Wongs Ch 6. Childhood Communicable and Infectious Disease

17. Which is usually the only symptom of pediculosis capitis (head lice)? a. Itching b. Vesicles c. Scalp rash d. Localized inflammatory response

ANS: A Itching is generally the only manifestation of pediculosis capitis (head lice). Diagnosis is made by observation of the white eggs (nits) on the hair shaft. Vesicles, scalp rash, and localized inflammatory response are not symptoms of head lice.

8. The nurse is conducting a staff in-service on appearance of childhood skin conditions. Lymphangitis ("streaking") is frequently seen in which condition? a. Cellulitis b. Folliculitis c. Impetigo contagiosa d. Staphylococcal scalded skin

ANS: A Lymphangitis is frequently seen in cellulitis. If it is present, hospitalization is usually required for parenteral antibiotics. Lymphangitis is not associated with folliculitis, impetigo, or staphylococcal scalded skin. REF: p. 176

23. Airborne isolation is required for a child who is hospitalized with: a. mumps. b. chickenpox. c. exanthema subitum (roseola). d. erythema infectiosum (fifth disease).

ANS: B Chickenpox is communicable through direct contact, droplet spread, and contaminated objects. Mumps is transmitted from direct contact with saliva of infected person and is most communicable before onset of swelling. The transmission and source of the viral infection exanthema subitum (roseola) is unknown. Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) is communicable before onset of symptoms.

34. A parent has asked the nurse about how her child can be tested for pinworms. The nurse responds by stating that which is the most common test for diagnosing pinworms in a child? a. Lower gastrointestinal (GI) series b. Three stool specimens, at intervals of 4 days c. Observation for the presence of worms after child defecates d. Laboratory examination of a fecal smear

ANS: D Laboratory examination of substances containing the worm, its larvae, or ova can identify the organism. Most are identified by examining fecal smears from the stools of persons suspected of harboring the parasite. Fresh specimens are best for revealing parasites or larvae. Lower GI series is not helpful for diagnosing enterobiasis. Stool specimens are not necessary to diagnose pinworms. Worms will not be visible after child defecates.

15. Parents tell the nurse that their child keeps scratching the areas where he has poison ivy. The nurse's response should be based on which knowledge? a. Poison ivy does not itch and needs further investigation. b. Scratching the lesions will not cause a problem. c. Scratching the lesions will cause the poison ivy to spread. d. Scratching the lesions may cause them to become secondarily infected.

ANS: D Poison ivy is a contact dermatitis that results from exposure to the oil urushiol in the plant. Every effort is made to prevent the child from scratching because the lesions can become secondarily infected. The poison ivy produces localized, streaked or spotty, oozing, and painful impetiginous lesions. Itching is a common response. Scratching the lesions can result in secondary infections. The lesions do not spread by contact with the blister serum or by scratching.

6. The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old child with impetigo contagiosa. The parents ask the nurse what will happen to their child's skin after the infection has subsided and healed. Which answer should the nurse give? a. There will be no scarring. b. There may be some pigmented spots. c. It is likely there will be some slightly depressed scars. d. There will be some atrophic white scars.

ANS: A Impetigo contagiosa tends to heal without scarring unless a secondary infection occurs.

14. The nurse is caring for a school-age child with a tinea capitis (ringworm) infection. What should the nurse expect the therapeutic management of this child to include? a. Administering oral griseofulvin b. Administering topical or oral antibiotics c. Applying topical sulfonamides d. Applying Burow solution compresses to the affected area

ANS: A Treatment with the antifungal agent griseofulvin is part of the treatment for the fungal disease ringworm. Oral griseofulvin therapy frequently continues for weeks or months. Antibiotics, sulfonamides, and Burow solution are not effective in fungal infections.

38. The community health nurse is teaching parents about prevention of the spread and reoccurrence of pediculosis (head lice). Which should the nurse include in the teaching session? (Select all that apply.) a. Dry clean nonwashable items. b. Spray the environment with an insecticide. c. Seal nonwashable items in a plastic bag for 5 days. d. Boil combs and brushes for 10 minutes. e. Discourage sharing of personal items.

ANS: A, D, E To prevent the spread and reoccurrence of pediculosis the nurse should teach the parents to: dryclean nonwashable items, boil combs and brushes for 10 minutes or soak for 1 hour in a pediculicide, and discourage the sharing of personal items, such as combs, hats, scarves and other headgear. Spraying with insecticide is not recommended because of the danger to children and animals. Nonwashable items should be sealed for 14 days in a plastic bag.

24. Acyclovir (Zovirax) is given to children with chickenpox to: a. minimize scarring. b. decrease the number of lesions. c. prevent aplastic anemia. d. prevent the spread of the disease.

ANS: B Acyclovir decreases the number of lesions; shortens duration of fever; and decreases itching, lethargy, and anorexia. Treating pruritus and discouraging itching minimize scarring. Aplastic anemia is not a complication of chickenpox. Strict isolation until vesicles are dried prevents spread of disease.

21. The nurse is examining 12-month-old Amy, who was brought to the clinic for persistent diaper rash. The nurse finds perianal inflammation with satellite lesions that cross the inguinal folds. What is most likely the cause of the diaper rash? a. Impetigo b. Candida albicans c. Urine and feces d. Infrequent diapering

ANS: B C. albicans infection produces perianal inflammation and a maculopapular rash with satellite lesions that may cross the inguinal folds. Impetigo is a bacterial infection that spreads peripherally in sharply marginated, irregular outlines. Eruptions involving the skin in contact with the diaper, but sparing the folds, are likely to be caused by chemical irritation, especially urine and feces.

10. The nurse should implement which prescribed treatment for a child with warts? a. Vaccination b. Local destruction c. Corticosteroids d. Specific antibiotic therapy

ANS: B Local destructive therapy individualized according to location, type, and number—including surgical removal, electrocautery, curettage, cryotherapy, caustic solutions, x-ray treatment, and laser therapies—is used. Vaccination is prophylaxis for warts and is not a treatment. Corticosteroids and specific antibiotic therapy are not effective in the treatment of warts.

13. What causes tinea capitis (ringworm)? a. Virus b. Fungus c. Allergic reaction d. Bacterial infection

ANS: B Ringworm is caused by a group of closely related filamentous fungi that invade primarily the stratum corneum, hair, and nails. They are superficial infections that live on, not in, the skin. Virus and bacterial infection are not the causative organisms for ringworm. Ringworm is not an allergic response.

19. Which bite causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? a. Flea b. Tick c. Mosquito d. Mouse or rat

ANS: B Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by a tick. The tick must attach and feed for at least 1 to 2 hours to transmit the disease. The usual habitat of the tick is in heavily wooded areas. Fleas, mosquitoes, and mice or rats do not transmit Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

11. Herpes zoster is caused by the varicella virus and has an affinity for: a. sympathetic nerve fibers. b. parasympathetic nerve fibers. c. posterior root ganglia and posterior horn of the spinal cord. d. lateral and dorsal columns of the spinal cord.

ANS: C The herpes zoster virus has an affinity for posterior root ganglia, the posterior horn of the spinal cord, and skin. The zoster virus does not involve sympathetic or parasympathetic nerve fibers and the lateral and dorsal columns of the spinal cord.

28. A nurse is teaching parents about caring for their child with chickenpox. The nurse should let the parents know that the child is considered to be no longer contagious when which occurs? a. When fever is absent b. When lesions are crusted c. 24 hours after lesions erupt d. 8 days after onset of illness

ANS: B When the lesions are crusted, the chickenpox is no longer contagious. This may be a week after onset of disease. Chickenpox is still contagious when child has fever. Children are contagious after lesions erupt. If lesions are crusted at 8 days, the child is no longer contagious.

29. A nurse is assessing a child and notes Koplik spots. In which of these communicable diseases are Koplik spots present? a. Rubella b. Measles (rubeola) c. Chickenpox (varicella) d. Exanthema subitum (roseola)

ANS: B *Measles* rubeola Koplik spots are small irregular red spots with a minute, bluish white center found on the buccal mucosa 2 days before systemic rash. Rubella occurs with rash on the face, which rapidly spreads downward. Varicella appears with highly pruritic macules, followed by papules and vesicles. Roseola is seen with rose-pink macules on the trunk, spreading to face and extremities.

39. A nurse is preparing to administer routine immunizations to a 4-month-old infant. The infant is currently up to date on all previously recommended immunizations. Which immunizations will the nurse prepare to administer? (Select all that apply.) a. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) b. Rotavirus (RV) c. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTaP) d. Varicella e. Haemophilus influenzae type b (HIB) f. Inactivated poliovirus (IPV)

ANS: B, C, E, F Recommended immunization schedule for a 4-month-old, up to date on immunizations, would be to administer the rotavirus (RV), diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis (DTaP), Haemophilus influenza type b (HIB), and inactivated poliovirus (IPV) vaccinations. The measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) and varicella would not be administered until the child is at least 1 year of age.

12. The nurse is taking care of a 7-year-old child with herpes simplex virus (type 1 or 2). Which prescribed medication should the nurse expect to be included in the treatment plan? a. Corticosteroids b. Oral griseofulvin c. Oral antiviral agent d. Topical and/or systemic antibiotic

ANS: C Oral antiviral agents are effective for viral infections such as herpes simplex. Corticosteroids are not effective for viral infections. Griseofulvin is an antifungal agent and not effective for viral infections. Antibiotics are not effective in viral diseases.

5. Which nursing consideration is important when caring for a child with impetigo contagiosa? a. Apply topical corticosteroids to decrease inflammation. b. Carefully remove dressings so as not to dislodge undermined skin, crusts, and debris. c. Carefully wash hands and maintain cleanliness when caring for an infected child. d. Examine child under a Wood lamp for possible spread of lesions.

ANS: C A major nursing consideration related to bacterial skin infections, such as impetigo contagiosa, is to prevent the spread of the infection and complications. This is done by thorough hand washing before and after contact with the affected child. Corticosteroids are not indicated in bacterial infections. Dressings are usually not indicated. The undermined skin, crusts, and debris are carefully removed after softening with moist compresses. A Wood lamp is used to detect fluorescent materials in the skin and hair. It is used in certain disease states, such as tinea capitis.

25. The single parent of a 3-year-old child who has just been diagnosed with chickenpox tells the nurse that she cannot afford to stay home with the child and miss work. The parent asks the nurse if some medication will shorten the course of the illness. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention? a. Reassure the parent that it is not necessary to stay home with the child. b. Explain that no medication will shorten the course of the illness. c. Explain the advantages of the medication acyclovir (Zovirax) to treat chickenpox. d. Explain the advantages of the medication VCZ immune globulin (VariZIG) to treat chickenpox.

ANS: C Acyclovir is effective in treating the number of lesions; shortening the duration of fever; and decreasing itching, lethargy, and anorexia. It is important the parent stay with the child to monitor fever. Acyclovir lessens the severity of chickenpox. VariZIG is given only to high-risk children.

32. A parent reports to the nurse that her child has inflamed conjunctivae of both eyes with purulent drainage and crusting of the eyelids, especially on awakening. These manifestations suggest: a. viral conjunctivitis. b. allergic conjunctivitis. c. bacterial conjunctivitis. d. conjunctivitis caused by a foreign body.

ANS: C Bacterial conjunctivitis has these symptoms. Viral or allergic conjunctivitis has watery drainage. Foreign body causes tearing and pain, and usually only one eye is affected.

27. Vitamin A supplementation may be recommended for the young child who has which disease? a. Mumps b. Rubella c. Measles (rubeola) d. Erythema infectiosum

ANS: C Evidence shows vitamin A decreases morbidity and mortality in *measles.* Mumps is treated with analgesics for pain and antipyretics for fever. Rubella is treated similarly to mumps. Erythema infectiosum is treated similarly to mumps and rubella.

20. The school nurse is conducting a class for school-age children on Lyme disease. Which is characteristic of Lyme disease? a. Difficult to prevent b. Treated with oral antibiotics in stages 1, 2, and 3 c. Caused by a spirochete that enters the skin through a tick bite d. Common in geographic areas where the soil contains the mycotic spores that cause the disease

ANS: C Lyme disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, a spirochete spread by ticks. The early characteristic rash is erythema migrans. Tick bites should be avoided by entering tick-infested areas with caution. Light-colored clothing should be worn to identify ticks easily. Long-sleeved shirts and long pants tucked into socks should be the attire. Early treatment of the erythema migrans (stage 1) can prevent the development of Lyme disease. Lyme disease is caused by a spirochete, not mycotic spores.

16. The nurse is taking care of a child with scabies. Which primary clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to assess with this disease? a. Edema b. Redness c. Pruritus d. Maceration

ANS: C Scabies is caused by the scabies mite. The inflammatory response and intense itching occur after the host has become sensitized to the mite. This occurs approximately 30 to 60 days after initial contact. Edema, redness, and maceration are not observed in scabies.

22. A school nurse assesses a case of tinea capitis (ringworm) on a 6-year-old child. Which figure depicts the characteristic lesion of tinea capitis? (sorry no pix) a. b. c. d.

ANS: C Tinea capitis is characterized by lesions in the scalp configured of scaly, circumscribed patches or patchy, scaling areas of alopecia. Generally the lesions are asymptomatic but a severe, deep inflammatory reaction may occur that manifests as boggy, encrusted lesions (kerions). Impetigo contagiosa is depicted in the figure showing the vesicular lesion around the nares area that has become vesicular. The lesions rupture easily, leaving superficial, moist erosions that tend to spread peripherally in sharply marginated irregular outlines. The exudate dries to form heavy, honey-colored crusts. The figure depicting inflammation on the cheek is cellulitis. Inflammation of skin and subcutaneous tissues is characterized by intense redness, swelling, and firm infiltration. Cellulitis may progress to abscess formation. The figure depicting "streaked blisters" surrounding one large blister is characteristic of contact dermatitis from poison ivy contact.

30. Which is a common childhood communicable disease that may cause severe defects in the fetus when it occurs in its congenital form? a. Erythema infectiosum b. Roseola c. Rubeola d. Rubella

ANS: D *Rubella* causes teratogenic effects on the fetus. There is a low risk of fetal death to those in contact with children affected with fifth disease. Roseola and rubeola are not dangerous to the fetus.

31. Which is the causative agent of scarlet fever? a. Enteroviruses b. Corynebacterium organisms c. Scarlet fever virus d. Group A β-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS)

ANS: D GABHS infection causes scarlet fever. Enteroviruses do not cause the same complications. Corynebacterium organisms cause diphtheria. Scarlet fever is not caused by a virus.

9. The nurse should expect to assess which causative agent in a child with warts? a. Bacteria b. Fungus c. Parasite d. Virus

ANS: D Human warts are caused by the human papillomavirus. Infection with bacteria, fungus, and parasites does not result in warts.

37. A mother tells the nurse that she does not want her infant immunized because of the discomfort associated with injections. What should the nurse explain? a. This cannot be prevented. b. Infants do not feel pain as adults do. c. This is not a good reason for refusing immunizations. d. A topical anesthetic, EMLA, can be applied before injections are given.

ANS: D Several topical anesthetic agents can be used to minimize the discomfort associated with immunization injections. These include EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anesthetic) and vapor coolant sprays. Pain associated with many procedures can be prevented and minimized by using the principles of atraumatic care. With preparation, the injection site can be properly anesthetized to decrease the amount of pain felt by the infant. Infants have the neural pathways to feel pain. Numerous research studies have indicated that infants perceive and react to pain in the same manner as do children and adults. The mother should be allowed to discuss her concerns and the alternatives available. This is part of the informed consent process.

7. What is cellulitis often caused by? a. Herpes zoster b. Candida albicans c. Human papillomavirus d. Streptococcus or Staphylococcus organisms

ANS: D Streptococci, staphylococci, and Haemophilus influenzae are the organisms usually responsible for cellulitis. Herpes zoster is the virus associated with varicella and shingles. C. albicans is associated with candidiasis, or thrush. Human papillomavirus is associated with various types of human warts.

18. The nurse is talking to the parents of a child with pediculosis capitis. Which should the nurse include when explaining how to manage pediculosis capitis? a. "You will need to cut the hair shorter if infestation and nits are severe." b. "You can distinguish viable from nonviable nits, and remove all viable ones." c. "You can wash all nits out of hair with a regular shampoo." d. "You will need to remove nits with an extra-fine-tooth comb or tweezers."

ANS: D Treatment consists of the application of pediculicide and manual removal of nit cases. An extra-fine-tooth comb facilitates manual removal. Parents should be cautioned against cutting the child's hair short; lice infest short hair as well as long. It increases the child's distress and serves as a continual reminder to peers who are prone to tease children with a different appearance. It is not possible to differentiate between viable and nonviable eggs. Regular shampoo is not effective; a pediculicide is necessary.

26. Which may be given to high-risk children after exposure to chickenpox to prevent varicella? a. Acyclovir (Zovirax) b. Varicella globulin c. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl) d. VCZ immune globulin (VariZIG)

ANS: D VariZIG is given to high-risk children to prevent the development of chickenpox. Acyclovir decreases the severity, not the development, of chickenpox. Varicella globulin is not effective because it is not the immune globulin. Diphenhydramine may help pruritus but not the actual chickenpox.