removed from an animal, arranged in a monolayer, and very little cell division occurs. b. It is a culture that can divide, but passage is limited to 50 generations. c. It has variable numbers of chromosomes and indefinite passage. d. This describes the only cells the specimen will be plated on.

ANS: B Diploid cell cultures can divide, but passage is limited to about 50 generations. With increasing passage, diploid cells become more insensitive to viral infection. REF: page 711 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

24. What cancer is Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) associated with? a. Hodgkin's lymphoma b. Burkitt's lymphoma c. Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma d. T-cell leukemia

ANS: B EBV has been associated with some cancers, including Burkitt's lymphoma and nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC). Burkitt's lymphoma is a malignant disease of the lymphoid tissue seen most commonly in African children. REF: page 715 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

19. What is another name for HHV-5? a. Varicella-zoster b. Cytomegalovirus c. Herpes simplex d. Epstein-Barr

ANS: B Eight species of human herpesviruses (HHV) are currently known: herpes simplex virus type I (HSV-1); herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2); varicella-zoster virus (VZV), also known as HHV-3; Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), also known as HHV-4; cytomegalovirus (CMV), also known as HHV-5; human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6); human herpesvirus 7 (HHV-7), and human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8), also known as Kaposi's sarcoma herpes virus (KSHV). REF: page 713 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

31. What virus is the most common cause of arboviral encephalitis in the world? a. Ebola b. Japanese encephalitis virus c. Venezuelan equine encephalitis virus d. Eastern equine encephalitis virus

ANS: B Japanese encephalitis (JE) virus is a major cause of encephalitis in Asia and is the most common cause of arboviral encephalitis in the world. REF: page 724 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

5. What is the composition of viral transport media? a. Amies media with charcoal b. Isotonic buffered saline with protein c. Cary-Blair d. Cooked meat broth

ANS: B Several viral transport systems are commercially available. Most transport media consist of buffered isotonic solution with some type of protein, such as albumin, gelatin, or serum, to protect less stable viruses. REF: page 708 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

1. Classification of viruses is made by: A. Complement fixation serology B. Electron microscopy C. Nucleic acid composition D. Cellular inclusion bodies

ANS: C

13. A 13-year-old boy was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of viral encephalitis. History revealed that the boy harbored wild raccoons from nearby woods. What is the best method to determine if the boy has contracted rabies? A. Remove the brainstems from all of the raccoons and examine for cytopathic effects B. Request immunofluorescent test for antibody on the saliva from all of the raccoons C. Request immunofluorescent test for antigen in cutaneous nerves obtained by nuchal biopsy of the patient D. Isolate the virus from the saliva of both the animals and the patient

ANS: C

16. A 20-year-old female college student complained of a sore throat and extreme fatigue. The physician noted lymphadenopathy and ordered a rapid test for infectious mononucleosis antibodies that was negative. Bacterial cultures were negative, as were serological tests for influenza A and B, HIV-1, CMV, hepatitis B, and antistreptolysin O. What would be the next line of viral testing to establish a diagnosis? A. Herpes simplex B. Rubella C. Epstein-Barr D. West Nile

ANS: C

Which hepatitis virus commonly leads to chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis, often requiring a liver transplant, and causes a high risk for development of liver cancer? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis D C. Hepatitis C D. Hepatitis E

ANS: C

Which virus is a bloodborne pathogen? A. Hepatitis A virus B. Rabies virus C. Hepatitis C virus D. Norovirus

ANS: C

13. What are continuous cell cultures? a. This is where tissue is removed from an animal, arranged in a monolayer, and very little cell division occurs. b. It is a culture that can divide, but passage is limited to 50 generations. c. It often has variable numbers of chromosomes and indefinite passage. d. This describes the only cells the specimen will be plated on.

ANS: C Continuous cell cultures have variable numbers of chromosomes and are capable of indefinite passage. Continuous cell lines are heteroploid, meaning they have an abnormal and a variable number of chromosomes that is not a multiple of the normal haploid number. REF: page 711 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

21. What virus causes genital herpes? a. Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) b. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) c. Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2) d. Human herpesvirus (HHV-5)

ANS: C Genital herpes are usually caused by HSV-2, although HSV-1 can cause as many as one third of the infections. REF: page 714 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

38. Which virus is a blood-borne pathogen? a. Hepatitis A virus (HAV) b. Rabies c. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) d. Norovirus

ANS: C Hepatitis C is spread through blood and blood products. REF: page 737 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

9. All the following are direct methods for diagnosing viral infections EXCEPT: a. Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) b. Direct fluorescent antibody (DFA) c. Radioimmunoassay (RIA) d. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

ANS: C In DFA tests, host cells are fixed to a microscope slide and fluorescence-labeled antibodies are added. The IFA test for antigen detection can also be used. Many EIA tests for viral detection are commercially available; most are packaged as microtiter plate assays. REF: page 708 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

32. What is the most common flavivirus infection in the United States? a. West Nile virus b. Eastern equine encephalitis virus c. St. Louis encephalitis d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

ANS: C In the United States, the most common flavivirus is St. Louis encephalitis (SLE). Since the mid- 1970s, an average of 193 cases of SLE has been reported annually in the United States. REF: page 725 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

39. What is a prion? a. A virion b. A viroid c. A proteinaceous infectious particle d. A lipopolysaccharide infectious particle

ANS: C Prions, proteinaceous infectious particles, cause a group of diseases in mammals called transmissible spongiform encephalopathies. REF: page 739 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

35. What virus is the major cause of the common cold? a. Rotavirus b. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) c. Rhinovirus d. Norovirus

ANS: C Rhinoviruses are the major cause of the common cold. REF: page 730 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

6. What is an unsuitable storage temperature for viruses because it allows the development of ice crystals? a. 4 C b. -10 C c. -20 C d. -70 C

ANS: C Specimens should not be stored at -20 C. This temperature facilitates the formation of ice crystals, which disrupts the host cells and results in significant loss of viral viability. REF: page 708 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

28. What was the first arenavirus found to cause hemorrhagic fever? a. Ebola b. Malta c. Junin d. Marburg

ANS: C The first of the arenaviruses found to cause hemorrhagic fever was the Junin virus, which causes Argentine hemorrhagic fever. REF: page 721 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

17. What type of genome do herpesviruses have? a. SsDNA b. RNA c. DsDNA d. Both dsDNA and RNA

ANS: C The herpesviruses have a genome of linear dsDNA, an icosahedral capsid, an amorphous integument surrounding the capsid, and an outer envelope. REF: page 713 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

25. What disease does the varicella zoster virus (VZV) cause? a. Mumps b. Genital warts c. Chickenpox d. Rubella

ANS: C VZV, in the genus Varicellovirus, spreads by droplet inhalation or direct contact with infectious lesions. The virus causes two different clinical manifestations: varicella (chickenpox) and zoster (shingles). REF: page 717 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

4. When is the best time to collect a specimen from a patient suspected of having a viral disease? a. 1 week after onset of symptoms b. 5 days after onset of symptoms c. Less than 3 days after onset of symptoms d. 2 weeks after onset of symptoms

ANS: C Viral shedding is usually greatest during the early stages of infection, so the best specimens are those collected as early as possible. The sensitivity of viral culture may decrease rapidly 3 days after onset of symptoms. REF: page 708 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

10. Which virus is associated with venereal and respiratory tract warts and produces lesions of skin and mucous membranes? A. Polyomavirus B. Poxvirus C. Adenovirus D. Papillomavirus

ANS: D

11. A clinical test used for the detection and identification of viral infections other than culture is: A. Hemagglutination B. Hemadsorption C. Viral antigen detection D. All of these options

ANS: D

14. A 65-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital with acute respiratory distress, fever, myalgia, and headache. Influenza A or B was suspected after ruling out bacterial pneumonia. Which of the following methods could be used to confirm influenza infection? A. Influenza virus culture in Madin-Darby canine kidney B. Hemagglutination-inhibition test for antibodies in the patient's serum C. Direct examination of nasal epithelium for virus using fluorescent antibody stain D. All of these options

ANS: D

19. A 3-year-old female was admitted to the hospital following a 2-day visit with relatives over the Christmas holidays. Vomiting and diarrhea left the child severely dehydrated. No other members of the family were affected. All bacterial cultures proved negative. A stool sample should be tested for which virus? A. CMV B. EBV C. Hepatitis D D. Rotavirus

ANS: D

20. A 25-year-old male patient was diagnosed with HIV-1 by enzyme immunoassay, testing positive twice, and the diagnosis was confirmed by Western blot testing. Which laboratory test should be performed prior to initiating antiviral therapy? A. Quantitative plasma virus concentration (viral load testing) B. Quantitation of CD4 lymphocytes C. Phenotype/genotype resistance testing D. All of these options

ANS: D

24. A pregnant 25-year-old female with genital lesions delivered a premature newborn with complications. The baby tested negative for bacterial infection (cultures of blood and urine). Antigen testing of the baby's urine proved negative for group B streptococci and Streptococcus pneumoniae. The mother tested negative for bacterial sexually transmitted diseases and for group B streptococci. The baby was treated with acyclovir and failed to survive. What was the most likely cause of death? A. CMV B. Human immunodeficiency virus C. Respiratory syncytial virus D. Herpes simplex virus

ANS: D

27. While on a 7-day cruise to Vancouver and Alaska, a number of passengers reported to the ship's medical staff complaining of vomiting and diarrhea. Which is the most likely virus to have infected these mainly adult passengers? A. Rotavirus B. Parainfluenza C. Respiratory syncytial D. Norwalk or Norwalk-like viruses

ANS: D

3. The most common viral syndrome of pericarditis, myocarditis, and pleurodynia (pain upon breathing) is caused by: A. Herpes simplex virus B. Respiratory syncytial virus C. Epstein-Barr virus D. Coxsackie B virus

ANS: D

7. A very small, single-stranded DNA virus that causes a febrile illness with a rash and is called the fifth childhood disease after rubeola, rubella, varicella, and roseola is: A. Rotavirus B. Adenovirus type 40 C. Coxsackie A virus D. Parvovirus B19

ANS: D

8. Hepatitis B virus can be transmitted by: A. Acupuncture B. Tattoos C. Sexual contact D. All of these options

ANS: D

Poliovirus is transmitted primarily by A. aerosol. B. blood. C. urine. D. fecal-oral.

ANS: D

26. With what type of cancer is human papilloma virus (HPV) associated? a. Lung b. Ovarian c. Skin d. Cervical

ANS: D Although associated with the common wart, some of the HPV types are associated with cancer, including cervical cancer. REF: page 718 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

1. What is the genome of a virus composed of? a. Single-stranded DNA b. RNA c. Double-stranded DNA d. Any of the above

ANS: D At a minimum, viruses contain a viral genome of either RNA or DNA and a protein coat—the capsid. The genome can be either double-stranded (ds) or single-stranded (ss). REF: page 706 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

22. A symptomatic congenital infection with cytomegalovirus (CMV) includes all the following symptoms EXCEPT: a. Hepatosplenomegaly b. Microcephaly c. Chorioretinitis d. Meningitis

ANS: D Congenital infections and infections in immunocompromised patients are often symptomatic and can be serious. Symptomatic congenital infection is characterized by petechiae, hepatosplenomegaly, microcephaly, and chorioretinitis. REF: page 715 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

18. What is another name for HHV-4? a. Varicella-zoster b. Cytomegalovirus c. Herpes simplex d. Epstein-Barr

ANS: D Eight species of human herpesviruses (HHV) are currently known: herpes simplex virus type I (HSV-1); herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2); varicella-zoster virus (VZV), also known as HHV-3; Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), also known as HHV-4; cytomegalovirus (CMV), also known as HHV-5; human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6); human herpesvirus 7 (HHV-7); and human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8), also known as Kaposi's sarcoma herpes virus (KSHV). REF: page 713 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

36. What virus causes AIDS? a. Hepatitis C virus (HCV) b. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) c. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) d. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

ANS: D HIV causes AIDS. REF: page 730 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

29. All the following viruses cause hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome (HFRS) EXCEPT: a. Hantaan virus b. Seoul virus c. Dobrava virus d. Calicivirus

ANS: D The genus Hantavirus includes Hantaan virus, Seoul virus, Puumala virus, and Dobrava virus. These viruses cause a disease referred to as hemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome. REF: page 722 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

33. What virus causes the measles? a. Mumps b. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) c. Herpes virus 6 d. Rubeola virus

ANS: D The measles virus (rubeola) is an enveloped virus classified in the genus Morbillivirus. REF: page 728 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

14. What are giant multinucleated cells formed from cell fusion as a result of viral infection? a. Giant cells b. Macrophages c. Glial cells d. Syncytia

ANS: D The respiratory viruses may not produce characteristic cytopathic effect. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) can produce a classic syncytial formation in Hep2 cells or even in monkey kidney cells. Syncytia are giant multinucleated cells formed from cell fusion as a result of virus infection. REF: page 712 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall

10. All of the following methods are used as culture techniques to detect viruses EXCEPT: a. Cell culture b. Animal inoculation c. Embryonated eggs d. Media culture

ANS: D Traditionally, three methods are used for isolation of viruses in diagnostic virology: cell culture, animal inoculation, and embryonated eggs. REF: page 710 OBJ: Level 1 - Recall