1C8X3, Set 2, Vols 1 - 3

(011) What is the modulation index of a 5 kilohertz (kHz) modulating signal that has enough peak voltage to cause a deviation of 15 kHz? a. 0.3. b. 0.5. c. 3.0. d. 5.0.

a. 0.3.

(023) In what AN/GRT−21/22 transmitter transmit mode should you connect the antenna to K1J3? a. 10 watt (W). b. 50 W. c. High power. d. Single sideband.

a. 10 W.

(029) What happens to the audio in the AN/GRC-171/211 transceiver when the squelch sample is greater than the front panel squelch reference? a. Audio is heard at the speaker. b. It becomes distorted. c. There is no audio. d. It is band limited.

a. Audio is heard at the speaker.

(038) When testing a fiber optic (FO) cable, what is the energy that travels back toward the optical source called? a. Backscatter. b. Fiber cladding. c. Impedance changes. d. Core refractive index.

a. Backscatter.

(025) Which receiver component determines the overall selectivity? a. Intermediate frequency (IF) filter. b. Radio frequency (RF) amplifier. c. Image frequency filter. d. IF amplifier.

a. Intermediate frequency (IF) filter.

(033) What type of line fault can be found by putting a tone on one end and checking for continuity at the distant end? a. Open circuit. b. Short circuit. c. Fiber optic (FO) fault. d. Status and control fault.

a. Open circuit.

(002) Which electrical term is measured in watts (W)? a. Power. b. Voltage (V). c. Capacitance. d. Inductive reactance.

a. Power.

(005) What power supply circuit senses changes in output voltages and compensates for the changes, usually within plus or minus (±) 0.1%? a. Regulator. b. Rectifier. c. Ripple. d. Filter.

a. Regulator.

(044) When siting weather equipment, when are midfield sensor groups necessary? a. Runway is longer than 8,000 feet (ft.) or the location must meet Category II criteria. b. Runway is longer than 5,000 ft. or the location must meet Category I criteria. c. Runway is longer than 5,000 ft. but less than 8,000 feet. d. Runway location must meet Category I criteria.

a. Runway is longer than 8,000 feet (ft.) or the location must meet Category II criteria.

(030) What needs to happen in the CM-350 transceiver configuration antenna transfer relay (ATR) switch in order to transmit? a. The transmitter keys, then the ATR routes the transmit signal to the antenna. b. The ATR routes the transmit signal to the antenna, then the transmitter keys. c. The transmitter keys, then the ATR routes the receive signal to the antenna. d. The ATR routes the receive signal to the antenna, then the transmitter keys.

a. The transmitter keys, then the ATR routes the transmit signal to the antenna.

(027) CM-300 series receivers support legacy analog audio and: a. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP). b. video teleconferencing. c. fiber optic (FO) connections. d. external triggering.

a. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP).

(030) When a CM-300 series transmitter and receiver are connected to a common antenna, and the antenna transfer relay (ATR) switch position is set to ATR0, the transmit and receive switching is handled by: a. an internal ATR switch in the transmitter. b. an internal ATR switch in the receiver. c. external cavity filters. d. internal cavity filters.

a. an internal ATR switch in the transmitter.

(004) An advantage of integrated circuits (IC) is that they: a. are more reliable. b. are easily repaired. c. are larger in size and weight. d. help dissipate heat generated in other circuits.

a. are more reliable.

(004) A resistor is used in a circuit to: a. control current flow. b. provide continuity between two circuits. c. store energy in the form of a magnetic field. d. boost circuit voltage and current to a steady, usable level.

a. control current flow.

(011) The formula to find the modulating index is: a. deviation divided by frequency of modulation. b. deviation times frequency of modulation. c. sideband divided by carrier frequency. d. sideband times carrier frequency.

a. deviation divided by frequency of modulation.

(013) Space modulation is commonly referred to as: a. difference in the depth of modulation (DDM). b. pulse code modulation (PCM). c. frequency modulation (FM). d. phase modulation (PM).

a. difference in the depth of modulation (DDM).

(038) The tone generator applies an audio tone to a pair or cable and the inductive amplifier is used to: a. listen for the generated tone at the other end. b. listen for noise that may affect signal transmission. c. amplify any noise that may affect signal transmission. d. amplify the generated tone to transmit over long distances.

a. listen for the generated tone at the other end.

(012) In phase modulation, the rate of phase shift is: a. proportional to the frequency of the modulating signal. b. proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal. c. inversely proportional to the frequency of the modulating signal. d. inversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal.

a. proportional to the frequency of the modulating signal.

(004) The two basic purposes of a transistor are either to perform as a: a. switch or amplify a circuit. b. capacitor or amplify a circuit. c. switch or perform as an electromagnetic conductor. d. capacitor or perform as an electromagnetic conductor.

a. switch or amplify a circuit.

(037) The decibel (dB) does not (in itself) indicate power; instead, it indicates a ratio or comparison between: a. two power levels. b. the audio and frequency levels. c. the bel and the one-milliwatt (mW) reference. d. 10 bels and the one-mW reference.

a. two power levels.

(044) When selecting a site for the Instrument Landing System (ILS), what is the localizer maximum height tolerance, in feet, for surface roughness in area "A"? a. ±0.5. b. ±1.0. c. ±1.5. d. ±5.

a. ±0.5.

(024) The radio frequency (RF) power output of the CM-350 transmitter is: a. 120 volts (V) alternating current (AC). b. 12 to 35 watts (W). c. 2 to 35 W. d. 2 to 12 W.

b. 12 to 35 W.

(032) How many channels does the CU-547/GR antenna coupler support? a. 2. b. 4. c. 6. d. 8.

b. 4.

(038) What test equipment enables technicians to communicate with telephone switching equipment through the use of pulse, dual tone multi-frequency (DTMF), and multi-frequency (MF) dialing? a. Breakout box. b. Ameritec Model (AM)‒48 transmission test set. c. Time domain reflectometer (TDR). d. Tone generator with inductive amplifier.

b. Ameritec Model (AM)‒48 transmission test set.

(022) What is the process of heterodyning an intelligence (audio) signal with a radio frequency (RF) carrier to produce a new signal? a. Frequency modulation (FM). b. Amplitude modulation (AM). c. Frequency accuracy. d. Amplitude stability.

b. Amplitude modulation (AM).

(040) On the vector voltmeter, the phase indicated on the meter represents the relative phase between what two signals? a. A channel with respect to the B channel. b. B channel with respect to the A channel. c. B channel is lagging by 90 degrees and is 180 electrical degrees longer than the A side. d. A channel is lagging by 90 degrees and is 180 electrical degrees longer than the B side.

b. B channel with respect to the A channel.

(015) How does synchronous transmission reduce the overhead costs of data transmission? a. Communicates in parallel format. b. Blocks many characters together for transmission. c. Eliminates the control bits, so more message data can be sent. d. Uses low cost equipment to support synchronous transmission.

b. Blocks many characters together for transmission.

(042) What test equipment allows individual access to all signal conductors in a 25-wire Recommended Standard (RS)-232 connector? a. Cable key. b. Breakout box. c. Communication service monitor (CSM). d. International Telecommunication Union (ITU) interface.

b. Breakout box.

(023) What should you do if an AN/GRT−21/22 transmitter's voltage standing wave ratio (VSWR) exceeds 3:1? a. Disable the earth leakage (E/L) relay. b. Bypass the linear power amplifier (LPA). c. Adjust the LPA forward power level to -5 volts (V) direct current (DC) on the front meter. d. Adjust the LPA forward power level to +5 V DC on the front meter.

b. Bypass the linear power amplifier (LPA).

(020) What logarithmic expression do we use to specify the ratio of power loss in fiber optic (FO) cables? a. Decibels-per-nanometer (dB/nm). b. Decibels-per-kilometer (dB/km). c. Decibels-per-centimeter (dB/cm). d. Decibels-per-meter (dB/m).

b. Decibels-per-kilometer (dB/km).

(023) What type of multiplier does the AN/GRT−21 transmitter have? a. Quadrupler. b. Doubler. c. Tripler. d. None.

b. Doubler.

(036) Which test equipment item would you use to check transmission lines and antenna systems for proper operation? a. Earth ground tester. b. Radio frequency (RF) generator. c. AN/TPM−32 Video Signal Processor test set. d. Portable Instrument Landing System Receiver (PIR).

b. Radio frequency (RF) generator.

(026) Which circuit cuts off a receiver's audio output if the radio frequency (RF) signal is too weak and allows the signal to reproduce when the RF signal strength meets or exceeds a predetermined level? a. Mixer. b. Squelch. c. Degenerative feedback. d. Automatic gain control (AGC).

b. Squelch.

(042) Which is not an acceptable action to take if a communications facility ground testing reveals more than 10 ohms (Ω) resistance? a. Pouring an electrolytic salt solution into the soil. b. Watering the soil around the facility. c. Installing parallel ground rods. d. Installing deeper ground rods.

b. Watering the soil around the facility.

(016) When using forward error control as a method of error correction, error correction takes place: a. in the oscillator. b. at the receiving end. c. in the primary buffers. d. at the transmitting end.

b. at the receiving end.

(010) When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains the: a. modulating signal, upper sideband, and lower sideband. b. carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband. c. upper sideband and modulating signal. d. carrier and modulating signal.

b. carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.

(031) The biggest limitation to space-wave communications is: a. electromagnetic fields. b. curvature of the Earth. c. slow signal travel. d. radiation.

b. curvature of the Earth.

(044) Because of screening, you need to avoid placing the AN/TPS−75 Radar System in: a. flat open areas. b. depressions and valleys. c. areas with minimal obstacles. d. an area with a 2 percent slope.

b. depressions and valleys.

(003) If a conductor lies in a magnetic field, and either the field or conductor moves, a voltage is induced in the conductor. This effect is called: a. electromagnetic conduction. b. electromagnetic induction. c. magnetic conduction. d. magnetic impedance.

b. electromagnetic induction.

(002) An atom becomes an ion by: a. gaining or losing neutrons. b. gaining or losing electrons in its outer shell. c. having the same amount of neutrons as protons. d. having the same amount of protons as electrons.

b. gaining or losing electrons in its outer shell.

(037) For greatest wattmeter accuracy, select the power element(s) having: a. the highest possible power range that will cover the measured signal. b. the lowest possible power range that will not result in over-ranging. c. a power range ratio of at least 100:1. d. N-type connectors.

b. the lowest possible power range that will not result in over-ranging.

(007) On a transmission line with an open termination, the wave is reflected back to the source and: a. signal loss would be negligible. b. there would be significant signal loss. c. the current would be at maximum at the termination. d. the voltage would be at minimum at the termination.

b. there would be significant signal loss.

(028) How many seconds maximum does it take the AN/GRC-171/211 transceiver to tune? a. 5. b. 7. c. 10. d. 15.

c. 10.

(035) Before measuring a signal with the oscilloscope and the source voltage is totally unknown, it is wise to start with a divider probe rated at: a. 1:1. b. 10:1. c. 100:1. d. 150:1.

c. 100:1.

(005) What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 7? a. 100. b. 101. c. 111. d. 1011.

c. 111.

(027) Both CM-300 series receivers can operate on: a. 24 volts (V) alternating current (AC) or 120 V direct current (DC). b. 120 or 240 V AC or 24 V DC. c. 120 V AC or 24 V DC. d. 120 or 240 V AC.

c. 120 V AC or 24 V DC.

(041) How many different pieces of test equipment does a communication service monitor (CSM) have combined in one package? a. 10. b. 12. c. 16. d. 20.

c. 16.

(004) In a schematic diagram, how is current flow always portrayed on a transistor when it is forward biased? a. Away from the emitter-collector (E-C) junction. b. Towards the emitter-base (E-B) junction. c. Against the arrow. d. With the arrow.

c. Against the arrow.

(019) When considering light wave propagation, what is the name of the angle between the normal in the first material and the ray that is bounced back in the first material? a. Angle of refraction. b. Angle of incidence. c. Angle of reflection. d. Critical angle.

c. Angle of reflection.

(037) What feature of the 436A power meter is ideal for monitoring fast changes while adjusting peak transmitter output? a. Autorange. b. Digital display. c. Auxiliary meter. d. Relative power meter.

c. Auxiliary meter.

(045) Which is not a type of rechargeable, secondary cell battery? a. Lithium. b. Lead-acid. c. Carbon Zinc. d. Nickel Cadmium (NiCad).

c. Carbon Zinc.

(029) In the audio section of the AN/GRC-171/211 transceiver, what component keeps the modulation percentage constant? a. Low pass (LP) filter. b. High pass (HP) filter. c. Compression amplifier. d. Radio frequency (RF) preamplifier.

c. Compression amplifier.

(034) When using the Fluke 8025A multimeter for diode checks, what does it mean when you get an "OL" indication when you place the leads across the diode and also when the leads are reversed? a. Diode is considered operational. b. You need to use a different probe. c. Diode is considered non-operational. d. Diode needs to be checked while connected to a circuit.

c. Diode is considered non-operational.

(037) When bench-checking a transmitter, what test equipment should you use to absorb any transmitted radio frequency (RF) signals? a. Ameritec Model (AM)‒48 transmission test set. b. Time domain reflectometer (TDR). c. Dummy load. d. Wattmeter.

c. Dummy load.

(017) Which statement describes an advantage of using fiber optic (FO) cables? a. The easy tap-ability of fiber optic cables reduces security risks. b. Fiber optic cable has a higher attenuation than coaxial cable. c. Electromagnetic fields do not affect fiber optic cables. d. Nuclear radiation does not affect fiber optic cable.

c. Electromagnetic fields do not affect fiber optic cables.

(006) Which is not a conventional problem that microwave tubes overcome in order to be used in high power, high frequency oscillators and amplifiers? a. Lead inductance. b. Electron transit time. c. Inter-cathode resistance. d. Radio frequency (RF) radiation losses in external circuitry.

c. Inter-cathode resistance.

(008) What data bus was originally developed for military avionics applications? a. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)-488, General Purpose Interface Bus (GPIB). b. Recommended standard 232. c. Military Standard (MIL-STD)-1553. d. Recommended Standard (RS)-488.

c. Military Standard (MIL-STD)-1553.

(001) What metric prefix is used to describe the decimal number .001? a. Kilo. b. Giga. c. Milli. d. Micro.

c. Milli.

(021) What type of fiber has a core diameter of 50-125 micrometers (μm) and consists of numerous concentric layers of glass (something like the annular rings of a tree) configured to reduce dispersion? a. Multimode step-index. b. Single-mode step-index. c. Multimode graded-index. d. Single-mode graded-index.

c. Multimode graded-index.

(031) What type of antenna receives well in all directions but also allows interference from all directions? a. Bidirectional. b. Unidirectional. c. Omnidirectional. d. Vertically polarized.

c. Omnidirectional.

(025) What term describes the process of tuned circuits selecting a band of receiver frequencies around a desired signal? a. Frequency conversion. b. Superheterodyne. c. Pre-selection. d. Clamping.

c. Pre-selection.

(015) Which method of transmission requires the receiving end to be synchronized with the transmitting commutator? a. Amplitude modulation (AM). b. Pulse code modulation (PCM). c. Time division multiplexing. d. Wave division multiplexing.

c. Time division multiplexing.

(023) What AN/GRT−21/22 transmitter component eliminates unwanted harmonics generated in the A10 driver? a. Power detector, DC1. b. Low pass filter, FL1. c. Tunable filter, FL2. d. Multiplier, A9.

c. Tunable filter, FL2.

(003) With the alternating current (AC) method, voltage forces electrons to flow: a. through the path of most resistance. b. to the load and then are dissipated through electromagnetism. c. first in one direction, then in the opposite direction, alternating very quickly. d. continuously through the circuit, in one direction, back to the source and repeated until the path is interrupted.

c. first in one direction, then in the opposite direction, alternating very quickly.

(025) Diode detectors give: a. high-fidelity detection for signals of insufficient amplitude. b. low-fidelity detection for signals of insufficient amplitude. c. high-fidelity detection for signals of sufficient amplitude. d. low-fidelity detection for signals of sufficient amplitude.

c. high-fidelity detection for signals of sufficient amplitude.

(010) Reducing modulation to less than 100% results in: a. more total power. b. a reduction in carrier power. c. no reduction in carrier power. d. a reduction in carrier and sideband power.

c. no reduction in carrier power.

(017) One disadvantage to using fiber optic (FO) cables is that: a. fiber optic cables are easy to tap and cause a security risk. b. they have a low bandwidth and can only carry a few signals at once. c. nuclear radiation can darken the optical fiber and cause signal loss. d. required fiber optics weigh more and take up more space than metallic cables.

c. nuclear radiation can darken the optical fiber and cause signal loss.

(011) The oscillator output in a frequency modulation (FM) modulator increases in frequency with each: a. positive half cycle of the carrier. b. negative half cycle of the carrier. c. positive half cycle of the modulating signal. d. negative half cycle of the modulating signal.

c. positive half cycle of the modulating signal.

(043) When an aircraft, vehicle, or person enters the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and take-off of aircraft without approval from Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT), it is called a: a. mishap. b. runway overrun. c. runway incursion. d. controlled movement area.

c. runway incursion.

(025) The image frequency is a(n): a. desired signal that, when mixed in the mixer, produces the correct intermediate frequency (IF). b. undesired signal that, when mixed in the mixer, produces the incorrect IF. c. undesired signal that, when mixed in the mixer, produces the correct IF. d. desired signal that, when mixed in the mixer, produces the incorrect IF.

c. undesired signal that, when mixed in the mixer, produces the correct IF.

(034) When using the Fluke 8025A multimeter, what is the input direct current (DC) voltage range that can be measured when the function selector is in the DC volts (V) position? a. 0 to +320. b. 0 to +1000. c. -320 to +320. d. -1000 to +1000.

d. -1000 to +1000.

(005) What is the binary coded decimal (BCD) equivalent of the binary number 1011? a. B. b. 11. c. 0000 1011. d. 0001 0001.

d. 0001 0001.

(007) What is the wavelength if the frequency is changed from 150 MHz to 250 MHz? a. 12.0 meters. b. 3.0 meters. c. 1.5 meters. d. 1.2 meters.

d. 1.2 meters.

(038) When measuring high noise figures with a noise figure meter, at what decibel (dB) level does the result become very inaccurate? a. 1. b. 3. c. 5. d. 10.

d. 10.

(010) If the modulating audio signal is 10 kilohertz (kHz) wide, what is the bandwidth (BW) of the transmitted amplitude modulated signal? a. 5 kHz. b. 10 kHz. c. 15 kHz. d. 20 kHz.

d. 20 kHz.

(023) The frequency range of the AN/GRT−22 transmitter in megahertz (MHz) is: a. 114.000 to 149.975. b. 116.000 to 149.975. c. 116.000 to 225.000. d. 225.000 to 399.975.

d. 225.000 to 399.975.

(001) What scientific notation is the correct way to express the number 764,500? a. .7645 x 10 -6th. b. 7.645 x 10 -5th. c. .7645 x 10 6th. d. 7.645 x 10 5th.

d. 7.645 x 10 5th.

(028) What is the transmit duty cycle for the AN/GRC-171 transceiver? a. 1 minute transmit, 9 minutes receive. b. 3 minutes transmit, 7 minutes receive. c. 7 minutes transmit, 3 minutes receive. d. 9 minutes transmit, 1 minute receive.

d. 9 minutes transmit, 1 minute receive.

(040) What Precision Approach Radar (PAR) test set allows you to test radar power, frequency, pulse repetition frequency (PRF), range tracking capabilities, receiver bandwidth, and minimum discernible signal? a. CP−1045/T. b. AN/TPM−32. c. AN/TPX‒42A. d. AN/UPM-145.

d. AN/UPM-145.

(014) What is the first step in the pulse code modulation (PCM) process? a. Assigning discrete amplitudes to the sampling pulses. b. Assigning a binary code number to the sample. c. Quantizer limiting the amplitude of the pulses. d. Band-limiting the analog signal.

d. Band-limiting the analog signal.

(018) What component of a fiber optic (FO) cable provides the reflective surface that allows light to propagate? a. Core. b. Jacket. c. Buffer. d. Cladding.

d. Cladding.

(005) What wave-shaping circuit ties down the upper or lower extremity of a waveform to a fixed direct current (DC) potential? a. Cutoff. b. Limiter. c. Oscillator. d. Clamping.

d. Clamping.

(036) Which is not a waveform produced by a function generator? a. Sine wave. b. Square wave. c. Sawtooth wave. d. Compound wave.

d. Compound wave.

(021) What is the most useful way to classify fiber optic (FO) cable? a. Fiber material and number of fibers. b. Buffer type and application method. c. Numerical aperture and cable elements. d. Core's refractive index profile and number of modes.

d. Core's refractive index profile and number of modes.

(003) In 1819, Hans Christian Oersted discovered the strength of a magnetic field can be changed by varying what characteristic? a. Polarity of alternating current (AC) applied to the magnet. b. Polarity of direct current (DC) applied to the magnet. c. Adding an opposing pole to the magnet. d. Current through a conductor.

d. Current through a conductor.

(039) What test equipment is essentially an upgraded, portable spectrum analyzer? a. Vector network analyzer. b. Peak power analyzer. c. Noise figure meter. d. Field Fox.

d. Field Fox.

(045) Which is not an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) topology? a. Passive standby. b. Line interactive. c. Double conversion. d. Passive conversion.

d. Passive conversion.

(035) Which is not a reason why oscilloscope probes are used? a. They are shielded to block noise and extraneous signals. b. They are an isolation device for the oscilloscope input. c. Connects the oscilloscope to the device under test. d. They ensure circuit loading.

d. They ensure circuit loading.

(035) What oscilloscope control adjusts how fast the trace is drawn across the screen? a. Ground (GND) input coupling switch. b. Volts per division (VOLTS/DIV). c. Time per volts (TIM/VOLTS). d. Time per division (TIM/DIV).

d. Time per division (TIM/DIV).

(024) What is the difference in channel spacing between the very high frequency (VHF) CM-300/350 and the ultra high frequency (UHF) CM-300 transmitters? a. VHF has a channel spacing of 3.88 or 25 kilohertz (kHz) and the UHF channel spacing is 3.88 kHz only. b. VHF has a channel spacing of 8.33 or 25 kHz and the UHF channel spacing is 8.33 kHz only. c. VHF has a channel spacing of 3.88 or 25 kHz and the UHF channel spacing is 25 kHz only. d. VHF has a channel spacing of 8.33 or 25 kHz and the UHF channel spacing is 25 kHz only.

d. VHF has a channel spacing of 8.33 or 25 kHz and the UHF channel spacing is 25 kHz only.

(029) No matter the input keying voltage to the AN/GRC-171/211 transceiver, the output is always: a. 6 volts direct current (VDC). b. 26 volts (V) direct current (DC). c. 48 VDC. d. a ground.

d. a ground.

(023) If the AN/GRT−21/22 transmitter power supply temperature is too high, the thermal detector in the A7 module: a. develops voltage that enables the A2 module to create the +20 volts (V) alternating current (AC). b. sends a signal to the power detector, DC1, to enable keying. c. creates the keyed +20 V direct current (DC). d. develops the keyer inhibit voltage.

d. develops the keyer inhibit voltage.

(045) A non-rechargeable, primary battery is often referred to as a(n): a. electrolyte cell. b. paste cell. c. wet cell. d. dry cell.

d. dry cell.

(009) Energy travels through a waveguide because of: a. electric fields. b. magnetic fields. c. harmonic balance of the signal frequency. d. interaction of magnetic and electric fields.

d. interaction of magnetic and electric fields.

(031) A theoretically perfect radiator (antenna) that radiates equally well in all directions is: a. horizontally polarized. b. omnidirectional. c. bidirectional. d. isotropic.

d. isotropic.

(009) Three devices used to inject or remove energy from waveguides are known as: a. coils, loops and apertures. b. coils, loops, and windows. c. probes, loops, and coils. d. probes, loops, and slots.

d. probes, loops, and slots.

(004) A Zener diode is specifically designed to operate in: a. avalanche breakdown mode. b. thermal runaway mode. c. forward bias mode. d. reverse bias mode.

d. reverse bias mode.

(005) The number of pulses in the direct current (DC) output of a bridge rectifier is called the: a. filter. b. regulator. c. filter frequency. d. ripple frequency.

d. ripple frequency.

(026) The automatic gain control (AGC) voltage maintains a constant audio output with a: a. constant audio frequency (AF) input. b. constant radio frequency (RF) input. c. varying AF input. d. varying RF input.

d. varying RF input.

(004) A capacitor will oppose a change in: a. current and store energy in a magnetic field. b. resistance and store energy in a magnetic field. c. current and store energy in an electrostatic field. d. voltage and store energy in an electrostatic field.

d. voltage and store energy in an electrostatic field.