Wei Intro to Microbiology Exam 5

Essay: Explain how monoclonal antibodies are produced and assess the usefulness of monoclonal antibodies in biomedicine.

--Antibodies recognizing one epitope (monoclonal antibodies [mAb]) are produced using myelomas. --Myeloma cells are fused to an activated B cell to form a hybridoma. --A hybridoma producing the desired mAb can be cloned. --mAbs can be used in disease prevention, immunomodulation (controlling overactive inflammatory responses)

Essay: Write a paragraph on atopic diseases explaining how they come about and naming several examples.

--Atopic disorders are the most common form of a Type I hypersensitivity caused by the inhalation of pollen. --Figure 18.3: Type I IgE-Mediated Hypersensitivity -Examples: --Allergic rhinitis --Food allergies

True or false? The indicator system in the complement fixation test is used to determine whether complement was used up, or "fixed," in the test system.

True

True or false? The phenomenon of herd immunity says when the herd immunity threshold is met or exceeded, the spread of the disease is effectively stopped.

True

True or false? The radioallergosorbent test (RAST) can be used to detect IgE antibodies in the serum of a person suffering from an allergy.

True

In developing nations, world health officials report more deaths from this disease than any other infectious disease. a) Rhinitis b) Pertussis c) Influenza d) Tuberculosis

Tuberculosis

___ involves histamine release. a) Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity b) Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity c) Type III immune complex hypersensitivity d) Type IV delayed hypersensitivity

Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity

___ involves the degranulation of sensitized cells. a) Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity b) Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity c) Type III immune complex hypersensitivity d) Type IV delayed hypersensitivity

Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity

___ may be accompanied by contractions of the GI tract, edema, and shortness of breath. a) Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity b) Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity c) Type III immune complex hypersensitivity d) Type IV delayed hypersensitivity

Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity

During immunodiffusion, antigens and antibodies diffuse through a gel toward each other and a) agglutinate when they reach each other. b) neutralize each other. c) form a visible precipitate at the zone of equivalence. d) fluoresce at the zone of equivalence.

form a visible precipitate at the zone of equivalence.

Most cases of shingles occur in a) pre-pubescent males. b) individuals treated with the MMR vaccine. c) people over 60 years of age. d) females who have had contact with mumps viruses.

people over 60 years of age

DiGeorge syndrome and agammaglobulinemia are both a) characterized by cytotoxic reactions. b) primary immunodeficiency disorders. c) autoimmune diseases. d) types of atopic reactions.

primary immunodeficiency disorders

True or false? The measles rash begins on the hands and feet, then spreads to the body trunk where it is maculopapular.

False

The results of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) for HIV are determined by noting a) agglutination of antigens and antibodies. b) whether or not an animal lives after an injection. c) neutralization of toxins by antitoxins. d) a color change.

a color change.

Stage III is also known as the late or _________ stage of HIV infection. a) latent b) AIDS c) progressive d) prodromal

AIDS

All the following are possible methods of transmission for Q fever except a) handling infected animals. b) consuming raw milk. c) receiving a tick bite. d) inhaling airborne droplets.

receiving a tick bite

The global eradication campaign for the elimination of smallpox a) depended upon the elimination of arthropod vectors. b) was completed in the 1970s. c) required that all involved health workers receive the MMR immunization. d) was led by Edward Jenner.

was completed in the 1970s

___________ causes AIDS. a) Influenza virus b) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) HIV d) Norovirus

HIV

True or false? Propionibacterium acnes is associated with acne, though it does not necessarily cause it.

True

True or false? The ELISA test has virtually the same sensitivity as RIA and RAST but does not require expensive equipment or involve radioactivity.

True

True or false? The characteristic signs of molluscum contagiosum are firm, waxy, wart-like lesions, which yield a milky substance when depressed.

True

A virus closely related to the smallpox virus causes a) fifth disease. b) cold sores. c) molluscum contagiosum. d) mumps.

molluscum contagiosum

Firm, waxy, elevated lesions with a depressed center, appearing white or pink and expressing a milky, curd-like substance characterize a) the lesions of herpes simplex. b) Koplik spots. c) the symptoms of fifth disease. d) molluscum contagiosum.

molluscum contagiosum

Acne a) is caused directly by Propionibacterium. b) occurs most often after puberty. c) involves plugged sweat glands. d) can result in folliculitis.

occurs most often after puberty

Essay: Distinguish between chickenpox and herpes zoster

--Chickenpox is a highly communicable disease at the primary stage, mostly in children, caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). --Shingles is an adult disease caused by the same virus as chickenpox. The virus remains latent in nerve cells for many years. When reactivated, it travels to the body trunk and causes blisters and patches of red.

Essay: Identify skin diseases caused by fungi and parasites, and name the organisms responsible for these diseases.

--Dermatophytosis is a superficial fungal disease caused by dermatophytes. --Leishmaniasis is a cutaneous infection by an obligate, intracelluar, protistan parasite.

Essay: Predict what happens when an Rh-negative woman becomes pregnant with her first Rh-positive child and describe the long-range effects and treatment.

--Hemolytic disease of the newborn or Rh disease will not happen to the first born but will to the second. --The reaction can be prevented for future pregnancies by an injection of RhoGAM (Rh antibodies) within 72-hours of delivery, which will clear the Rh antigens from the mother's blood. (why?)

Essay: Identify the factors and describe the efforts that contributed to the elimination of smallpox from the world.

--Humans are the only reservoir of smallpox virus. --Smallpox vaccine is effective in protection against smallpox infection

Essay: Demonstrate how the indirect fluorescent antibody test may be used to determine whether a patient has syphilis antibodies in the serum.

--Immunofluorescence antibody test can detect antigen-antibody binding by labeling antibodies with a fluorescent marker. A. the antigen to the suspected antibody is bound to a plastic device, such as a plastic plate with wells. B. The test solution, such as serum, is added to the device. The antibody may or may not be present in the solution. C. An antibody that reacts with a human antibody (an antiglobulin antibody) is added. The antiglobulin antibody carries a radioactive label. If radioactivity is detected in the wells, the technician concludes that the solution contained the suspected antibody.

Essay: Compare infection allergy to contact dermatitis showing how the two are similar in development, yet different in manifestations.

--Infection allergy occurs when the immune system responds to certain microbial agents. --Contact dermatitis develops after exposure to a variety of allergens. -Similarities: Sensitized lymphocytes -Differences: Allergens and manifestations.

Essay: Compare the salient differences in the skin rashes that occur in cases of measles, rubella, and fifth disease.

--Measles: A red rash begins as maculopapules at the hairline, spreading to face, trunk, extremities. --Rubella: A pale-pink maculopapular rash --Fifth disease: A fiery red rash on the cheeks and ears, and trunk

Essay: Compare and contrast the basic methods for performing neutralization, precipitation, and agglutination tests.

--Neutralization: identify toxins and antitoxins, viruses and viral antibodies. --Precipitation: involve antigens and antibodies cross-linked in a huge lattice. --Agglutination tests: involves the clumping of antigens

Essay: Predict what complications could arise from strep throat.

--Scarlet fever --Rheumatic fever --Acute glomerulonephritus

Essay: Identify the portions of the eye most likely to become infected.

--Sclera --Cornea

Essay: Construct an argument to support the idea that a universal cold vaccine may never be developed.

--Seasonal variations in viruses responsible for respiratory diseases. --A vaccine can induce the immune memory that only recognizes one type of the viral antigens.

Essay: Compose a list of the major microbiota of the skin.

--Staphylococcus --Propionibacterium --Staphylococcus epidermidis --Gram-negative bacteria

Essay: Illustrate how the Common Cold causes a middle ear infection.

--The Eustachian tube vents the middle ear to the nasopharynx. --Inflammation in the nasopharynx during the Common Cold may cause back flow of the contaminated fluid to the middle ear.

Essay: Describe the process of anaphylaxis beginning with the first exposure to the allergen and concluding with the effects of smooth muscle contraction.

--The person is sensitized as IgE antibodies attach to mast cells and basophils. --On subsequent allergen exposure, IgE antibodies are cross-linked. --This causes degranulation of mast cells, which releases mediator substances that causes smooth muscle cell constriction.

Essay: Write a paragraph on influenza, explaining the characteristics of the virus, the symptoms of disease, the methods for treatment and immunization, and the complications that can develop from the disease.

--the influenza virus: The virion belongs to the Orthomyxoviridae family: 8 -ssRNA segments --the symptoms of disease: Incubation. Illness with URT and LRT symptoms and fever. Convalescence in 7-10 days. --treatment and immunization: Flu vaccine with Zanamivir and Olsetamivor --the complications: Pneumonia, Guillain-Barré syndrome and Reye syndrome

Essay: Compare the immunological bases for Bruton's agammaglobulinemia, DiGeorge syndrome, and SCID, and assess the effects of these diseases on the body.

-Agammaglobulinemia: Congenital humoral (B cell) immunodeficiency. -DiGeorge syndrome: Thymus fails to mature in embryo, ---T cells do not develop. -Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) ---Lymph nodes deficient in B and T cells.

Essay: Describe the types of pneumonia typically associated with hospitals and those with the community.

-HAP (associated with microbes in hospitals and HC facilities) occurs in 48 h after admission to hospitals associated with medical ventilation (endotracheal intubation) by antibiotic resistant bacteria ---Staphylococcal pneumonia ---Klesiella ---Pseudomonas -Community-acquired pneumonia (associated with animals and environments) ---Streptococcus pneumoniae. ---Mycoplasma pneumonia ---Legionnaires' disease ---Q fever ---Psittacosis ---Chlamydial pneumonia ---Respiratory syncytial (RS) disease ---Parainfluenza infections ---Human metapneumovirus (hMPV)

Essay: Write an explanation of HIV infection, making note of the viral cause, organs affected, causes of death, modes of transmission, and prospects for the future.

-Viral cause: a member of Retroviridae ---HIV is a + strand RNA virus with reverse transcriptase that copies ssRNA into dsDNA that integrates into host genome. ---HIV tropism: immune cells with CD4 receptors: TH and macrophages. -Organs affected: Immune system and others -Causes of death: Immune deficiency and infections -Modes of transmission: Sexual contact and blood borne. -Prospects for the future: ---New effective medications plus safe sex ---CRISPR to remove HIV proviruses ---Vaccines: ------Preventive for HIV-negative people ------Therapeutic for HIV-positive people ------Challenge: CD4 T cells and HIV mutations

Essay: Compare the four important types of immunity according to the source of the immunity, the time for development, the length of time the immunity lasts, and possible side effects from its development.

1. Naturally acquired active immunity follows illness or pathogen exposure. 2. Artificially acquired active immunity occurs through vaccination --Source of the immunity: Pathogens --Time for development: Long since the primary infection --Length of time the immunity lasts: Long --Side effects from its development: Live vaccine organisms can revert to a virulent form and cause disease 3. Naturally acquired passive immunity occurs when antibodies pass from mother to fetus 4. Artificially acquired passive immunity involves injection of antibody-rich serum into a body. --Source of the immunity: Antibodies or memory cells --Time for development: Soon after injection --Length of time the immunity lasts: Short --Side effects from its development: Hypersensitivities

Essay: Compare whole agent, subunit, and conjugate vaccines with emphasis on the preparation and advantages of each type.

1. Whole agent: Weakened or Inactivated Antigens --Live, attenuated vaccines may provide lifelong immunity --Inactivated vaccines contain killed pathogens, which induce a weaker immune response 2. Subunit: parts of the antigens that stimulate a strong immune response that is short-lived 3. Conjugate: attaching bacterial capsule polysaccharides to a protein carrier. The immune response is short-lived.

Bacteria classified as "beta-hemolytic" produce which pattern when cultured on sheep blood agar? a) Olive green zones around colonies b) A general but non-specific change in the area around colonies c) A clear halo around colonies d) No hemolysis

A clear halo around colonies

Essay: Illustrate how the complement fixation test may be performed on a sample of serum suspected to contain syphilis antibodies.

A. Specific antigen, the patient's serum, and guinea pig complement are added to a test tube and incubated after the patine's complement has been destroyed. B. The indicator system is added. It consists of sheep red blood cells (RBCs) and antibodies that will lyse the RBCs if complement is available. C. If the patient's serum contains antibodies to the antigen antibodies, a reaction will take place between the antibodies, antigen, and complement. Because the complement has been used up, no lysis of the sheep RBCs will occur when the indicator system is added. D. If specific antibodies from the patient are not present in the serum, no reaction occurs during the first incubation, and the complement is left free to unite with antibodies attached to the sheep RBCs. Lysis of the RBCs results.

___ results in rapid destruction of blood vessels in the graft. a) Hyperacute rejection b) Acute rejection c) Chronic rejection

Acute rejection

Which of the following can trigger an asthma attack? a) Pollen and mold spores b) Dust mites and insect products c) Cold temperatures d) All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct

Passive immunity can a) involve gamma globulin. b) be acquired by a child from its mother. c) be administered with an antiserum. d) All of the choices are correct.

All of the choices are correct.

___ is stimulated by inactivated viruses. a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Artificially acquired active immunity c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

Artificially acquired active immunity

___develops after an intentional exposure to an immunizing agent. a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Artificially acquired active immunity c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

Artificially acquired active immunity

___ develops after treatment with antitoxin. a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Artificially acquired active immunity c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

Artificially acquired passive immunity

___ may lead to serum sickness. a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Artificially acquired active immunity c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

Artificially acquired passive immunity

Which of the following is a drawback to the use of inactivated vaccines? a) Booster shots are required to maintain immunity for long periods of time. b) They have to be kept refrigerated. c) They have a short shelf life. d) All of the above are correct.

Booster shots are required to maintain immunity for long periods of time.

___________ is a fungal infection associated with bird droppings and moist soils. a) Blastomycosis b) Histoplasmosis c) Coccidioidomycosis d) Aspergillosis

Blastomycosis

Essay: Construct a table listing ten infectious diseases for which a vaccine is available and describe in each case the contents of the vaccine.

CHILDHOOD IMMUNIZATIONS AGES: --Hepatitis B (HepB): 1-2 months and 6-18 months --Rotavirus (RV): 2-6 months --Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTaP): 15-18 months and 4-6 years --Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib): 12-15 months --Pneumococcal (PCV): 12-15 months --Inactivated poliovirus (IPV): 6-18 months and 4-6 years --Influenza: Yearly starting at 6 months --Measles, mumps, rubella (MMR): 12-15 months --Varicella (Chickenpox): 12-15 months --Hepatitis A (HepA): 1 dose 12-18 months and 1 dose 19-23 months ADULT IMMUNIZATIONS AGES: --Influenza: Yearly --Tetanus, diptheria, pertussis (Td/Tdap): Get a Tdap vaccine once, then a Td booster vaccine every 10 years --Varicella (Chickenpox): 2 doses after turn 19 years old --HPV Vaccine for Women: 3 doses 19-26 years --HPV Vaccine for Men: 3 doses 19-21 years and 3 doses 22-26 years --Peneumoccocal: 1 or 3 doses 19-55 years --Meningoccocal: 1 or more doses after turn 19 years old --HepA: 2 doses after turn 19 years old --HepB: 2 doses after turn 19 years old

A patient was diagnosed with diphtheria several weeks prior to his visit with you, but the disease was never treated. What complications should you look for? a) Cardiac arrhythmia b) Pneumonia c) Rheumatic fever d) Blindness

Cardiac arrhythmia

Which of the following best explains why an AIDS patient may be high risk for developing cancer? a) Cell-mediated immunity is damaged. b) Humoral immunity is damaged. c) Anaphylaxis is inhibited. d) IgE is no longer produced in normal amounts.

Cell-mediated immunity is damaged

A patient has obtained a Streptococcal infection after a minor wound to the skin. It has resulted in a red, swollen, painful rash that is spreading rapidly. He also has a fever. What is your diagnosis? a) Gas gangrene b) Streptococcal pharyngitis c) Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome d) Cellulitis

Cellulitis

___ is due to preformed antibodies. a) Hyperacute rejection b) Acute rejection c) Chronic rejection

Chronic rejection

_____________ is gram-positive endospore former that causes gas gangrene. a) Clostridium botulinum b) Clostridium tetani c) Clostridium perfringens d) Clostridium difficile

Clostridium perfringens

____________ is typically located in folds of the skin, where the environment is moist. a) Bacillus b) Pseudomonas c) Micrococcus d) Corynebacterium

Corynebacterium

What triggers mast cells to degranulate in an allergic reaction? a) Complement binding to the cell membrane b) Cross-linking of the IgE antibodies by allergen c) Antihistamines used in the treatment of the symptoms d) Cytokines produced by TH cells

Cross-linking of the IgE antibodies by allergen

Essay: Discuss why most serious cases of respiratory fungal diseases are associated with immunocompromised individuals.

Deficiency in cellular and humoral immunity that defends fungal infections

Essay: Explain why TB is a particularly life-threatening for AIDS patients.

Destruction of CD4 T cells and macrophages by HIV

Which of the following is a single-dose vaccine? a) Sabin polio vaccine b) Diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine c) Salk polio vaccine d) All of the choices are single-dose vaccines.

Diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine

____ causative agent is a small gram-negative rod. a) Tuberculosis b) Scarlet fever c) Pertussis d) Diphtheria

Diptheria

Which one of the following conditions is not associated with congenital rubella syndrome? a) Deafness b) Cataracts c) Heart defects d) Encephalitis

Encephalitis

True or false? Allografts are usually very successful because tissue from one part of the person's body is grafted to another part.

False

True or false? Approximately 2000 cases of smallpox occur in the world annually.

False

True or false? Asthma is characterized by wheezing and stressed breathing and about 10% of cases have an environmental origin.

False

True or false? Cold sores typically only occur once in a person's lifetime.

False

True or false? In precipitation reactions, antigens on the surfaces of cells react with antibodies and cause them to clump together.

False

True or false? Mast cells and basophils are involved in all four types of hypersensitivity reactions.

False

True or false? Mast cells are connective tissue cells to which IgG attaches and sensitizes an individual during development of a type I hypersensitivity.

False

True or false? Most HIV patients die from the virus slowly lysing most cell types in the body, resulting in multiple organ failure.

False

True or false? Naturally acquired active immunity to a particular disease may occur when antibodies cross the placenta from the mother's circulation to that of the fetus.

False

True or false? Rubeola is a dangerous disease in pregnant women because the virus is transmitted from mother to child during childbirth.

False

True or false? Sebum raises the skin pH, effectively preventing many transient microbes from infecting the skin.

False

True or false? The MMR vaccine aids in prevention of cold sores.

False

True or false? The direct immunofluorescence antibody test requires that antiglobulin antibodies be used, while the indirect test has no such requirement.

False

True or false? The primary host cells for HIV are B lymphocytes.

False

True or false? Treatment for hemolytic disease of the newborn consists of the mother receiving an injection of IgE antibodies.

False

Essay: Describe the principle that underlies the ELISA test and explain how the test is performed and its advantages over other tests.

Figure 17.17: The ELISA: High sensitivity --It uses an enzyme system instead of radioactivity. --It is often used to detect antibodies against HIV. Process: (Example: HIV) A. Plastic beads coated with HIV antigen added to solution in wells. B. Antibodies if used, are added to the solution of beads + HIV antigen. C. Antiglobulin antibodies linked to the enzyme are added to the solution of beads and antibodies. Antiglobulin antibodies combine with HIV antibodies, if present. D. The substrate for the enzyme is added to the mixture in solution. A color change of the liquid occurs if enzyme is present to react with substrate. E. Results read. ---Positive Control: The enzyme changes the colorless substrate into a yellow-orange colored product. ---Negative Control: In a negative control, there is no enzyme present, so there is no enzyme reaction; the substrate remains colorless. ---Patient Sample: In a seropositive result, the enzyme changes the colorless substrate into the yellow-orange colored product.

Essay: Compose a list of the major microbiota of the hypothenar palm and manubrium

Figure 19.3: Topographical Distribution of the Skin Microbiota

Essay: Construct the sequence of steps involved in the development of acne and explain how benzoyl peroxide helps block the development of comedones.

Figure 19.6: Skin Lesions of Acne

_______________ is a minor infection at the base of the hair follicle that typically occurs on the neck, face, armpits and buttocks. a) Impetigo b) Acne c) Folliculitis d) Erythrasma

Folliculitis

________________ cause streptococcal toxic shock syndrome. a) GAS b) Streptococcus mutans c) Alpha-hemolytic streptococci d) None of the choices is correct.

GAS

Which type of graft rejection is due to preformed antibodies? a) Acute b) Hyperacute c) Chronic d) None of the choices is correct, since all transplant rejection is mediated by T cells.

Hyperacute

___ occurs within 10-30 days after the transplant and may be prevented by careful MHC matching and immunosuppressive therapy. a) Hyperacute rejection b) Acute rejection c) Chronic rejection

Hyperacute rejection

___ occurs within minutes of the transplant. a) Hyperacute rejection b) Acute rejection c) Chronic rejection

Hyperacute rejection

Stage _________ is the asymptomatic stage of HIV infection. a) I b) II c) III d) IV

II

Which one of the following is not associated with measles? a) Koplik spots b) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis c) A red skin rash d) Inflammation of the salivary glands

Inflammation of the salivary glands

Which of the following forms of anthrax are the most deadly without early treatment? a) Intestinal anthrax. b) Cutaneous anthrax. c) Inhalation anthrax. d) All of the choices are about the same severity.

Inhalation anthrax

Which one of the following statements describes Q fever? a) It is a streptococcal disease of the upper respiratory tract. b) It is a rickettsial disease associated with livestock animals. c) It is a meningococcal disease acquired in a hospital. d) It is a pneumococcal disease caused by Mycoplasma.

It is a rickettsial disease associated with livestock animals.

Which of the following would not be best suited for a conjugate vaccine? a) Large, highly immunogenic peptides b) Haptens c) T-independent antigens d) Antigens with redundant epitopes

Large, highly immunogenic peptides

Which fungal species is a normal inhabitant of the epidermis predominating in the yeast stage of its life cycle? a) Malassezia b) Rhizopus c) Candida d) Aspergillus

Malassezia

A patient with the flu is prescribed a medication that prevents release of new virions from a host cell. Which of the following is this medication most likely targeting? a) H spikes b) N spikes c) Matrix proteins d) Viral RNA synthesis

N spikes

___ follows unintentional exposure to antigens. a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Artificially acquired active immunity c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

Naturally acquired active immunity

___ occurs after a person becomes ill and produces own antibodies. a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Artificially acquired active immunity c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

Naturally acquired active immunity

___ arises from antibodies in the colostrum. a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Artificially acquired active immunity c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

Naturally acquired passive immunity

___ provides protection at birth. a) Naturally acquired active immunity b) Artificially acquired active immunity c) Naturally acquired passive immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity

Naturally acquired passive immunity

___________ is/are the hallmark of HIV infection. a) Opportunistic infections b) T cell proliferation c) Immune stimulation d) None of the choices are correct.

Opportunistic infections

____ is accompanied by a high-pitched "whoop." a) Tuberculosis b) Scarlet fever c) Pertussis d) Diphtheria

Pertussis

____ vaccine used to contain killed bacteria, now is an acellular vaccine. a) Tuberculosis b) Scarlet fever c) Pertussis d) Diphtheria

Pertussis

Once known primarily as a burn wound infectious agent, this species has become one of the growing causes of nosocomial skin infections. It can also be found in hot tubs and swimming pools. a) Staphylococcus epidermidis b) Candida albicans c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa d) Acinetobacter baumannii

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Upon analyzing a sputum test from a patient with viral pneumonia, you notice large syncytia. This patient is most likely infected with a) RSV. b) HIV. c) influenza. d) hMPV.

RSV

Which of the following events does not occur during systemic anaphylaxis? a) Degranulation of basophils throughout the body b) Contraction of smooth muscles in the body c) Edema d) Release of cytotoxins from T lymphocytes

Release of cytotoxins from T lymphocytes

Which enzyme uses the viral RNA as a template to synthesize a strand of DNA, and then uses the DNA strand as a template to complete a DNA double helix? a) DNA ligase b) Reverse transcriptase c) RNA polymerase d) DNA polymerase

Reverse transcriptase

_____ can be a precursor to rheumatic fever. a) Tuberculosis b) Scarlet fever c) Pertussis d) Diphtheria

Scarlet fever

_____ is associated with erythrogenic toxins. a) Tuberculosis b) Scarlet fever c) Pertussis d) Diphtheria

Scarlet fever

_____ is related to a beta-hemolytic streptococcus. a) Tuberculosis b) Scarlet fever c) Pertussis d) Diphtheria

Scarlet fever

____________ is a disease arising in about 10% of children with strep throat. a) River blindness b) Scarlet fever c) Diphtheria d) Sinusitis

Scarlet fever

Essay: Explain why during the latent and secondary TB infections, Tuberculin Skin Test frequently turns positive.

Sensitized CD4 T cells

___________ is an inflammation of the sinuses. a) Orchitis b) Epiglottitis c) Laryngitis d) Sinusitis

Sinusitis

________________ causes cellulitis, erysipelas, strep throat and streptococcal pharyngitis. a) Streptococcus mutans b) Streptococcus pyogenes c) Streptococcus lactis d) Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus pyogenes

Which of the following is not a symptom of rubella? a) Occasional fever b) Pink maculopapular rash c) Swollen lymph nodes d) Fluid-filled vesicles

Swollen lymph nodes

Essay: Examine the essential differences among the four major types of hypersensitivity, including origin of hypersensitivity, antibodies, mediators, and cells involved, time of manifestation, and examples.

Table 18.3

Which one of the following is not related to antibody titer? a) The amount of antibodies present in the serum b) The progression of a disease c) The strength of a patient's immune system d) The formation of immune complexes

The formation of immune complexes

Essay: Define the term titer and explain how it is obtained in the diagnostic laboratory.

The most dilute concentration of serum antibody that reacts to its antigen.

Essay: Why is diphtheria life-threatening?

The pseudomembrane causes respiratory blockage and death

Essay: Provide some reasons why pertussis represents a reemerging disease.

The weakened vaccines cannot provide full protection to eliminate the pathogen so that a portion of bacteria evolve into an antigenically new strain.

Which of the following is false regarding cutaneous anthrax? a) It is caused by contact with anthrax endospores. b) Toxins result in erysipelas on the skin. c) Vegetative cells resist phagocytosis. d) It is more common than respiratory anthrax.

Toxins result in erysipelas on the skin

Essay: A person whose blood type is A proposes to donate blood to a person whose blood type is O. Predict from an immunological standpoint what can be expected to take place.

Transfusion reaction occurs when IgM of the O-type receipent reacts with antigen A on the read blood cells, activating complement and lysing the erythrocytes.

True or false? Anyone who has had chickenpox as a child is at risk for the latent illness, although only about 10 percent of adults actually develop shingles.

True

True or false? Atopic reactions are accompanied by limited production of IgE and the sensitization of mast cells only in localized areas of the body.

True

True or false? Carbuncles and furuncle can result from Staphylococcal infections.

True

True or false? Fifth disease, also known as erythema infectiosum, primarily affects children.

True

True or false? Hay fever and food allergies are type I hypersensitivity reactions.

True

True or false? In adults, fifth disease causes symptoms similar to rheumatoid arthritis.

True

___ may lead to death in 10 to 15 minutes from asphyxiation if the reaction is systemic. a) Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity b) Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity c) Type III immune complex hypersensitivity d) Type IV delayed hypersensitivity

Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity

___ involves IgG reacting with antigens on the surfaces of cells. a) Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity b) Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity c) Type III immune complex hypersensitivity d) Type IV delayed hypersensitivity

Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity

___ involves an IgG reaction with antigens that may cause serum sickness. a) Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity b) Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity c) Type III immune complex hypersensitivity d) Type IV delayed hypersensitivity

Type III immune complex hypersensitivity

___ is due to aggregates of antigens and antibodies on tissue surfaces. a) Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity b) Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity c) Type III immune complex hypersensitivity d) Type IV delayed hypersensitivity

Type III immune complex hypersensitivity

___ is typified by the Arthus phenomenon. a) Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity b) Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity c) Type III immune complex hypersensitivity d) Type IV delayed hypersensitivity

Type III immune complex hypersensitivity

___ does not involve antibody formation. a) Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity b) Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity c) Type III immune complex hypersensitivity d) Type IV delayed hypersensitivity

Type IV delayed hypersensitivity

___ involves an exaggerated cell-mediated response. a) Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity b) Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity c) Type III immune complex hypersensitivity d) Type IV delayed hypersensitivity

Type IV delayed hypersensitivity

Fifth disease is accompanied by a) substantial lesion formation in the brain tissue and meninges. b) infection of the kidneys and an interruption of urine production. c) a fiery red rash on the cheeks and ears resembling a slap. d) yellowing of the skin.

a fiery red rash on the cheeks and ears resembling a slap

During systemic anaphylaxis, constriction of small veins and increased vascular permeability contribute to a) a rash consisting of both wheals and flares. b) wheezing and stressed breathing. c) a large drop in blood pressure. d) formation of immune complexes.

a large drop in blood pressure

Atopy refers to a) a localized type I hypersensitivity. b) systemic anaphylaxis. c) a type II hypersensitivity. d) an autoimmune disorder.

a localized type I hypersensitivity

German measles is similar to measles because a) both diseases are caused by the same virus. b) both diseases are caused by + strand RNA viruses. c) a skin rash occurs in both diseases. d) Koplik spots appear in both diseases.

a skin rash occurs in both diseases

In a patient already immune to a disease, a booster shot is best described as a) the initial vaccine. b) a subsequent injection of antibodies. c) a subsequent injection of antigen. d) naturally acquired passive immunity.

a subsequent injection of antigen.

A primary immunodeficiency in which B cells fail to develop into immunocompetent cells is a) DiGeorge syndrome. b) agammaglobulinemia. c) Arthus phenomenon. d) Graves' disease.

agammaglobulinemia

Woolsorter's disease is another name for a) anthrax. b) plague. c) tetanus. d) Reye syndrome.

anthrax

Anthrax may be treated with antibiotics because a) anthrax spores germinate into vegetative cells. b) anthrax spores are susceptible to antibiotics. c) the spores remain dormant during disease. d) the spores are metabolically active.

anthrax spores germinate into vegetative cells

Diagnosis of HIV infection often relies on the detection of HIV_______ in the blood. a) particles b) antibodies c) proteins d) reverse transcriptase

antibodies

Rheumatic heart disease is a condition that results from damage caused by ______________________. a) antibodies to streptococcal proteins cross reacting with similar proteins on the heart muscle b) pseudomembrane formation of Streptococcus on heart valves c) severe sinusitis d) weakening of the heart caused by poor gas exchange in the lungs

antibodies to streptococcal proteins cross reacting with similar proteins on the heart muscle

An allergen is an a) antibody produced in anaphylactic hypersensitivity. b) antigen that initiates an allergic reaction. c) antigen that activates cell-mediated immunity. d) antibody produced in response to a "self" antigen.

antigen that initiates an allergic reaction

A major change in hemagglutinin and neuraminidase antigens is called a) antigenic drift. b) Reye syndrome. c) antigenic shift. d) croup.

antigenic shift

RAST and ELISA both utilize a) complement. b) fluorescent antibodies. c) antiglobulin antibodies. d) radioactive labels.

antiglobulin antibodies.

The fluid-filled vesicles occurring in cases of chickenpox a) lack virus particles. b) are similar to warts. c) usually appear weeks after the initial infection. d) are contagious until they crust over.

are contagious until they crust over

The injection of attenuated virus into a person will lead to a) naturally acquired active immunity. b) artificially acquired active immunity. c) naturally acquired passive immunity. d) artificially acquired passive immunity.

artificially acquired active immunity.

In a DNA vaccine, a) APCs present the DNA molecule as antigen. b) body cells produce the antigenic peptide. c) the injected DNA remains outside the cells, in the interstitial fluid. d) only the innate immune system is activated.

body cells produce the antigenic peptide.

The zone of equivalence is the a) concentration of antibodies and antigens that is ideal for precipitation. b) region on an immunoelectrophoresis gel where the antibody is placed. c) optimum concentration of vaccine for an individual. d) time at which active and passive immunity are equally effective in protecting against disease.

concentration of antibodies and antigens that is ideal for precipitation.

Trachoma is a chronic infection of the a) dermis of the skin. b) conjunctiva. c) retina. d) fingernails.

conjunctiva

Drying of the skin with erythema and scaling after an exposure to formaldehyde may be the result of a) contact dermatitis. b) anaphylactic hypersensitivity. c) an autoimmune disease. d) serum sickness.

contact dermatitis

Cases of psittacosis may be acquired by a) contact with infected parrots or parakeets. b) consumption of raw milk. c) a deep puncture by a contaminated nail. d) the bite of a mosquito.

contact with infected parrots or parakeets

The cutaneous form of Bacillus anthracis spreads from infected animal products to humans through a) ingestion of contaminated animal products. b) inhalation of endospores. c) contact with skin abrasions. d) consumption of contaminated meat.

contact with skin abrasions

When the immune system recognizes a foreign protein in a serum injection, ______ may form. a) gamma globulins b) antigens c) recombinant DNA d) immune complexes

immune complexes

Transplanted tissue is rejected by the body if the a) grafted tissue is an autograft. b) blood types of donor and recipient are the same. c) immune system interprets the tissue to be "nonself." d) donor and recipient of the transplant are identical twins.

immune system interprets the tissue to be "nonself."

A neutralization reaction may be observed in the laboratory by a) noting the agglutination of red blood cells. b) injecting the antigen-antibody mixture to an animal. c) watching for precipitate formation. d) observing the fixing of complement.

injecting the antigen-antibody mixture to an animal.

The antigenic substance that stimulates an allergic reaction a) interacts with the body's T lymphocytes. b) is known as an allergen. c) directly induces smooth muscle contraction.

is known as an allergen

The causative agent of primary atypical pneumonia a) is gram-negative. b) cannot be cultivated in the lab. c) is responsible for the majority of HCAP cases. d) is very small compared to other bacteria.

is very small compared to other bacteria

The epidermis consists of layers of ____________. a) Langerhans cells b) keratinocytes c) antigen-presenting cells d) dermal cells

keratinocytes

All of the following are associated with type IV hypersensitivity reactions except a) an induration. b) accumulation of T lymphocytes at the antigen site. c) production of IgE. d) infection allergy.

production of IgE

Within 72 hours of infection of a host cell, HIV converts its genome to dsDNA, which integrates into a host chromosome as a a) plasmid. b) virion. c) prion. d) provirus.

provirus

Streptococcus pyogenes is an opportunistic pathogen whose virulence is increased by a) flagella. b) pyrogenic toxins. c) metachromatic granules. d) a pseudomembrane.

pyrogenic toxins

RAST is a type of a) immunofluorescence antibody test. b) precipitation test. c) ELISA test. d) radioummunoassay test.

radioummunoassay test.

At the conclusion of the complement fixation test, the person performing the test observes whether a) red blood cells undergo lysis. b) precipitates of toxin form. c) phagocytosis increases in rate. d) the tests animals live or die.

red blood cells undergo lysis.

Anaphylaxis would fail to occur without a) release of mediators from mast cells and basophils. b) formation of immune complexes. c) fixation of complement on the walls of blood vessels. d) accumulation of IgG in the affected tissues.

release of mediators from mast cells and basophils

Another name for measles is a) rubella. b) variola. c) varicella. d) rubeola.

rubeola

Sebaceous glands produce an oily substance called _____________. a) keratin b) sebum c) melanin d) pus

sebum

Chronic _____________ is an ongoing infection that produces nasal obstruction, nasal congestion, and post-nasal drip. a) orchitis b) epiglottitis c) laryngitis d) sinusitis

sinusitis

A large, brick-shaped DNA virion is the responsible agent of a) smallpox. b) Reye syndrome. c) chickenpox. d) fifth disease.

smallpox

Widespread release of chemical mediators that can result in anaphylactic shock is called a) urticaria. b) localized anaphylaxis. c) systemic anaphylaxis. d) infection allergy.

systemic anaphylaxis

Shingles is a disease caused by a) an RNA virus with spikes. b) the rubeola virus. c) a virus transmitted mainly by arthropods. d) the same virus that causes chickenpox.

the same virus that causes chickenpox

The appearance of a strain of Mycobacterium tuberculosis designated MDR-TB has necessitated a) short-term drug treatment. b) treatment with antiviral medication. c) the use of two or more antibiotics. d) a bone marrow transplant.

the use of two or more antibiotics