Winter Term Psych Pre Quizzees
A benign tumour is pressing on the nasal sides of the optic nerves of Deanna's right and left eyes. What type of vision loss will she experience? A) Vision loss in the right and left lateral visual fields. B) Vision loss the right and left medial visual fields. C) Vision loss in the entire left visual field. D) Vision loss in the entire right visual field.
A
According to Hamilton's rule, Michelle would be most likely to risk her life to save which combination of people? A) Her brother, sister, and half-brother. B) Her half-sister, mother, first cousin, and boyfriend. C) Her best friend, first cousin, and identical twin. D) Her brother, 3 first cousins, and dog.
A
According to the textbook, which of the following statements regarding the nervous system is correct? A) Rene Descartes believed the soul had a biological basis through which it controlled the body. B) The peripheral nervous system is sometimes encased in bone to protect efferent nerve fibers. C) Afferent nerve fibers carry information from the central nervous system to the peripheral nervous system. D) Corpus callosotomy is a common procedure that is used today to treat extreme epilepsy.
A
Brittney's long-term boyfriend died five years ago in a serious car accident. She has felt sad and helpless ever since the tragic accident and can't stop thinking about him. She also worries about how his parents are coping with their loss. Which of the following disorders does Brittney most likely have? A) Dysthymia B) Major Depressive Disorder C) Bipolar Disorder D) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
A
Denise's grandmother is having difficulty perceiving low frequency sounds. Denise must also yell in order for her grandmother to understand what she is saying. Which two psychological properties of sound is Denise's grandmother not properly processing? A) Pitch and loudness. B) Wavelength and loudness. C) Loudness and timbre. D) Pitch and amplitude.
A
Dr. Nimoy is trying to diagnose a patient and must use neuroimaging information to see the fine structural details of a particular region of the brain, as well as brain activity on a fine temporal scale. Which two neuroimaging techniques should be used? A) MRI and ERP B) CT and fMRI C) MRI and fMRI D) CT and ERP
A
Gordon is asked by his wife to pick up some oranges from the store. While at the store, he is unable to locate the oranges and tells his wife that the store must be sold out. His wife is concerned that something is wrong with Gordon, as he has been unable to locate both apples and watermelons in the past. Which of the following best explains Gordon's behaviour? A) He has suffered damage to his extrastriate cortex. B) He has suffered damage to his dorsal stream. C) He has suffered damage to his primary visual cortex. D) He is suffering from prosopagnosia.
A
Haley runs an experiment and finds that, when participants are shown a picture of a chair, they are faster to categorize it as a piece of furniture than they are when shown a cupboard. Based on this information, which of the following statements is correct? A) The experiment provides support for both template and prototype theories, as more frequent exposure to chairs than cupboards would lead to more templates with which to compare the chair and would make the prototype of the category furniture more closely resemble a chair. B) The experiment provides support against geon theory, as both chairs and cupboards have a similar number of geons and should be categorized at similar rates. C) The experiment provides support for template theory, as more frequent exposure to chairs than cupboards should lead individuals to have a stronger template for chairs than for cupboards. D) The experiment provides support for prototype theory, as most people are more frequently exposed to chairs than they are to cupboards, giving them many examples with which to compare the chair and, thus, faster categorization.
A
How are culture and mirror neurons related? A) Mirror neurons are important for observational learning. B) Mirror neurons evolved following the development of human culture. C) Mirror neurons are uniquely capable of Hebbian learning, facilitating cultural development. D) Mirror neurons only exist in humans.
A
In a dark environment, which type of vertebrate with big eyes would be most suited to survive as prey? A) Laterally directed eyes with a large number of rods. B) Laterally directed eyes with a large number of cones. C) Front-facing eyes with a large number of rods. D) Front-facing eyes with a large number of cones.
A
Kelly is an extroverted and adventure-seeking only child. Her parents are more introverted and scholarly. According to what you know about the influence of genes on the environment, which of the following is most likely? A) Kelly will be enrolled in a reading program as a child but will enroll in rock climbing classes as an adult. B) If Kelly was enrolled in a book club as a child, she will actively seek membership in these clubs as an adult. C) Kelly will be enrolled in rock climbing classes as a child and choose to enroll in similar classes as an adult. D) Since she has no siblings, Kelly will choose what she is enrolled in as a child and will maintain these interests as an adult.
A
Randy and Lucy have both purchased toys for their new baby cousin, Julian. To see which toy is most preferred, Randy and Lucy present both toys to Julian at the same time. They find that Randy's toy is preferred over Lucy's. How did they come to this conclusion? A) After presenting both toys at the same time, Julian spent less time looking at Lucy's toy than Randy's. B) After presenting both toys at the same time, Julian sucked on his soother much less intensely when viewing Randy's toy. C) After presenting both toys at the same time, Julian became habituated to both but then became dishabituated to Randy's. D) After presenting both toys at the same time, Julian became habituated to Lucy's toy before Randy's toy.
A
Suppose bats evolved to emit a lower frequency sound than they currently do. Based on the principle of co-evolution, which trait would likely evolve in moths over time? A) Mechanisms to detect lower frequency noises. B) Mechanisms to emit even lower frequency noises than bats. C) Mechanisms to emit the same frequency noises as bats. D) Mechanisms to detect higher frequency noises.
A
When shown a set of flash cards, which of the following situations illustrates normal visual development in an infant? A) At 3 months of age, Lela preferred to look over the entire face of a stranger instead of looking at one particular feature. B) At 3 months of age, Maggie preferred to look at the attractive face just as much as the unattractive face. C) A newborn, Rickie preferred to look checkerboards with small squares that seem to blend together rather than large-squared patterns. D) At 3 months of age Luke preferred to look at only one corner of each of the complex shapes he was presented with .
A
Which nutrient signals the need to increase one's food intake when levels are low? A) Glucose B) Fructose C) NPY D) LGN
A
Which of the following correctly describes the function of a structure found in the midbrain? A) The red nucleus is involved in the production and relay of motor information. B) The substantia nigra is involved in unconscious motor reflexes. C) The inferior colliculus is involved in visual integration of information. D) The superior colliculus is involved in auditory integration.
A
Which of the following individuals is most likely to be classified as a patient with schizophrenia showing negative symptoms? A) Chelsea, who laughed when told her mother had recently passed away. B) Steven, who is unable to ignore the voices in his head. C) Raoul, who frequently engages in nonsensical ramblings. D) Brendan, who wears a metal hat to prevent the government from stealing his thoughts.
A
Which of the following is true regarding auditory localization? A) Interaural intensity differences are especially valid cues of localization for sounds that originate nearby. B) The three main cues for localizing sounds are interaural time differences, interaural frequency differences, and pinna cues. C) Pinna that are dramatically altered reduce the ability to utilize these cues to localize sounds permanently. D) It is difficult to localize sounds coming from directly beside you because the sound is only reaching one ear.
A
Which of the following is true regarding peacock tails as a male display feature? A) They increase the attractiveness of that individual to potential mates. B) They are an indicator to other males that the individual will likely dominate in a physical confrontation. C) They have a positive effect on fitness because it makes the individual look larger to predators. D) They decrease fitness because the individual becomes an easier target for predators.
A
Which of the following is true regarding receptive fields? A) A cell that responds maximally to blue striking the outer opponent-process receptive field will respond minimally to yellow striking the outer receptive field. B) A cell that responds maximally to red striking the outer opponent-process receptive field will respond minimally to green striking the inner receptive field. C) A cell that responds to a large checkerboard pattern in the distance will have a small receptive field. D) A cell that responds to very small green writing on a red background in the distance will have a large receptive field.
A
Which of the following scenarios best describes the symptoms and development of agoraphobia? A) Agoraphobia is the fear of situations where help is not available in the event of a panic attack, and often develops following several panic attacks. B) Agoraphobia is the fear of public places, and often develops following several panic attacks that occur in a crowd as a result of social or specific phobia. C) Agoraphobia is the fear of situations where escape is difficult in the event of a panic attack, and always develops following a traumatic event. D) Agoraphobia is the fear of becoming housebound due to embarrassing panic attacks, and often develops following one inescapable panic attack.
A
Which of the following scenarios describes an individual expressing comorbidity of psychological disorders? A) Following her dramatic weight loss, Ashley was diagnosed with the eating disorders anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. B) Manny's not convinced he should be diagnosed with conversion disorder as a result of the low lifetime prevalence. C) Shannon was recently diagnosed with an anxiety disorder as a result of her extreme fear of spiders, a specific phobia termed arachnophobia. D) Kim was diagnosed several years ago with bipolar disorder, and often experiences episodes of severe depression followed by manic episodes.
A
Which of the following statements about the ear is true? A) The displacement of the oval window causes movement of both the basilar membrane and the round window. B) The primary purpose of the ossicles is to transduce the displacement of fluid into a neural signal. C) The eardrum aids in the amplification of sound by vibrating at a higher frequency than the sound wave. D) One of the functions of the ear drum is to separate the fluid-filled middle ear from the air-filled outer ear.
A
Which of the following statements about the pons is false? A) The pons generates signals for movement. B) The pons acts as a relay centre in the hindbrain. C) The pons is involved in auditory processing. D) The pons is important for processing emotion.
A
Which of the following statements is correct? A) The human eye can detect electromagnetic radiation. B) The greater the energy of a waveform, the greater the saturation. C) Light is described only as a waveform. D) Our perception of colour is limited to seven basic elements of colour.
A
Which of the following statements regarding the recognition-by-components theory is correct? A) A weakness of the theory is that slight changes in lighting conditions make it difficult to discern geons necessary for object identification. B) Incoming sensory information is compared directly to a representation or copy stored in long-term memory. C) One of the strengths of the theory is its ability to accurately depict how we are able to identify natural objects. D) A weakness of the theory is that it fails to explain how we are able to identify novel examples of objects.
A
Which statement correctly describes an aspect of object recognition? A) Top-down processing and bottom-up processing work together to influence object recognition. B) Bottom-up processing requires expectations of the observer to recognize the object. C) Priming will always lead to participants recognizing objects at faster speeds. D) Bi-directional activation implies object features and expectations act on each other.
A
You have discovered a new mammalian species in Hamilton and decide to examine it's brain anatomy. Given what you know about the function and evolution of brain structures, which brain structure would you be most likely to find? A) Cerebellum B) Cerebral Cortex C) Hippocampus D) Thalamus
A
According to the textbook, which of the following tortoises will be the most successful in an evolutionary context? A) The dashingly handsome tortoise that gets his pick of the lady tortoises. B) A small, lazy tortoise that produces the most offspring. C) A female tortoise that will outlive all other tortoises. D) A strong and resilient tortoise that is never sick.
B
Cyrus is putting on a lightshow. He has two flashlights and several translucent coloured lenses. On one flashlight he has a yellow and blue lens while on the other he has a purple lens. If he shines each flashlight on the same spot of a wall, what would be the most likely result? A) Nothing will occur because you cannot mix yellow and blue as they are both primary colours. B) Mixing of complementary colours on the wall will result in the appearance of a white or grey spot. C) Due to additive mixing, the colour brown will be formed where the light from each flashlight overlaps. D) Due to subtractive colour mixing, a grey colour will be seen where the light from each flashlight overlaps.
B
Doctors have been following the Gallagher family for several generations in an attempt to figure out the genes involved in their colour blindness. Ian, the youngest child, views the world in reds, greens, and shades of grey. Fiona, the eldest daughter, has slightly below normal visual acuity and views the world in in yellows, blues, and shades of grey. Which of the following colour blindness disorders are Ian and Fiona most likely to have? A) Ian has protanopia, while Fiona has deuteranopia. B) Ian has tritanopia, while Fiona has deuteranopia or protanopia. C) Ian has deuteranopia, while Fiona has tritanopia. D) Ian has dueteranopia or protanopia, while Fiona has tritanopia.
B
Every time Mallory smells body odour, she experiences severe anxiety. She decides that she cannot go to the gym due to its overwhelming smell of body odour, and so she is losing her fitness from lack of exercise. Which of the following best explains her behaviour? A) Mallory's avoidance of the gym is a voluntary decision, and does not constitute a psychological disorder. B) Mallory's loss of fitness is a result of the dysfunction her psychological disorder causes her. C) Mallory's anxiety from going to the gym is a symptom of bipolar disorder. D) Mallory's loss of fitness is the result of an eating compulsion to overcome an obsession.
B
Mitchell's liver is correctly identifying glucose levels in his blood. Jay's liver is incorrectly identifying glucose levels in his blood. What would be the key difference between Mitchell's and Jay's liver activity? A) Mitchell's, but not Jay's, liver would be converting glucose into glycogen when glycogen levels are low. B) Mitchell's, but not Jay's, liver would be breaking down glycogen into glucose when glucose levels are low. C) Jay's, but not Mitchell's, liver would be breaking down glycogen into glucose when glucose levels are low. D) Jay's but not Mitchell's liver would be converting glucose into adipose tissue when glycogen levels are low.
B
Rocko is the class clown and is unable to sit through class without drawing attention to himself. Obsessed with his physique, he often goes on bizarre diets to keep up his physical appearance. He tends to miss a lot of school as a result of physical ailments, likely due to his dieting. Which of the following personality disorders is Rocko most likely suffering from? A) Antisocial personality disorder B) Histrionic personality disorder C) Narcissistic personality disorder D) Borderline personality disorder
B
Suppose that there is new research suggesting that for human males, having blue hands has a similar effect on reproductive success as does having a large, symmetrical tail for a Peacock. As an evolutionary psychologist, you are skeptical of this claim. What is the best combination of evidence supporting this new research claim? A) Having blue hands is heritable, does not incur a cost to the individual, and modulates the masculinity of the individual to potential mates. B) Having blue hands is heritable, incurs some sort of cost to the individual, and modulates the attractiveness of the individual to potential mates. C) Having blue hands is not heritable, incurs some sort of cost to the individual, and modulates the attractiveness of the individual to females depending on the time point the female is at in her menstrual cycle. D) Having blue hands is not heritable, but males who have blue hands have a lot of offspring.
B
Through advanced genetic screening, Todd was informed that he had the genetic potential to grow to 6'5. However, at age 35, Todd stands at about 5'10. Taking into account gene/environment interactions, how is this scenario best explained? A) Todd experienced a suitable environment during development, but his genes did not allow him to reach his 6'5 potential. B) Todd experienced a less-than-ideal environment during development, such that he could never reach his 6'5 potential. C) According to passive genotype/environment correlations, Todd sought out experiences not conducive to reaching his 6'5 potential. D) Todd's genotype restricted the number of phenotypes available to him, such that he could never reach his 6'5 potential.
B
Two rabbits are raised in a laboratory. One rabbit is raised in an environment that exactly mimics the natural environment. The other rabbit is raised in a cage with lots of toys, providing all the stimulation found in a natural environment. Having been raised in slightly different yet equally stimulating environments, which of the following scenarios is most probable? A) Both rabbits will undergo the same experience-expectant brain growth and experience-dependant brain growth. B) Both rabbits will undergo the same experience-expectant brain growth but different experience-dependant brain growth. C) Neither rabbit will have the opportunity to undergo experience-expectant nor experience-dependant brain growth. D) The rabbits will undergo different experience-expectant brain growth but the same experience-dependant brain growth.
B
Which of the following best describes why afterimages occur? A) Due to the centre-surround activation of colour receptors, one colour will be activated when the cell's firing is above baseline, signaling nearby receptors to activate the complementary colour state. B) Due to the opponent-process functioning of colour receptors, a receptor that has been activated for an extended period of time will then go into the opposite state. C) Due to the opponent-process functioning of colour receptors, whenever a receptor is activated it will enter the opponent colour state following a brief interval. D) Due to the centre-surround activation of colour receptors, both colours are activated when a cell is exicted, with one colour appearing as the initial image and one as the afterimage.
B
Which of the following best explains why you see the colour green with subtractive colour mixing? A) All wavelengths are reflected, except green is absorbed. B) All wavelengths are absorbed, except green is reflected. C) All wavelengths are absorbed, except yellow and blue are reflected. D) All wavelengths are reflected, except yellow and blue are absorbed.
B
Which of the following colours is the result of additively mixing the complementary colours of green and purple? A) Red B) White C) Blue D) Brown
B
Which of the following correctly outlines the role leptin plays in long-term weight regulation? A) When fat tissue increases, leptin production is halted, and daily food consumption is lowered. B) When fat tissue increases, leptin levels rise and are involved in reducing daily food consumption. C) When an individual feels hungry, leptin levels rise, and signal the body to consume food. D) When an individual feels hungry, leptin levels rise, and signal the body to reduce food consumption.
B
Which of the following correctly outlines the role of adipose tissue? A) Adipose carries glucose to different areas of the body. B) Adipose stores energy for later use. C) Adipose signals to the body to replenish its food intake. D) Adipose is converted into glycogen for energy storage.
B
Which of the following is true of visual development in infants? A) By 4 months of age, infants are able to process visual information using Gestalt principles. B) By 4 months of age, infants are able to demonstrate size constancy when distinguishing objects. C) Infants are born tabula rasa (blank slate), without any capabilities to recognize objects. D) By 2 months of age, infants can distinguish between different categories of objects.
B
Which of the following scenarios would lead Maggie to achieving the highest fitness? A) Maggie has two babies and her full brother has two babies. B) Maggie has three babies and her full brother has two babies. C) Maggie has one baby and her half-sister has ten babies. D) Both Maggie and her aunt have three babies.
B
Which of the following statements is true regarding colour blindness? A) Individuals suffering from tritanopia see the world only in shades of blue and yellow. B) Individuals with deuteranopia would have difficulty perceiving wavelengths of 700nm and 500nm. C) Protanopia, deuteranopia, and tritanopia are increasingly severe forms of colour blindness reflecting 1, 2, or 3 types of defective cones. D) Red/green colour blindness results in a decrease in acuity and occurs mainly in males.
B
Which of the following statements regarding structures of the eye is correct? A) Relative to normal, a shorter eyeball results in nearsightedness while a longer one results in farsightedness. B) Despite one being opaque and the other transparent, the sclera and cornea are made of the same fibers. C) Individuals with myopia has difficulty seeing objects that are relatively near. D) The lens accounts for the majority of the focusing power of the eye while the cornea accounts for the rest.
B
f an individual did not have any hair cells on their basilar membrane, what would be the expected effect on the processing of auditory stimuli? A) Sound would still be perceived, but without the amplification that is conducted by the hair cells. B) The brain would not be able to perceive sound, even though sound waves would still cause vibration of the basilar membrane. C) Sound would still be perceived, but it would be difficult to differentiate between sound frequencies. D) There would be no vibration of the basilar membrane, and no sound would be perceived.
B
A neuroscientist is testing the effect of a drug called Anium. Experiments show that Anium has a very negative charge, and all neurons are permeable to Anium. If Anium is injected to the inside of a resting neuron, in what direction would Anium flow resulting from diffusion and electrostatic forces? A) Anium would flow out of the cell resulting from diffusion foces and Anium would flow into the cell resulting from electrostatic forces. B) Anium would flow into the cell resulting from both diffusion and electrostatic forces. C) Anium would flow out of the cell resulting from both diffusion and electrostatic forces. D) Anium would flow into the cell resulting from diffusion foces and Anium would flow out of the cell resulting from electrostatic forces.
C
An alien species feeds on a fungus that grows under rocks on their planet. When searching under rocks for fungus, the aliens are exposed to predators. What would happen if the aliens began to search for fungus in smaller groups? A) Number of total group scanning movements (looking for predators) would not change. B) Number of total group scanning movements (looking for predators) increase. C) Number of individual scanning movements (looking for predators) would increase. D) Number of individual scanning movements (looking for predators) would decrease.
C
Annie is currently in the fertile phase of her menstrual cycle. Which of the following males would she show the most attraction towards? A) A healthy male with slightly feminine facial features. B) A male with masculine and asymmetrical facial features. C) A male with highly symmetrical and masculine facial features. D) A confident male with slightly feminine facial features.
C
Baby Ricky is a model and as such, is required to pose for countless photo sessions. Unfortunately, it is difficult to get baby Ricky to focus on the camera for a prolonged period of time. Which of the following would be the best way to gain his interest to keep baby Ricky focused on the photographer for the duration of the photo session? A) Repeatedly present an image of baby Ricky's favourite teddy bear close to the camera. B) Repeatedly present an image of a complex black and white pattern close to the camera. C) Blow a different sounding whistle from behind the photographer. D) Tape the face of another baby model to the top of every camera used by the photographer.
C
Cindy's brother, Brendan, played a prank on her. He hid under her bed and jumped out when she walked into the room. Which of the following divisions of Cindy's nervous system was likely activated when Brendan startled her? A) The sympathetic division of the central nervous system. B) The parasympathetic division of the peripheral nervous system. C) The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. D) The parasympathetic division of the somatic nervous system.
C
Dr. Bones has discovered a new hormone called NPZ that he believes directly inhibits the actions of NPY. Which of the following experimental procedures allow Dr. Bones to test his hypothesis? A) Inject NPZ into the hypothalamus; if eating increases, his hypothesis is correct. B) Inject NPZ into the liver; if eating decreases, his hypothesis is correct. C) Inject NPZ into the hypothalamus; if eating decreases, his hypothesis is correct. D) Inject NPZ into the liver; if eating increases, his hypothesis is correct.
C
Jenna is watching a red car pass through her visual field. Which of the following would accurately describe the visual processing occurring in Jenna's brain? A) When looking at the car with her left eye, visual information about the car would only travel to the right side of her brain. B) The complex processing of a moving visual stimulus would make it more likely that the receptive field of a V1 cell would be comprised of only a few lateral geniculate nuclei. C) A visual stimulus of a tree that was processed in an area of the retina close to the car would also be processed in a nearby area of the primary visual cortex. D) Most of the retinal cells carrying the visual stimulus will synapse in the medial reticulate nucleus in the thalamus before being sent to the primary visual cortex.
C
Maria is a newborn who is completely deaf. What will most likely happen to the neurons in her auditory cortex as she develops? A) The neurons in her auditory cortex will likely migrate to a different location in order to respond to other stimuli. B) The neurons in her auditory cortex will likely remain unused because they were genetically predisposed to being auditory cells. C) The neurons in her auditory cortex will likely be influenced by the surrounding cells, becoming responsive to other stimuli. D) The neurons in her auditory cortex will likely be pruned away because they are not being used.
C
Mr. Mock wants to know which brain region metabolizes the most glucose when he recalls events from the past. He would also like to know what ionic changes take place in a single cell in this region. Which two neuroscience techniques should Mr. Mock use to address his questions? A) Functional magnetic resonance imaging and computed tomography. B) Positron emission tomography and electroencephalography. C) Positron emission tomography and intracellular recordings. D) Functional magnetic resonance imaging and single-unit recordings.
C
Of the following statements, which is most correct regarding the eyes of prey animals? A) Their eyes are positioned laterally to provide strong binocular overlap. B) Their eyes are positioned laterally to provide strong depth perception. C) Their eyes are positioned laterally to provide an almost entirely separate field of view. D) Their eyes are positioned laterally to provide a single large field of view.
C
Steve is nearing the finish line of the marathon he is running. He notices an opponent speeding towards him from behind. Steve realizes that he is unable to match the pace of the opponent and will likely lose the race. Rather than finish the race in second, he decides to intentionally keep the opponent from winning, knowing that he will be disqualified for doing so. Which type of social behaviour is Steve demonstrating? A) Altruism B) Cooperation C) Spite D) Selfishness
C
Vilma suffers from a rare disorder that is attacking only her rod cells. Which of the following effects most likely results from Vilma's condition? A) Vilma is able to clearly see objects directly in front of her and in her periphery. B) Vilma is unable to perceive colour information in her periphery. C) Vilma is unable to notice when her friends approach her from the side. D) Vilma is able to see objects that are still, but not those that are moving.
C
What is the evolutionary rationale behind the statement, "our lives seem dominated by the consumption of food"? A) In our evolutionary past and in present industrial societies, humans expend little energy seeking out food. B) In our evolutionary past, humans had to expend less time and effort in order to find food than is typical for modern societies today. C) In our evolutionary past, humans had to expend far more time and effort in order to find food than is typical for modern societies today. D) In our evolutionary past and in present industrial societies, humans expend a great deal of energy seeking out scarcely available food.
C
What was the main finding of the study of homicides by Daly and Wilson? A) The majority of homicides are carried out by genetic relatives of the victim. B) Significantly more homicides are committed by genetic relatives of the victim than is usually reported in police reports. C) People are significantly more likely to be killed by non-genetic relatives than they are by genetic relatives. D) Adopted children are more likely to be killed by their genetic parents than by their adopted parents.
C
What would happen to the flow of ions through the leaky potassium channels if a neuron at rest was placed in a solution that was very high in potassium ions? A) Sodium ions would flow outward. B) Potassium ions would flow outward. C) Potassium ions would flow inward. D) Sodium ions would flow inward.
C
Which is a correct observation that demonstrates the convergence of information from multiple inputs to a single output? A) Multiple ganglion cells to a single photoreceptor. B) Multiple horizontal cells to a single bipolar cell. C) Multiple LGN cells to a single V1 cell. D) Multiple LGN cells to a single ganglion cell.
C
Which of the following individuals would an evolutionary psychologist rate as being the most fit? A) Evan is very handsome and extremely smart. He and his husband are trying to adopt their third baby boy. B) James loves to hit the gym and he is also at the top of his medical school class. C) Mike cheats on his wife with many other women. D) Mickey is in the army and has a lot of combat and self-defense training.
C
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using fMRI as a neuroimaging method? A) fMRI is considered invasive because it requires injection of a radioactive tracer. B) fMRI provides only a rough image of the electrical activity of populations of neurons. C) fMRI does not register changes in brain function as quickly as EEG. D) fMRI can produce a lot of noise that is difficult to interpret.
C
Which of the following is correct regarding visual agnosia? A) Individuals suffering from prosopagnosia have absolutely no method with which to identify people they know, as they are unable to process faces. B) Individuals suffering from object agnosia typically have difficulty processing objects of particular colours. C) Individuals suffering from prosopagnosia are unable to recognize faces because they cannot integrate the individual features of a face. D) An individual suffering from object agnosia would be able to name an object they are looking at, but would be unsure of the function of the object.
C
Which of the following is least likely to be characteristic of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? A) Michael must open and close the house door 12 times before entering, and grows anxious if he is stopped midway. B) Pujit must press the lock button at least 25 times every time she exits her car or else she grows increasingly anxious thinking that someone will steal her car. C) Akash must brush his teeth every morning, otherwise he grows anxious thinking that his attractive coworkers will smell his bad breath. D) Rajiv must wash her hands three times before and twice after eating, otherwise she grows anxious thinking that she will contract a virus.
C
Which of the following is most correct regarding the function of the lens? A) It is the final structure that light passes through before reaching the retina. B) It becomes thinner and rounder when focusing an image that is close. C) It becomes elongated when focusing on an image that is far away. D) It changes its shape through the movement of the iris.
C
Which of the following is not a symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? A) Fatigue or difficulty concentrating. B) Irritability. C) Repeatedly occuring anxiety for at least 3 months. D) Difficulty sleeping.
C
Which of the following is true regarding optical illusions? A) The Muller-Lyer effect arises from a misuse of the shape constancy, and depth is misinterpreted. B) The horizontal lines in the Muller-Lyer effect project different images on the retina, but the right angles make them appear identical. C) The Ponzo illusion arises from a misuse of convergence, such that objects that appear far away should be smaller than objects up close. D) The Ames room arises from a misuse of the size constancy, such that two objects of differing sizes appear to be the same size.
C
Which of the following is true regarding retinal ganglion cells? A) The majority of retinal ganglion cells are M cells, which respond to brightness and colour. B) The majority of retinal ganglion cells are M cells, which respond to contrast and movement. C) The majority of retinal ganglion cells are P cells, which respond to brightness and colour. D) The majority of retinal ganglion cells are P cells, which respond to contrast and movement.
C
Which of the following provides evidence of a sensitive period for visual development? A) Children with cataracts show a diminished ability to perceive objects, patterns, and details when the cataracts remain in their eye. B) Kittens placed in the dark for a month show increased ability to hear sounds when returned to the normal environment. C) Kittens placed in the dark for a week show diminished ability to perceive objects when returned to the normal environment. D) Cats raised in an environment that has vertical stripes show increased ability to perceive vertical stripes in a normal environment.
C
Which of the following statement regarding audition is correct? A) The ossicles transfer incoming sound waves from the air-filled external ear to the fluid-filled middle ear. B) The auditory cortex has a topographic organization. C) Sound shadow is used to detect location of sounds that are far away. D) The basilar membrane narrows as it moves away from the oval window.
C
Which of the following statements is true of pitch perception? A) Frequency theory is able to explain pitch perception above 10,000 Hz. B) High frequencies displace the basilar membrane closest to the apex. C) Hair cells respond maximally to one particular frequency. D) Volley theory accounts for pitch perception up to 1,000 Hz.
C
A pharmaceutical company is creating a drug that will assist obese clients in losing weight. Which of the following approaches would be best? A) Create a drug that stimulates the liver to convert glucose into glycogen. B) Create a drug that blocks the function of leptin. C) Create a drug that blocks the CCK receptors. D) Create a drug that mimics the function of leptin.
D
According to what you know about sound localization as presented in the web modules, which of the following statements is correct? A) Pinna cues help to localize sound and are the same in all humans. B) Sound is localized easiest when the source is directly in front of you. C) Interaural time difference is useful for localizing sound at a far distance. D) Turning your head may help to localize sound directly behind you.
D
After being diagnosed with major depression, Tracy finds herself struggling to manage the disorder. Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies ruminative coping? A) Tracy has started watching several new television shows to escape the symptoms of the disorder. B) Tracy has started connecting with other individuals who also suffer from symptoms of depression through a support group. C) Tracy has started developing a dislike towards individuals who comment on her depression in a negative way. D) Tracy has started questioning what aspects about her life led to her development of the disorder, such as previous failures.
D
Autonomic reflexes, such as swallowing and sneezing, are regulated by which of the following areas of the brain? A) Pons B) Reticular Formation C) Cerebellum D) Medulla
D
Baby Grace is unfortunately born with severe birth defects, despite her mother refraining from any drugs or alcohol during pregnancy. She suffers from partial paralysis and severe loss of vision and hearing. Which of the following aspects of the prenatal environment would be most likely to contribute to these birth defects? A) Severe maternal stress B) Sensory deprivation C) Hormones D) Nutrition
D
Consider a person with a mutation that prevents green cones from being activated, and therefore cannot transmit a signal. According to trichromatic theory, what effect would this have on colour perception? A) The colour yellow could be seen, but the colours red and green would be impaired. B) The colours red, green, and yellow would all be impaired. C) The colours yellow and red could be seen, but the colour green would be impaired. D) The colour red could be seen, but the colours green and yellow would be impaired.
D
Danni was born with underdeveloped retinas but underwent a retinal transplant, giving her sight for the first time at 9 months old. Which of the following is most likely true regarding her visual capabilities? A) Danni will be permanently unable to recognize a face presented to her as being her father. B) Danni will have severe, but temporary, detriments to her ability to perceive her surrounding environment. C) Danni will be temporarily unable to see objects clearly, but her vision will improve to normal levels. D) Danni will have severe and permanent detriments to her ability to perceive her surrounding environment.
D
For this question, assume that hair colour can only be brown or red and follows the principles of simple dominant recessive inheritance. The dominant allele (B) corresponds to the colour brown and the recessive allele (r) corresponds to the colour red. If the mother is heterozygous and the father is homozygous for brown hair, what is the probability of having a child with the red hair phenotype? A) 25% B) 100% C) 75% D) 0%
D
Hailey is born with a genetic abnormality that prevents hair cells from forming on her basilar membrane. Which of the following best describes why Hailey would be unable to hear? A) The basilar membrane would be unable to release neurotransmitters. B) There would be no vibration of the oval window. C) The absence of hair cells would prevent any movement of the basilar membrane. D) Auditory stimuli would not be converted to neural impulses.
D
In an alien species, 3 parents are required to reproduce. Each parent contributes 12 chromosomes to their offspring. If 6 sex chromosomes determine the sex of each alien, what is the total number of autosomal chromosomes possessed by an individual alien? A) 36 B) 42 C) 24 D) 30
D
In an alien species, alleles X and T are co-dominantly expressed. Allele X codes for red fur and allele T codes for white fur. A third allele, W, codes for black fur and is recessive. If a black furred alien mates with a pink furred alien, what fur colours can their offspring have? A) Pink, Black and Grey B) Pink and Black C) Red, White and Black D) Red and White
D
The vesicle release of two particular pre-synaptic neurons results in an action potential firing in a postsynaptic neuron. When the vesicle release of an additional third pre-synaptic neuron is added to this circuit, no action potential is triggered in the postsynaptic neuron. Why might this be the case? A) Vesicle release from the third pre-synaptic neuron depolarizes the postsynaptic neuron, moving it away from the action potential threshold. B) Neurotransmitters released from the third pre-synaptic neuron, bind to receptors on the postsynaptic cell, opening sodium channels. C) The negatively charged neurotransmitters released from the third pre-synaptic neuron enter and hyperpolarize the post-synaptic neuron. D) Activity of the third pre-synaptic neuron results in the opening of chloride channels on the postsynaptic neuron, thus leading to hyperpolarization.
D
What best describes the vision of a vertebrate with lenses that were permanently fat and round, and retinas that were comprised entirely of cones, with no rods? A) They have poor acuity for objects close up, and have difficulty distinguishing colours. B) They have good acuity for objects at long distances, and easily distinguish colours. C) They have poor acuity for objects at long distances, and have difficulty distinguishing colours. D) They have good acuity for objects close up, and easily distinguish colours.
D
What is the function of the sodium-potassium pump? A) The sodium-potassium pump removes 2 potassium ions from inside the cell and replaces them with 3 sodium ions. B) The sodium-potassium pump helps the cell to reach the threshold for producing an action potential. C) The sodium-potassium pump removes 2 sodium ions from inside the cell and replaces them with 3 potassium ions. D) The sodium-potassium pump helps the cell recover from an action potential and maintain resting potential.
D
Which area of the brain is the most important in the regulation of hunger and satiety? A) Olfactory bulb B) Prefrontal cortex C) Hippocampus D) Hypothalamus
D
Which of the following best describes an excitatory post-synaptic potential (EPSP)? A) A change in the membrane potential from -50mV towards -70mV. B) A change in ion concentration such that there is an increase in intracellular potassium. C) A change in membrane permeability that prevents a cell from producing an action potential. D) A change in membrane potential as a result of increased membrane permeability to sodium ions.
D
Which of the following best describes the function of the corpus callosum in the brain? A) It allows the two hemispheres of the brain to operate independently of one another, so that signals do not become confused between the two hemispheres. B) It acts as a protective measure for brain damage, so that if a region in one hemisphere of the brain is damaged, the other hemisphere can compensate for it. C) It acts to increase brain lateralization, so that specific functions are more prominent in one hemisphere of the brain. D) It allows the two hemispheres of the brain to communicate with each other so that information is available to both sides of the brain.
D
Which of the following is correct about glial cells? A) Glial cells release brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) onto surrounding neurons. B) Myelin sheath strengthens the action potential signal. C) Schwann cells are located in the central nervous system. D) Founder cells can produce glial cells in the neural tube.
D
Which of the following is correct regarding the perception of sound? A) The perception of loudness corresponds to variations in the distance between each peak of a sound wave. B) Pitch is measured in hertz (Hz), which is the number of seconds it takes to complete one cycle. C) The majority of sounds that humans hear are composed of a single frequency. D) There is an audible zone of frequencies that humans can hear that differs from what other species can hear.
D
Which of the following most accurately describes an individual with damage to the temporal lobe? A) Howard is unable to walk home from his school, as he cannot recall the route he is supposed to take. B) Joshua, a used car salesman, is unable to make decisions on whether or not to sell cars. C) Richard is unable to properly determine the speed and direction of movement of cars in her neighbourhood. D) Kelly has difficulty interpreting sounds and cannot extract the higher-order visual information.
D
Which of the following occurs as blood glucose levels decline? A) You start feeling full. B) Remaining glucose is quickly converted into glycogen. C) Energy is stored as fat tissue. D) Glycogen is broken down into glucose.
D
Which of the following scenarios best outlines dysfunction as one of the "four D's" of abnormality? A) Firefighters often willingly place themselves in risky situations that could severely harm themselves. B) An individual experiences paranoia whenever they volunteer to participate in psychological experiments, believing that researchers are carefully watching them. C) An individual with depression experiences a great deal of sadness when they stop taking their medication or attending psychological therapy. D) An individual with obsessive-compulsive disorder is compelled to check the oven at least 50 times prior to leaving the house.
D
Which of the following statements regarding physiological development is most correct? A) Puberty marks our first hormonally driven physical changes. B) Increased body hair and menarche signal male puberty. C) Gonadotrophic hormones released by the hypothalamus influence reproduction. D) A decrease in testosterone as women age leads to decreased libido.
D
Which of the following statements suggests that the trichromatic theory alone is insufficient in describing colour vision in humans? A) Light can be combined through both additive and subtractive colour mixing. B) Other species, such as goldfish, pigeons, and ducks possess four types of retinal receptors. C) Yellow light produces an intermediate response of long and medium wavelength receptors. D) The same colour can appear lighter or darker depending on the surrounding colours.
D
While attempting to determine the extent of a patient's damage to his corpus collosum, Dr. Cruz presents her patient with a toothbrush and asks him to name the object. The patient is unable to name the object. Which of the following best explains these findings? A) The object was presented in the patient's right visual field only. B) The object was presented to the patient's right eye only. C) The object was presented to the patient's left eye only. D) The object was presented in the patient's left visual field only.
D
You have discovered an animal that does not utilize glycogen stores. Which of the following correctly outlines the eating behaviour and glucose levels of these animals? A) Eat frequently and have consistently low glucose levels. B) Eat infrequently and have consistently low glucose levels. C) Eat infrequently and have highly variable glucose levels. D) Eat frequently and have highly variable glucose levels.
D
