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c) Tell the child that they have done the right thing by talking with you.

A 12-year-old child in hospital discloses to you that she is being abused in her home. Your best response is to: a) Phone CYPS and inform your supervisor. b) Contact the parents and have a discussion. c) Tell the child that they have done the right thing by talking with you. d) Tell the child nol to talk to anyone else about those things.

b) Enlarged lymph glands.

A father asks the nurse how he would know if his child had developed mononucleosis. The nurse explains that in addition to fatigue, which of the following would be most common? a) Liver tenderness. b) Enlarged lymph glands. c) Persistent non-productive cough. d) A blush-like generalised skin rash.

a) "Its ok to cry when something hurts".

A 3-year-old child with a history of being abused has blood drawn. The child lies very still and makes no sound during the procedure. Which of the following comments by the nurse would be most appropriate? a) "Its ok to cry when something hurts". b) "That really didn't hurt did it". c) "We're mean to hurt you that way, aren't we". d) "You were so good not to cry with the needle".

d) Dysuria.

A female client with gonorrhea informs the nurse that she has had sexual intercourse with her boyfriend and asks the nurse, "would he have any symptoms if he has contracted it from me?" The nurse responds that in men the symptoms of gonorrhea include: a) Impotence. b) Scrotal swelling c) Urinary retention. d) Dysuria.

b) Hands.

A mother asks the nurse "how did my children get threadworms (Enterobius vermicularis)?" The nurse explains that threadworms are most commonly spread by which of the following when contaminated? a) Food. b) Hands. c) Animals. d) Toilet seats.

c) Ability to see at 20 feet what she should see at 60 feet.

A mother calls the clinic to talk to the nurse. The mother states that a physician described her daughter as having 20/60 vision and asks the nurse what that means. The nurse responds based on the interpretation that the child is experiencing which of the following? a) A loss of one third of her visual acuity. b) Ability to see at 60 feet what she should see at 20 feet. c) Ability to see at 20 feet what she should see at 60 feet. d) Visual acuity three times better than average.

b) Increase the insulin dosage

A client with insulin dependent diabetes mellitus is admitted for treatment of cellulitis in her left leg. Her white cell count is abnormally high. When planning for this client, the nurse should expect to: a) Administer the usual insulin dosage b) Increase the insulin dosage c) Decrease the insulin dosage d) Withhold all insulin

c) Aged cheese.

A client with major depression must take monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitor, tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate). The nurse should teach this client to avoid which food? a) Free-range poultry. b) Whole-grain bread. c) Aged cheese. d) Fresh fish.

d) "You don't feel like living?"

A client with major depression tells the nurse, "Life's just not worth living. I can't stand the pain any longer." The nurse's best response would be: a) "Sometimes when people feel depressed and helpless, they feel like hurting themselves. Do you feel like hurting yourself?" b) "Perhaps you should discuss this in group therapy today." c) "I think you may want to use your p.r.n. lorazepam now." d) "You don't feel like living?"

c) Skin infection.

A mother tells the nurse that one of her children has chicken pox and asks how she should care for that child. When teaching the mother which of the following would be most important to prevent? a) Acid-base imbalance. b) Malnutrition. c) Skin infection. d) Respiratory infection.

b) This is from a normal breakdown of red blood cells.

A newborn is noticeably jaundiced on the third day of life. Which of the following would you explain to his mother? a) He may have a blood incompatibility developing. b) This is from a normal breakdown of red blood cells. c) He will need an evaluation for bile duct disease. d) No one understands why newborn jaundice occurs.

c) Pediculous usually is spread by close contact with infested children.

A parent asks "Can I get head lice too?" The nurse indicates that adults can also be infested with head lice but that pediculosis is more common amongst school children, primarily for which of the following reasons? a) An immunity to pediculous usually is established by adulthood. b) School age children tend to be more neglectful of frequent hand washing. c) Pediculous usually is spread by close contact with infested children. d) The skin of adults is more capable of resisting the invasion of lice.

a) Itching of the scalp.

A parent asks the nurse about a head lice (pediculosis capitis) infestation during a visit to the clinic. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse tell the parent is most common in a child infected with head lice? a) Itching of the scalp. b) Scaling of the scalp. c) Serous weeping on the scalp surface. d) Pinpoint hemorrhagic spots on the scalp surface.

a) The risks to a foetus are high if a girl receiving the vaccine becomes pregnant.

A parent asks why it is recommended that the second dose of the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine be given by 12 years of age?. The nurse responds based on which of the following as the most important reason? a) The risks to a foetus are high if a girl receiving the vaccine becomes pregnant. b) The chance of contracting the disease is much lower after being vaccinated than. before it. c) The dangers associated with a strong reaction to the vaccine are increased after puberty. d) The changes that occur in the immunologic system may affect the rhythm of the menstrual cycle.

c) "It must be hard for you to see her like this."

A visitor apologises to the nurse for his wife's demanding behaviour. Which one of the following possible replies would be best for the nurse to make: a) "I am sure she is doing the best she can." b) "It's all right - we have been treated worse than this." c) "It must be hard for you to see her like this." d) "What happened to set her off like this?"

c) Their sense of personal invincibility.

Adolescent reasoning about sex is hindered mostly by: a) Their inability to use formal operational thinking. b) The low level of morality of most adolescents. c) Their sense of personal invincibility. d) A lack of information about sex and STDs.

d) Inability to speak clearly

After a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), a client develops dysphasia: Which assessment finding most typifies dysphasia? a) Arm and leg weakness b) Absence of gag reflex c) Difficulty with swallowing d) Inability to speak clearly

b) When depression starts to lift.

An attempt to commit suicide is most likely to occur during which of the following phases of hospitalisation: a) Immediately following hospital admission. b) When depression starts to lift. c) At the point of deepest depression. d) Shortly before hospital discharge.

b) Akathesia.

Another patient in the ward is Mr Rand, who after three days of taking Chlorpromazine shows an inability to sit still, motor restlessness and fidgeting. Which of the following extrapyramidal side effects is he showing signs of? a) Dystonia. b) Akathesia. c) Parkinsonism. d) Tardive dyskinesia

c) Talking about suicide.

As the school nurse, you are required to provide an education evening for parents on youth suicide. There are several signs that can indicate potential suicide attempt. The most significant indicator is: a) Chronically poor school performance. b) Increased obvious depression. c) Talking about suicide. d) Intensified social relationships.

a) Any age.

At what age can a child obtain contraception without consent from parents/caregivers? a) Any age. b) Over the age of 16yrs. c) Over the age of 13 yrs. d) Not at all.

b) A signed consent form.

Before a series of electroconvulsive treatments is begun, which one of the following items should be obtained from the client: a) A skull and jaw x-ray. b) A signed consent form. c) A full blood count. d) A mid-stream urine.

b) May be hearing voices.

Billy, aped 17 is diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. He periodically looks intently towards the ceiling and cocks his head to one side while tugging at his ear. In assessing this behaviour, the nurse should consider that Billy: a) Has peculiar mannerisms. b) May be hearing voices. c) Is avoiding the nurse. d) Is daydreaming.

a) Small decubitus ulcer noted on left leg

For a hospitalised client which statement reflects appropriate objective documentation in the client's medical record? a) Small decubitus ulcer noted on left leg b) Seems to be mad at doctor c) Client had a good day d) Skin moist and cool

b) "Katy's weight loss is life threatening. Anorexia nervosa is an illness that can be treated successfully. Dietary therapy is an important part of the treatment."

Fourteen year old Katy, who has a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa, is adhering to the dietary programme with supervision. A nursing student relieving in the ward asks you, "Why do you make Katy eat and put on weight if she doesn't want to?" What would be your most appropriate response: a) "Katy's brain is not functioning well because of her weight loss. She doesn't know what she Is doing, therefore we have to make her eat whether or not she agrees." b) "Katy's weight loss is life threatening. Anorexia nervosa is an illness that can be treated successfully. Dietary therapy is an important part of the treatment." c) "Katy's behaviour is attention seeking. She is being difficult and obstinate. Her condition is life threatening and therefore we have to stop her from further harming herself." d) "Katy's main problem is her manipulative behaviour, and bird eating patterns. The programme is.to train her to eat three meals a day."

c) "You must be feeling desperate at the moment — have you made any plans as to how you might take your life?"

Freda tells you one day, "I feel so miserable I just want to end it all." What would be the best response: a) "You're feeling very negative Freda — let's go for a walk and get your mind off your problems for a bit." b) "Your attention seeking behaviour is not going to work today, Freda." c) "You must be feeling desperate at the moment — have you made any plans as to how you might take your life?" d) "I think you'd better tell your doctor about this, Freda."

a) Major depressive episode.

Freda's mother died 12 weeks ago. After being found wandering about aimlessly saying she will drown herself Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis: a) Major depressive episode. b) Bi-polar affective disorder. c) Anxiety neurosis. d) Obsessional neurosis.

b) The hormones in the Pill prevent ovulation (the release of the ovum from the ovaries).

How does the combined contraceptive Pill work to prevent pregnancy? a) The hormones contained in the Pill kill the sperm. b) The hormones in the Pill prevent ovulation (the release of the ovum from the ovaries). c) The hormones contained in the Pill cause early miscarriage. d) The hormones contained in the Pill reduce sexual drive.

b) Up to 6 hours.

How long can a Registered Nurse detain a person under the Section 111 in the Act that gives "powers of nurse" where urgent assessment is required: a) Up to 4 hours. b) Up to 6 hours. c) Up to 8 hours. d) Up to 12 hours.

c) "What is it about home that you are missing the most".

If a client committed under the act attempts to discharge themselves, the nurses best response is: a) "I'll just check with your doctor". b) "You'll be able to go home at the weekend". c) "What is it about home that you are missing the most". d) "That's not possible until you are better".

b) Increasing fluid intake may be beneficial.

If constipation is a problem with Mrs. Marvin, which measure below would be best to recommend? a) Mineral oil is a non-prescription laxative she could use. b) Increasing fluid intake may be beneficial. c) Reducing her prenatal vitamin to every other day. d) Including more meat in her diet will provide fibre.

d) 20 — 24%.

In a child the critical percentage of burnt body surface area above which life may be threatened is: a) 8 — 12%. b) 14 — 18%. c) 16 — 20%. d) 20 — 24%.

b) A contract to eat a prescribed amount of food agreed to by Katy.

In the ward, Katy's refusal to eat would be treated in the first instance by: a) Force feeding through a tube as she won't eat. b) A contract to eat a prescribed amount of food agreed to by Katy. c) A contract to reach an agreed weight by a certain date. d) Ignoring the behaviour so as not to reinforce her attention seeking ploys.

a) Cardiogenic shock.

Intense pain and fear following a burn can cause: a) Cardiogenic shock. b) Toxaemic shock. c) Anaphylactic shock. d) Neurogenic shock.

c) Can give advice and oral contraceptives.

Jane is a 14 year old school student who visits you as the nurse at the School Health Clinic. She tells you she is sexually active and has come to you to discuss contraception. According to the 1990 Amendment to the 1977 Contraception, Sterilisation and Abortion Act, nurses: a) Are unable to give any contraceptives. b) Are to inform her parents of her visit. c) Can give advice and oral contraceptives. d) Can give advice but no oral contraceptives.

b) She is expressing ambivalence.

Jane returns to the clinic 9 weeks pregnant. She states, "I can't believe I'm pregnant. I need to pass my exams this year." What is the most accurate evaluation of this statement? a) She desires an abortion. b) She is expressing ambivalence. c) She is depressed about the pregnancy. d) She may have difficulty bonding with the neonate.

d) Within 72 hours.

Jane tells you that she had unprotected sex last night and is afraid she may be pregnant. You discuss with her the morning after pill. The timeframe in which Jane would need to take this Pill is: a) Within 1 — 12 hours. b) Within 24 Hours. c) At 6 hourly intervals. d) Within 72 hours.

d) Wear a mask when providing direct personal care.

Mother has heard that several children have been diagnosed with mononucleosis (glandular fever). She asks the nurse what precautions should be taken to prevent this illness occurring in her child. Which of the following would the nurse advise the mother to do? a) Take no particular precautionary measures. b) Sterilise the child's eating utensils before they are reused. c) Wash the child's linens separately in hot, soapy water. d) Wear a mask when providing direct personal care.

d) Set firm limits for Mr. Rand and be consistent in confronting behaviours and enforcing unit rules.

Mr. Rand constantly bends rules to meet his needs and then gets angry when other clients and staff confront him on his behaviour. He threatens clients and manipulates staff to get what he wants. Which is the best nursing approach to use with Mr. Rand: a) Administer pm medication every time Mr. Rand does not follow the rules. b) Ignore his behaviour and privately tell the other clients to let Mr. Rand switch the television channels as much as he wants. c) Encourage the other staff to take turns watching Mr. Rand. d) Set firm limits for Mr. Rand and be consistent in confronting behaviours and enforcing unit rules.

a) A chronic, progressive degenerative disorder of the central nervous system (CNS).

Mrs C. has just been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Multiple sclerosis is: a) A chronic, progressive degenerative disorder of the central nervous system (CNS). b) A disease that affects the brain in the elderly. c) A viral infection of the central nervous system. d) A condition that affects nerve endings in the hands and feet only.

a) Eating a high fibre diet.

Mrs C. is also experiencing bowel incontinence and may start a bowel retraining programme. Which strategy is the most appropriate? a) Eating a high fibre diet. b) Setting a regular time for elimination c) Using an elevated seat. d) Limiting fluid intake to 1000mI per day.

c) Establish a regular toileting schedule.

Mrs C. is experiencing urinary incontinence, which of the following interventions would you suggest to help with this a) Limit fluid intake to 1000 ml per day. b) Insert and IDC. c) Establish a regular toileting schedule. d) Administer prophylactic antibiotics.

d) Ask Mrs C. what she knows about the condition and spend time answering her questions supported with written information.

Mrs C. is understandably anxious about her diagnosis, as her nurse how can you assist with this? a) Inform her that it is far too soon to be concerned about it all. b) Tell her that the doctor will be back later to explain ti to her. c) Talk to her husband so that he can explain it to her. d) Ask Mrs C. what she knows about the condition and spend time answering her questions supported with written information.

a) This is a normal finding.

Mrs Dorman points out to you that following three meconium stools, her newborn has had a bright green stool. You would explain to her that a) This is a normal finding. b) This is most likely a symptom of diarrhoea. c) Her child may be developing an allergy to breast milk. d) Her child will be isolated until the stool can be cultured.

c) Include Mrs. Cannon in a conversation with the nurse and the client's room mate.

Mrs. Cannon withdraws from everyone on the unit. She refuses to go to activities because no one will talk to her and she feels she is unable to initiate conversation with others. The nurse would: a) Escort Mrs. Cannon to her activity and leave her there. b) Tell the client that she should rest in her room until she feels more comfortable with others. c) Include Mrs. Cannon in a conversation with the nurse and the client's room mate. d) Suggest to the client that she discuss these difficulties with her doctor.

a) Folic acid.

Mrs. Marvin asks you if she can take an over-the-counter vitamin during pregnancy rather than her prescription prenatal vitamin. A chief ingredient in prenatal vitamins that makes them important for pregnancy nutrition is: a) Folic acid. b) Vitamin B12. c) Vitamin C. d) Potassium.

b) As long as she receives RHIG there is no limit.

Mrs. Marvin is RH negative and asks you how many children she will be able to have before RH incompatibility causes them to die in utero. Your best response would be: a) No more than 3 children. b) As long as she receives RHIG there is no limit. c) Only her next child will be affected. d) She will have to ask her physician.

b) Prevent maternal D antibody formation.

Mrs. Marvin is a woman with an Rh-negative blood type. Following delivery of an infant, you administer her RHIG (D immune globulin). The purpose of this is to: a) Promote maternal D antibody formation. b) Prevent maternal D antibody formation. c) Stimulate maternal D immune antigens. d) Prevent foetal Rh blood formation.

b) Eat before she gets out of bed.

Mrs. Marvin is concerned because she is nauseated every morning. The best measure you would suggest to relieve this would be: a) Take a teaspoon of baking soda before breakfast. b) Eat before she gets out of bed. c) Delay breakfast until midmorning. d) Take two aspirin on arising.

c) "I respect your preference whether it is to have medication or not."

Mrs. Marvin states that she does not want any medication for pain relief during labour. Her doctor has approved this for her. Your best statement to her concerning this choice would be: a) "That's wonderful. Medication during labour is not good for the baby." b) "Your doctor has never been in labour; he may be underestimating the pain you will have." c) "I respect your preference whether it is to have medication or not." d) "Let me get you something for relaxation if you don't want anything for pain."

a) Decreased cardiac output

On admission your client's vital signs are: Temperature 38.8 degrees Celsius, pulse 144bpm and irregular, respiration 26/min. Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority when planning this client's care? a) Decreased cardiac output b) Ineffective thermoregulation c) Ineffective breathing pattern d) Altered renal tissue perfusion

c) Discuss with Freda what is bothering her, asking what she does at home when she can't sleep, and use prescribed sedation if necessary.

On her first night in hospital, Freda states she cannot sleep. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to take: a) Look up her prescribed medication on the prescription sheet and administer it with a glass of hot milk. b) Ring up the duty medical officer because you feel Freda is suicidal. c) Discuss with Freda what is bothering her, asking what she does at home when she can't sleep, and use prescribed sedation if necessary. d) Ensure that Freda cannot leave the ward and let her wander about as she likes.

d) "Feeling sad when you know you shouldn't must be very confusing."

On the third day postpartum, you discover Mrs Dorman sitting by her bed crying. She states nothing is wrong; she just "feels sad". Which of the following would be your response to her? a) "I'll keep confidential any problem you want to discuss with me." b) "You have a beautiful boy; you shouldn't feel sad about that." c) "Do you wish you'd had a girl instead of a boy?" d) "Feeling sad when you know you shouldn't must be very confusing."

b) Psychiatrist.

Who can discharge a client from a committal order? a) Registered nurse. b) Psychiatrist. c) Duty authorised officer. d) Judge.

d) When and with whom they use alcohol.

Several college senior students are referred to the school nurse because of suspected alcohol misuse. When the nurse assesses the situation, which of the following would be most important to determine? a) What they know about the legal implications of drinking. b) The type of alcohol they usually drink. c) The reasons they choose to use alcohol. d) When and with whom they use alcohol.

c) Reduced sensitivity, charred or opaque area.

Soon after the injury, a third degree or full thickness burn is usually characterised by: a) Intense pain, blisters, a charred or opaque area. b) Blisters, reduced sensitivity, a charred or opaque area. c) Reduced sensitivity, charred or opaque area. d) Intense pain scarring, a charred or opaque area.

d) Ask her to describe her intake for the last 24 hours.

The Marvin's are a family you meet in an antenatal clinic. What is the most effective way to assess Mrs. Marvin's usual food intake during her pregnancy? a) Assess a list she makes describing a good diet. b) Ask her to describe her total intake for a week. c) Assess her skin for hydration and colour. d) Ask her to describe her intake for the last 24 hours.

c) Condoms are recommended as a prevention against STD's.

You are a school nurse who is responsible for teaching adolescents about sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Which of the following is the best statement you would make regarding prevention of STDs? a) HIV is best prevented with the use of condoms and foam. b) Herpes simplex is detected easily and therefore symptom education is very necessary. c) Condoms are recommended as a prevention against STD's. d) Many STDs are transmitted to the foetus through the bloodstream from the placenta.

d) History of thrombophlebitis.

The nurse is assessing a client who desires an effective contraceptive method. Which assessment finding would possibly contraindicate the use of an oral contraceptive by the client? a) Anemia. b) Age 24. c) Irregular menstrual cycles. d) History of thrombophlebitis.

c) Provide play situations that allow disclosure

The nurse is caring for a four year old child who has been hospitalised because of sexual abuse. For this child, what is the best nursing intervention? a) Avoid touching the child b) Prevent the abuser from visiting the child c) Provide play situations that allow disclosure d) Discourage the child from talking about what happened

d) A result of developing self-concept.

The school nurse is invited to attend a meeting with several parents who express frustration with the amount of time their adolescents spend in front of the mirror and the length of time it takes them to get dressed. The nurse explains that this behaviour is indicative of which of the following? a) An abnormal narcissism b) A method of procrastination. c) A way of testing the parent's limit-setting. d) A result of developing self-concept.

d) To maintain the infants "normal" routine with regard to hygiene cares/meals etc.

The single most important factor to reduce separation anxiety in a child who is hospitalised is: a) For the parent or significant other to "room-in" with the child. b) To ensure that the same group of nurses are responsible for the care of the infant over a 24 hour period. c) To place the infant in a cubicle with children of his/her own age group. d) To maintain the infants "normal" routine with regard to hygiene cares/meals etc.

b) 0.4 ml.

Tom is prescribed 4 mg of Morphine IM for pain relief. The vial contains 10 mg Morphine in 1 ml. What is the correct dose to administer? a) 0.2 ml. b) 0.4 ml. c) 0.5 ml. d) 4 ml.

c) "It must have been frightening to see him so distressed."

Tom's mother exclaims, "I feel sick about what has happened to Tom." An appropriate response for a nurse to offer would be: a) "Let me help you discover where you made your mistakes." b) "Why don't you buy a book on safety in the home?" c) "It must have been frightening to see him so distressed." d) "Why didn't you call us sooner?"

a) Lochia rubra.

You assess Mrs Dorman's perineum and notice that her lochial discharge is moderate in amount and red in colour. You would record this as what type of lochia? a) Lochia rubra. b) Lochia serosa. c) Lochia fireum. d) Lochia alba.

a) Flow usually lasts 3 to 7 days.

What are parameters of a normal menstrual flow? a) Flow usually lasts 3 to 7 days. b) A normal cycle is 32 days. c) The average amount of flow is 500m1. d) Most girls begin menstruation at 12 or 13 years.

d) Incompatibility between the history and the injury

What is the most important criterion for the nurse to consider when deciding to report suspected child abuse? a) Inappropriate parental concern for the degree of injury b) Absence of caregivers for questioning about the injury c) Inappropriate response of the child to the injury d) Incompatibility between the history and the injury

b) Assess for responsiveness

When assessing a client who has suddenly lost consciousness what should the nurse do first? a) Call for assistance b) Assess for responsiveness c) Palpate for a carotid pulse d) Check pupil response

c) 1 to 2 years earlier in girls than in boys.

When discussing the onset of adolescence with parents, the nurse explains that it occurs at which of the following times? a) Same age for both boys and girls. b) 1 to 2 years earlier in boys than in girls. c) 1 to 2 years earlier in girls than in boys. d) 3 to 4 years later in boys than in girls.

d) May not cause symptoms until serious complications occur.

When educating a female client with gonorrhea, the nurse should emphasize that for women gonorrhea: a) Is often marked by symptoms of dysuria.or vaginal bleeding. b) Does not lead to serious complications. c) Can be treated but not cured. d) May not cause symptoms until serious complications occur.

d) Evidence of little concern about the extent of the injury.

When obtaining a nursing history from parents who are suspected of abusing their child, which of the following characteristics about parents would the nurse typically find? a) Attentive to the child's needs. b) Self-blame for the injury to the child. c) Ability to relate to child's development achievements. d) Evidence of little concern about the extent of the injury.

a) Developing trust in a therapeutic relationship

When planning care for a client with paranoid tendencies priority should be given to: a) Developing trust in a therapeutic relationship b) Preventing suicidal behaviour c) Providing a low stimulus environment d) Assisting the client to express anger

a) Keep it dry.

When teaching Mrs Dorman to care for her newborn's umbilical cord, your instructions would be to: a) Keep it dry. b) Wash it with soap and water. c) Apply petroleum jelly to it daily. d) Cover it with dry gauze.

d) To try to maintain the usual lifestyle to promote normal development

When teaching the caregiver of a toddler with a congenital heart defect, the nurse should explain all medical treatments. The most important instruction would be: a) to reduce the caloric intake to decrease cardiac demand b) To relax discipline and limit setting to prevent crying c) To avoid contact with small children to reduce over stimulation d) To try to maintain the usual lifestyle to promote normal development

c) A boiled or fried egg.

You encourage Mrs. Marvin to eat a diet high in complete protein. Assuming she likes all of the following foods, which of them would you recommend as a source of this for her? a) Apple sauce or a whole apple. b) A slice of whole grain toast. c) A boiled or fried egg. d) Green leafy vegetables.

d) Corkscrew-like, due to progesterone stimulation.

You plan to review normal menstruation with Jane. In doing so you would teach that, during the second half of a typical menstrual cycle, the endometrium of the uterus becomes: a) Thin and transparent, due to progesterone stimulation. b) Twisted and corrugated, due to follicle-stimulating hormone. c) Thick and purple-hued, due to oestrogen stimulation. d) Corkscrew-like, due to progesterone stimulation.

d) Use clear, simple explanations when making requests.

Which nursing approach is most appropriate for a client with a paranoid personality disorder: a) Involve the client in groups as much as possible. b) Use a light-hearted manner in interacting with the client. c) Confront the client's use of projection and need to control. d) Use clear, simple explanations when making requests.

c) Double vision, weakness in the extremities, muscle tremors.

Which of the following are typical manifestations of multiple sclerosis? a) Sudden burst-of energy, cough, tremor. b) Double vision, cognitive changes, mood swings. c) Double vision, weakness in the extremities, muscle tremors. d) Weakness in the extremities, muscle tremors, sudden burst of energy.

a) Increases the availability of serotonin.

Which of the following best describes the action of selective Serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) a) Increases the availability of serotonin. b) Block the re-uptake of horepinephrine and serotonin. c) Increase the availability of dopamine. d) Decrease the availability of norepinephrine whilst increasing the availability of serotonin.

c) Females are more likely to attempt suicide unsuccessfully.

Which of the following is an accurate statement concerning adolescent suicide? a) More females kill themselves than do males. b) Males have a higher rate of parasuicide than females. c) Females are more likely to attempt suicide unsuccessfully. d) Males have fewer opportunities to commit suicide.

c) Maintain continuous unobtrusive observation of her.

Which of the following is the nurse's principal task when caring for Freda during this suicidal risk period: a) Ensure adequate food and drink. b) Encourage her to participate in interesting activities. c) Maintain continuous unobtrusive observation of her. d) Ensure that she takes and swallows her medication regularly.

c) The child is underdeveloped for his age.

Which of the following observations by the nurse would strongly suggest that 15-month-old toddler has been abused? a) The child appears happy when personnel work with him. b) The child plays alongside others contentedly. c) The child is underdeveloped for his age. d) The child sucks his thumb.

a) Pulse and blood pressure.

Which of the following observations should be recorded to prevent complications when the doctor prescribes 100 mg Chlorpromazine three times a day: a) Pulse and blood pressure. b) Urinary output. c) Reaction of the pupils. d) Regularity of the bowel action.

c) A fungal infection of the scalp.

Which of the following statements clearly demonstrates an understanding of the cause of ringworm (tinea capitis). It is caused by: a) Overexposure to the sun. b) An infestation of a mite. c) A fungal infection of the scalp. d) An allergic reaction.

b) A woman with a 1-year-old son.

Which of the following women are most likely to be at risk for nutritional deficiency in a pregnancy? a) A woman who never worries about dieting. b) A woman with a 1-year-old son. c) A woman with ten-year-old twins. d) A woman who rarely eats fruit.

d) Comment to him that whilst his thinking is real to him that it is not shared by yourself and suggest that talking about his feelings might be more beneficial for him.

Which of the following would be the most appropriate action for the nurse to take when a good rapport has been established with Billy and he is voicing his delusions on more than one occasion: a) Enter into discussion with the client about his delusions. b) Listen patiently. c) Suggest he ought to discuss his feelings with his doctor. d) Comment to him that whilst his thinking is real to him that it is not shared by yourself and suggest that talking about his feelings might be more beneficial for him.

a) Abnormal state of mind and poses a serious threat to self or others.

Which of the options below best describes "mentally disordered" under the amendment to the MHA (Mental Health Act). a) Abnormal state of mind and poses a serious threat to self or others. b) Abnormal state of mind and is a substance abuser. c) Serious threat to others and is intellectually handicapped. d) A danger to oneself and others.

b) Benztropine mesylate (cogentin).

Which one of the following medications can the nurse anticipate the physician will order to treat Mr. Rand's extrapyramidal side effects: a) Chlordiazepoxide (librium). b) Benztropine mesylate (cogentin). c) Imipramine hydrochloride (tofranil). d) Thioridazine hydrochloride (melleril).

c) What were you doing when the pain started?

Which question by a nurse would be most helpful when obtaining a health history from a client admitted with acute chest pain? a) Do you need anything now? b) Why do you think you had a heart attack? c) What were you doing when the pain started? d) Has anyone in your family been sick lately?

b) Applying cold water for ten minutes.

While attempting to reach for a biscuit Tom, a pre-school child, spills a pot of hot tea and burns his right arm and leg. Before bringing him to hospital what First Aid could help? a) Spraying the burn with an antiseptic spray. b) Applying cold water for ten minutes. c) Applying ice to the burn. d) Breaking the blisters to release the accumulated fluid.


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