211 Psych Questions NCLEX

12. Which of the following etiologic factors predispose a client to Tourette syndrome? A. No known etiology B. Abnormalities in brain neurotransmitters, structural changes in basal ganglia and caudate nucleus, and genetics C. Abnormalities in the structure and function of the ventricles D. Environmental factors and birth-related trauma

12. B. Abnormalities in brain neurotransmitters, structural changes in basal ganglia and caudate nucleus, and genetics**Rationale: The etiology of Tourette syndrome includes genetics, abnormalities in neurotransmission, and structural changes in the basal ganglia and caudate nucleus. The ventricles in the brain, environmental factors, and birth trauma aren't involved.

The nurse is to administer Xanax (alprazolam) to help a client of Japanese descent calm down. The order reads Xanax 0.25 to 1 mg by mouth as needed for agitation. What is the best dose for the nurse to give this client? ________________________ mg.

2 mg. Asians have a greater sensitivity to psychotropic medication and generally require much less than other cultural groups to achieve positive results. The smallest dose is safest to start; the dosage can always be increased. However, a dose that is too high for the client is likely to cause unpleasant or even serious side effects. Those side effects likely would lead to distress and noncompliance in the future.

A client with suspected abuse describes her husband as a good man who works hard and provides well for his family. She does not work outside the home and states that she is proud to be a wife and mother just like her own mother. The nurse interprets the family pattern described by the client as best illustrating which of the following as characteristic of abusive families? 1. Tight, impermeable boundaries. 2. Unbalanced power ratio. 3. Role stereotyping. 4. Dysfunctional feeling tone.

3. The traditional and rigid gender roles described by the client are examples of role stereotyping. Impermeable boundaries, unbalanced power ratio, and dysfunctional feeling tone are also common in abusive families.

43. A high school student is referred to the school nurse for suspected substance abuse. Following the nurse's assessment and interventions, what would be the most desirable outcome? A. The student discusses conflicts over drug use. B. The student accepts a referral to a substance abuse counselor. C. The student agrees to inform his parents of the problem. D. The student reports increased comfort with making choices.

43. B. The student accepts a referral to a substance abuse counselor.**Rationale: All of the outcomes stated are desirable; however, the best outcome is that the student would agree to seek the assistance of a professional substance abuse counselor.

54. Which of the following drugs should the nurse prepare to administer to a client with a toxic acetaminophen (Tylenol) level? A. deferoxamine mesylate (Desferal) B. succimer (Chemet) C. flumazenil (Romazicon) D. acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

54. D. acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)**Rationale: The antidote for acetaminophen toxicity is acetylcysteine. It enhances conversion of toxic metabolites to nontoxic metabolites. Deferoxamine mesylate is the antidote for iron intoxication. Succimer is an antidote for lead poisoning. Flumazenil reverses the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

7. During which phase of alcoholism is loss of control and physiologic dependence evident? A. Prealcoholic phase B. Early alcoholic phase C. Crucial phase D. Chronic phase

7. C. Crucial phase**Rationale: The crucial phase is marked by physical dependence. The prealcoholic phase is characterized by drinking to medicate feelings and for relief from stress. The early phase is characterized by sneaking drinks, blackouts, rapidly gulping drinks, and preoccupation with alcohol. The chronic phase is characterized by emotional and physical deterioration.

The nurse is aware of three different phases in the cycle of violence. Which of the following is not one of those phases? a) A battering incident. b) A "honeymoon" phase. c) A tension-building phase. d) A hopeless stage.

A hopeless stage. Correct Explanation: Women abused by their intimate partners appear hopeless. They often exhibit behaviors that demonstrate depression and ambivalence toward their abuser. However, hopelessness is not part of the cycle of violence. With the cycle of violence there is often a pattern: a tension-building phase, a battering incident, and a "honeymoon" phase.

Nurses at an urban emergency department seek to develop a plan to help women involved in abusive relationships. Which of the following components is critical to the success of the plan? a) Avenues for referral b) An intimate partner violence (IPV) counselor c) Educational materials d) A quality of life assessment tool

Avenues for referral Correct Explanation: Nurses assume their appropriate role in the effort to screen and treat victims of IPV through simple screening and having readily available information and avenues for referral.

What is the leading cause of death in pregnant women? a) Intimate partner violence b) Amniotic fluid embolism c) Pulmonary embolism d) Undiagnosed cardiac condition

Intimate partner violence Explanation: Homicide as a result of partner abuse is the number one killer of pregnant women.

Up to 75% of girls who are raped know their attacker. a) True b) False

True

A co-manager of a convenience store was taking the daily receipts to the bank when she was robbed at gun point. She did not report the robbery and could not be found for 2 days. In a city 100 miles away, a hotel manager called the police because the woman gave a false name and address. After learning that the robbery was confirmed by the bank cameras, she was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Dissociative Fugue. The nurse should include which of the following in the client's care plan? Select all that apply. 1. Develop trust and rapport to provide safety and support. 2. Rule out possible physical and neurological causes for the fugue. 3. Help the client discuss what she can remember about the trip to the bank. 4. Seclude the client from the other clients because of her lack of memory. 5. Question her repeatedly about the robbery and how she responded. 6. Encourage the client to talk about her feelings about what has been happening.

1, 2, 3, 6. A client experiencing a Dissociate Fugue needs to feel safe and supported as well as evaluated medically and neurologically. Then it is appropriate to discuss what she can remember about the trip to the bank and her feelings about all that has happened to her since then. It is not appropriate to seclude her from others or to apply pressure to get details about the crime at this time. The police and the bank will ask these questions during their investigations.

A client is diagnosed with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) and given a prescription for venlafaxine (Effexor). Which of the following information should the nurse include in a teaching plan for this client? Select all that apply. 1. Various strategies for reducing anxiety. 2. The benefits and mechanisms of actions of Effexor in treating GAD. 3. How Effexor will eliminate his anxiety at home and work. 4. The management of the common side effects of Effexor. 5. Substituting adaptive coping strategies for maladaptive ones. 6. The positive effects of Effexor being evident in 4 to 5 days.

1, 2, 4, 5. It is appropriate to provide education on medication mechanisms, benefits, and managing side effects. No medication will eliminate all anxiety, so teaching about anxiety reduction and adaptive coping is needed. Effexor is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor antidepressant and it will take 2 to 4 weeks to feel the effects.

19. The nurse is caring for a client who she believes has been abusing opiates. Assessment findings in a client abusing opiates such as morphine include: A. dilated pupils and slurred speech. B. rapid speech and agitation. C. dilated pupils and agitation. D. euphoria and constricted pupils.

19. D. euphoria and constricted pupils. **Rationale: Assessment findings in a client abusing opiates include agitation, slurred speech, euphoria, and constricted pupils.

28. Which is the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome? A. fluoxetine (Prozac) B. fluvoxamine (Luvox) C. haloperidol (Haldol) D. paroxetine (Paxil)

28. C. haloperidol (Haldol)** Rationale: Haloperidol is the drug of choice for treating Tourette syndrome. Prozac, Luvox, and Paxil are antidepressants and aren't used to treat Tourette syndrome

58. For a client with anorexia nervosa, which goal takes the highest priority? A. The client will establish adequate daily nutritional intake. B. The client will make a contract with the nurse that sets a target weight. C. The client will identify self-perceptions about body size as unrealistic. D. The client will verbalize the possible physiological consequences of self-starvation.

58. A. The client will establish adequate daily nutritional intake.**Rationale: According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, all humans need to meet basic physiological needs first. Because a client with anorexia nervosa eats little or nothing, the nurse must first plan to help the client meet this basic, immediate physiological need. The nurse may give lesser priority to goals that address long-term plans (as in option B), self-perception (as in option C), and potential complications (as in option D).

78. An attorney who throws books and furniture around the office after losing a case is referred to the psychiatric nurse in the law firm's employee assistance program. The nurse knows that the client's behavior most likely represents the use of which defense mechanism? A. Regression B. Projection C. Reaction-formation D. Intellectualization

78. A. Regression**Rationale: An adult who throws temper tantrums, such as this one, is displaying regressive behavior, or behavior that is appropriate at a younger age. In projection, the client blames someone or something other than the source. In reaction formation, the client acts in opposition to his feelings. In intellectualization, the client overuses rational explanations or abstract thinking to decrease the significance of a feeling or event.

A client has been brought to the emergency department for signs and symptoms of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD). The client has a history of a suicide attempt 1 year ago. Which nursing intervention would take priority in this situation? A. Assessing the client's pulse oximetry and vital signs B. Developing a plan for safety for the client C. Assessing the client for suicidal ideations D. Establishing a trusting nurse-client relationship

ANS: A It is important to prioritize client interventions that assess the symptoms of COPD prior to any other nursing intervention. Physical needs must be prioritized according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs. This client's problems with oxygenation will take priority over assessing for current suicidal ideations.

The nurse should recognize which factors that distinguish personality disorders from psychosis? A. Functioning is more limited in personality disorders than in psychosis. B. Major disturbances of thought are absent in personality disorders. C. Personality disordered clients require hospitalization more frequently. D. Personality disorders do not affect family relationships as much as psychosis.

ANS: B Major disturbances of thought are absent in personality disorders and are a classic symptom of psychosis.

Which client statement expresses a typical underlying feeling of clients diagnosed with major depressive disorder? A. "It's just a matter of time and I will be well." B. "If I ignore these feelings, they will go away." C. "I can fight these feelings and overcome this disorder." D. "I deserve to feel this way."

ANS: D Hopelessness and helplessness are typical symptoms of clients diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Depressive symptoms are often described as anger turned inward.

A client is diagnosed with dysthymic disorder. Which should a nurse classify as an affective symptom of this disorder? A. Social isolation with a focus on self B. Low energy level C. Difficulty concentrating D. Gloomy and pessimistic outlook on life

ANS: D The nurse should classify a gloomy and pessimistic outlook on life as an affective symptom of dysthymic disorder. Symptoms of depression can be described as alterations in four areas of human functions: affective, behavioral, cognitive, and physiological.

A suicidal client says to a nurse, "There's nothing to live for anymore." Which is the most appropriate nursing reply? A. "Why don't you consider doing volunteer work in a homeless shelter." B. "Let's discuss the negative aspects of your life." C. "Things will look better in the morning." D. "It sounds like you are feeling pretty hopeless."

ANS: D This statement verbalizes the client's implied feelings and allows him to validate and explore them.

The nurse plans to confront a client about secondary gains related to extreme dependency on spouse. Which nursing statement would be most appropriate? A. "Do you believe dependency issues have been a lifelong concern for you?" B. "Have you noticed any anxiety during times when your husband makes decisions." C. "What do you know about individuals who depend on others for direction?" D. "How have the specifics of your relationship with your spouse benefited you?"

ANS: D When a client goes to excessive lengths to obtain nurturance and support from others, the client is seeking secondary gains. Secondary gains provide clients the support and attention that the client might not otherwise receive.

Which of the following would the nurse include when preparing a presentation for a local community group about intimate partner abuse? a) Children who witness abuse of a parent are less likely to become batterers. b) Abuse in homosexual relationships may go unreported for fear of harassment. c) Until the 1990s, society tended to legitimize a man's control over a woman. d) Abuse primarily affects young, unmarried women.

Abuse in homosexual relationships may go unreported for fear of harassment. Correct Explanation: Abuse occurs in both heterosexual and homosexual relationships, but violence within homosexual relationships may go unreported for fear of harassment or ridicule. Few statistics are available on its incidence in homosexual relationships. Abuse affects women at nearly every stage of their lives and may occur in old or young, beautiful or unattractive, married or single women. Until the 1970s, society tended to legitimize a man's power and control over a woman. Children who witness one parent abusing another are more likely to become delinquents or batterers themselves.

When screening a patient about intimate partner violence, which types of questions should the nurse employ? a) Direct or indirect questions b) Direct questions, like "Does your partner harm you?" c) Indirect questions, like "Do you feel safe in your home?" d) Neither direct nor indirect questions

Direct or indirect questions Correct Explanation: When interviewing a patient about intimate partner violence, direct questioning and indirect questioning elicit the same answers. Either direct or indirect questions can be used.

The nurse is conducting a class on rape prevention for a group of young adult women and is describing the various types of date rape drugs. Which drug would the nurse describe as causing a separation in perception and sensation? a) Ketamine b) Diazepam c) Rohypnol d) Gamma hydroxybutyrate (GHB)

Ketamine Explanation: Ketamine acts on the central nervous system to separate perception and sensation. Rohypnol produces memory loss for up to 8 hours. GHB produces euphoria, an out-of-body high, sleepiness, increased sex drive, and memory loss. It may cause unconsciousness, depression, and coma. Diazepam is an antianxiety agent that causes sedation, lethargy, mild drowsiness, confusion, and disorientation.

The nursing instructor is discussing violence and abuse that is seen in women with a student. She realizes that the student needs further instruction when the student states which of the following? a) Nurses only come in contact with violence in the ER. b) Nurses will come in contact with violence no matter what health care setting they work. c) Nurses will come in contact with sexual abuse no matter what health care setting they work. d) Violence against women is on the rise in the United States.

Nurses only come in contact with violence in the ER. Correct Explanation: All the statements are true except for the one that says nurses will only come in contact with violence in the ER. They will see both violence and sexual abuse in all settings.

A patient who has been seen in the clinic multiple times for counseling recently admitted to being abused by her husband over a period of five years. Today she states, "He has been so sweet to me the last six days that I think this time he has really changed. He even brought me flowers yesterday and said he loves me." How should the nurse respond to this? a) Over a period of time the honeymoon phase ends and abuse becomes accelerated and thus more dangerous. b) I certainly would not be sucked into that. c) It seems as if he really loves you. d) That was a very sweet gesture.

Over a period of time the honeymoon phase ends and abuse becomes accelerated and thus more dangerous. Correct Explanation: The cycle of abuse can cover a long period of time. Abuse in relationships typically becomes accelerated over time and thus more dangerous. The woman needs to know that this is normal behavior for an abuser: his actions are not going to change and this time will be no different from all the other times.

Question: Place the three phases of intimate partner violence in the order in which they occur. Acute violence phase Honeymoon phase Tension-building phase

Tension-building phase Acute violence phase Honeymoon phase Correct Explanation: Tension building, the first phase, is seen as a building up of anger, arguments, and verbal fighting. The acute violence phase is the next phase, wherein physical harm comes to the victim. This can be a result of internal factors in the abuser or an external crisis. The honeymoon phase is the final phase in the cycle; during this phase, the relationship regains a feeling of calm and tranquility. This phase is filled with exchanges of love and passion.

If a nurse fails to report child maltreatment, she can face a fine, jail time, or loss of nursing licensure. a) False b) True

True Correct Explanation: State laws typically identify two levels of responsibility for reporting child maltreatment: mandatory reporters and permissive reporters. Nurses are included in the mandatory category in most states; this means they must report suspected child maltreatment when they identify it. Failure to do so can result in a fine, jail time, or loss of nursing licensure.

Homicide from intimate partner violence is the number-one cause of death in pregnant women. a) False b) True

True Correct Explanation: The rate of this is so high during pregnancy, homicide from intimate partner violence is the number-one cause of death in pregnant women, a finding that probably occurs because stress can be a trigger to violence, and pregnancy, with all that an expected new child entails (another mouth to feed, body to clothe, or dependent to protect), can increase stress.

A 16-year-old girl is seen in an emergency room following a rape. The management of a rape victim should be directed primarily toward a) assessing for sources of infection resulting from the rape. b) decreasing guilt and increasing self-esteem. c) relieving physical discomfort and pain. d) teaching the child how to prevent further attacks.

decreasing guilt and increasing self-esteem. Explanation: Rape is a demeaning event in a person's life. Helping maintain self-esteem in the face of this is important.

The nurse working in an OB clinic realizes that a pregnant patient who has been abused before can expect to be abused during her pregnancy. What is the strongest predictor that a pregnant woman will be abused during her pregnancy? a) prior abuse b) other children in the home c) history of financial abuse d) history of sexual abuse

prior abuse Correct Explanation: The strongest predictor of abuse during pregnancy is prior abuse. For women who have been abused before, beating and violence during pregnancy are "business as usual."

The nurse is assisting a woman who is a victim of intimate partner violence in preparing a plan for leaving the relationship. Which of the following instructions would the nurse include? Select all that apply. a) "Set up a specific plan for leaving and then practice it." b) "Get some phone cards that you can use to make the necessary calls." c) "Be sure to have some type of identification, like a photo ID or driver's license." d) "Don't worry about your clothes; just get yourself out right away." e) "Take the deed to the house or your apartment lease with you."

• "Be sure to have some type of identification, like a photo ID or driver's license." • "Take the deed to the house or your apartment lease with you." • "Set up a specific plan for leaving and then practice it." Explanation: When leaving an abusive relationship, a victim should take with her a driver's license or photo ID, the deed to the house or apartment lease, and a change of clothes for herself and her children. She should develop a game plan for leaving and then rehearse it. The woman should not use phone cards because they can leave a trail the abuser can follow.

The nurse working in the obstetrics clinic has been trained to pick up on warning signs of abuse during pregnancy. These include which of the following?(Select all that apply.) a) poor attendance at prenatal visits b) difficulty with physical exams c) weight fluctuations d) unrealistic fears e) noncompliance with treatment f) more weight gain than recommended

• poor attendance at prenatal visits • unrealistic fears • weight fluctuations • difficulty with physical exams • noncompliance with treatment Explanation: Signs of abuse can emerge during pregnancy. They may include poor attendance at prenatal visits, unrealistic fears, weight fluctuations, difficulty with physical exams, and noncompliance with treatment. Gaining more weight than recommended is not an indicator of abuse.

It is important for a nurse working in pediatrics to understand problems that children face when they have grown up around abuse. Studies indicate that children who witness intimate partner violence are at risk for developing which of the following? (Check all that apply.) a) psychiatric disorders b) school failures c) failure to thrive syndrome d) developmental problems e) violence against others f) low self-esteem

• psychiatric disorders • developmental problems • school failures • violence against others • low self-esteem Explanation: Children who witness initmate partner violence are at risk for developing psychiatric problems, developmental problems, school failure, violence against others, and low self-esteem. It has not been proven that these children will suffer from failure-to-thrive syndrome.

The nurse is interviewing the caregiver of a 5-year-old child who has been admitted with bruises on the abdomen and thighs as well as additional bruises in various stages of healing. Which of the following statements made by the caregiver might alert the health care team to the possibility of child abuse? a) "When he is in trouble I make him go to his room." b) "His brother just plays too rough with him." c) "He just learned to ride his bicycle." d) "My child goes to daycare after school."

"His brother just plays too rough with him." Correct Explanation: When a child is brought to a physician or hospital because of physical injuries, family caregivers may attribute the injury to some action of the child's that is not in keeping with the child's age or level of development. The caregiver may also attribute the injury to an action of a sibling. When the child's symptoms do not match the injury that the caregiver describes, be alert for possible abuse. The other statements might be normal situations for a 5-year-old and would not necessarily alert the nurse to a possibility of child abuse.

A nurse is interacting with a new mother, whose infant is 6 weeks old. The mother appears exhausted and anxious. Which of the following statements by the mother most indicates a potential risk for maltreatment of the child? a) "She cries quite a bit. I sure will be glad when this phase is over!" b) "She cries a lot. I haven't gotten much sleep lately. But when she's calm, she's such a sweetheart." c) "She cries all the time. I don't know what to do with her. She's just a bad baby, I guess." d) "She cries a lot at night. Is there something I'm doing wrong?"

"She cries all the time. I don't know what to do with her. She's just a bad baby, I guess." Correct Explanation: Parents may be identified as being able to maltreat children during health maintenance visits. By the time a baby is brought to a health care agency for an initial health maintenance visit, you should be able to see positive parent-child interaction has begun. Listen for parents who say the baby is "nothing but trouble," "cries all the time," or "is bad." Ask new parents how it feels to be a new parent. "I'm exhausted but enjoying it" is a different answer from "it takes too much time" or "it's not much fun."

A client diagnosed with Post Traumatic Stress Disorder is readmitted for suicidal thoughts and continued trouble sleeping. She states that when she closes her eyes, she has vivid memories about being awakened at night. "My dad would be on top of me trying to have sex with me. I couldn't breathe." Which of the following suggestions would be appropriate for the nurse to make for the insomnia? Select all that apply. 1. Trying relaxation techniques to help decrease her anxiety before bedtime. 2. Taking the quetiapine (Seroquel) 25 mg as needed as ordered by the physician. 3. Staying in the dayroom and trying to sleep in the recliner chair near staff. 4. Listening to calming music as she tries to fall asleep. 5. Processing the content of her flashbacks no less than hour before bedtime. 6. Leaving her door slightly open to decrease noise during the nightly checks.

1, 2, 4, 6. Relaxation techniques and listening to calming music decrease anxiety and promote sleep. Seroquel is often effective in decreasing nightmare and flashbacks and has a beneficial side effect of drowsiness. Leaving her door slightly open will decrease the noise of making 15 minute checks at night. Staying in the dayroom in a recliner with all the noise and lights is not likely to help. Processing memories an hour or two before bedtime doesn't allow enough time to calm down before sleep.

A young child who has been sexually abused has difficulty putting feelings into words. Which of the following should the nurse employ with the child? 1. Engaging in play therapy. 2. Role-playing. 3. Giving the child's drawings to the abuser. 4. Reporting the abuse to a prosecutor.

1. The dolls and toys in a play therapy room are useful props to help the child remember situations and reexperience the feelings, acting out the experience with the toys rather than putting the feelings into words. Role-playing without props commonly is more difficult for a child. Although drawing itself can be therapeutic, having the abuser see the pictures is usually threatening for the child. Reporting abuse to authorities is mandatory, but doesn't help the child express feelings.

24. Which psychosocial influence has been causally related to the development of aggressive behavior and conduct disorder? A. An overbearing mother B. Rejection by peers C. A history of schizophrenia in the family D. Low socioeconomic status

24. B. Rejection by peers**Rationale: Studies indicate that children who are rejected by their peers are more likely to behave aggressively. Aggression and conduct disorder are represented in all socioeconomic groups. Schizophrenia and an overbearing mother haven't been associated with aggression or conduct disorder

While a client is taking alprazolam (Xanax), which of the following should the nurse instruct the client to avoid? 1. Chocolate. 2. Cheese. 3. Alcohol. 4. Shellfish.

3. Using alcohol or any central nervous system depressant while taking a benzodiazepine, such as alprazolam, is contraindicated because of additive depressant effects. Ingestion of chocolate, cheese, or shellfish is not problematic.

After a client reveals a history of childhood sexual abuse, the nurse should ask which of the following questions first ? 1. "What other forms of abuse did you experience?" 2. "How long did the abuse go on?" 3. "Was there a time when you did not remember the abuse?" 4. "Does your abuser still have contact with young children?"

4. The safety of other children is a primary concern. It is critical to know whether other children are at risk for being sexually abused by the same perpetrator. Asking about other forms of abuse, how long the abuse went on, and if the victim did not remember the abuse are important questions after the safety of other children is determined.

55. A client is admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. Which of the following medications is the nurse most likely to administer to reduce the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal? A. naloxone (Narcan) B. haloperidol (Haldol) C. magnesium sulfate D. chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

55. D. chlordiazepoxide (Librium)**Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) and other tranquilizers help reduce the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Haloperidol (Haldol) may be given to treat clients with psychosis, severe agitation, or delirium. Naloxone (Narcan) is administered for narcotic overdose. Magnesium sulfate and other anticonvulsant medications are only administered to treat seizures if they occur during withdrawal.

77. The nurse in the substance abuse unit is trying to encourage a client to attend Alcoholics Anonymous meetings. When the client asks the nurse what he must do to become a member, the nurse should respond: A. "You must first stop drinking." B. "Your physician must refer you to this program." C. "Admit you're powerless over alcohol and that you need help." D. "You must bring along a friend who will support you."

77. C. "Admit you're powerless over alcohol and that you need help."**Rationale: The first of the "Twelve Steps of Alcoholics Anonymous" is admitting that an individual is powerless over alcohol and that life has become unmanageable. Although Alcoholics Anonymous promotes total abstinence, a client will still be accepted if he drinks. A physician referral isn't necessary to join. New members are assigned a support person who may be called upon when the client has the urge to drink.

A kindergarten student is frequently violent toward other children. A school nurse notices bruises and burns on the child's face and arms. What other symptom should indicate to the nurse that the child might have been physically abused? A. The child shrinks at the approach of adults. B. The child begs or steals food or money. C. The child is frequently absent from school. D. The child is delayed in physical and emotional development.

ANS: A The nurse should determine that a child who shrinks at the approach of adults in addition to having bruises and burns might be a victim of abuse. Whether or not the adult intended to harm the child, maltreatment should be considered.

After a teenager reveals that he is gay, the father responds by beating him. The next morning, the teenager is found hanging in his closet. Which paternal emotions should a nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply.) A. Shock and disbelief B. Guilt and remorse C. Anger and resentment D. Bargaining and depression E. Denial and rationalization

ANS: A, B, C Suicide of a family member can induce a whole gamut of feelings in the survivors. Shock, disbelief, guilt, remorse, anger, and resentment are all feelings that may be experienced by this father.

A nurse would expect a client diagnosed with schizotypal personality disorder to exhibit which characteristic? A. The client keeps to self and has few, if any relationships. B. The client has many brief but intense relationships. C. The client experiences incorrect interpretations of external events. D. The client exhibits lack of tender feelings toward others.

ANS: C Clients who are diagnosed with schizotypal personality disorder experience odd beliefs or magical thinking that influences behavior and is inconsistent with cultural norms. This results in incorrect interpretations of external events.

A young woman is seen in the ER with multiple bruises and two black eyes. She states that she tripped and fell down a flight of stairs and feels embarrassed. The nurse suspects abuse, but no abuse is reported because the physician states, "She is married to a prominent lawyer who is a good friend of mine and I know he would never do this." What is wrong with this scenario? a) It should be investigated as abusers come from all walks of life. b) The physician knows best. c) The nurse should not get involved after what the physician said. d) Nothing, the patient probably did fall down the steps.

It should be investigated as abusers come from all walks of life. Correct Explanation: All of the options are definitely wrong except for the one that says abusers come from all walks of life and they often feel insecure, powerless, helpless feelings that are not in line with the macho image they would like to project. In this case the physician neglected his duty to report, as did the nurse.

A caregiver who works in the hospital brings his 9-year-old son to the emergency room with a spiral fracture of the tibia. The caregiver reports that the injury occurred when the boy's 5-year-old sister hit him with wooden bat. The injury is inconsistent with an impact and with the sister's strength. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to do in this situation? a) Let the hospital administrator know so that the hospital can take any necessary action. b) Leave the treatment area and call the police. c) Leave the treatment area and call the social services department in the hospital. d) Tell the caregiver that the story is not plausible and ask what really happened.

Leave the treatment area and call the social services department in the hospital. Correct Explanation: Abusive parents can be found at all socioeconomic levels. When a child is brought to a physician or hospital with abuse injuries, family caregivers may attribute the injury to an action of a sibling. Whenever the child's symptoms do not match the injury the caregiver describes, be alert for possible abuse. State laws require health care personnel to report suspected child abuse. This requirement overrides the concern for confidentiality. Laws have been enacted that protect the nurse who reports suspected child abuse from reprisal by a caregiver (e.g., being sued for slander) even if it is found that the child's situation is not a result of abuse. If the nurse does not report suspected child abuse, the penalty can be the loss of the nursing license. Do not accuse the caregiver before a complete investigation takes place.

A female client has been admitted to the inpatient psychiatric facility with a diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder after a history of violence by her boyfriend. During the initial assessment interview, which assessment would be the priority? a) Suicide risk b) Hydration status c) Nutritional status d) Sleep patterns

Suicide risk Explanation: Although physiologic areas such as nutrition, hydration, and sleep are important areas to assess, for clients with posttraumatic stress disorder, depression is a common symptom. Thus, a thorough assessment of suicide intent is critical.

A client with panic disorder is taking alprazolam (Xanax) 1 mg P.O. three times daily. The nurse understands that this medication is effective in blocking the symptoms of panic because of its specific action on which of the following neurotransmitters? 1. Gamma-aminobutyrate. 2. Serotonin. 3. Dopamine. 4. Norepinephrine.

1. Alprazolam, a benzodiazepine used on a short-term or temporary basis to treat symptoms of anxiety, increases gamma-aminobutyrate, a major inhibitory neurotransmitter. Because gamma-aminobutyric acid is increased and the reticular activating system is depressed, incoming stimuli are muted and the effects of anxiety are blocked. Alprazolam does not directly target serotonin, dopamine, or norepinephrine.

Which of the following statements by a client who has been taking buspirone (BuSpar) as prescribed for 2 days indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "This medication will help my tight, aching muscles." 2. "I may not feel better for 7 to 10 days." 3. "The drug does not cause physical dependence." 4. "I can take the medication with food."

1. Buspirone, a nonbenzodiazepine anxiolytic, is particularly effective in treating the cognitive symptoms of anxiety, such as worry, apprehension, difficulty with concentration, and irritability. BuSpar is not effective for the somatic symptoms of anxiety (muscle tension). Therapeutic effects may be experienced in 7 to 10 days, with full effects not occurring for 3 to 4 weeks. This drug is not known to cause physical or psychological dependence. It can be taken with food or small meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset.

The nurse should warn a client who is taking a benzodiazepine about using which of the following medications in combination with his current medication? 1. Antacids. 2. Acetaminophen (Tylenol). 3. Vitamins. 4. Aspirin.

1. Combining a benzodiazepine with an antacid impairs the absorption rate of the benzodiazepine. Acetaminophen, vitamins, and aspirin are safe to take with a benzodiazepine because no major drug interactions occur.

11. A client tells the nurse that he is having suicidal thoughts every day. In conferring with the treatment team, the nurse should make which of the following recommendations? A. A no-suicide contract B. Weekly outpatient therapy C. A second psychiatric opinion D. Intensive inpatient treatment

11. D. Intensive inpatient treatment **Rationale: Inpatient care is the best intervention for a client who is thinking about suicide every day. Implementing a no-suicide contract is an important strategy, but this client requires additional care. Weekly therapy wouldn't provide the intensity of care that this case warrants. Obtaining a second opinion would take time; this client requires immediate intervention.

13. A client is admitted for detoxification after a cocaine overdose. The client tells the nurse that he frequently uses cocaine but he can control his use if he chooses. Which coping mechanism is he using? A. Withdrawal B. Logical thinking C. Repression D. Denial

13. D. Denial **Rationale: Denial is an unconscious defense mechanism in which emotional conflict and anxiety are avoided by refusing to acknowledge feelings, desires, impulses, or external facts that are consciously intolerable. Withdrawal is a common response to stress, characterized by apathy. Logical thinking IS the ability to think rationally and make responsible decisions, which would lead the client to admitting the problem and seeking help. Repression is suppressing past events from the consciousness because of guilty association.

14. An 16-year-old boy is admitted to the facility after acting out his aggressions inappropriately at school. Predisposing factors to the expression of aggression include: A. violence on television. B. passive parents. C. an internal locus of control. D. a single-parent family

14. A. violence on television. **Rationale: Violence on television has been correlated with an increase in aggressive behavior. Passive parents contribute to acting-out behaviors but not specifically to violence. An internal locus of control leads to a positive sense of self-esteem and isn't related to violence or aggression. There is no direct correlation between single-parent families and violence.

15. A client is brought to the emergency department after being beaten by her husband, a prominent attorney. The nurse caring for this client understands that: A. open boundaries are common in violent families. B. violence usually results from a power struggle. C. domestic violence and abuse span all socioeconomic classes. D. violent behavior is a genetic trait passed from one generation to the next.

15. C. domestic violence and abuse span all socioeconomic classes. **Rationale: Domestic violence and abuse affect all socioeconomic classes. Closed boundaries and an imbalance of power, with one member having control over the others, are common in violent families. Although violent behavior may be passed from one generation to the next, it's a learned behavior, not a genetic trait.**

16. On discharge after treatment for alcoholism, a client plans to take disulfiram (Antabuse) as prescribed. When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse emphasizes the need to: A. avoid all products containing alcohol. B. adhere to concomitant vitamin B therapy. C. return for monthly blood drug level monitoring. D. limit alcohol consumption to a moderate level.

16. A. avoid all products containing alcohol. **Rationale: To avoid severe adverse effects, the client taking disulfiram must strictly avoid alcohol and all products that contain alcohol. Vitamin B therapy and blood monitoring aren't necessary during disulfiram therapy.

17. During a private conversation, a client with borderline personality disorder asks the nurse to keep his secret and then displays multiple, self-inflicted, superficial lacerations on the forearms. What is the nurse's best response? A. "That's it! You're on suicide precautions." B. "I'm going to tell your physician. Do you want to tell me why you did that?" C. "Tell me what type of instrument you used. I'm concerned about infection." D. "The team needs to know when something important occurs in treatment. I need to tell the others, but let's talk about it first."

17. D. "The team needs to know when something important occurs in treatment. I need to tell the others, but let's talk about it first." **Rationale: This response informs the client of the nurse's planned actions and allows time to discuss the client's actions. Options A and B put the client on the defensive and may lead to a power struggle. Option C ignores the psychological implications of the client's actions.

18. The nurse is providing care for a client undergoing opiate withdrawal. Opiate withdrawal causes severe physical discomfort and can be life-threatening. To minimize these effects, opiate users are commonly detoxified with: A. barbiturates. B. amphetamines. C. methadone. D. benzodiazepines.

18. C. methadone. **Rationale: Methadone is used to detoxify opiate users because it binds with opioid receptors at many sites in the central nervous system but doesn't have the same deleterious effects as other opiates, such as cocaine, heroin, and morphine. Barbiturates, amphetamines, and benzodiazepines are highly addictive and would require detoxification treatment.

When working with a group of adult survivors of childhood sexual abuse, dealing with anger and rage is a major focus. Which strategy should the nurse expect to be successful? Select all that apply. 1. Directly confronting the abuser. 2. Using a foam bat while symbolically confronting the abuser. 3. Keeping a journal of memories and feelings. 4. Writing letters to the abusers that are not sent. 5. Writing letters to the adults who did not protect them that are not sent.

2, 3, 4, 5. Using a foam bat while symbolically confronting the abuser, keeping a journal of memories and feelings, and writing letters about the abuse but not sending them are appropriate strategies because they allow anger to be expressed safely. Directly confronting the abuser is likely to result in further harm because the abusers commonly deny the abuse, rationalize about it, or blame the victim.

A client tells the nurse that she has been raped but has not reported it to the police. After determining whether the client was injured, whether it is still possible to collect evidence, and whether to file a report, the nurse's next priority is to offer which of the following to the client? 1. Legal assistance. 2. Crisis intervention. 3. A rape support group. 4. Medication for disturbed sleep.

2. The experience of rape is a crisis. Crisis intervention services, especially with a rape crisis nurse, are essential to help the client begin dealing with the aftermath of a rape. Legal assistance may be recommended if the client decides to report the rape and only after crisis intervention services have been provided. A rape support group can be helpful later in the recovery process. Medications for sleep disturbance, especially benzodiazepines, should be avoided if possible. Benzodiazepines are potentially addictive and can be used in suicide attempts, especially when consumed with alcohol.

A week ago, a tornado destroyed the client's home and seriously injured her husband. The client has been walking around the hospital in a daze without any outward display of emotions. She tells the nurse that she feels like she's going crazy. Which of the following actions should the nurse use first? 1. Explain the effects of stress on the mind and body. 2. Reassure the client that her feelings are typical reactions to serious trauma. 3. Reassure the client that her symptoms are temporary. 4. Acknowledge the unfairness of the client's situation.

2. The nurse initially reassures the client that her feelings and behaviors are typical reactions to serious trauma to help decrease anxiety and maintain self-esteem. Explaining the effects of stress on the body may be helpful later. Telling the client that her symptoms are temporary is less helpful. Acknowledging the unfairness of the client's situation does not address the client's needs at this time.

After months of counseling, a client abused by her husband tells the nurse that she has decided to stop treatment. There has been no abuse during this time, and she feels better able to cope with the needs of her husband and children. In discussing this decision with the client, the nurse should: 1. Tell the client that this is a bad decision that she will regret in the future. 2. Find out more about the client's rationale for her decision to stop treatment. 3. Warn the client that abuse commonly stops when one partner is in treatment, only to begin again later. 4. Remind the client of her duty to protect her children by continuing treatment.

2. The nurse needs more information about the client's decision before deciding what intervention is most appropriate. Judgmental responses could make it difficult for the client to return for treatment should she want to do so. Telling the client that this is a bad decision that she will regret is inappropriate because the nurse is making an assumption. Warning the client that abuse commonly stops when one partner is involved in treatment may be true for some clients. However, until the nurse determines the basis for the client's decision, this type of response is an assumption and therefore inappropriate. Reminding the client about her duty to protect the children would be appropriate if the client had talked about episodes of current abuse by her partner and the fear that her children might be hurt by him.

A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder, who was admitted early yesterday morning, must make his bed 22 times before he can have breakfast. Because of his behavior, the client missed having breakfast yesterday with the other clients. Which of the following actions should the nurse institute to help the client be on time for breakfast? 1. Tell the client to make his bed one time only. 2. Wake the client an hour earlier to perform his ritual. 3. Insist that the client stop his activity when it's time for breakfast. 4. Advise the client to have breakfast first before making his bed.

2. The nurse should wake the client an hour earlier to perform his ritual so that he can be on time for breakfast with the other clients. The nurse provides the client with time needed to perform rituals because the client needs to keep his anxiety in check. The nurse should never take away a ritual, because panic will ensue. The nurse should work with the client later to slowly set limits on the frequency of the action.

1. A married female client has been referred to the mental health center because she is depressed. The nurse notices bruises on her upper arms and asks about them. After denying any problems, the client starts to cry and says, "He didn't really mean to hurt me, but I hate for the kids to see this. I'm so worried about them." Which of the following is the most crucial information for the nurse to determine? 1. The type and extent of abuse occurring in the family. 2. The potential of immediate danger to the client and her children. 3. The resources available to the client. 4. Whether the client wants to be separated from her husband.

2. The safety of the client and her children is the most immediate concern. If there is immediate danger, action must be taken to protect them. The other options can be discussed after the client's safety is assured.

A preadolescent child is suspected of being sexually abused because he demonstrates the self-destructive behaviors of self-mutilation and attempted suicide. Which common behavior should the nurse also expect to assess? 1. Inability to play. 2. Truancy and running away. 3. Head banging. 4. Over-control of anger.

2. Truancy and running away are common symptoms for young children and adolescents. The stress of the abuse interferes with school success, leading to the avoidance of school. Running away is an effort to escape the abuse and/ or lack of support at home. Rather than an inability to play or a lack of play, play is likely to be aggressive with sexual overtones. Children tend to act out anger rather than control it. Head banging is a behavior typically seen with very young children who are abused.

Which of the following client statements indicates the need for additional teaching about benzodiazepines? 1. "I can't drink alcohol while taking diazepam (Valium)." 2. "I can stop taking the drug anytime I want." 3. "Valium can make me drowsy, so I shouldn't drive for a while." 4. "Valium will help my tight muscles feel better."

2. Valium, like any benzodiazepine, cannot be stopped abruptly. The client must be slowly tapered off of the medication to decrease withdrawal symptoms, which would be similar to withdrawal from alcohol. Alcohol in combination with a benzodiazepine produces an increased central nervous system depressant effect and therefore should be avoided. Valium can cause drowsiness, and the client should be warned about driving until tolerance develops. Valium has muscle relaxant properties and will help tight, tense muscles feel better.

21. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of alcohol intoxication and suspected alcohol dependence. Other assessment findings include an enlarged liver, jaundice, lethargy, and rambling, incoherent speech. No other information about the client is available. After the nurse completes the initial assessment, what is the first priority? A. Instituting seizure precautions, obtaining frequent vital signs, and recording fluid intake and output B. Checking the client's medical records for health history information C. Attempting to contact the client's family to obtain more information about the client D. Restricting fluids and leaving the client alone to "sleep off" the episode

21. A. Instituting seizure precautions, obtaining frequent vital signs, and recording fluid intake and output**Rationale: A nurse who lacks adequate information to determine which level of care a client requires must take all possible precautions to ensure the client's physical safety and prevent complications. To do otherwise could place the client at risk for potential complications. After taking all possible precautions, the nurse can begin seeking health history information and, as needed, modify the plan of care. Fluids are typically increased unless contraindicated by a preexisting medical condition.

22. Which nursing action is best when trying to diffuse a client's impending violent behavior? A. Helping the client identify and express feelings of anxiety and anger B. Involving the client in a quiet activity to divert attention C. Leaving the client alone until the client can talk about feelings D. Placing the client in seclusion

22. A. Helping the client identify and express feelings of anxiety and anger**Rationale: In many instances, the nurse can diffuse impending violence by helping the client identify and express feelings of anger and anxiety. Such statements as "What happened to get you this angry?" may help the client verbalize feelings rather than act on them. Close interaction with the client in a quiet activity may place the nurse at risk for injury should the client suddenly become violent. An agitated and potentially violent client shouldn't be left alone or unsupervised because the danger of the client acting out is too great. The client should be placed in seclusion only if other interventions fail or the client requests this. Unlocked seclusion can be helpful for some clients because it reduces environmental stimulation and provides a feeling of security.

23. The nurse is working with a client who abuses alcohol. Which of the following facts should the nurse communicate to the client? A. Abstinence is the basis for successful treatment. B. Attendance at Alcoholics Anonymous meetings every day will cure alcoholism. C. For treatment to be successful, family members must participate. D. An occasional social drink is acceptable behavior for the alcoholic

23. A. Abstinence is the basis for successful treatment.**Rationale: The foundation of any treatment for alcoholism is abstinence. Attendance at Alcoholics Anonymous is helpful to some individuals to maintain strict abstinence. Participation in treatment by the family is beneficial to both the client and the family but isn't essential. Abstinence requires refraining from social drinking.

25. In group therapy, a client who has used I.V. heroin every day for the past 14 years says, "I don't have a drug problem. I can quit whenever I want. I've done it before." Which defense mechanism is the client using? A. Denial B. Obsession C. Compensation D. Rationalization

25. A. Denial**Rationale: A client who states that he or she doesn't have a drug problem and can quit using drugs at any time — despite evidence to the contrary — is denying the drug addiction. Obsession isn't a defense mechanism. In compensation, the client emphasizes positive attributes to compensate for negative ones. In rationalization, the client justifies behaviors by faulty logic.

26. A client with a history of cocaine addiction is admitted to the coronary care unit for evaluation of substernal chest pain. The electrocardiogram (ECG) shows a 1-mm ST-segment elevation the anteroseptal leads and T-wave inversion in leads V3 to V5. Considering the client's history of drug abuse, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe: A. lidocaine (Xylocaine). B. procainamide (Pronestyl). C. nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV). D. epinephrine.

26. C. nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV).**Rationale: The elevated ST segments in this client's ECG indicate myocardial ischemia. To reverse this problem, the physician is most likely to prescribe an infusion of nitroglycerin to dilate the coronary arteries. Lidocaine and procainamide are cardiac drugs that may be indicated for this client at some point but aren't used for coronary artery dilation. If a cocaine user experiences ventricular fibrillation or asystole, the physician may prescribe epinephrine. However, this drug must be used with caution because cocaine may potentiate its adrenergic effects.

27. A 15-year-old client is brought to the clinic by her mother. Her mother expresses concern about her daughter's weight loss and constant dieting. The nurse conducts a health history interview. Which of the following comments indicates that the client may be suffering from anorexia nervosa? A. "I like the way I look. I just need to keep my weight down because I'm a cheerleader." B. "I don't like the food my mother cooks. I eat plenty of fast food when I'm out with my friends." C. "I just can't seem to get down to the weight I want to be. I'm so fat compared to other girls." D. "I do diet around my periods; otherwise, I just get so bloated."

27. C. "I just can't seem to get down to the weight I want to be. I'm so fat compared to other girls."**Rationale: Low self-esteem is the highest risk factor for anorexia nervosa. Constant dieting to get down to a "desirable weight" is characteristic of the disorder. Feeling inadequate when compared to peers indicates poor self-esteem. Most clients with anorexia nervosa don't like the way they look, and their self-perception may be distorted. A girl with cachexia may perceive herself to be overweight when she looks in the mirror. Preferring fast food over healthy food is common in this age-group. Because of the absence of body fat necessary for proper hormone production, amenorrhea is common in a client with anorexia nervosa.

While interviewing a 3-year-old girl who has been sexually abused about the event, which approach would be most effective? 1. Describe what happened during the abusive act. 2. Draw a picture and explain what it means. 3. "Play out" the event using anatomically correct dolls. 4. Name the perpetrator.

3. A 3-year-old child has limited verbal skills and should not be asked to describe an event, explain a picture, or respond verbally or nonverbally to questions. More appropriately, the child can act out an event using dolls. The child is likely to be too fearful to name the perpetrator or will not be able to do so.

Which of the following observations by the nurse should suggest that a 15-month-old toddler has been abused? 1. The child appears happy when personnel work with him. 2. The child plays alongside others contentedly. 3. The child is underdeveloped for his age. 4. The child sucks his thumb.

3. An almost universal finding in descriptions of abused children is underdevelopment for age. This may be reflected in small physical size or in poor psychosocial development. The child should be evaluated further until a plausible diagnosis can be established. A child who appears happy when personnel work with him is exhibiting normal behavior. Children who are abused often are suspicious of others, especially adults. A child who plays alongside others is exhibiting normal behavior, that of parallel play. A child who sucks his thumb contentedly

During the third session with the nurse, a client who is being abused states, "I don't know what to do anymore. He doesn't want me to go anywhere while he's at work, not even to visit my friends." Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse formulate regarding this information? 1. Risk for other-directed violence related to an abusive husband, as evidenced by the victim's statement of being battered. 2. Situational low self-esteem related to victimization, as evidenced by not being able to leave the house. 3. Powerlessness related to control by husband, as evidenced by the inability to make decisions. 4. Ineffective coping related to victimization, as evidenced by crying.

3. Based on the client's statements, such as "I don't know what to do anymore," the data here best support the nursing diagnosis of Powerlessness related to control by husband, as evidenced by inability to make decisions. A nursing diagnosis of Risk for other-directed violence would be appropriate if the client had talked about being beaten up the previous night. A nursing diagnosis of Situational low self-esteem would be appropriate if the client verbalized feelings of embarrassment in leaving the house and worthlessness. A nursing diagnosis of Ineffective coping would be appropriate if the client was crying or talked about crying herself to sleep at night.

Adolescents and adults who were sexually abused as children commonly mutilate themselves. The nurse interprets this behavior as: 1. The need to make themselves less sexually attractive. 2. An alternative to bingeing and purging. 3. Use of physical pain to avoid dealing with emotional pain. 4. An alternative to getting high on drugs.

3. Dealing with the physical pain associated with mutilation is viewed as easier than dealing with the intense anger and emotional pain. The client fears an aggressive outburst when anger and emotional pain increase. Self-mutilation seems easier and safer. Additionally, self-mutilation may occur if the client feels unreal or numb or is dissociating. Here, the mutilation proves to the client that he or she is alive and capable of feeling. The client may want to be less sexually attractive, but this aspect usually is not related to self-mutilation. Bingeing and purging is commonly done in addition to, not instead of, self-mutilation. Although a few clients report an occasional high with self-mutilation, usually the experience is just relief from anger and rage.

In working with a rape victim, which of the following is most important? 1. Continuing to encourage the client to report the rape to the legal authorities. 2. Recommending that the client resume sexual relations with her partner as soon as possible. 3. Periodically reminding the client that she did not deserve and did not cause the rape. 4. Telling the client that the rapist will eventually be caught, put on trial, and jailed.

3. Guilt and self-blame are common feelings that need to be addressed directly and frequently. The client needs to be reminded periodically that she did not deserve and did not cause the rape. Continually encouraging the client to report the rape pressures the client and is not helpful. In most cases, resuming sexual relations is a difficult process that is not likely to occur quickly. It is not necessarily true that the rapist will be caught, tried, and jailed. Most rapists are not caught or convicted.

Which of the following points should the nurse include when teaching a client about panic disorder? 1. Staying in the house will eliminate panic attacks. 2. Medication should be taken when symptoms start. 3. Symptoms of a panic attack are time limited and will abate. 4. Maintaining self-control will decrease symptoms of panic.

3. It is important for the nurse to teach the client that the symptoms of a panic attack are time limited and will abate. This helps decrease the client's fear about what is occurring. Clients benefit from learning about their illness, what symptoms to expect, and the helpful use of medication. A simple biologic explanation of the disorder can convince clients to take their medication. Telling the client to stay in the house to eliminate panic attacks is not correct or helpful. Panic attacks can occur "out of the blue," and clients with panic disorder can become agoraphobic because of fear of having a panic attack where help is not available or escape is impossible. Medication should be taken on a scheduled basis to block the symptoms of panic before they start. Taking medication when symptoms start is not helpful. Telling the client to maintain self-control to decrease symptoms of panic is false information because the brain and biochemicals may account for its development. Therefore, the client cannot control when a panic attack will occur.

When planning interventions for parents who are abusive, the nurse should incorporate knowledge of which factor as a common parental indicator? 1. Lower socioeconomic group. 2. Unemployment. 3. Low self-esteem. 4. Loss of emotional family attachments.

3. Parents who are abusive often suffer from low self-esteem, commonly because of the way they were parented, including not being able to develop trust in caretakers and not being encouraged or offered emotional support by parents. Therefore, the nurse works to bolster the parents' self-esteem. This can be achieved by praising the parents for appropriate parenting. Employment and socioeconomic status are not indicators of abusive parents. Abusive parents usually are attached to their children and do not want to give them up to foster care. Parents who are abusive love their children and feel close to them emotionally.

After being discharged from the hospital with acute stress disorder, a client is referred to the outpatient clinic for follow-up. Which of the following is most important for the client to use for continued alleviation of anxiety? 1. Recognizing when she is feeling anxious. 2. Understanding reasons for her anxiety. 3. Using adaptive and palliative methods to reduce anxiety. 4. Describing the situations preceding her feelings of anxiety.

3. The client with anxiety may be able to learn to recognize when she is feeling anxious, understand the reasons for her anxiety, and be able to describe situations that preceded her feelings of anxiety. However, she is likely to continue to experience symptoms unless she has also learned to use adaptive and palliative methods to reduce anxiety.

A third-grade child is referred to the mental health clinic by the school nurse because he is fearful, anxious, and socially isolated. After meeting with the client, the nurse talks with his mother, who says, "It's that school nurse again. She's done nothing but try to make trouble for our family since my son started school. And now you're in on it." The nurse should respond by saying: 1. "The school nurse is concerned about your son and is only doing her job." 2. "We see a number of children who go to your son's school. He isn't the only one." 3. "You sound pretty angry with the school nurse. Tell me what has happened." 4. "Let me tell you why your son was referred, and then you can tell me about your concerns."

3. The mother's feelings are the priority here. Addressing the mother's feelings and asking for her view of the situation is most important in building a relationship with the family. Ignoring the mother's feelings will hinder the relationship. Defending the school nurse and the school puts the client's mother on the defensive and stifles communication.

The nurse notices that a client diagnosed with Major Depression and Social Phobia must get up and move to another area when someone sits next to her. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate? 1. Ignore the client's behavior. 2. Question the client about her avoidance of others. 3. Convey awareness of the client's anxiety about being around others. 4. Tell the other clients to follow the client when she moves away.

3. The nurse conveys empathy and awareness of the client's need to reduce anxiety by showing acceptance and understanding to the client, thereby promoting trust. Ignoring the behavior, questioning the client about her avoidance of others, or telling other clients to follow her when she moves are not therapeutic or appropriate.

When developing the plan of care for a client with acute stress disorder who lost her sister in a boating accident, which of the following should the nurse initiate? 1. Helping the client to evaluate her sister's behavior. 2. Telling the client to avoid details of the accident. 3. Facilitating progressive review of the accident and its consequences. 4. Postponing discussion of the accident until the client brings it up.

3. The nurse should facilitate progressive review of the accident and its consequences to help the client integrate feelings and memories and to begin the grieving process. Helping the client to evaluate her sister's behavior, telling the client to avoid details of the accident, or postponing the discussion of the accident until the client brings it up is not therapeutic and does not facilitate the development of trust in the nurse. Such actions do not facilitate review of the accident, which is necessary to help the client integrate feelings and memories and begin the grieving process.

A client is diagnosed with agoraphobia without panic disorder. Which type of therapy is most effective for this illness? 1. Insight therapy. 2. Group therapy. 3. Behavior therapy. 4. Psychoanalysis.

3. The nurse should suggest behavior therapy, which is most successful for clients with phobias. Systematic desensitization, flooding, exposure, and self-exposure treatments are most therapeutic for clients with phobias. Self-exposure treatment is being increasingly used to avoid frequent therapy sessions. Insight therapy, exploration of the dynamics of the client's personality, is not helpful because the process of anxiety underlies the disorder. Group therapy or psychoanalysis, which deals with repressed, intrapsychic conflicts, is not helpful for the client with phobias because it does not help to manage the underlying anxiety or disorder.

31. When monitoring a client recently admitted for treatment of cocaine addiction, the nurse notes sudden increases in the arterial blood pressure and heart rate. To correct these problems, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe: A. norepinephrine (Levophed) and lidocaine (Xylocaine). B. nifedipine (Procardia) and lidocaine. C. nitroglycerin (Nitro-Bid IV) and esmolol (Brevibloc). D. nifedipine and esmolol

31. D. nifedipine and esmolol**Rationale: This client requires a vasodilator, such as nifedipine, to treat hypertension, and a beta-adrenergic blocker, such as esmolol, to reduce the heart rate. Lidocaine, an antiarrhythmic, isn't indicated because the client doesn't have an arrhythmia. Although nitroglycerin may be used to treat coronary vasospasm, it isn't the drug of choice in hypertension.

32. A client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is upset about going through detoxification. Which of the following goals is a priority? A. The client will commit to a drug-free lifestyle. B. The client will work with the nurse to remain safe. C. The client will drink plenty of fluids daily. D. The client will make a personal inventory of strengths

32. B. The client will work with the nurse to remain safe. **Rationale: The priority goal in alcohol withdrawal is maintaining the client's safety. Committing to a drug-free lifestyle, drinking plenty of fluids, and identifying personal strengths are important goals, but ensuring the client's safety is the nurse's top priority.

33. A client is admitted to a psychiatric facility by court order for evaluation for antisocial personality disorder. This client has a long history of initiating fights and abusing animals and recently was arrested for setting a neighbor's dog on fire. When evaluating this client for the potential for violence, the nurse should assess for which behavioral clues? A. A rigid posture, restlessness, and glaring B. Depression and physical withdrawal C. Silence and noncompliance D. Hypervigilance and talk of past violent acts

33. A. A rigid posture, restlessness, and glaring**Rationale: Behavioral clues that suggest the potential for violence include a rigid posture, restlessness, glaring, a change in usual behavior, clenched hands, overtly aggressive actions, physical withdrawal, noncompliance, overreaction, hostile threats, recent alcohol ingestion or drug use, talk of past violent acts, inability to express feelings, repetitive demands and complaints, argumentativeness, profanity, disorientation, inability to focus attention, hallucinations or delusions, paranoid ideas or suspicions, and somatic complaints. Violent clients rarely exhibit depression, silence, or hypervigilance.

34. A client is brought to the psychiatric clinic by family members, who tell the admitting nurse that the client repeatedly drives while intoxicated despite their pleas to stop. During an interview with the nurse, which statement by the client most strongly supports a diagnosis of psychoactive substance abuse? A. "I'm not addicted to alcohol. In fact, I can drink more than I used to without being affected." B. "I only spend half of my paycheck at the bar." C. "I just drink to relax after work." D. "I know I've been arrested three times for drinking and driving, but the police are just trying to hassle me."

34. D. "I know I've been arrested three times for drinking and driving, but the police are just trying to hassle me."**Rationale: According to the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th edition, diagnostic criteria for psychoactive substance abuse include a maladaptive pattern of such use, indicated either by continued use despite knowledge of having a persistent or recurrent social, occupational, psychological, or physical problem caused or exacerbated by substance abuse or recurrent use in dangerous situations (for example, while driving). For this client, psychoactive substance dependence must be ruled out; criteria for this disorder include a need for increasing amounts of the substance to achieve intoxication (option A), increased time and money spent on the substance (option B), inability to fulfill role obligations (option C), and typical withdrawal symptoms.

35. A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Initial nursing assessment reveals that the client's wrists are scratched from a recent suicide attempt. Based on this finding, the nurse should formulate a nursing diagnosis of: A. Ineffective individual coping related to feelings of guilt. B. Situational low self-esteem related to feelings of loss of control. C. Risk for violence: Self-directed related to impulsive mutilating acts. D. Risk for violence: Directed toward others related to verbal threats.

35. C. Risk for violence: Self-directed related to impulsive mutilating acts.**Rationale: The predominant behavioral characteristic of the client with borderline personality disorder is impulsiveness, especially of a physically self-destructive sort. The observation that the client has scratched wrists doesn't substantiate the other options.

37. A client is being admitted to the substance abuse unit for alcohol detoxification. As part of the intake interview, the nurse asks him when he had his last alcoholic drink. He says that he had his last drink 6 hours before admission. Based on this response, the nurse should expect early withdrawal symptoms to: A. begin after 7 days. B. not occur at all because the time period for their occurrence has passed. C. begin anytime within the next 1 to 2 days. D. begin within 2 to 7 days.

37. C. begin anytime within the next 1 to 2 days. **Rationale: Acute withdrawal symptoms from alcohol may begin 6 hours after the client has stopped drinking and peak 1 to 2 days later. Delirium tremens may occur 2 to 4 days — even up to 7 days — after the last drink.

38. The nurse is assigned to care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Initially, which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this client? A. Providing one-on-one supervision during meals and for 1 hour afterward B. Letting the client eat with other clients to create a normal mealtime atmosphere C. Trying to persuade the client to eat and thus restore nutritional balance D. Giving the client as much time to eat as desired

38. A. Providing one-on-one supervision during meals and for 1 hour afterward**Rationale: Because the client with anorexia nervosa may discard food or induce vomiting in the bathroom, the nurse should provide one-on-one supervision during meals and for 1 hour afterward. Option B wouldn't be therapeutic because other clients may urge the client to eat and give attention for not eating. Option C would reinforce control issues, which are central to this client's underlying psychological problem. Instead of giving the client unlimited time to eat, as in option D, the nurse should set limits and let the client know what is expected.

39. A client begins to experience alcoholic hallucinosis. What is the best nursing intervention at this time? A. Keeping the client restrained in bed B. Checking the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes and offering juices C. Providing a quiet environment and administering medication as needed and prescribed D. Restraining the client and measuring blood pressure every 30 minutes

39. C. Providing a quiet environment and administering medication as needed and prescribed**Rationale: Manifestations of alcoholic hallucinosis are best treated by providing a quiet environment to reduce stimulation and administering prescribed central nervous system depressants in dosages that control symptoms without causing oversedation. Although bed rest is indicated, restraints are unnecessary unless the client poses a danger to himself or others. Also, restraints may increase agitation and make the client feel trapped and helpless when hallucinating. Offering juice is appropriate, but measuring blood pressure every 15 minutes would interrupt the client's rest. To avoid overstimulating the client, the nurse should check blood pressure every 2 hours.

Which parental characteristic is least likely to be a risk factor for child abuse? 1. Low self-esteem. 2. History of substance abuse. 3. Inadequate knowledge of normal growth and development patterns. 4. Being a member of a large family.

4. From documented cases of child abuse, a profile has emerged of a high-risk parent as a person who is isolated, impulsive, impatient, and single with low self-esteem, a history of substance abuse, a lack of knowledge about a child's normal growth and development, and multiple life stressors. Just because a parent comes from a large family, there is no increase in the incidence of the parent abusing their own children unless they possess the other risk factors.

The mother of a school-aged child tells the nurse that, "For most of the past year my husband was unemployed and I worked a second job. Twice during the year I spanked my son repeatedly when he refused to obey. It has not happened again. Our family is back to normal." After assessing the family, the nurse decides that the child is still at risk for abuse. Which of the following observations best supports this conclusion? 1. The parents say they are taking away privileges when their son refuses to obey. 2. The child has talked about family activities with the nurse. 3. The parent's are less negative toward the nurse. 4. The child wears long sleeve shirts and long pants, even in warm weather.

4. Parental use of nonviolent discipline, the child's talk about what the family is doing and the easing of the parent's negativity toward the school nurse are all signs of progress. Avoidance and wearing clothes inappropriate for the weather implies that the child has something to hide, likely signs of physical abuse.

When obtaining a nursing history from parents who are suspected of abusing their child, which of the following characteristics about the parents should the nurse particularly assess? 1. Attentiveness to the child's needs. 2. Self-blame for the injury to the child. 3. Ability to relate the child's developmental achievements. 4. Difficulty with controlling aggression.

4. Parents of an abused child have difficulty controlling their aggressive behaviors. They may blame the child or others for the injury, may not ask questions about treatment, and may not know developmental information.

116.A newly admitted 20-year-old client, diagnosed with Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), reluctantly reveals that she escaped from a satanic cult 2 years ago. The mother has been in the cult since the client was 3 years old and refused to leave with the client. The client says, "Nobody will ever believe the horrible things the men did to me and my mother never stopped them." Which of the following responses is appropriate for the nurse to make? 1. "I'll believe anything you tell me. You can trust me." 2. "I can't understand why your mother didn't protect you. It's not right." 3. "Tell me about the cult. I didn't know there were any near here." 4. "It must be difficult to talk about what happened. I'm willing to listen."

4. Survivors of trauma/ torture have a lot of difficulty with trust and do not readily talk about the horrible events. Therefore, empathy and a willingness to listen without pressuring the client are crucial. Option 1 may or may not be possible and does not convey the empathy. It is sometimes difficult to believe what satanic cults can do to children. Option 2 diverts attention from the client to the mother. Option 3 shows more interest in the cult than the client.

When planning the care for a client who is being abused, which of the following measures is most important to include? 1. Being compassionate and empathetic. 2. Teaching the client about abuse and the cycle of violence. 3. Explaining to the client her personal and legal rights. 4. Helping the client develop a safety plan.

4. The client's safety, including the need to stay alive, is crucial. Therefore, helping the client develop a safety plan is most important to include in the plan of care to ensure the client's safety. Being empathetic, teaching about abuse, and explaining the person's rights are also important after safety is ensured.

A client with posttraumatic stress disorder needs to find new housing and wants to wait for a month before setting another appointment to see the nurse. The nurse interprets this action as which of the following? 1. A method of avoidance. 2. A detriment to progress. 3. The end of treatment. 4. A necessary break in treatment.

4. The nurse judges the client's request for an interruption in treatment as a necessary break in treatment. A "time-out" is common and necessary to enable the client to focus on pressing problems and solutions. It is not necessarily a method of avoidance, a detriment to progress, or the end of treatment. A problem like housing can be very stressful and require all of the client's energy and attention, with none left for the emotional stress of treatment.

The client diagnosed with agoraphobia refuses to walk down the hall to the group room. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? 1. "I know you can do it." 2. "Try holding onto the wall as you walk." 3. "You can miss group this one time." 4. "I'll walk with you."

4. The nurse should walk with the client to activate adaptive coping for the client experiencing high anxiety and decreased motivation and energy. Stating, "I know you can do it," "Try holding on to the wall," or "You can miss group this one time," maintains the client's avoidance, thus reinforcing the client's behavior, and does not help the client begin to cope with the problem.

When caring for a client who was a victim of a crime, the nurse is aware that recovery from any crime can be a long and difficult process depending on the meaning it has for the client. Which of the following should the nurse establish as a victim's ultimate goal in reconstructing his or her life? 1. Getting through the shock and confusion. 2. Carrying out home and work routines. 3. Resolving grief over any losses. 4. Regaining a sense of security and safety.

4. Ultimately, a victim of a crime needs to move from being a victim to being a survivor. A reasonable sense of safety and security is key to this transition. Getting through the shock and confusion, carrying out home and work routines, and resolving grief over any losses represent steps along the way to becoming a survivor.

In the process of dealing with the intense feelings about being raped, victims commonly verbalize that they were afraid they would be killed during the rape and wish that they had been. The nurse should decide that further counseling is needed if the client voices which of the following? 1. "I didn't fight him, but I guess I did the right thing because I'm alive." 2. "Suicide would be an easy escape from all this pain, but I couldn't do it to myself." 3. "I wish they gave the death penalty to all rapists and other sexual predators." 4. "I get so angry at times that I have to have a couple of drinks before I sleep."

4. Use of alcohol reflects unhealthy coping mechanisms. A client's report of needing alcohol to calm down needs to be addressed. Survival is the most important goal during a rape. The client's acknowledging this indicates that she is aware that she made the right choice. Although suicidal thoughts are common, the statement that suicide is an easy escape but the client would be unable to do it indicates low risk. Fantasies of revenge, such as giving the death penalty to all rapists, are natural reactions and are a problem only if the client intends to carry them out directly.

41. Which client is at highest risk for suicide? A. One who appears depressed, frequently thinks of dying, and gives away all personal possessions B. One who plans a violent death and has the means readily available C. One who tells others that he or she might do something if life doesn't get better soon D. One who talks about wanting to die

41. B. One who plans a violent death and has the means readily available**Rationale: The client at highest risk for suicide is one who plans a violent death (for example, by gunshot, jumping off a bridge, or hanging), has a specific plan (for example, after the spouse leaves for work), and has the means readily available (for example, a rifle hidden in the garage). A client who gives away possessions, thinks about death, or talks about wanting to die or attempting suicide is considered at a lower risk for suicide because this behavior typically serves to alert others that the client is contemplating suicide and wishes to be helped.

42. Which of the following medical conditions is commonly found in clients with bulimia nervosa? A. Allergies B. Cancer C. Diabetes mellitus D. Hepatitis A

42. C. Diabetes mellitus**Rationale: Bulimia nervosa can lead to many complications, including diabetes, heart disease, and hypertension. The eating disorder isn't typically associated with allergies, cancer, or hepatitis A.

44. A client who reportedly consumes 1 qt of vodka daily is admitted for alcohol detoxification. To try to prevent alcohol withdrawal symptoms, the physician is most likely to prescribe which drug? A. clozapine (Clozaril) B. thiothixene (Navane) C. lorazepam (Ativan) D. lithium carbonate (Eskalith)

44. C. lorazepam (Ativan)** Rationale: The best choice for preventing or treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms is lorazepam, a benzodiazepine. Clozapine and thiothixene are antipsychotic agents, and lithium carbonate is an antimanic agent; these drugs aren't used to manage alcohol withdrawal syndrome.

45. A client is being treated for alcoholism. After a family meeting, the client's spouse asks the nurse about ways to help the family deal with the effects of alcoholism. The nurse should suggest that the family join which organization? A. Al-Anon B. Make Today Count C. Emotions Anonymous D. Alcoholics Anonymous

45. A. Al-Anon**Rationale: Al-Anon is an organization that assists family members to share common experiences and increase their understanding of alcoholism. Make Today Count is a support group for people with life-threatening or chronic illnesses. Emotions Anonymous is a support group for people experiencing depression, anxiety, or similar conditions. Alcoholics Anonymous is an organization that helps alcoholics recover by using a twelve-step program.

46. A client is admitted to the psychiatric clinic for treatment of anorexia nervosa. To promote the client's physical health, the nurse should plan to: A. severely restrict the client's physical activities. B. weigh the client daily, after the evening meal. C. monitor vital signs, serum electrolyte levels, and acid-base balance. D. instruct the client to keep an accurate record of food and fluid intake.

46.C. monitor vital signs, serum electrolyte levels, and acid-base balance.**Rationale: An anorexic client who requires hospitalization is in poor physical condition from starvation and may die as a result of arrhythmias, hypothermia, malnutrition, infection, or cardiac abnormalities secondary to electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, monitoring the client's vital signs, serum electrolyte level, and acid base balance is crucial. Option A may worsen anxiety. Option B is incorrect because a weight obtained after breakfast is more accurate than one obtained after the evening meal. Option D would reward the client with attention for not eating and reinforce the control issues that are central to the underlying psychological problem; also, the client may record food and fluid intake inaccurately.

47. A young man is remanded by the courts for psychiatric treatment. His police record, which dates to his early teenage years, includes delinquency, running away, auto theft, and vandalism. He dropped out of school at age 16 and has been living on his own since then. His history suggests maladaptive coping, which is associated with: A. antisocial personality disorder. B. borderline personality disorder. C. obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. D. narcissistic personality disorder.

47. A. antisocial personality disorder. **Rationale: The client's history of delinquency, running away from home, vandalism, and dropping out of school are characteristic of antisocial personality disorder. This maladaptive coping pattern is manifested by a disregard for societal norms of behavior and an inability to relate meaningfully to others. In borderline personality disorder, the client exhibits mood instability, poor self-image, identity disturbance, and labile affect. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with impulses and thoughts that the client realizes are senseless but can't control. Narcissistic personality disorder is marked by a pattern of self-involvement, grandiosity, and demand for constant attention.

48. A husband and wife seek emergency crisis intervention because he slapped her repeatedly the night before. The husband indicates that his childhood was marred by an abusive relationship with his father. When intervening with this couple, the nurse knows they are at risk for repeated violence because the husband: A. has only moderate impulse control. B. denies feelings of jealousy or possessiveness. C. has learned violence as an acceptable behavior. D. feels secure in his relationship with his wife.

48. C. has learned violence as an acceptable behavior. **Rationale: Family violence usually is a learned behavior, and violence typically leads to further violence, putting this couple at risk. Repeated slapping may indicate poor, not moderate, impulse control. Violent people commonly are jealous and possessive and feel insecure in their relationships.

49. A client whose husband just left her has a recurrence of anorexia nervosa. The nurse caring for her realizes that this exacerbation of anorexia nervosa results from the client's effort to: A. manipulate her husband. B. gain control of one part of her life. C. commit suicide. D. live up to her mother's expectations.

49. B. gain control of one part of her life. **Rationale: By refusing to eat, a client with anorexia nervosa is unconsciously attempting to gain control over the only part of her life she feels she can control. This eating disorder doesn't represent an attempt to manipulate others or live up to their expectations (although anorexia nervosa has a high incidence in families that emphasize achievement). The client isn't attempting to commit suicide through starvation; rather, by refusing to eat, she is expressing feelings of despair, worthlessness, and hopelessness.

5. A client with a history of substance abuse has been attending Alcoholics Anonymous meetings regularly in the psychiatric unit. One afternoon, the client tells the nurse, "I'm not going to those meetings anymore. I'm not like the rest of those people. I'm not a drunk. "What is the most appropriate response? A. "If you aren't an alcoholic, why do you keep drinking and ending up in the hospital?" B. "It's your decision. If you don't want to go, you don't have to." C. "You seem upset about the meetings." D. "You have to go to the meetings. It's part of your treatment plan."

5. C. "You seem upset about the meetings."** Rationale: The substance abuser uses the substance to cope with feelings and may deny the abuse. Asking if the client is upset about the meetings encourages the client to identify and deal with feelings instead of covering them up. Arguing with the client about the substance abuse (option A) or insisting that the client attend the meetings (option D) wouldn't help the client identify resistance to treatment. Option B isn't therapeutic behavior because it plays down the importance of attending meetings.

50. A client has approached the nurse asking for advice on how to deal with his alcohol addiction. The nurse should tell the client that the only effective treatment for alcoholism is: A. psychotherapy. B. total abstinence. C. Alcoholics Anonymous (AA). D. aversion therapy.

50. B. total abstinence. **Rationale: Total abstinence is the only effective treatment for alcoholism. Psychotherapy, attendance at AA meetings, and aversion therapy are all adjunctive therapies that can support the client in his efforts to abstain.

51. Flumazenil (Romazicon) has been ordered for a client who has overdosed on oxazepam (Serax). Before administering the medication, the nurse should be prepared for which common adverse effect? A. Seizures B. Shivering C. Anxiety D. Chest pain

51. A. Seizures**Rationale: Seizures are the most common serious adverse effect of using flumazenil to reverse benzodiazepine overdose. The effect is magnified if the client has a combined tricyclic antidepressant and benzodiazepine overdose. Less common adverse effects include shivering, anxiety, and chest pain.

52. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with bulimia. The most appropriate initial goal for a client diagnosed with bulimia is to: A. avoid shopping for large amounts of food. B. control eating impulses. C. identify anxiety-causing situations. D. eat only three meals per day.

52. C. identify anxiety-causing situations.**Rationale: Bulimic behavior is generally a maladaptive coping response to stress and underlying issues. The client must identify anxiety-causing situations that stimulate the bulimic behavior and then learn new ways of coping with the anxiety. Controlling shopping for large amounts of food isn't a goal early in treatment. Managing eating impulses and replacing them with adaptive coping mechanisms can be integrated into the plan of care after initially addressing stress and underlying issues. Eating three meals per day isn't a realistic goal early in treatment.

53. A client who's at high risk for suicide needs close supervision. To best ensure the client's safety, the nurse should: A. check the client frequently at irregular intervals throughout the night. B. assure the client that the nurse will hold in confidence anything the client says. C. repeatedly discuss previous suicide attempts with the client. D. disregard decreased communication by the client because this is common in suicidal clients.

53. A. check the client frequently at irregular intervals throughout the night.**Rationale: Checking the client frequently but at irregular intervals prevents the client from predicting when observation will take place and altering behavior in a misleading way at these times. Option B may encourage the client to try to manipulate the nurse or seek attention for having a secret suicide plan. Option C may reinforce suicidal ideas. Decreased communication is a sign of withdrawal that may indicate the client has decided to commit suicide; the nurse shouldn't disregard it (option D

56. During postprandial monitoring, a client with bulimia nervosa tells the nurse, "You can sit with me, but you're just wasting your time. After you sat with me yesterday, I was still able to purge. Today, my goal is to do it twice." What is the nurse's best response? A. "I trust you not to purge." B. "How are you purging and when do you do it?" C. "Don't worry. I won't allow you to purge today." D. "I know it's important for you to feel in control, but I'll monitor you for 90 minutes after you eat."

56. D. "I know it's important for you to feel in control, but I'll monitor you for 90 minutes after you eat."**Rationale: This response acknowledges that the client is testing limits and that the nurse is setting them by performing postprandial monitoring to prevent self-induced emesis. Clients with bulimia nervosa need to feel in control of the diet because they feel they lack control over all other aspects of their lives. Because their therapeutic relationships with caregivers are less important than their need to purge, they don't fear betraying the nurse's trust by engaging in the activity. They commonly plot purging and rarely share their secrets about it. An authoritarian or challenging response may trigger a power struggle between the nurse and client.

57. A client admitted to the psychiatric unit for treatment of substance abuse says to the nurse, "It felt so wonderful to get high." Which of the following is the most appropriate response? A. "If you continue to talk like that, I'm going to stop speaking to you." B. "You told me you got fired from your last job for missing too many days after taking drugs all night." C. "Tell me more about how it felt to get high." D. "Don't you know it's illegal to use drugs?"

57. B. "You told me you got fired from your last job for missing too many days after taking drugs all night." **Rationale: Confronting the client with the consequences of substance abuse helps to break through denial. Making threats (option A) isn't an effective way to promote self-disclosure or establish a rapport with the client. Although the nurse should encourage the client to discuss feelings, the discussion should focus on how the client felt before, not during, an episode of substance abuse (option C). Encouraging elaboration about his experience while getting high may reinforce the abusive behavior. The client undoubtedly is aware that drug use is illegal; a reminder to this effect (option D) is unlikely to alter behavior.

59. When interviewing the parents of an injured child, which of the following is the strongest indicator that child abuse may be a problem? A. The injury isn't consistent with the history or the child's age. B. The mother and father tell different stories regarding what happened. C. The family is poor. D. The parents are argumentative and demanding with emergency department personnel.

59. A. The injury isn't consistent with the history or the child's age.**Rationale: When the child's injuries are inconsistent with the history given or impossible because of the child's age and developmental stage, the emergency department nurse should be suspicious that child abuse is occurring. The parents may tell different stories because their perception may be different regarding what happened. If they change their story when different health care workers ask the same question, this is a clue that child abuse may be a problem. Child abuse occurs in all socioeconomic groups. Parents may argue and be demanding because of the stress of having an injured child.

6. A client is admitted to the inpatient adolescent unit after being arrested for attempting to sell cocaine to an undercover police officer. The nurse plans to write a behavioral contract. To best promote compliance, the contract should be written: A. abstractly. B. by the client alone. C. jointly by the client and nurse. D. jointly by the physician and nurse.

6. C. jointly by the client and nurse. **Rationale: A contract written jointly by the client and nurse most successfully promotes cooperation and consistent behavior. The most effective contract — and the type least likely to allow for manipulation and misinterpretation — states the behavioral terms as concretely as possible. A contract written solely by the client may not be agreeable to staff members; one written by the physician and nurse may not be agreeable to the client.

60. For a client with anorexia nervosa, the nurse plans to include the parents in therapy sessions along with the client. What fact should the nurse remember to be typical of parents of clients with anorexia nervosa? A. They tend to overprotect their children. B. They usually have a history of substance abuse. C. They maintain emotional distance from their children. D. They alternate between loving and rejecting their children.

60. A. They tend to overprotect their children. **Rationale: Clients with anorexia nervosa typically come from a family with parents who are controlling and overprotective. These clients use eating to gain control of an aspect of their lives. The characteristics described in options B, C, and D aren't typical of parents of children with anorexia.

61. In the emergency department, a client with facial lacerations states that her husband beat her with a shoe. After the health care team repairs her lacerations, she waits to be seen by the crisis intake nurse, who will evaluate the continued threat of violence. Suddenly the client's husband arrives, shouting that he wants to "finish the job." What is the first priority of the health care worker who witnesses this scene? A. Remaining with the client and staying calm B. Calling a security guard and another staff member for assistance C. Telling the client's husband that he must leave at once D. Determining why the husband feels so angry

61. B. Calling a security guard and another staff member for assistance**Rationale: The health care worker who witnesses this scene must take precautions to ensure personal as well as client safety, but shouldn't attempt to manage a physically aggressive person alone. Therefore, the first priority is to call a security guard and another staff member. After doing this, the health care worker should inform the husband what is expected, speaking in concise statements and maintaining a firm but calm demeanor. This approach makes it clear that the health care worker is in control and may diffuse the situation until the security guard arrives. Telling the husband to leave would probably be ineffective because of his agitated and irrational state. Exploring his anger doesn't take precedence over safeguarding the client and staff.

62. The nurse is caring for a client with bulimia. Strict management of dietary intake is necessary. Which intervention is also important? A. Fill out the client's menu and make sure she eats at least half of what is on her tray. B. Let the client eat her meals in private. Then engage her in social activities for at least 2 hours after each meal. C. Let the client choose her own food. If she eats everything she orders, then stay with her for 1 hour after each meal. D. Let the client eat food brought in by the family if she chooses, but she should keep a strict calorie count.

62. C. Let the client choose her own food. If she eats everything she orders, then stay with her for 1 hour after each meal.**Rationale: Allowing the client to select her own food from the menu will help her feel some sense of control. She must then eat 100% of what she selected. Remaining with the client for at least 1 hour after eating will prevent purging. Bulimic clients should only be allowed to eat food provided by the dietary department.

63. The nurse is assigned to care for a suicidal client. Initially, which is the nurse's highest care priority? A. Assessing the client's home environment and relationships outside the hospital B. Exploring the nurse's own feelings about suicide C. Discussing the future with the client D. Referring the client to a clergyperson to discuss the moral implications of suicide

63. B. Exploring the nurse's own feelings about suicide**Rationale: The nurse's values, beliefs, and attitudes toward self-destructive behavior influence responses to a suicidal client; such responses set the overall mood for the nurse-client relationship. Therefore, the nurse initially must explore personal feelings about suicide to avoid conveying negative feelings to the client. Assessment of the client's home environment and relationships may reveal the need for family therapy; however, conducting such an assessment isn't a nursing priority. Discussing the future and providing anticipatory guidance can help the client prepare for future stress, but this isn't a priority. Referring the client to a clergyperson may increase the client's trust or alleviate guilt; however, it isn't the highest priority.

64. A client with anorexia nervosa tells the nurse, "When I look in the mirror, I hate what I see. I look so fat and ugly." Which strategy should the nurse use to deal with the client's distorted perceptions and feelings? A. Avoid discussing the client's perceptions and feelings. B. Focus discussions on food and weight. C. Avoid discussing unrealistic cultural standards regarding weight. D. Provide objective data and feedback regarding the client's weight and attractiveness.

64. D. Provide objective data and feedback regarding the client's weight and attractiveness.**Rationale: By focusing on reality, this strategy may help the client develop a more realistic body image and gain self-esteem. Option A is inappropriate because discussing the client's perceptions and feeling wouldn't help her to identify, accept, and work through them. Focusing discussions on food and weight would give the client attention for not eating, making option B incorrect. Option C is inappropriate because recognizing unrealistic cultural standards wouldn't help the client establish more realistic weight goals.

65. The nurse is caring for a client being treated for alcoholism. Before initiating therapy with disulfiram (Antabuse), the nurse teaches the client that he must read labels carefully on which of the following products? A. Carbonated beverages B. Aftershave lotion C. Toothpaste D. Cheese

65. B. Aftershave lotion**Rationale: Disulfiram may be given to clients with chronic alcohol abuse who wish to curb impulse drinking. Disulfiram works by blocking the oxidation of alcohol, inhibiting the conversion of acetaldehyde to acetate. As acetaldehyde builds up in the blood, the client experiences noxious and uncomfortable symptoms. Even alcohol rubbed onto the skin can produce a reaction. The client receiving disulfiram must be taught to read ingredient labels carefully to avoid products containing alcohol such as aftershave lotions. Carbonated beverages, toothpaste, and cheese don't contain alcohol and don't need to be avoided by the client.

66. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which action should the nurse include in the plan? A. Restrict visits with the family until the client begins to eat. B. Provide privacy during meals. C. Set up a strict eating plan for the client. D. Encourage the client to exercise, which will reduce her anxiety.

66. C. Set up a strict eating plan for the client.**Rationale: Establishing a consistent eating plan and monitoring the client's weight are important for this disorder. The family should be included in the client's care. The client should be monitored during meals — not given privacy. Exercise must be limited and supervised.

67. Victims of domestic violence should be assessed for what important information? A. Reasons they stay in the abusive relationship (for example, lack of financial autonomy and isolation) B. Readiness to leave the perpetrator and knowledge of resources C. Use of drugs or alcohol D. History of previous victimization

67. B. Readiness to leave the perpetrator and knowledge of resources**Rationale: Victims of domestic violence must be assessed for their readiness to leave the perpetrator and their knowledge of the resources available to them. Nurses can then provide the victims with information and options to enable them to leave when they are ready. The reasons they stay in the relationship are complex and can be explored at a later time. The use of drugs or alcohol is irrelevant. There is no evidence to suggest that previous victimization results in a person's seeking or causing abusive relationships.

68. A client is hospitalized with fractures of the right femur and right humerus sustained in a motorcycle accident. Police suspect the client was intoxicated at the time of the accident. Laboratory tests reveal a blood alcohol level of 0.2 % (200 mg/dl). The client later admits to drinking heavily for years. During hospitalization, the client periodically complains of tingling and numbness in the hands and feet. The nurse realizes that these symptoms probably result from: A. acetate accumulation. B. thiamine deficiency. C. triglyceride buildup. D. a below-normal serum potassium level

68. B. thiamine deficiency.**Rationale: Numbness and tingling in the hands and feet are symptoms of peripheral polyneuritis, which results from inadequate intake of vitamin B1 (thiamine) secondary to prolonged and excessive alcohol intake. Treatment includes reducing alcohol intake, correcting nutritional deficiencies through diet and vitamin supplements, and preventing such residual disabilities as foot and wrist drop. Acetate accumulation, triglyceride buildup, and a below-normal serum potassium level are unrelated to the client's symptoms.

69. A parent brings a preschooler to the emergency department for treatment of a dislocated shoulder, which allegedly happened when the child fell down the stairs. Which action should make the nurse suspect that the child was abused? A. The child cries uncontrollably throughout the examination. B. The child pulls away from contact with the physician. C. The child doesn't cry when the shoulder is examined. D. The child doesn't make eye contact with the nurse.

69. C. The child doesn't cry when the shoulder is examined.**Rationale: A characteristic behavior of abused children is lack of crying when they undergo a painful procedure or are examined by a health care professional. Therefore, the nurse should suspect child abuse. Crying throughout the examination, pulling away from the physician, and not making eye contact with the nurse are normal behaviors for preschoolers.

72. A client is found sitting on the floor of the bathroom in the day treatment clinic with moderate lacerations on both wrists. Surrounded by broken glass, she sits staring blankly at her bleeding wrists while staff members call for an ambulance. How should the nurse approach her initially? A. Enter the room quietly and move beside her to assess her injuries. B. Call for staff back-up before entering the room and restraining her. C. Move as much glass away from her as possible and sit next to her quietly. D. Approach her slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling her name, and telling her that the nurse is here to help her.

72. D. Approach her slowly while speaking in a calm voice, calling her name, and telling her that the nurse is here to help her.**Rationale: Ensuring the safety of the client and the nurse is the priority at this time. Therefore, the nurse should approach the client cautiously while calling her name and talking to her in a calm, confident manner. The nurse should keep in mind that the client shouldn't be startled or overwhelmed. After explaining that the nurse is there to help, the nurse should observe the client's response carefully. If the client shows signs of agitation or confusion or poses a threat, the nurse should retreat and request assistance. The nurse shouldn't attempt to sit next to the client or examine injuries without first announcing the nurse's presence and assessing the dangers of the situation.

73. A client with anorexia nervosa describes herself as "a whale." However, the nurse's assessment reveals that the client is 5′ 8" (1.7 m) tall and weighs only 90 lb (40.8 kg). Considering the client's unrealistic body image, which intervention should be included in the plan of care? A. Asking the client to compare her figure with magazine photographs of women her age B. Assigning the client to group therapy in which participants provide realistic feedback about her weight C. Confronting the client about her actual appearance during one-on-one sessions, scheduled during each shift D. Telling the client of the nurse's concern for her health and desire to help her make decisions to keep her healthy

73. D. Telling the client of the nurse's concern for her health and desire to help her make decisions to keep her healthy**Rationale: A client with anorexia nervosa has an unrealistic body image that causes consumption of little or no food. Therefore, the client needs assistance with making decisions about health. Instead of protecting the client's health, options A, B, and C may serve to make the client defensive and more entrenched in her unrealistic body image.

74. Eighteen hours after undergoing an emergency appendectomy, a client with a reported history of social drinking displays these vital signs: temperature, 101.6° F (38.7° C); heart rate, 126 beats/minute; respiratory rate, 24 breaths/minute; and blood pressure, 140/96 mm Hg. The client exhibits gross hand tremors and is screaming for someone to kill the bugs in the bed. The nurse should suspect: A. a postoperative infection. B. alcohol withdrawal. C. acute sepsis. D. pneumonia.

74. B. alcohol withdrawal. **Rationale: The client's vital signs and hallucinations suggest delirium tremens or alcohol withdrawal syndrome. Although infection, acute sepsis, and pneumonia may arise as postoperative complications, they wouldn't cause this client's signs and symptoms and typically would occur later in the postoperative course.

75. Clonidine (Catapres) can be used to treat conditions other than hypertension. For which of the following conditions might the drug be administered? A. Phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication B. Alcohol withdrawal C. Opiate withdrawal D. Cocaine withdrawal

75. C. Opiate withdrawal**Rationale: Clonidine is used as adjunctive therapy in opiate withdrawal. Benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide (Librium), and neuropleptic agents, such as haloperidol, are used to treat alcohol withdrawal. Benzodiazepines and neuropleptic agents are typically used to treat PCP intoxication. Antidepressants and medications with dopaminergic activity in the brain, such as fluoxotine (Prozac), are used to treat cocaine withdrawal.

76. One of the goals for a client with anorexia nervosa is that the client will demonstrate increased individual coping by responding to stress in constructive ways. Which of the following actions is the best indicator that the client is working toward meeting the goal? A. The client drinks 4 L of fluid per day. B. The client paces around the unit most of the day. C. The client keeps a journal and discusses it with the nurse. D. The client talks almost constantly with friends by telephone.

76. C. The client keeps a journal and discusses it with the nurse. **Rationale: The client is moving toward meeting the goal because recording and discussing feelings is a constructive way to manage stress. Although physical activity can reduce stress, the anorexic client is more likely to use pacing to burn calories and lose weight. Although talks with friends can decrease stress, constant talking is more likely a way of avoiding dealing with problems. Increased fluid intake may be an attempt by the client to curb her appetite and artificially increase her weight.

85. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. Although she is 5′ 8" (1.7 m) tall and weighs only 103 lb (46.7 kg), she talks incessantly about how fat she is. Which measure should the nurse take first when caring for this client? A. Teach the client about nutrition, calories, and a balanced diet. B. Establish a trusting relationship with the client. C. Discuss cultural stereotypes regarding thinness and attractiveness. D. Explore the reasons why the client doesn't eat.

85. B. Establish a trusting relationship with the client. **Rationale: A client with an eating disorder may be secretive and unwilling to admit that a problem exists. Therefore, the nurse first must establish a trusting relationship to elicit the client's feelings and thoughts. The anorexic client may spend long hours discussing nutrition or handling and preparing food in an effort to stall or avoid eating food; the nurse shouldn't reinforce her preoccupation with food, as in option A. Although cultural stereotypes may play a prominent role in anorexia nervosa, discussing these factors isn't the first action the nurse should take. Exploring the reasons why the client doesn't eat would increase her emotional investment in food and eating.

86. A client is admitted for an overdose of amphetamines. When assessing this client, the nurse should expect to see: A. tension and irritability. B. slow pulse. C. hypotension. D. constipation.

86. A. tension and irritability.**Rationale: An amphetamine is a nervous system stimulant that is subject to abuse because of its ability to produce wakefulness and euphoria. An overdose increases tension and irritability. Options B and C are incorrect because amphetamines stimulate norepinephrine, which increases the heart rate and blood flow. Diarrhea is a common adverse effect, so option D is incorrect.

87. Which of the following drugs may be abused because of tolerance and physiologic dependence. A. lithium (Lithobid) and divalproex (Depakote). B. verapamil (Calan) and chlorpromazine (Thorazine) C. alprazolam (Xanax) and phenobarbital (Luminal) D. clozapine (Clozaril) and amitriptyline (Elavil)

87C. alprazolam (Xanax) and phenobarbital (Luminal)**Rationale: Both benzodiazepines, such as alprazolam, and barbiturates, such as phenobarbital, are addictive, controlled substances. All the other drugs listed aren't addictive substances.

88. Which of the following groups are considered to be at highest risk for suicide? A. Adolescents, men over age 45, and persons who have made previous suicide attempts B. Teachers, divorced persons, and substance abusers C. Alcohol abusers, widows, and young married men D. Depressed persons, physicians, and persons living in rural areas

88. A. Adolescents, men over age 45, and persons who have made previous suicide attempts**Rationale: Studies of those who commit suicide reveal the following high-risk groups: adolescents; men over age 45; persons who have made previous suicide attempts; divorced, widowed, and separated persons; professionals, such as physicians, dentists, and attorneys; students; unemployed persons; persons who are depressed, delusional, or hallucinating; alcohol or substance abusers; and persons who live in urban areas. Although more women attempt suicide than men, they typically choose less lethal means and therefore are less likely to succeed in their attempts.

89. Tourette syndrome is characterized by the presence of multiple motor and vocal tics. A vocal tic that involves repeating one's own sounds or words is known as: A. echolalia. B. palilalia. C. apraxia. D. aphonia.

89. B. palilalia.**Rationale: Palilalia is defined as the repetition of sounds and words. Echolalia is the act of repeating the words of others. Apraxia is the inability to carry out motor activities, and aphonia is the inability to speak

9. A client who's actively hallucinating is brought to the hospital by friends. They say that the client used either lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) or angel dust (phencyclidine [PCP]) at a concert. Which of the following common assessment findings indicates that the client may have ingested PCP? A. Dilated pupils B. Nystagmus C. Paranoia D. Altered mood

9. B. Nystagmus**Rationale: Phencyclidine is an anesthetic with severe psychological effects. It blocks the reuptake of dopamine and directly affects the midbrain and thalamus. Nystagmus and ataxia are common physical findings of PCP use. Dilated pupils are evidence of LSD ingestion. Paranoia and altered mood occur with both PCP and LSD ingestion.

Which nursing statement reflects a common characteristic of a client diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder? A. "This client consistently criticizes care and has difficulty getting along with others." B. "This client is shy and fades into the background." C. "This client expects special treatment and setting limits will be necessary." D. "This client is expressive during group and is very pleased with self."

ANS: A A client diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder has a pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others. Anticipating humiliation and betrayal, the paranoid individual characteristically learns to attack first.

When a client on an acute care psychiatric unit demonstrates behaviors and verbalizations indicating a lack of guilt feelings, which nursing intervention would help the client to meet desired outcomes? A. Provide external limits on client behavior. B. Foster discussions of rationales for behavioral change. C. Implement interventions consistently by only one staff member. D. Encourage the client to involve self in care.

ANS: A Because the client, due to a lack of guilt, cannot or will not impose personal limits on maladaptive behaviors, these limits must be delineated and enforced by staff.

Which characteristics should a nurse recognize as being exhibited by individuals diagnosed with any personality disorders? A. These clients accept and are comfortable with their altered behaviors. B. These clients understand that their altered behaviors result from anxiety. C. These clients seek treatment to avoid interpersonal discomfort. D. These clients avoid relationships due to past negative experiences.

ANS: A Clients who are diagnosed with personality disorders accept and are comfortable with their altered behaviors. Personalities that develop in a disordered pattern remain somewhat unstable and unpredictable throughout the lifetime.

A nurse is caring for a client who has threatened to commit suicide by hanging. The client states, "I'm going to use a knotted shower curtain when no one is around." Which information would determine the nurse's plan of care for this client? A. The more specific the plan is, the more likely the client will attempt suicide. B. Clients who talk about suicide never actually commit it. C. Clients who threaten suicide should be observed every 15 minutes. D. After a brief assessment, the nurse should avoid the topic of suicide.

ANS: A Clients who have specific plans are at greater risk for suicide.

Which nursing approach should be used to maintain a therapeutic relationship with a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder? A. Being firm, consistent, and empathic, while addressing specific client behaviors B. Promoting client self-expression by implementing laissez-faire leadership C. Using authoritative leadership to help clients learn to conform to society norms D. Overlooking inappropriate behaviors to avoid promoting secondary gains

ANS: A The best nursing approach when working with a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder is to be firm, consistent, and empathetic while addressing specific client behaviors. Individuals diagnosed with borderline personality disorder always seem to be in a state of crisis and can often have negative patterns of interaction such as manipulation and splitting.

A college student was sexually assaulted when out on a date. After several weeks of crisis intervention therapy, which client statement should indicate to a nurse that the student is handling this situation in a healthy manner? A. "I know that it was not my fault." B. "My boyfriend has trouble controlling his sexual urges." C. "If I don't put myself in a dating situation, I won't be at risk." D. "Next time I will think twice about wearing a sexy dress."

ANS: A The client who realizes that sexual assault was not her fault is handling the situation in a healthy manner. The nurse should provide nonjudgmental listening and communicate statements that instill trust and validate self-worth.

Which statement made by an emergency department nurse indicates accurate knowledge of domestic violence? A. "Power and control are central to the dynamic of domestic violence." B. "Poor communication and social isolation are central to the dynamic of domestic violence." C. "Erratic relationships and vulnerability are central to the dynamic of domestic violence." D. "Emotional injury and learned helplessness are central to the dynamic of domestic violence."

ANS: A The nurse accurately states that power and control are central to the dynamic of domestic violence. Battering is defined as a pattern of coercive control founded on physical and/or sexual violence or threat of violence. The typical abuser is very possessive and perceives the victim as a possession.

Family members of a client ask a nurse to explain the difference between schizoid and avoidant personality disorders. Which is the appropriate nursing reply? A. "Clients diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder desire intimacy but fear it, and clients diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder prefer to be alone." B. "Clients diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder exhibit odd, bizarre, and eccentric behavior, while clients diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder do not." C. "Clients diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder are eccentric, and clients diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder are dull and vacant." D. "Clients diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder have a history of psychotic thought processes, while clients diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder remain based in reality."

ANS: A The nurse should educate the family that clients diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder desire intimacy but fear it, while clients diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder prefer to be alone. Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by an extreme sensitivity to rejection which leads to social isolation. Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a profound deficit in the ability to form personal relationships.

Which assessment data should a school nurse recognize as signs of physical neglect? A. The child is often absent from school and seems apathetic and tired. B. The child is very insecure and has poor self-esteem. C. The child has multiple bruises on various body parts. D. The child has sophisticated knowledge of sexual behaviors.

ANS: A The nurse should recognize that a child who is often absent from school and seems apathetic and tired might be a victim of neglect. Other indicators of neglect are stealing food or money, lacking medical or dental care, being consistently dirty, lacking sufficient clothing, or stating that there is no one home to provide care.

Which nursing diagnosis should be prioritized when providing care to a client diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder? A. Risk for violence: directed toward others R/T suspicious thoughts B. Risk for suicide R/T altered thought C. Altered sensory perception R/T increased levels of anxiety D. Social isolation R/T inability to relate to others

ANS: A The priority nursing diagnosis for a client diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder should be risk for violence: directed toward others R/T suspicious thoughts. Clients diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder have a pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others that may result in hostile actions to protect self. They are often tense and irritable, which increases the likelihood of violent behavior.

Which nursing intervention strategy is most appropriate to implement initially with a suicidal client? A. Ask a direct question such as, "Do you ever think about killing yourself?" B. Ask client, "Please rate your mood on a scale from 1 to 10." C. Establish a trusting nurse-client relationship. D. Apply the nursing process to the planning of client care.

ANS: A The risk of suicide is greatly increased if the client has suicidal ideations, has developed a plan, and particularly if means exist for the client to execute the plan.

Which of the following nursing diagnoses could be appropriate for an adult survivor of incest? (Select all that apply.) A. Low self-esteem B. Powerlessness C. Disturbed personal identity D. Knowledge deficit E. Noncompliance

ANS: A, B An adult survivor of incest would most likely have low self-esteem and a sense of powerlessness. Adult survivors of incest are at risk for developing post-traumatic stress disorder, sexual dysfunction, somatization disorders, compulsive sexual behavior disorders, depression, anxiety, eating disorders, and substance abuse disorders. Disturbed personal identity refers to an inability to distinguish between self and nonself and is seen in disorders such as autistic disorders, borderline personality disorders, dissociative disorders, and gender identity disorders.

Which statements represent positive outcomes for clients diagnosed with narcissistic personality disorder? (Select all that apply.) A. The client will relate one empathetic statement toward another client in group by day 2. B. The client will identify one personal limitation by day 1. C. The client will acknowledge one strength that another client possesses by day 2. D. The client will list four personal strengths by day 3. E. The client will list two lifetime achievements by discharge.

ANS: A, B, C The nurse should determine that appropriate outcomes for a client diagnosed with narcissistic personality disorder include relating empathetic statements to other clients, identifying one personal limitation, and acknowledging one strength in another client. An exaggerated sense of self-worth, a lack of empathy, and exploitation of others are characteristics of narcissistic personality disorder.

When planning care for women in abusive relationships, which of the following information is important for the nurse to consider? (Select all that apply.) A. It often takes several attempts before a woman leaves an abusive situation. B. Substance abuse is a common factor in abusive relationships. C. Until children reach school age, they are usually not affected by parental discord. D. Women in abusive relationships usually feel isolated and unsupported. E. Economic factors rarely play a role in the decision to stay in abusive relationships.

ANS: A, B, D When planning care for women who have been victims of domestic abuse, the nurse should be aware that it often takes several attempts before a woman leaves an abusive situation, that substance abuse is a common factor in abusive relationships, and that women in abusive relationships usually feel isolated and unsupported. Children can be affected by domestic violence from infancy, and economic factors often play a role in the victim's decision to stay.

A nursing student is developing a study guide related to historical facts about suicide. Which of the following facts should the student include? (Select all that apply.) A. In the Middle Ages, suicide was viewed as a selfish and criminal act. B. During the Roman Empire, suicide was treated by incineration of the body. C. Suicide was an offense in ancient Greece, and a common site burial was denied. D. During the Renaissance, suicide was discussed and viewed more philosophically. E. Old Norse traditionally set a person who committed suicide adrift in the North Sea.

ANS: A, C, D These are true historical facts about suicide and should be included in the student's study guide.

A nurse is caring for a group of clients within the DSM-IV-TR cluster B category of personality disorders. Which factors should the nurse consider when planning client care? (Select all that apply.) A. These clients have personality traits that are deeply ingrained and difficult to modify. B. These clients need medications to treat the underlying physiological pathology. C. These clients use manipulation, making the implementation of treatment problematic. D. These clients have poor impulse control that hinders compliance with a plan of care. E. These clients commonly have secondary diagnoses of substance abuse and depression.

ANS: A, C, D, E The nurse should consider that individuals diagnosed with cluster B-type personality disorders have deeply ingrained personality traits, use manipulation, have poor impulse control, and often have secondary diagnoses of substance abuse and/or depression. This cluster includes antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic personality disorders.

Which is a correctly written, appropriate outcome for a client with a history of suicide attempts who is currently exhibiting symptoms of low self-esteem by isolating self? A. The client will not physically harm self. B. The client will express three positive self-attributes by day 4. C. The client will reveal a suicide plan. D. The client will establish a trusting relationship with the nurse by day 1.

ANS: B Although the client has a history of suicide attempts, the current problem is isolative behaviors based on low self-esteem. Outcomes should be client centered, specific, realistic, measureable, and contain a time frame.

A client diagnosed with cluster "C" traits sits alone and ignores other's attempts to converse. When ask to join a group the client states, "No thanks." In this situation, which should the nurse assign as an initial nursing diagnosis? A. Fear R/T hospitalization B. Social isolation R/T poor self-esteem C. Risk for suicide R/T to hopelessness D. Powerlessness R/T dependence issues

ANS: B Clients diagnosed with cluster "C" traits are described as anxious and fearful. The DSM-IV-TR divides cluster "C" personality disorders into three categories: avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive. Anxiety and fear contribute to social isolation.

While improving, a client demands to have a phone installed in the intensive care unit (ICU) room. When a nurse states, "This is not allowed. It is a unit rule." The client angrily demands to see the doctor. Which approach should the nurse use in this situation? A. Provide an explanation for the necessity of the unit rule. B. Assist the client to discuss anger and frustrations. C. Call the physician and relay the request. D. Arrange for a phone to be installed in the client's unit room.

ANS: B Clients who demand special privileges may be diagnosed with narcissistic personality disorder. The best approach in this situation is for the nurse to identify the function that anger, frustration, and rage serve for the client. The verbalization of feelings may help the client to gain insight into his or her behavior.

A pessimistic client expresses low self-worth, has much difficulty making decisions, avoids positions of responsibility, and has a behavioral pattern of "suffering" in silence. Which underlying cause of this client's personality disorder should a nurse recognize? A. "Nurturance was provided from many sources, and independent behaviors were encouraged." B. "Nurturance was provided exclusively from one source, and independent behaviors were discouraged." C. "Nurturance was provided exclusively from one source, and independent behaviors were encouraged." D. "Nurturance was provided from many sources, and independent behaviors were discouraged."

ANS: B Nurturance provided from one source and discouragement of independent behaviors can attribute to the etiology of dependent personality disorder. Dependent behaviors may be rewarded by a parent who is overprotective and discourages autonomy.

During an assessment interview, a client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder spits, curses, and refuses to answer questions. Which is the most appropriate nursing statement to address this behavior? A. "You are very disrespectful. You need to learn to control yourself." B. "I understand that you are angry, but this behavior will not be tolerated." C. "What behaviors could you modify to improve this situation?" D. "What anti-personality-disorder medications have helped you in the past?"

ANS: B The appropriate nursing statement is to reflect the client's feeling while setting firm limits on behavior. Clients diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder have a low tolerance for frustration, see themselves as victims, and use projection as a primary ego defense mechanism. Antidepressants and anxiolytics are used for symptom relief; however, there are no specific medications targeted for the diagnosis of a personality disorder.

A nurse recently admitted a client to an inpatient unit after a suicide attempt. A health-care provider orders amitriptyline (Elavil) for the client. Which intervention related to this medication should be initiated to maintain this client's safety upon discharge? A. Provide a 6-month supply of Elavil to ensure long-term compliance. B. Provide a 1-week supply of Elavil with refills contingent on follow-up appointments. C. Provide a pill dispenser as a memory aid. D. Provide education regarding the avoidance of foods containing tyramine.

ANS: B The health-care provider should provide a 1-week supply of Elavil with refills contingent on follow-up appointments as an appropriate intervention to maintain the client's safety. Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic range and can be used in overdose to commit suicide. Distributing limited amounts of the medication decreases this potential.

A nursing instructor is teaching students about clients diagnosed with histrionic personality disorder and the quality of their relationships. Which student statement indicates that learning has occurred? A. "Their dramatic style tends to make their interpersonal relationships quite interesting and fulfilling." B. "Their interpersonal relationships tend to be shallow and fleeting, serving their dependency needs." C. "They tend to develop few relationships because they are strongly independent but generally maintain deep affection." D. "They pay particular attention to details which can frustrate the development of relationships."

ANS: B The instructor should evaluate that learning has occurred when the student describes clients diagnosed with histrionic personality disorder as having shallow, fleeting interpersonal relationships that serve their dependency needs. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by colorful, dramatic, and extroverted behavior. These individuals also have difficulty maintaining long-lasting relationships.

A client is brought to an emergency department after being violently raped. Which nursing action is appropriate? A. Discourage the client from discussing the event as this may lead to further emotional trauma. B. Remain nonjudgmental and actively listen to the client's description of the event. C. Meet the client's self-care needs by assisting with showering and perineal care. D. Provide cues, based on police information, to encourage further description of the event.

ANS: B The most appropriate nursing action is to remain nonjudgmental and actively listen to the client's description of the event. It is important to also communicate to the victim that he or she is safe and that it is not his or her fault. Nonjudgmental listening provides an avenue for client catharsis needed in order to begin the process of healing.

From a behavioral perspective, which nursing intervention is most appropriate when caring for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder? A. Seclude the client when inappropriate behaviors are exhibited. B. Contract with the client to reinforce positive behaviors with unit privileges. C. Teach the purpose of antianxiety medications to improve medication compliance. D. Encourage the client to journal feelings to improve awareness of abandonment issues.

ANS: B The most appropriate nursing intervention from a behavioral perspective is to contract with the client to reinforce positive behaviors with unit privileges. Behavioral strategies offer reinforcement for positive change.

A newly admitted client is diagnosed with major depressive disorder with suicidal ideations. Which would be the priority nursing intervention for this client? A. Teach about the effective of suicide on family dynamics. B. Carefully and unobtrusively observe based on assessed data, at varied intervals around the clock. C. Encourage the client to spend a portion of each day interacting within the milieu. D. Set realistic achievable goals to increase self esteem.

ANS: B The most effective way to interrupt a suicide attempt is to carefully, unobtrusively observe based on assessed data at varied intervals around the clock. If a nurse observes behavior that indicates self-harm, the nurse can intervene to stop the behavior and keep the client safe.

Which statement indicates that the nurse is acting as an advocate for a client who has recently made a suicide attempt? A. "I must observe you continually for 1 hour in order to keep you safe." B. "Let's confer with the treatment team about the triggers to your attempt that we discussed." C. "You must have been very upset to do what you did today." D. "Are you currently thinking about harming yourself?"

ANS: B The nurse is functioning in an advocacy role when collaborating with the client and treatment team to discuss client problems.

A stockbroker commits suicide after being convicted of insider trading. Which information should a nurse share with the grieving family? A. "Keep in mind that your grieving will only last for 1 year." B. "To deal with your grief, try using coping strategies that have worked for you in the past." C. "You need to write a letter to the brokerage firm to express your anger with them." D. "It would be best if you avoid discussing the suicide."

ANS: B The nurse should discuss coping strategies that have been successful in times of stress in the past, and work to reestablish these within the family.

When planning care for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder, which self-harm behavior should a nurse expect the client to exhibit? A. The use of highly lethal methods to commit suicide B. The use of suicidal gestures to evoke a rescue response from others C. The use of isolation and starvation as suicidal methods D. The use of self-mutilation to decrease endorphins in the body

ANS: B The nurse should expect that a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder might use suicidal gestures to evoke a rescue response from others. Repetitive, self-mutilative behaviors are common in clients diagnosed with borderline personality disorders. These behaviors are generated by feelings of abandonment following separation from significant others.

Which client is a nurse most likely to admit to an inpatient facility for self-destructive behaviors? A. A client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder B. A client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder C. A client diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder D. A client diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder

ANS: B The nurse should expect that a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder would be most likely to be admitted to an inpatient facility for self-destructive behaviors. Clients diagnosed with this disorder often exhibit repetitive, self-mutilative behaviors. Most gestures are designed to evoke a rescue response.

An anorexic client states to a nurse, "My father has recently moved back to town." Since that time the client has experienced insomnia, nightmares, and panic attacks that occur nightly. She has never married or dated and lives alone. What should the nurse suspect? A. Possible major depressive disorder B. Possible history of childhood incest C. Possible histrionic personality disorder D. Possible history of childhood physical abuse

ANS: B The nurse should suspect that this client might have a history of childhood incest. Adult survivors of incest are at risk for developing posttraumatic stress disorder, sexual dysfunction, somatization disorders, compulsive sexual behavior disorders, depression, anxiety, eating disorders, and substance abuse disorders.

A client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder brings up a conflict with the staff in a community meeting and develops a following of clients who unreasonably demand modification of unit rules. How can the nursing staff best handle this situation? A. Allow the clients to apply the democratic process when developing unit rules. B. Maintain consistency of care by open communication to avoid staff manipulation. C. Allow the client spokesman to verbalize concerns during a unit staff meeting. D. Maintain unit order by the application of autocratic leadership.

ANS: B The nursing staff can best handle this situation by maintaining consistency of care by open communication to avoid staff manipulation. Clients diagnosed with borderline personality disorder can exhibit negative patterns of interaction such as clinging and distancing, splitting, manipulation, and self-destructive behaviors.

After years of dialysis, an 84-year-old states, "I'm exhausted, depressed, and so over these attempts to keep me alive." Which question should the nurse ask the spouse when preparing a discharge plan of care? A. "Has there been had any appetite or sleep changes?" B. "How often is your spouse left alone?" C. "Has your spouse been following a diet and exercise program consistently?" D. "How would you characterize your relationship with your spouse?"

ANS: B This client has many risk factors for suicide. The client should have increased supervision to decrease likelihood of self-harm.

A nursing instructor is teaching about suicide in the elderly population. Which information should the instructor include? A. Elderly people use less lethal means to commit suicide. B. While the elderly make up less than 13% of the population, they account for 16% of all suicides. C. Suicide is the second leading cause of death in the elderly. D. It is normal for elderly individuals to express a desire to die because they have come to terms with their mortality.

ANS: B This factual information should be included in the nursing instructor's teaching plan. An expressed desire to die is not normal in any age group.

Which client data indicate that a suicidal client is participating in a plan for safety? A. Compliance with antidepressant therapy B. A mood rating of 9/10 C. Disclosing a plan for suicide to staff D. Expressing feelings of hopelessness to nurse

ANS: C A degree of the responsibility for the suicidal client's safety is given to the client. When a client shares with staff a plan for suicide, the client is participating in a plan for safety by communicating thoughts of self-harm that would initiate interventions to prevent suicide.

A client is newly admitted to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which assessment data are critical in determining an increased risk for suicide? A. Monitoring the client continually for 1 hour after admission B. Encouraging the client to discuss feelings C. Asking the client about any history of suicide attempts D. Removing hazardous materials from the environment

ANS: C A history of suicide attempts places a client at a higher risk for current suicide behaviors. Knowing this specific data will alert the nurse to the client's risk.

Which adult client should a nurse identify as exhibiting the characteristics of a dependent personality disorder? A. A physically healthy client who is dependent on meeting social needs by contact with 15 cats B. A physically healthy client who has a history of depending on intense relationships to meet basic needs C. A physically healthy client who lives with parents and relies on public transportation D. A physically healthy client who is serious, inflexible, perfectionistic, and depends on rules to provide security

ANS: C A physically healthy adult client who lives with parents and relies on public transportation exhibits signs of dependent personality disorder. Dependent personality disorder is characterized by a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of that leads to submissive and clinging behavior.

A nurse is caring for four clients diagnosed with major depression. When considering the client's belief system, which client would potentially be at highest risk for suicide? A. Roman Catholic B. Protestant C. Atheist D. Muslim

ANS: C Depressed men and women who consider themselves affiliated with a religion are less likely to attempt suicide than their nonreligious counterparts.

A new nursing graduate asks the psychiatric nurse manager how to best classify suicide. Which is the nurse manager's best reply? A. "Suicide is a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis." B. "Suicide is a mental disorder." C. "Suicide is a behavior." D. "Suicide is an antisocial affliction."

ANS: C Suicide is not a diagnosis, disorder, or affliction. It is a behavior.

When questioned about bruises, a woman states, "It was an accident. My husband just had a bad day at work. He's being so gentle now and even brought me flowers. He's going to get a new job, so it won't happen again." This client is in which phase of the cycle of battering? A. Phase I: The tension-building phase B. Phase II: The acute battering incident phase C. Phase III: The honeymoon phase D. Phase IV: The resolution and reorganization phase

ANS: C The client is in the honeymoon phase of the cycle of battering. In this phase, the batterer becomes extremely loving, kind, and contrite. Promises are often made that the abuse will not happen again.

A client diagnosed with paranoid personality disorder becomes violent on a unit. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate? A. Provide objective evidence, that violence is unwarranted. B. Initially restrain the client to maintain safety. C. Use clear, calm statements and a confident physical stance. D. Empathize with the client's paranoid perceptions.

ANS: C The most appropriate nursing intervention is to use clear, calm statements and to assume a confident physical stance. A calm attitude avoids escalating the aggressive behavior and provides the client with a feeling of safety and security. It may also be beneficial to have sufficient staff on hand to present a show of strength.

A woman comes to an emergency department with a broken nose and multiple bruises after being beaten by her husband. She states, "The beatings have been getting worse, and I'm afraid that next time he might kill me." Which is the appropriate nursing reply? A. "Leopards don't change their spots, and neither will he." B. "There are things you can do to prevent him from losing control." C. "Let's talk about your options so that you don't have to go home." D. "Why don't we call the police so that they can confront your husband with his behavior?"

ANS: C The most appropriate reply by the nurse is to talk with the client about options so that the client does not have to return to the abusive environment. It is essential that clients make decisions independently without the nurse being the "rescuer." Imposing judgments and giving advice is nontherapeutic.

A client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder comes to a nurses' station at 11:00 p.m. requesting to phone a lawyer to discuss filing for a divorce. The unit rules state that no phone calls are permitted after 10:00 p.m. Which nursing reply is most appropriate? A. "Go ahead and use the phone. I know this pending divorce is stressful." B. "You know better than to break the rules. I'm surprised at you." C. "It is after the 10:00 p.m. phone curfew. You will be able to call tomorrow." D. "The decision to divorce should not be considered until you have had a good night's sleep."

ANS: C The most appropriate response by the staff is to restate the unit rules in a calm, assertive manner. Because of the probability of manipulative behavior in this client population, it is imperative to maintain consistent application of rules.

A highly emotional client presents at an outpatient clinic appointment wearing flamboyant attire, spiked heels, and theatrical makeup. Which personality disorder should a nurse associate with this assessment data? A. Compulsive personality disorder B. Schizotypal personality disorder C. Histrionic personality disorder D. Manic personality disorder

ANS: C The nurse should associate histrionic personality disorder with this assessment data. Individuals diagnosed with histrionic personality disorder tend to be self-dramatizing, attention seeking, overly gregarious, and seductive. They often use manipulation and exhibitionism as a means of gaining attention.

A client with a history of three suicide attempts has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for 1 month. The client suddenly presents with a bright affect, rates mood at 9/10, and is much more communicative. Which action should be the nurse's priority at this time? A. Give the client off-unit privileges as positive reinforcement. B. Encourage the client to share mood improvement in group. C. Increase frequency of client observation. D. Request that the psychiatrist reevaluate the current medication protocol.

ANS: C The nurse should be aware that a sudden increase in mood rating and change in affect could indicate that the client is at risk for suicide and client observation should be more frequent. Suicide risk may occur early during treatment with antidepressants. The return of energy may bring about an increased ability to act-out self-destructive behaviors prior to the client attaining the full therapeutic effect of the antidepressant medication.

A nursing student asks an emergency department nurse, "Why does a rapist use a weapon during the act of rape?" Which nursing reply is most accurate? A. "A weapon is used to increase the victimizer's security." B. "A weapon is used to inflict physical harm." C. "A weapon is used to terrorize and subdue the victim." D. "A weapon is used to mirror learned family behavior patterns."

ANS: C The nurse should explain that a rapist uses weapons to terrorize and subdue the victim. Rape is the expression of power and dominance by means of sexual violence. Rape can occur over a broad spectrum of experience from violent attack to insistence on sexual intercourse by an acquaintance or spouse.

A client living on the beachfront seeks help with an extreme fear of crossing bridges which interferes with daily life. A psychiatric nurse practitioner decides to try systematic desensitization. Which explanation of this therapy should the nurse convey to the client? A. "Using your imagination, we will attempt to achieve a state of relaxation that you can replicate when faced with crossing a bridge." B. "Because anxiety and relaxation are mutually exclusive states, we can attempt to substitute a relaxation response for the anxiety response." C. "Through a series of increasingly anxiety-provoking steps, we will gradually increase your tolerance to anxiety." D. "In one intense session, you will be exposed to a maximum level of anxiety that you will learn to tolerate."

ANS: C The nurse should explain to the client that systematic desensitization exposes the client to a series of increasingly anxiety provoking steps that will gradually increase anxiety tolerance. Systematic desensitization was introduced by Joseph Wolpe in 1958 and is based on behavioral conditioning principles.

Which reaction to a compliment from another client should a nurse identify as a typical response from a client diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder? A. Interpreting the compliment as a secret code used to increase personal power B. Feeling the compliment was well deserved C. Being grateful for the compliment but fearing later rejection and humiliation D. Wondering what deep meaning and purpose are attached to the compliment

ANS: C The nurse should identify that a client diagnosed with avoidant personality disorder would be grateful for the comment but would fear later rejection and humiliation. Individuals with avoidant personality disorder are extremely sensitive to rejection and are often awkward and uncomfortable in social situations.

Looking at a slightly bleeding paper cut, the client screams, "Somebody help me, quick! I'm bleeding. Call 911!" A nurse should identify this behavior as characteristic of which personality disorder? A. Schizoid personality disorder B. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder C. Histrionic personality disorder D. Paranoid personality disorder

ANS: C The nurse should identify this behavior as characteristic of histrionic personality disorder. Individuals diagnosed with this disorder tend to be self-dramatizing, attention seeking, over gregarious, and seductive.

A client is newly committed to an inpatient psychiatric unit. Which nursing intervention best lowers this client's risk for suicide? A. Encouraging participation in the milieu to promote hope B. Developing a strong personal relationship with the client C. Observing the client at intervals determined by assessed data D. Encouraging and redirecting the client to concentrate on happier times

ANS: C The nurse should observe the actively suicidal client continuously for the first hour after admission. After a full assessment, the treatment team will determine the observation status of the client. Observation of the client allows the nurse to interrupt any observed suicidal behaviors.

A client who has been raped is crying, pacing, and cursing her attacker in an emergency department. Which behavioral defense should a nurse recognize? A. Controlled response pattern B. Compounded rape reaction C. Expressed response pattern D. Silent rape reaction

ANS: C The nurse should recognize that this client is exhibiting an expressed response pattern. In the expressed response pattern, feelings of fear, anger, and anxiety are expressed through crying, sobbing, smiling, restlessness, and tension. In the controlled response pattern, the client's feelings are masked or hidden, and a calm, composed, or subdued affect is seen.

Which client symptoms should lead a nurse to suspect a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder? A. The client experiences unwanted, intrusive, and persistent thoughts. B. The client experiences unwanted, repetitive behavior patterns. C. The client experiences inflexibility and lack of spontaneity when dealing with others. D. The client experiences obsessive thoughts that are externally imposed.

ANS: C The nurse should suspect a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive personality disorder when a client experiences inflexibility and lack of spontaneity. Individuals diagnosed with this disorder are very serious, formal, and have difficulty expressing emotions. They are perfectionistic and preoccupied with rules.

A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder with psychotic features hears voices commanding self-harm. The client refuses to commit to developing a plan for safety. What should be the nurse's priority intervention at this time? A. Obtaining an order for locked seclusion until client is no longer suicidal B. Conducting 15-minute checks to ensure safety C. Placing the client on one-to-one observation while monitoring suicidal ideations D. Encouraging client to express feelings related to suicide

ANS: C The nurse's priority intervention when a client hears voices commanding self-harm is to place the client on one-to-one observation while continuing to monitor suicidal ideation.

When planning care for clients diagnosed with personality disorders, what should be the anticipated treatment outcome? A. To stabilize pathology with the correct combination of medications B. To change the characteristics of the dysfunctional personality C. To reduce inflexibility of personality traits that interfere with functioning and relationships D. To decrease the prevalence of neurotransmitters at receptor sites

ANS: C The outcome of treatment for clients diagnosed with personality disorders should be to reduce inflexibility of personality traits that interfere with functioning and relationships. Personality disorders are often difficult and, in some cases, seem impossible to treat.

A nurse discovers a client's suicide note that details the time, place, and means to commit suicide. What should be the priority nursing intervention, and the rationale for this action? A. Administering lorazepam (Ativan) prn because the client is angry about the discovery of the note B. Establishing room restrictions because the client's threat is an attempt to manipulate the staff C. Placing this client on one-to-one suicide precautions because the more specific the plan, the more likely the client will attempt suicide D. Calling an emergency treatment team meeting because the client's threat must be addressed

ANS: C The priority nursing action should be to place this client on one-to-one suicide precautions, because the more specific the plan, the more likely the client will attempt suicide. The appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client would be risk for suicide.

In the emergency department, a raped client appears calm and exhibits a blunt affect. The client answers a nurse's questions in a monotone using single words. How should the nurse interpret this client's responses? A. The client may be lying about the incident. B. The client may be experiencing a silent rape reaction. C. The client may be demonstrating a controlled response pattern. D. The client may be having a compounded rape reaction.

ANS: C This client is most likely demonstrating a controlled response pattern. In a controlled response pattern, the client's feelings are masked or hidden, and a calm, composed, or subdued affect is seen. In the expressed response pattern, feelings of fear, anger, and anxiety are expressed through crying, sobbing, smiling, restlessness, and tension.

Which nursing diagnosis should a nurse identify as appropriate when working with a client diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder? A. Altered thought processes R/T increased stress B. Risk for suicide R/T loneliness C. Risk for violence: directed toward others R/T paranoid thinking D. Social isolation R/T inability to relate to others

ANS: D An appropriate nursing diagnosis when working with a client diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder is social isolation R/T inability to relate to others. Clients diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder appear cold, aloof, and indifferent to others. They prefer to work in isolation and are unsociable.

Which client statement would demonstrate a common characteristic of Cluster "B" personality disorder? A. "I wish someone would make that decision for me." B. "I built this building by using materials from outer space." C. "I'm afraid to go to group because it is crowded with people." D. "I didn't have the money for the ring, so I just took it."

ANS: D Antisocial personality disorder is included in the Cluster "B" personality disorders. In this disorder there is a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others.

A nursing student is developing a plan of care for a suicidal client. Which documented intervention should the student implement first? A. Communicate therapeutically. B. Observe the client. C. Provide a hazard-free environment. D. Assess suicide risk.

ANS: D Assessment is the first step of the nursing process to gain needed information to determine further appropriate interventions.

The family of a suicidal client is very supportive and requests more facts related to caring for their family member after discharge. Which information should the nurse provide? A. Address only serious suicide threats to avoid the possibility of secondary gain. B. Promote trust by verbalizing a promise to keep suicide attempt information within the family. C. Offer a private environment to provide needed time alone at least once a day. D. Be available to actively listen, support, and accept feelings.

ANS: D Being available to actively listen, support, and accept feelings increases the potential that a client would confide suicidal ideations to family members.

A client exhibits dependency on staff and peers and expresses fear of abandonment. Using Mahler's theory of object relations, which should the nurse expect to note in this client's childhood? A. Lack of fulfillment of basic needs by parental figures B. Absence of the client's maternal figure during symbiosis C. Difficulty establishing trust with the maternal figure D. Inconsistency by the maternal figure during individuation

ANS: D During phase 3 (5 to 36 months) of Margaret Mahler's individuation theory, there should be a strengthening of the ego and an acceptance of "self" with independent ego boundaries. Inconsistency by the maternal figure during individuation may in later years result in feelings of helplessness when the client is alone because of exaggerated fears of being unable to care for self.

A nursing instructor is teaching about suicide. Which student statement indicates that learning has occurred? A. "Suicidal threats and gestures should be considered manipulative and/or attention-seeking." B. "Suicide is the act of a psychotic person." C. "All suicidal individuals are mentally ill." D. "50% to 80% of all people who kill themselves have a history of a previous attempt."

ANS: D It is a fact that between 50% and 80% of all people who kill themselves have a history of a previous attempt. All other answer choices are myths about suicide.

The treatment team is making a discharge decision regarding a previously suicidal client. Which client assessment information should a nurse recognize as contributing to the team's decision? A. No previous admissions for major depressive disorder B. Vital signs stable; no psychosis noted C. Able to comply with medication regimen; able to problem-solve life issues D. Able to participate in a plan for safety; family agrees to constant observation

ANS: D Participation in a plan of safety and constant family observation will decrease the risk for self-harm. All other answer choices are not directly focused on suicide prevention and safety.

Which client situation should a nurse identify as reflective of the impulsive behavior that is commonly associated with borderline personality disorder? A. As the day shift nurse leaves the unit, the client suddenly hugs the nurse's arm and whispers, "The night nurse is evil. You have to stay." B. As the day shift nurse leaves the unit, the client suddenly hugs the nurse's arm and states, "I will be up all night if you don't stay with me." C. As the day shift nurse leaves the unit, the client suddenly hugs the nurse's arm, yelling, "Please don't go! I can't sleep without you being here." D. As the day shift nurse leaves the unit, the client suddenly shows the nurse a bloody arm and states, "I cut myself because you are leaving me."

ANS: D The client who states, "I cut myself because you are leaving me" reflects impulsive behavior that is commonly associated with the diagnosis of borderline personality disorder. Repetitive, self-mutilative behaviors are common and are generated by feelings of abandonment following separation from significant others.

During a one-to-one session with a client, the client states, "Nothing will ever get better," and "Nobody can help me." Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a nurse to assign to this client at this time? A. Powerlessness R/T altered mood AEB client statements B. Risk for injury R/T altered mood AEB client statements C. Risk for suicide R/T altered mood AEB client statements D. Hopelessness R/T altered mood AEB client statements

ANS: D The client's statements indicate the problem of hopelessness. Prior to assigning either risk for injury or risk for suicide a further evaluation of the client's suicidal ideations and intent would be necessary.

During an interview, which client statement indicates to a nurse that a potential diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder should be considered? A. "I really don't have a problem. My family is inflexible, and every relative is out to get me." B. "I am so excited about working with you. Have you noticed my new nail polish: 'Ruby Red Roses'?" C. "I spend all my time tending my bees. I know a whole lot of information about bees." D. "I am getting a message from the beyond that we have been involved with each other in a previous life."

ANS: D The nurse should assess that a client who states that he or she is getting a message from the beyond indicates a potential diagnosis of schizotypal personality disorder. Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder are aloof and isolated and behave in a bland and apathetic manner. The individual experiences magical thinking, ideas of reference, illusions, and depersonalization as part of daily life.

A nurse tells a client that the nursing staff will start alternating weekend shifts. Which response should a nurse identify as characteristic of clients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder? A. "You really don't have to go by that schedule. I'd just stay home sick." B. "There has got to be a hidden agenda behind this schedule change." C. "Who do you think you are? I expect to interact with the same nurse every Saturday." D. "You can't make these kinds of changes! Isn't there a rule that governs this decision?"

ANS: D The nurse should identify that a client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder would have a difficult time accepting change. This disorder is characterized by inflexibility and lack of spontaneity. Individuals diagnosed with this disorder are very serious, formal, over disciplined, perfectionistic, and preoccupied with rules.

Which teaching should the nurse in an employee assistance program provide to an employee who exhibits symptoms of domestic physical abuse? A. Have ready access to a gun and learn how to use it B. Research lawyers who can aid in divorce proceedings C. File charges of assault and battery D. Have ready access to the number of a safe house for battered women

ANS: D The nurse should provide information about safe houses for battered women when working with a client who has symptoms of domestic physical abuse. Many women feel powerless within the abusive relationship and may be staying in the abusive relationship out of fear for their lives.

A woman describes a history of physical and emotional abuse in intimate relationships. Which additional factor should a nurse suspect? A. The woman may be exhibiting a controlled response pattern. B. The woman may have a history of childhood neglect. C. The woman may be exhibiting codependent characteristics. D. The woman might be a victim of incest.

ANS: D The nurse should suspect that this client might be a victim of incest. Women in abusive relationships often grew up in abusive homes.

In planning care for a suicidal client, which correctly written outcome should be a nurse's first priority? A. The client will not physically harm self. B. The client will express hope for the future by day 3. C. The client will establish a trusting relationship with the nurse. D. The client will remain safe during the hospital stay.

ANS: D The nurse's priority should be that the client will remain safe during the hospital stay. Client safety should always be the nurse's priority. The "A" answer choice is incorrectly written. Correctly written outcomes must be client focused, measurable, realistic, and contain a time frame. Without a time frame, an outcome cannot be correctly evaluated.

A client who is in a severely abusive relationship is admitted to a psychiatric inpatient unit. The client fears for her life. A staff nurse asks, "Why doesn't she just leave him?" Which is the nursing supervisor's most appropriate reply? A. "These clients don't know life any other way, and change is not an option until they have improved insight." B. "These clients have limited KEY: Cognitive skills and few vocational abilities to be able to make it on their own." C. "These clients often have a lack of financial independence to support themselves and their children, and most have religious beliefs prohibiting divorce and separation." D. "These clients are paralyzed into inaction by a combination of physical threats and a sense of powerlessness."

ANS: D The nursing supervisor is accurate when stating that clients in severely abusive relationships are paralyzed into inaction by a combination of physical threats and a sense of powerlessness. Women often choose to stay with an abusive partner for some of the following reasons: for the children, for financial reasons, fear of retaliation, lack of a support network, religious reasons, and/or hopelessness.

The generation-to-generation continuum of violence refers to the fact that a) Children who grow up in abusive homes almost always become abusers themselves unless they have professional intervention b) Violence is a learned behavior, and children who witness abuse are more likely to become abusers themselves c) Children who grow up in an abusive home are less likely to be abusers themselves because they see first hand the devastation that violence can cause d) Violence is an innate behavior, and children become abusers because of external factors in their environment more often than in their family

Violence is a learned behavior, and children who witness abuse are more likely to become abusers themselves Explanation: Violence is a learned behavior. Many abusers were abused themselves as children; however, not all children who were abused become abusers.

Which of the following would be considered child abuse? Select all that apply. a) A caregiver intentionally is demeaning to a child. b) A caregiver allows siblings to talk inappropriately to each other. c) A caregiver lets a child participate in school activities and the child gets injured. d) A caregiver neglects a child's physical needs.

• A caregiver intentionally is demeaning to a child. • A caregiver neglects a child's physical needs. Explanation: The term child abuse has come to mean any intentional act of physical, emotional, or sexual abuse, including acts of negligence, committed by a person responsible for the care of the child.

The nurse is performing a physical examination of a 5-year-old boy. Which of the following findings would most strongly indicate maltreatment of the child? (Select all that apply.) a) Burns on the dorsal surface of the hand b) A scab on the child's elbow c) Linear lesions across the chest and abdomen d) A curved laceration on the back e) Cuts and bruises on the hands f) A bruise on the child's knee

• Cuts and bruises on the hands • Burns on the dorsal surface of the hand • A curved laceration on the back • Linear lesions across the chest and abdomen Explanation: Several injuries in children clearly signal probable child maltreatment. Children who are maltreated have a higher incidence of hand injury. Children who are beaten with electrical cords, belts, or clotheslines have peculiar circular and linear lesions. Children who are beaten with a belt buckle may have additional curved lacerations from the imprint of the buckle; few other objects produce such contusions. When children burn their hand by accident, they usually burn the palm; burns from maltreatment are often on the dorsal surface. However, it is normal for preschoolers who actively play to have bruises on multiple bony spots (shin, elbows, knees, etc.).

What are the best ways to prevent abuse in a community? Select all that apply. a) Role-model for caregivers caring behaviors with children b) Promote activities that encourage self-esteem in young adults c) Help parents and caregivers find local support in their community d) Develop and teach high school courses on parenting and normal child growth and development e) Educate those who were abused as children and offer them professional help to break the pattern of violence

• Develop and teach high school courses on parenting and normal child growth and development • Promote activities that encourage self-esteem in young adults • Role-model for caregivers caring behaviors with children • Educate those who were abused as children and offer them professional help to break the pattern of violence • Help parents and caregivers find local support in their community Explanation: All of the above are ways to reduce the risk of abuse in a community.

Which of the following would the nurse identify as indicating emotional abuse? Select all that apply. a) Throwing things at a victim b) Threatening to hit the victim c) Forcing the victim to perform a degrading act d) Calling the victim names e) Controlling how the family's money is spent f) Not allowing the victim to seek care for an injury

• Threatening to hit the victim • Forcing the victim to perform a degrading act • Calling the victim names Correct Explanation: Calling the victim names; promising, swearing, or threatening to hit the victim; and forcing the victim to perform degrading or humiliating acts are examples of emotional abuse. Throwing things at the victim is an example of physical abuse. Controlling the finances and spending is an example of financial abuse. Interfering with a victim's access to health care for injuries is an example of physical abuse.

The nurse who has experience in caring for women who have been abused knows that goals for a patient of abuse may fall into which of the following categories? (Check all that apply.) a) primary prevention b) secondary prevention c) tertiary prevention d) none of the above

• primary prevention • secondary prevention • tertiary prevention Explanation: Depending on when in the cycle of violence the nurse encounters the abused woman, goals may fall into three groups: primary, secondary and tertiary. Primary is aimed at breaking the cycle of abuse, secondary focuses on dealing with the victims and abusers in early stges with goal of preventing progression and tertiary is geared toward helping severely abused women recover and become productive members of society.

The nurse who works in a woman's health clinic correctly identifies two key objectives for 2020 National Health Goals that addresses violence against women as which of the following? (Check two.) a) reduce the annual rate of rape or attempted rape b) increase the rate of women's consumed calories c) increase the rate of women's depression d) reduce the rate of physical assault by current or former intimate partners

• reduce the annual rate of rape or attempted rape • reduce the rate of physical assault by current or former intimate partners Correct Explanation: The two objectives are to reduce the rate of physical assault by current or former intimate partners and to reduce the annual rate of rape or attempted rape. It would be desirable to decrease the rate of depression in women as well as decrease their caloric intake due to the high incidence of obesity, but this is not a goal of 2020 National Health Goals.

As part of a local college awareness program, a nurse is interviewing several of the participants about their views on rape. Which statement would lead the nurse to determine that teaching about rape is necessary?

"A woman can avoid being raped. If she doesn't want it to happen, then it won't." Correct Explanation: Women can be forced and overpowered by most men. The majority of women who are raped never tell anyone about it, and almost two thirds of victims never report it to the police. No victim invites sexual assault, and what she wears is irrelevant. It can take several years for a woman to recover from rape. Medications can help initially, but counseling is necessary.

A nurse is interviewing a client who is a survivor of abuse. The client is telling the nurse about how the violence occurred. Which statement would the nurse interpret as reflecting phase 3 of the cycle of violence? a) "He threw me against the wall and started punching my face." b) "He calls me stupid and incompetent, asking himself why he ever married me." c) "He yells at me for not having dinner waiting for him when he came home." d) "He tells me that he is sorry and that he will never hit me again."

"He tells me that he is sorry and that he will never hit me again." Correct Explanation: During phase 3 of the cycle, the perpetrator becomes kind, contrite, and loving, begging for forgiveness and promising never to inflict abuse again until the next time. The actual violence occurs in phase 2. Yelling at the client for not having dinner ready and calling her stupid and incompetent reflect phase 1 or tension building.

A woman has just confided in the nurse that her partner slapped and kicked her that morning. What is the best response by the nurse? a) "Oh my goodness, I cannot believe that happened to you. You poor thing, I feel terrible for you." b) "It's very brave of you to tell me all this. Help is available if you choose it." c) "Maybe he didn't mean to do it. Have you talked with him about it?" d) "Is this the first and only time he has done anything?"

"It's very brave of you to tell me all this. Help is available if you choose it." Correct Explanation: When talking with a woman who is a victim of intimate partner violence, it is important not to uses expressions of emotionality or judgement such as, "Oh my goodness" or "I feel terrible for you." It is also important to validate the victim's story and tell her you believe what happened. Encouraging her to say more while informing her that help is available is the best therapeutic answer.

A client is brought to the emergency department by his brother. The client is perspiring profusely, breathing rapidly, and complaining of dizziness and palpitations. Problems of a cardiovascular nature are ruled out, and the client's diagnosis is tentatively listed as a panic attack. After the symptoms pass, the client states, "I thought I was going to die." Which of the following responses by the nurse is best? 1. "It was very frightening for you." 2. "We would not have let you die." 3. "I would have felt the same way." 4. "But you're okay now."

1. The nurse responds with the statement, "It was very frightening for you," to express empathy, thus acknowledging the client's discomfort and accepting his feelings. The nurse conveys respect and validates the client's self-worth. The other statements do not focus on the client's underlying feelings, convey active listening, or promote trust.

A 3-year-old child with a history of being abused has blood drawn. The child lies very still and makes no sound during the procedure. Which of the following comments by the nurse would be most appropriate? 1. "It's okay to cry when something hurts." 2. "That really didn't hurt, did it?" 3. "We're mean to hurt you that way, aren't we?" 4. "You were very good not to cry with the needle."

1. It is not normal for a preschooler to be totally passive during a painful procedure. Typically a preschooler reacts to a painful procedure by crying or pulling away because of the fear of pain. However, an abused child may become "immune" to pain and may find that crying can bring on more pain. The child needs to learn that appropriate emotional expression is acceptable. Telling the child that it really didn't hurt is inappropriate because it is untrue. Telling the child that nurses are mean does not build a trusting relationship. Praising the child will reinforce the child's response not to cry, even though it is acceptable to do so.

The nurse is developing a long term care plan for an outpatient client diagnosed with Dissociative Identity Disorder. Which of the following should be included in this plan? Select all that apply. 1. Learning how to manage feelings, especially anger and rage. 2. Joining several outpatient support groups that are process-oriented. 3. Identifying resources to call when there is a risk of suicide or self-mutilation. 4. Selecting a method for alter personalities to communicate with each other, such as journaling. 5. Trying different medicines to find one that eliminates the dissociative process. 6. Helping each alter accept the goal of sharing and integrating all their memories.

1, 3, 4, 6. Managing suicidal thought, urges to self-mutilate and the intense anger are critical safety issues. Then the focus can switch to communication methods for each alter and the integration issues. Process groups can be overwhelming when too much is revealed or when child alters are unable to understand the group content. There are no known medicines to stop the process of dissociating.

A client is taking diazepam (Valium) for generalized anxiety disorder. Which instruction should the nurse give to this client? Select all that apply. 1. To consult with his health care provider before he stops taking the drug. 2. To avoid eating cheese and other tyramine-rich foods. 3. To take the medication on an empty stomach. 4. Not to use alcohol while taking the drug. 5. To stop taking the drug if he experiences swelling of the lips and face and difficulty breathing.

1, 4, 5. The nurse should instruct the client who is taking diazepam to take the medication as prescribed; stopping the medication suddenly can cause withdrawal symptoms. This medication is used for a short term only. The drug dose can be potentiated by alcohol and the client should not drink alcoholic beverages while taking this drug. Swelling of the lips and face and difficulty breathing are signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction. The client should stop taking the drug and seek medical assistance immediately. The client does not need to avoid eating foods containing tyramine; tyramine interacts with monoamine oxidase inhibitors, not Valium. The client can take the medication with food.

A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder reveals that he was late for his appointment "because of my dumb habit. I have to take off my socks and put them back on 41 times! I can't stop until I do it just right." The nurse interprets the client's behavior as most likely representing an effort to obtain which of the following? 1. Relief from anxiety. 2. Control of his thoughts. 3. Attention from others. 4. Safe expression of hostility.

1. A client who is exhibiting compulsive behavior is attempting to control his anxiety. The compulsive behavior is performed to relieve discomfort and to bind or neutralize anxiety. The client must perform the ritual to avoid an extreme increase in tension or anxiety even though the client is aware that the actions are absurd. The repetitive behavior is not an attempt to control thoughts; the obsession or thinking component cannot be controlled. It is not an attention-seeking mechanism or an attempt to express hostility.

The client, a veteran of the Vietnam war who has posttraumatic stress disorder, tells the nurse about the horror and mass destruction of war. He states, "I killed all of those people for nothing." Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate? 1. "You did what you had to do at that time." 2. "Maybe you didn't kill as many people as you think." 3. "How many people did you kill?" 4. "War is a terrible thing."

1. The nurse states, "You did what you had to do at that time," to help the client evaluate past behavior in the context of the trauma. Clients commonly feel guilty about past behaviors when viewing them in the context of current values. The other statements are inappropriate because they do not help the client to evaluate past behavior in the context of the trauma.

A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder arrives late for an appointment with the nurse at the outpatient clinic. During the interview, he fidgets restlessly, has trouble remembering what topic is being discussed, and says he thinks he is going crazy. Which of the following statements by the nurse best deals with the client's feelings of "going crazy?" 1. "What do you mean when you say you think you're going crazy?" 2. "Most people feel that way occasionally." 3. "I don't know you well enough to judge your mental state." 4. "You sound perfectly sane to me."

1. When the client says he thinks he is "going crazy," it is best for the nurse to ask him what "crazy" means to him. The nurse must have a clear idea of what the client means by his words and actions. Using an open-ended question facilitates client description to help the nurse assess his meaning. The other statements minimize and dismiss the client's concern and do not give him the opportunity to openly discuss his feelings, possibly leading to increased anxiety.

70. When planning care for a client who has ingested phencyclidine (PCP), which of the following is the highest priority? A. Client's physical needs B. Client's safety needs C. Client's psychosocial needs D. Client's medical needs

70. B. Client's safety needs**Rationale: The highest priority for a client who has ingested PCP is meeting safety needs of the client as well as the staff. Drug effects are unpredictable and prolonged, and the client may lose control easily. After safety needs have been met, the client's physical, psychosocial, and medical needs can be met.

71. Which outcome criteria would be appropriate for a child diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder? A. Accept responsibility for own behaviors. B. Be able to verbalize own needs and assert rights. C. Set firm and consistent limits with the client. D. Allow the child to establish his own limits and boundaries.

71A. Accept responsibility for own behaviors. **Rationale: Children with oppositional defiant disorder frequently violate the rights of others. They are defiant, disobedient, and blame others for their actions. Accountability for their actions would demonstrate progress for the oppositional child. Options C and D aren't outcome criteria but interventions. Option B is incorrect as the oppositional child usually focuses on his own needs.

1. An unemployed woman, age 24, seeks help because she feels depressed and abandoned and doesn't know what to do with her life. She says she has quit her last five jobs because her coworkers didn't like her and didn't train her adequately. Last week, her boyfriend broke up with her after she drove his car into a tree after an argument. The client's initial diagnosis is borderline personality disorder. Which nursing observations support this diagnosis? A. Flat affect, social withdrawal, and unusual dress B. Suspiciousness, hypervigilance, and emotional coldness C. Lack of self-esteem, strong dependency needs, and impulsive behavior D. Insensitivity to others, sexual acting out, and violence

1.C. Lack of self-esteem, strong dependency needs, and impulsive behavior**Rationale: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by lack of self-esteem, strong dependency needs, and impulsive behavior. Instability in interpersonal relationships, mood, and poor self-image also is common. Typically, the client can't tolerate being alone and expresses feelings of emptiness or boredom. Flat affect, social withdrawal, and unusual dress are characteristic of schizoid personality disorder. Suspiciousness, hypervigilance, and emotional coldness are seen in paranoid personality disorders. In antisocial personality disorder, clients are usually insensitive to others and act out sexually; they may also be violent

A nurse is giving a talk on violence against women to a community group and informs the attendees that violence is growing in the United States today. The nurse informs them of which alarming statistic? a) Fewer then 1/3 of all U.S. women will experience some form of physical violence in their lifetimes. b) 1/3 to 1/2 of all U.S. women will experience some form of physical violence in their lifetimes. c) 1/2 to 3/4 of all U.S. women will experience some form of physical violence in their lifetimes. d) 1/4 to 1/3 of all U.S. women will experience some form of physical violence in their lifetimes.

1/3 to 1/2 of all U.S. women will experience some form of physical violence in their lifetimes. Explanation: Statistics prove that violence against women is increasing; 1/3 to 1/2 of all U.S. women will experience some form of physical violence in their lifetimes.

10. A severely dehydrated teenager admitted to the hospital with hypotension and tachycardia undergoes evaluation for electrolyte disturbances. Her history includes anorexia nervosa and a 20-lb (9.1-kg) weight loss in the last month. She is 5′ 7" (1.7 m) tall and weighs 80 lb (36.3 kg). Which nursing intervention takes highest priority? A. Initiating caloric and nutritional therapy as ordered B. Instituting behavioral modification therapy as ordered C. Addressing the client's low self-esteem D. Regularly monitoring vital signs and weight

10. A. Initiating caloric and nutritional therapy as ordered**Rationale: The client with anorexia nervosa is at risk for death from self-starvation. Therefore, initiating caloric and nutritional therapy takes highest priority. Behavioral modification (in which client privileges depend on weight gain) and psychoanalysis (which addresses the client's low self-esteem, guilt, anxiety, and feelings of hopelessness and depression) are important aspects of care but are secondary to stabilizing the client's physical condition. Monitoring vital signs and weight is important in evaluating nutritional therapy but doesn't take precedence over providing adequate caloric intake to ensure survival

A nurse is assessing a client who is being abused. The nurse should assess the client for which characteristic? Select all that apply. 1. Assertiveness. 2. Self-blame. 3. Alcohol abuse. 4. Suicidal thoughts. 5. Guilt.

2, 3, 4, 5. The victim of abuse is usually compliant with the spouse and feels guilt, shame, and some responsibility for the battering. Self-blame, substance abuse, and suicidal thoughts and attempts are possible dysfunctional coping methods used by abuse victims. The victim of abuse is not likely to demonstrate assertiveness.

A client with acute stress disorder has avoided feelings of anger toward her rapist and cannot verbally express them. The nurse suggests which of the following activities to assist the client with expressing her feelings? 1. Working on a puzzle. 2. Writing in a journal. 3. Meditating. 4. Listening to music.

2. Writing in a journal can help the client safely express feelings, particularly anger, when the client cannot verbalize them. Safely externalizing anger by writing in a journal helps the client to maintain control over her feelings.

A client who is pacing and wringing his hands states, "I just need to walk" when questioned by the nurse about what he is feeling. Which of the following responses by the nurse is most therapeutic? 1. "You need to sit down and relax." 2. "Are you feeling anxious?" 3. "Is something bothering you?" 4. "You must be experiencing a problem now."

2. Asking, "Are you feeling anxious?" helps the client to specifically label the feeling as anxiety so that he can begin to understand and manage it. Some clients need assistance with identifying what they are feeling so they can recognize what is happening to them. Stating, "You need to sit down and relax," is not appropriate because the client needs to continue his pacing to feel better. Asking if something is bothering the client or saying that he must be experiencing a problem is vague and does not help the client identify his feelings as anxiety.

A client diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder has been taking sertraline (Zoloft) but would like to have more energy every day. At his monthly checkup, he reports that his massage therapist recommended he take St. John's Wort to help his depression. The nurse should tell the client: 1. "St. John's Wort is a harmless herb that might be helpful in this instance." 2. "Combining St. John's Wort with the Zoloft can cause a serious reaction called Serotonin Syndrome." 3. "If you take St. John's, we'll have to decrease the dose of your Zoloft." 4. "St. John's Wort isn't very effective for depression, but we can increase your Zoloft dose."

2. The effectiveness of St. John's Wort with depression is unconfirmed. The critical issue is that the combination of St. John's Wort and Zoloft (an SSRI antidepressant) can produce Serotonin Syndrome which can be fatal. The client should not take the St. John's Wort while taking Zoloft.

2. In a toddler, which of the following injuries is most likely the result of child abuse? A. A hematoma on the occipital region of the head B. A 1-inch forehead laceration C. Several small, dime-sized circular burns on the child's back D. A small isolated bruise on the right lower extremity

2. C. Several small, dime-sized circular burns on the child's back**Rationale: Small circular burns on a child's back are no accident and may be from cigarettes. Toddlers are injury prone because of their developmental stage, and falls are frequent because of their unsteady gait; head injuries aren't uncommon. A small area of ecchymosis isn't suspicious in this age-group.

79. After completing chemical detoxification and a 12-step program to treat crack addiction, a client is being prepared for discharge. Which remark by the client indicates a realistic view of the future? A. "I'm never going to use crack again." B. "I know what I have to do. I have to limit my crack use." C. "I'm going to take 1 day at a time. I'm not making any promises." D. "I will substitue crack for something else"

79. C. "I'm going to take 1 day at a time. I'm not making any promises." **Rationale: Twelve-step programs focus on recovery 1 day at a time. Such programs discourage people from claiming that they will never again use a substance, because relapse is common. The belief that one may use a limited amount of an abused substance indicates denial. Substituting one abused substance for another predisposes the client to cross-addiction.

8. Which of the following is important when restraining a violent client? A. Have three staff members present, one for each side of the body and one for the head. B. Always tie restraints to side rails. C. Have an organized, efficient team approach after the decision is made to restrain the client. D. Secure restraints to the gurney with knots to prevent escape.

8. C. Have an organized, efficient team approach after the decision is made to restrain the client. **Rationale: Emergency department personnel should use an organized, team approach when restraining violent clients so that no one is injured in the process. The leader, located at the client's head, should take charge; four staff members are required to hold and restrain the limbs. For safety reasons, restraints should be fastened to the bed frame instead of the side rails. For quick release, loops should be used instead of knots

80. The nurse is assessing a client on admission to the chemical dependency unit for alcohol detoxification. When the nurse asks about alcohol use, this client is most likely to: A. accurately describe the amount consumed. B. underestimate the amount consumed. C. overestimate the amount consumed. D. deny any consumption of alcohol.

80. B. underestimate the amount consumed. **Rationale: Most people who abuse substances underestimate their consumption in an attempt to conform to social norms or protect themselves. Few accurately describe or overestimate consumption; some may deny it. Therefore, on admission, quantitative and qualitative toxicology screens are done to validate information obtained from the client.

81. The nurse is assessing a 15-year-old female who's being admitted for treatment of anorexia nervosa. Which clinical manifestation is the nurse most likely to find? A. Tachycardia B. Warm, flushed extremities C. Parotid gland tenderness D. Coarse hair growth

81. C. Parotid gland tenderness**Rationale: Frequent vomiting causes tenderness and swelling of the parotid glands. The reduced metabolism that occurs with severe weight loss produces bradycardia and cold extremities. Soft, downlike hair (called lanugo) may cover the extremities, shoulders, and face of an anorexic client.

82. A 38-year-old client is admitted for alcohol withdrawal. The most common early sign or symptom that this client is likely to experience is: A. impending coma. B. manipulating behavior. C. suppression. D. perceptual disorders.

82. D. perceptual disorders.**Rationale: Perceptual disorders, especially frightening visual hallucinations, are very common with alcohol withdrawal. Coma isn't an immediate consequence. Manipulative behaviors are part of the alcoholic client's personality but aren't signs of alcohol withdrawal. Suppression is a conscious effort to conceal unacceptable thoughts, feelings, impulses, or acts and serves as a coping mechanism for most alcoholics.

83. The nurse is caring for an adolescent female who reports amenorrhea, weight loss, and depression. Which additional assessment finding would suggest that the woman has an eating disorder? A. Wearing tight-fitting clothing B. Increased blood pressure C. Oily skin D. Excessive and ritualized exercise

83. D. Excessive and ritualized exercise**Rationale: A client with an eating disorder will normally exercise to excess in an effort to burn as many calories as possible. The client will usually wear loose-fitting clothing to hide what she considers to be a fat body. Skin and nails become dry and brittle and blood pressure and body temperature drop from excessive weight loss.

84. A client with a history of polysubstance abuse is admitted to the facility. She complains of nausea and vomiting 24 hours after admission. The nurse assesses the client and notes piloerection, pupillary dilation, and lacrimation. The nurse suspects that the client is going through which of the following withdrawals? A. Alcohol withdrawal B. Cannibis withdrawal C. Cocaine withdrawal D. Opioid withdrawal

84. D. Opioid withdrawal**Rationale: The symptoms listed are specific to opioid withdrawal. Alcohol withdrawal would show elevated vital signs. There is no real withdrawal from cannibis. Symptoms of cocaine withdrawal include depression, anxiety, and agitation.

20. Which of the following signs should the nurse expect in a client with known amphetamine overdose? A. Hypotension B. Tachycardia C. Hot, dry skin D. Constricted pupils

20. B. Tachycardia**Rationale: Amphetamines are central nervous system stimulants. They cause sympathetic stimulation, including hypertension, tachycardia, vasoconstriction, and hyperthermia. Hot, dry skin is seen with anticholinergic agents such as jimsonweed. Pupils will be dilated, not constricted.

29. The client tells the nurse he was involved in a car accident while he was intoxicated. What would be the most therapeutic response from the nurse? A. "Why didn't you get someone else to drive you?" B. "Tell me how you feel about the accident." C. "You should know better than to drink and drive." D. "I recommend that you attend an Alcoholics Anonymous meeting." a

29. B. "Tell me how you feel about the accident."**Rationale: An open-ended statement or question is the most therapeutic response. It encourages the widest range of client responses, makes the client an active participant in the conversation, and shows the client that the nurse is interested in his feelings. Asking the client why he drove while intoxicated can make him feel defensive and intimidated. A judgmental approach isn't therapeutic. By giving advice, the nurse suggests that the client isn't capable of making decisions, thus fostering dependency.

One of the myths about sexual abuse of young children is that it usually involves physically violent acts. Which of the following behaviors is more likely to be used by the abusers? 1. Tying the child down. 2. Bribery with money. 3. Coercion as a result of the trusting relationship. 4. Asking for the child's consent for sex.

3. Coercion is the most common strategy used because the child commonly trusts the abuser. Tying the child down usually is not necessary. Typically the abusive person can control the child by his or her size and weight alone. Bribery usually is not necessary because the child wants love and affection from the abusive person, not money. Young children are not capable of giving consent for sex before they develop an adult concept of what sex is.

A client named Jana, with a long history of experiencing Dissociative Identity Disorder, is admitted to the unit after the cuts on her legs were sutured in the Emergency Department. During the admission interview, Jana tearfully states that she does not know what happened to her legs. Then a stronger, alter personality named Jason emerges. Jason states that Jana is useless, weak, and needs to be eliminated completely. The nurse should do which of the following first? 1. Explore Jason's attitudes toward Jana more thoroughly. 2. Place Jana in restraints when Jason emerges. 3. Contract with Jason to tell the nurse when he has the urge to harm Jana and the body they both share. 4. Keep Jana in a stress-free environment so that the stronger Jason does not get a chance to emerge.

3. The No Harm Contract with any destructive alters is essential along with the reminder that the alters share the same body. Later, Jason's attitudes about Jana can be explored in more depth. When alter personalities emerge, their behaviors are not predictable. Restraints could not be placed on the client soon enough. There are no behaviors to justify restraints at this point. Creating a stress-free environment is not possible.

3. A client is admitted to the emergency department after being found unconscious. Her blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg. She is 5′ 4" (1.6 m) tall, weighs 79 lb (35.8 kg), and appears dehydrated and emaciated. After regaining consciousness, she reports that she has had trouble eating lately and can't remember what she ate in the last 24 hours. She also states that she has had amenorrhea for the past year. She is convinced she is fat and refuses food. The nurse suspects that she has: A. bulimia nervosa. B. anorexia nervosa. C. depression. D. schizophrenia.

3. B. anorexia nervosa.** Rationale: Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by self-imposed starvation with subsequent emaciation, nutritional deficiencies, and atrophic and metabolic changes. Typically, the client is hypotensive and dehydrated. Depending on the severity of the disorder, anorexic clients are at risk for circulatory collapse (indicated by hypotension), dehydration, and death. Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting. Although depression may be accompanied by weight loss, it isn't characterized by a body image disturbance or the intense fear of obesity seen in anorexia nervosa. Schizophrenia may cause bizarre eating patterns, but it rarely causes the full syndrome of anorexia nervosa.

36. A client recently admitted to the hospital with sharp, substernal chest pain suddenly complains of palpitations. The nurse notes a rise in the client's arterial blood pressure and a heart rate of 144 beats/minute. On further questioning, the client admits to having used cocaine recently after previously denying use of the drug. The nurse concludes that the client is at high risk for which complication of cocaine use? A. Coronary artery spasm B. Bradyarrhythmias C. Neurobehavioral deficits D. Panic disorder

36. A. Coronary artery spasm**Rationale: Cocaine use may cause such cardiac complications as coronary artery spasm, myocardial infarction, dilated cardiomyopathy, acute heart failure, endocarditis, and sudden death. Cocaine blocks reuptake of norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine, causing an excess of these neurotransmitters at postsynaptic receptor sites. Consequently, the drug is more likely to cause tachyarrhythmias than bradyarrhythmias. Although neurobehavioral deficits are common in neonates born to cocaine users, they are rare in adults. As craving for the drug increases, a person who's addicted to cocaine typically experiences euphoria followed by depression, not panic disorder.

30. A client voluntarily admits himself to the substance abuse unit. He confesses that he drinks 1 qt or more of vodka each day and uses cocaine occasionally. Later that afternoon, he begins to show signs of alcohol withdrawal. What are some early signs of this condition? A. Vomiting, diarrhea, and bradycardia B. Dehydration, temperature above 101° F (38.3° C), and pruritus C. Hypertension, diaphoresis, and seizures D. Diaphoresis, tremors, and nervousness

30. D. Diaphoresis, tremors, and nervousness**Rationale: Alcohol withdrawal syndrome includes alcohol withdrawal, alcoholic hallucinosis, and alcohol withdrawal delirium (formerly delirium tremens). Signs of alcohol withdrawal include diaphoresis, tremors, nervousness, nausea, vomiting, malaise, increased blood pressure and pulse rate, sleep disturbance, and irritability. Although diarrhea may be an early sign of alcohol withdrawal, tachycardia — not bradycardia — is associated with alcohol withdrawal. Dehydration and an elevated temperature may be expected, but a temperature above 101° F indicates an infection rather than alcohol withdrawal. Pruritus rarely occurs in alcohol withdrawal. If withdrawal symptoms remain untreated, seizures may arise later.

The client diagnosed with a fear of eating in public places or in front of other people has finished eating lunch in the dining area in the nurse's presence. Which of the following statements by the nurse should reinforce the client's positive action? 1. "It wasn't so hard, now was it?" 2. "At supper, I hope to see you eat with a group of people." 3. "You must have been hungry today." 4. "It is progress for you to eat in the dining room with me."

4. Saying, "It's a sign of progress to eat in the dining area with me," conveys positive reinforcement and gives the client hope and confidence, thus reinforcing the adaptive behavior. Stating, "It wasn't so hard, now was it," decreases the client's self-worth and minimizes his accomplishment. Stating, "At supper, I hope to see you eat with a group of people," will overwhelm the client and increase anxiety. Stating, "You must have been hungry today," ignores the client's positive behavior and shows the nurse's lack of understanding of the dynamics of the disorder.

An adult client diagnosed with anxiety disorder becomes anxious when she touches fruits and vegetables. What should the nurse do? 1. Instruct the woman to avoid touching these foods. 2. Ask the woman why she becomes anxious in these situations. 3. Assist the woman to make a plan for her family to do the food shopping and preparation. 4. Teach the woman to use cognitive behavioral approaches to manage her anxiety.

4. Cognitive behavioral therapy is effective in treating anxiety disorders. The nurse can assist the client in identifying the onset of the fears that cause the anxiety and develop strategies to modify the behavior associated with the fears. Avoiding touching foods, asking about reasons for the anxiety, and providing ways to work around touching the foods do not deal with the anxiety and are not interventions that will help this client.

A client with acute stress disorder states to the nurse, "I keep having horrible nightmares about the car accident that killed my daughter. I shouldn't have taken her with me to the store." Which of the following responses by the nurse is most therapeutic? 1. "Don't keep torturing yourself with such horrible thoughts." 2. "Stop blaming yourself. It's only hurting you." 3. "Let's talk about something that is a bit more pleasant." 4. "The accident just happened and could not have been predicted."

4. Saying, "The accident just happened and could not have been predicted," provides the client with an objective perception of the event instead of the client's perceived role. This type of statement reflects active listening and helps to reduce feelings of blame and guilt. Saying, "Don't keep torturing yourself," or "Stop blaming yourself," is inappropriate because it tells the client what to do, subsequently delaying the therapeutic process. The statement, "Let's talk about something that is a bit more pleasant," ignores the client's feelings and changes the subject. The client needs to verbalize feelings and decrease feelings of isolation.

4. A 15-year-old girl with anorexia has been admitted to a mental health unit. She refuses to eat. Which of the following statements is the best response from the nurse? A. "You don't have to eat. It's your choice." B. "I hope you'll eat your food by mouth. Tube feedings and I.V. lines can be uncomfortable." C. "Why do you think you're fat? You're underweight. Here — look in the mirror." D. "You really look terrible at this weight. I hope you'll eat."

4. B. "I hope you'll eat your food by mouth. Tube feedings and I.V. lines can be uncomfortable."** Rationale: Clients with anorexia can refuse food to the point of cardiac damage. Tube feedings and I.V. infusions are ordered to prevent such damage. The nurse is informing her of her treatment options. Option A doesn't tell the client about the consequences of choosing not to eat. Telling clients that they are too thin won't change their self-image.

40. Which assessment finding is most consistent with early alcohol withdrawal? A. Heart rate of 120 to 140 beats/minute B. Heart rate of 50 to 60 beats/minute C. Blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg D. Blood pressure of 140/80 mm Hg

40. A. Heart rate of 120 to 140 beats/minute**Rationale: Tachycardia, a heart rate of 120 to 140 beats/minute, is a common sign of alcohol withdrawal. Blood pressure may be labile throughout withdrawal, fluctuating at different stages. Hypertension typically occurs in early withdrawal. Hypotension, although rare during the early withdrawal stages, may occur in later stages. Hypotension is associated with cardiovascular collapse and most commonly occurs in clients who don't receive treatment. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs carefully throughout the entire alcohol withdrawal process.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding emergency contraception (EC)? a) EC works by preventing fertilization, ovulation, or implantation. b) EC is most effective if it is taken within 12 hours of rape. c) EC will disrupt an established pregnancy if taken within 72 hours. d) EC simply contains the same hormones that are found in birth control pills.

EC will disrupt an established pregnancy if taken within 72 hours. Explanation: Emergency contraception will not disrupt an established pregnancy.

A nursing student studying sexual violence makes the following statement in class, "A man who has sex with his wife even though she did not want it cannot be charged with sexual abuse." Is this statement true or false? a) True b) False

False

When implementing an intervention for a woman in an abusive situation, what is the primary goal? a) For the woman to be removed from her abusive relationship b) For the woman to be able to stand up to her abuser c) For the woman to be able to care for herself d) For the woman to regain a sense of control in her life

For the woman to regain a sense of control in her life Correct Explanation: The primary goal when working with women who are victims of abuse is for them to regain a sense of control in their lives. Control over the victim's life is the primary way an abuser maintains domination in an abusive relationship.

A nurse is working with a female client who is anticipating the possibility of leaving an abusive relationship. In helping the client make the decision to leave or to stay in the abusive situation, which of the following would be most important for the nurse to do? a) Ensure that the client can effectively describe the behaviors inherent in each phase of the cycle of domestic violence b) Inform the client that if she leaves the abusive situation, there is a possibility her partner will attempt to murder her c) Suggest that the client legally change her name and move out of state so she will be safe from future harm d) Assist the client in finding a new apartment and a new job so she will be safe after she leaves her current situation

Inform the client that if she leaves the abusive situation, there is a possibility her partner will attempt to murder her Explanation: Survivors must understand the cycle of violence and the danger of homicide that increases as violence escalates or the survivor attempts to leave the relationship. Although survivors also need information about resources, such as shelters for battered women, legal services, government benefits, and support networks, the nurse needs to first discuss the possibility of the perpetrator's reaction and the possibility of extreme violence leading to death.

A patient who is abused fails to report the abuse MAINLY because of which of the following reasons? a) She feels lucky to be alive. b) She feels responsible for causing the incident. c) She does not want anyone to know. d) She thinks it will not happen again.

She feels responsible for causing the incident. Explanation: The honeymoon phase prevents many women from reporting abuse. The victim wants to believe tht her partner can really change and she feels responsible, at least in part, for causing the incident and feels responsible for her partner's well-being.

The responsibility of the nurse caring for a victim of child abuse in the emergency room would include which of the following? a) Suggesting to the attending physician that the child be admitted for observation b) Prohibiting parents from visiting until more facts are obtained c) Asking the child what was happening that led to the abuse d) Prohibiting the babysitter from staying to offer support

Suggesting to the attending physician that the child be admitted for observation Explanation: Nurses are responsible for seeing that abused children are protected from further abuse and that the abuse is reported.

Walter is an 11-year-old boy who was raised in a home where his father beat his mother on a regular basis. Which of the following statements is true regarding children being raised in a home where they have witnessed intimate partner violence? a) Female children are more likely to experience depression b) They are at increase risk for being abused c) They have higher rates of schizophrenia d) It has little impact on child functioning

They are at increase risk for being abused Correct Explanation: They demonstrate higher levels of depression and lower levels of self-esteem; these effects are pronounced in boys especially (Reynolds, et al., 2001). Children of battered women are at an increased risk for abuse. Exposure to IPV adversely affects a range of child functioning.

The generation-to-generation continuum of violence refers to the fact that a) Children who grow up in abusive homes almost always become abusers themselves unless they have professional intervention b) Violence is a learned behavior, and children who witness abuse are more likely to become abusers themselves c) Violence is an innate behavior, and children become abusers because of external factors in their environment more often than in their family d) Children who grow up in an abusive home are less likely to be abusers themselves because they see first hand the devastation that violence can cause

Violence is a learned behavior, and children who witness abuse are more likely to become abusers themselves Correct Explanation: Violence is a learned behavior. Many abusers were abused themselves as children; however, not all children who were abused become abusers.

A patient with multiple bruises comes to the clinic for treatment. She appears withdrawn and quiet when the nurse approaches her. Her husband accompanies her to the exam room and begins to answer all the questions the nurse asks the patient. What should the nurse suspect? a) The patient must be a quiet person. b) an abusive relationship c) nothing d) a loving relationship

an abusive relationship Correct Explanation: One major indicator of abuse is the hovering behavior of the male partner during a visit. The patient also has multiple bruises and is very quiet. Something is definitely going on and this scenario does not indicate a loving relationship.

A first year nursing student is learning how to differentiate between the two types of violence against women: intimate partner violence and sexual abuse. She learns that intimate partner violence includes which of the following? a) dating, cohabitating, or marital relationships b) stranger off the street c) neighbor d) working associate

dating, cohabitating, or marital relationships Correct Explanation: Intimate partner violence includes individuals who are currently in dating, cohabitating, or marital relationships, or those who have been in such relationships in the past.

A young woman who has recently been married asks a nurse at the clinic for something to calm her nerves and help her sleep. When assessing the patient the nurse suspects that the husband is abusing the patient. This is confirmed when the patient states, "My husband will not let me look for a job and when I need money he will not give it to me." This patient is suffering from which type of abuse? a) sexual b) physical c) emotional d) financial

financial Correct Explanation: Financial abuse includes preventing a woman from getting a job, sabotaging a current job, controlling how all money is spent, or failing to contribute financially.

A nurse is assessing a survivor of intimate partner violence. During the interview, the nurse determines that the survivor's partner is using power and control over the client through coercion and threats. Which client statement would lead the nurse to suspect this? a) "He tells me that he'll tell child services I'm a bad mother." b) "He always tells me that the abuse never happened." c) "He acts like he's the master of his castle and I'm his servant." d) "He tells me who I can and cannot see."

"He tells me that he'll tell child services I'm a bad mother." Correct Explanation: The statement about telling child services that the client is a bad mother reflects coercion and threats. The statement about the abuse never happening reflects power and control through minimizing, denying, and blaming. The statement about whom the client can and cannot see reflects power and control through the use of isolation. The statement about the partner being the master of his castle reflects power and control through the use of the male privilege.

A nurse is presenting a program to a church group about domestic violence. During the presentation, a member of the audience asks the nurse to explain what "intergenerational transmission of violence" means because he has seen that phrase used in the media. Which of the following responses by the nurse would be most appropriate? a) "Recent research has identified a gene that is responsible for transmission of a risk for violent behavior that is passed on from generation to generation." b) "People who are violent are that way because of the various neurochemical imbalances in their brains." c) "People who grow up in violent home situations tend to be involved in domestic violence situations as an adult." d) "Domestic violence seems to skip every other generation when it is traced in families."

"People who grow up in violent home situations tend to be involved in domestic violence situations as an adult." Correct Explanation: Violent families create an atmosphere of tension, fear, intimidation, and tremendous confusion about intimate relationships. Children in violent homes often learn violent behavior as an approved and legitimate way to solve problems, especially within intimate relationships. Social learning or intergenerational transmission of violence theory posits that children who witness violence in their homes often perpetuate violent behavior in their families as adults. Moreover, children who grow up in violent homes learn to accept violence and expect it in their own adult relationships. Neurochemical imbalances, genetics, or skipping generations are unrelated to this theory.

The nursing student is studying violence and abuse against the older woman. While researching it, she learns that laws require health care professionals to report elder or vulnerable person abuse. How many states currently have these laws? a) 32 b) 52 c) 50 d) 40

50 Correct Explanation: All fifty states have laws requiring health care professionals to report elder or vulnerable person abuse.

The nurse is caring for a group of children on the pediatric unit. The nurse should collect further data and explore the possibility of child abuse in which of the following situations? a) A 7-year-old with a spiral fracture of the humerus, which the caregiver reports was caused when the child was hit with a bat swung by a Little League teammate b) A 6-year-old with a greenstick fracture of the wrist, which the caregiver reports was caused when the child fell while ice-skating c) A 9-year-old with a compound fracture of the tibia, which the caregiver reports was caused when the child attempted a flip on a skateboard d) A 10-year-old with a simple fracture of the femur, which the caregiver reports was caused when the child fell down a set of stairs

A 7-year-old with a spiral fracture of the humerus, which the caregiver reports was caused when the child was hit with a bat swung by a Little League teammate Explanation: The bones most commonly fractured in childhood are the clavicle, femur, tibia, humerus, wrist, and fingers. The classification of a fracture reflects the kind of bone injury sustained. A spiral fracture, which twists around the bone, is frequently associated with child abuse, and is caused by a wrenching force. A greenstick fracture is one kind of incomplete fracture common in children due to incomplete ossification. When a broken bone penetrates the skin, the fracture is called compound, or open. A simple, or closed, fracture is a single break in the bone without penetration of the skin.

The nurse is talking to a female client who is a survivor of intimate partner violence. The woman relates that her husband has been told that he has the characteristics of an antisocial personality disorder. The woman also informs the nurse that her husband has an extensive criminal record. The nurse interprets this information and suspects that the woman's husband would most likely demonstrate which behavior? a) A risk for moderate to severe violence with people both within and outside his family b) Symptoms of depression along with harboring feelings of inadequacy c) Intermittent remorse for the violence and abuse that he commits d) Purposefully remain socially isolated from people other than those in his family

A risk for moderate to severe violence with people both within and outside his family Correct Explanation: The woman's husband belongs to the group of perpetrators who are generally violent and engage in moderate to severe violence, both inside and outside of the home, tend to meet criteria for antisocial personality disorder and are likely to have an extensive history of criminal behavior. These perpetrators become aggressive when they misinterpret neutral and positive emotional cues as negative and when they are unable to identify expressions of fear. Another group of perpetrators, family-only perpetrators, engage in lower severity violent behaviors and exhibit the lowest levels of psychopathology. A third group of perpetrators, those with borderline personality disorder characteristics or dysphoria, engage in moderate to severe violence and demonstrate the highest levels of emotional volatility, dependency, and psychological distress. These perpetrators have a heightened sensitivity to emotional displays that predisposes them to interpret social situations as threatening and to respond with emotional dysregulation, verbal attacks, and physical violence.

How would a nurse differentiate a client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) from a client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder? A. Clients diagnosed with OCD experience both obsessions and compulsions, and clients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder do not. B. Clients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder experience both obsessions and compulsions, and clients diagnosed with OCD do not. C. Clients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder experience only obsessions, and clients diagnosed with OCD experience only compulsions. D. Clients diagnosed with OCD experience only obsessions, and clients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder experience only compulsions.

ANS: A A client diagnosed with OCD experiences both obsessions and compulsions. Clients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder exhibit a pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control.

A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. The client is unable to concentrate, has no appetite, and is experiencing insomnia. Which should be included in this client's plan of care? A. A simple, structured daily schedule with limited choices of activities B. A daily schedule filled with activities to promote socialization C. A flexible schedule that allows the client opportunities for decision making D. A schedule that includes mandatory activities to decrease social isolation

ANS: A A client diagnosed with depression has difficulty concentrating and may be overwhelmed by activity overload or the expectation of independent decision making. A simple, structured daily schedule with limited choices of activities is more appropriate.

A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder was raised in an excessively religiously based household. Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate to address this client's underlying problem? A. Encourage the client to bring into awareness underlying sources of guilt. B. Teach the client that religious beliefs should be put into perspective throughout the life span. C. Confront the client with the irrational nature of the belief system. D. Assist the client to modify his or her belief system in order to improve coping skills.

ANS: A A client raised in an excessively religiously based household maybe at risk for experiencing guilt to the point of accepting liability in situations for which one is not responsible. The client may view himself or herself as evil and deserving of punishment leading to depression. Assisting the client to bring these feelings into awareness allows the client to realistically appraise distorted responsibility and dysfunctional guilt.

A nurse reviews the laboratory data of a client suspected of having major depressive disorder. Which laboratory value would potentially rule out this diagnosis? A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 6.2 U/mL B. Potassium (K+) level of 4.2 mEq/L C. Sodium (Na+) level of 140 mEq/L D. Calcium (Ca2+) level of 9.5 mg/dL

ANS: A According to the DSM-IV-TR, symptoms of major depressive disorder cannot be due to the direct physiological effects of a general medical condition (e.g., hypothyroidism). The diagnosis of major depressive disorder may be ruled out if the client's laboratory results indicate a high TSH level which results from a low thyroid function or hypothyroidism. In hypothyroidism, metabolic processes are slowed leading to depressive symptoms.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client taking a benzodiazepine. Which client statement would indicate a need for further follow-up instructions? A. "I will need scheduled blood work in order to monitor for toxic levels of this drug." B. "I won't stop taking this medication abruptly because there could be serious complications." C. "I will not drink alcohol while taking this medication." D. "I won't take extra doses of this drug because I can become addicted."

ANS: A The client indicates a need for additional information about taking benzodiazepines when stating the need for blood work to monitor for toxic levels. No blood work is needed when taking a short-acting benzodiazepine. The client should understand that taking extra doses of a benzodiazepine may result in addiction and that the drug should not be taken in conjunction with alcohol.

A client diagnosed with panic disorder states, "When an attack happens, I feel like I am going to die." Which is the most appropriate nursing reply? A. "I know it's frightening, but try to remind yourself that this will only last a short time." B. "Death from a panic attack happens so infrequently that there is no need to worry." C. "Most people who experience panic attacks have feelings of impending doom." D. "Tell me why you think you are going to die every time you have a panic attack."

ANS: A The most appropriate nursing reply to the client's concerns is to empathize with the client and provide encouragement that panic attacks last only a short period. Panic attacks usually last minutes but can, rarely, last hours. Symptoms of depression are also common with this disorder.

A client has a history of excessive fear of water. What is the term that a nurse should use to describe this specific phobia, and under what subtype is this phobia identified? A. Aquaphobia, a natural environment type of phobia B. Aquaphobia, a situational type of phobia C. Acrophobia, a natural environment type of phobia D. Acrophobia, a situational type of phobia

ANS: A The nurse should determine that an excessive fear of water is identified as aquaphobia which is a natural environment type of phobia. Natural environment-type phobias are fears about objects or situations that occur in the natural environment such as a fear of heights or storms.

A psychiatrist prescribes a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) for a client. Which foods should the nurse teach the client to avoid? A. Pepperoni pizza and red wine B. Bagels with cream cheese and tea C. Apple pie and coffee D. Potato chips and diet cola

ANS: A The nurse should instruct the client to avoid pepperoni pizza and red wine. Foods with high tyramine content can induce hypertensive crisis within 2 hours of ingestion. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis include severe occipital and/or temporal pounding headaches with occasional photophobia, sensations of choking, palpitations, and a feeling of "dread."

A client is prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) for acute anxiety. What client history should cause a nurse to question this order? A. History of alcohol dependence B. History of personality disorder C. History of schizophrenia D. History of hypertension

ANS: A The nurse should question a prescription of alprazolam (Xanax) for acute anxiety if the client has a history of alcohol dependence. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used in the treatment of anxiety and has an increased risk for physiological dependence and tolerance. A client with a history of substance abuse may be more likely to abuse other addictive substances and/or combine this drug with alcohol.

A nursing instructor is teaching about the medications used to treat panic disorder. Which student statement indicates that learning has occurred? A. "Clonazepam (Klonopin) is particularly effective in the treatment of panic disorder." B. "Clozapine (Clozaril) is used off-label in long-term treatment of panic disorder." C. "Doxepin (Sinequan) can be used in low doses to relieve symptoms of panic attacks." D. "Buspirone (BuSpar) is used for its immediate effect to lower anxiety during panic attacks."

ANS: A The student indicates learning has occurred when he or she states that clonazepam is a particularly effective treatment for panic disorder. Clonazepam is a type of benzodiazepine that can be abused and lead to physical dependence and tolerance. It can be used on an as-needed basis to reduce anxiety and its related symptoms.

A client is prescribed phenelzine (Nardil). Which of the following client statements should indicate to a nurse that discharge teaching about this medication has been successful? (Select all that apply.) A. "I'll have to let my surgeon know about this medication before I have my cholecystectomy." B. "Guess I will have to give up my glass of red wine with dinner." C. "I'll have to be very careful about reading food and medication labels." D. "I'm going to miss my caffeinated coffee in the morning." E. "I'll be sure not to stop this medication abruptly."

ANS: A, B, C, E The nurse should evaluate that teaching has been successful when the client states that phenelzine (Nardil) should not be taken in conjunction with the use of alcohol or foods high in tyramine and should not be stopped abruptly. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that can have negative interactions with other medications. The client needs to tell other physicians about taking MAOIs due to the risk of drug interactions.

A nurse has been caring for a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following nursing interventions would address this client's symptoms? (Select all that apply.) A. Encourage the client to recognize the signs of escalating anxiety. B. Encourage the client to avoid any situation that causes stress. C. Encourage the client to employ newly learned relaxation techniques. D. Encourage the client to cognitively reframe thoughts about situations that generate anxiety. E. Encourage the client to avoid caffeinated products.

ANS: A, C, D, E Nursing interventions that address GAD symptoms should include encouraging the client to recognize signs of escalating anxiety, to employ relaxation techniques, to cognitively reframe thoughts about anxiety-provoking situations, and to avoid caffeinated products. Avoiding situations that cause stress is not an appropriate intervention because avoidance does not help the client overcome anxiety. Stress is a component of life and is not easily evaded.

A nursing home resident has a diagnosis of dysthymic disorder. When planning care for this client, which of the following symptoms should a nurse expect the client to exhibit? (Select all that apply.) A. Sad mood on most days B. Mood rating of 2/10 for the past 6 months C. Labile mood D. Sad mood for the past 3 years after spouse's death E. Pressured speech when communicating

ANS: A, D The nurse should anticipate that a client with a diagnosis of dysthymic disorder would experience a sad mood on most days for more than 2 years. The essential feature of dysthymia is a chronically depressed mood which can have an early or late onset.

A college student has been diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following symptoms should a campus nurse expect this client to exhibit? (Select all that apply.) A. Fatigue B. Anorexia C. Hyperventilation D. Insomnia E. Irritability

ANS: A, D, E The nurse should expect that a client diagnosed with GAD would experience fatigue, insomnia, and irritability. GAD is characterized by chronic, unrealistic, and excessive anxiety and worry.

An isolative client was admitted 4 days ago with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Which nursing statement would best motivate this client to attend a therapeutic group being held in the milieu? A. "We'll go to the day room when you are ready for group." B. "I'll walk with you to the day room. Group is about to start." C. "It must be difficult for you to attend group when you feel so bad." D. "Let me tell you about the benefits of attending this group."

ANS: B A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder exhibits little to no motivation and must be firmly directed by staff to participate in therapy. It is difficult for a severely depressed client to make decisions, and this function must be temporarily assumed by the staff.

A client is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which nursing diagnosis should a nurse assign to this client to address a behavioral symptom of this disorder? A. Altered communication R/T feelings of worthlessness AEB anhedonia B. Social isolation R/T poor self-esteem AEB secluding self in room C. Altered thought processes R/T hopelessness AEB persecutory delusions D. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements R/T high anxiety AEB anorexia

ANS: B A nursing diagnosis of social isolation R/T poor self-esteem AEB secluding self in room addresses a behavioral symptom of major depressive disorder. Other behavioral symptoms include psychomotor retardation, virtually nonexistent communication, maintaining a fetal position, and no personal hygiene and/or grooming.

A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder is admitted to a psychiatric unit. The client has an elaborate routine for toileting activities. Which would be an appropriate initial client outcome during the first week of hospitalization? A. The client will refrain from ritualistic behaviors during daylight hours. B. The client will wake early enough to complete rituals prior to breakfast. C. The client will participate in three unit activities by day 3. D. The client will substitute a productive activity for rituals by day 1.

ANS: B An appropriate initial client outcome is for the client to wake early enough to complete rituals prior to breakfast. The nurse should also provide a structured schedule of activities and later in treatment begin to gradually limit the time allowed for rituals.

A client is taking chlordiazepoxide (Librium) for generalized anxiety disorder symptoms. In which situation should a nurse recognize that this client is at greatest risk for drug overdose? A. When the client has a knowledge deficit related to the effects of the drug B. When the client combines the drug with alcohol C. When the client takes the drug on an empty stomach D. When the client fails to follow dietary restrictions

ANS: B Both Librium and alcohol are central nervous system depressants. In combination, these drugs have an additive effect and can suppress the respiratory system leading to respiratory arrest and death.

A client who has been taking buspirone (BuSpar) as prescribed for 2 days is close to discharge. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of important discharge teaching? A. "I cannot drink any alcohol with this medication." B. "It is going to take 2 to 3 weeks in order for me to begin to feel better." C. "This drug causes physical dependence and I need to strictly follow doctor's orders." D. "I can't take this medication with food. It needs to be taken on an empty stomach."

ANS: B Buspar takes at least 2 to 3 weeks to be effective in controlling symptoms of depression. This is important to teach clients in order to prevent potential noncompliance due to the perception that the medication is ineffective.

A newly admitted client diagnosed with major depressive disorder states, "I have never considered suicide." Later the client confides to the nurse about plans to end it all by medication overdose. What is the most helpful nursing reply? A. "I'm glad you shared this. There is nothing to worry about. We will handle it together." B. "Bringing this up is a very positive action on your part." C. "We need to talk about the things you have to live for." D. "I think you should consider all your options prior to taking this action."

ANS: B By admitting to the staff a suicide plan, this client has taken responsibility for possible personal actions and expresses trust in the nurse. Therefore, the client may be receptive to continuing a safety plan. Recognition of this achievement reinforces this adaptive behavior.

A client admitted to the psychiatric unit following a suicide attempt is diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which behavioral symptoms should the nurse expect to assess? A. Anxiety and unconscious anger B. Lack of attention to grooming and hygiene C. Guilt and indecisiveness D. Expressions of poor self-esteem

ANS: B Lack of attention to grooming and hygiene is the only behavioral symptom presented. Depressed clients do not care enough about themselves to participate in grooming and hygiene.

A nurse is implementing a one-on-one suicide observation level with a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder. The client states, "I'm feeling a lot better so you can stop watching me. I have taken up too much of your time already." Which is the best nursing reply? A. "I really appreciate your concern but I have been ordered to continue to watch you." B. "Because we are concerned about your safety, we will continue to observe you." C. "I am glad you are feeling better. The treatment team will consider your request." D. "I will forward you request to your psychiatrist because it is his decision."

ANS: B Often suicidal clients resist personal monitoring which impedes the implementation of a suicide plan. A nurse should continually observe a client when risk for suicide is suspected.

Which nursing diagnosis would best describe the problems evidenced by the following client symptoms: avoidance, poor concentration, nightmares, hypervigilance, exaggerated startle response, detachment, emotional numbing, and flashbacks? A. Ineffective coping B. Post-trauma syndrome C. Complicated grieving D. Panic anxiety

ANS: B Post-trauma syndrome is defined as a sustained maladaptive response to a traumatic, overwhelming event. This nursing diagnosis addresses the problems experienced by clients diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder.

A nursing student questions an instructor regarding the order for fluvoxamine (Luvox) 300 mg daily for a client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which instructor reply is most accurate? A. "High doses of tricyclic medications will be required for effective treatment of OCD." B. "Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) doses, in excess of what is effective for treating depression, may be required for OCD." C. "The dose of Luvox is low due to the side effect of daytime drowsiness and nighttime insomnia." D. "The dosage of Luvox is outside the therapeutic range and needs to be questioned."

ANS: B The most accurate instructor response is that SSRI doses, in excess of what is effective for treating depression, may be required in the treatment of OCD. SSRIs have been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of OCD. Common side effects include headache, sleep disturbances, and restlessness.

A family member is seeking advice about an elderly parent who seems to worry unnecessarily about everything. The family member states, "Should I seek psychiatric help for my mother?" Which is an appropriate nursing reply? A. "My mother also worries unnecessarily. I think it is part of the aging process." B. "Anxiety is considered abnormal when it is out of proportion to the stimulus causing it and when it impairs functioning." C. "From what you have told me, you should get her to a psychiatrist as soon as possible." D. "Anxiety is a complex phenomenon and is effectively treated only with psychotropic medications."

ANS: B The most appropriate reply by the nurse is to explain to the family member that anxiety is considered abnormal when it is out of proportion and impairs functioning. Anxiety is a normal reaction to a realistic danger or threat to biological integrity or self-concept.

What is the rationale for a nurse to perform a full physical health assessment on a client admitted with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder? A. The attention during the assessment is beneficial in decreasing social isolation. B. Depression can generate somatic symptoms that can mask actual physical disorders. C. Physical health complications are likely to arise from antidepressant therapy. D. Depressed clients avoid addressing physical health and ignore medical problems.

ANS: B The nurse should determine that a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder needs a full physical health assessment because depression can generate somatic symptoms that can mask actual physical disorders. Somatization is the process by which psychological needs are expressed in the form of physical symptoms.

A client refuses to go on a cruise to the Bahamas with his spouse due to fearing that the cruise ship will sink and all will drown. Using a cognitive theory perspective, how should a nurse explain to the spouse the etiology of this fear? A. "Your spouse may be unable to resolve internal conflicts which result in projected anxiety." B. "Your spouse may be experiencing a distorted and unrealistic appraisal of the situation." C. "Your spouse may have a genetic predisposition to overreacting to potential danger." D. "Your spouse may have high levels of brain chemicals that may distort thinking."

ANS: B The nurse should explain that from a cognitive perspective the client is experiencing a distorted and unrealistic appraisal of the situation. From a cognitive perspective, fear is described as the result of faulty cognitions.

A client who has been taking fluvoxamine (Luvox) without significant improvement asks a nurse, "I heard about something called a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Can't my doctor add that to my medications?" Which is an appropriate nursing reply? A. "This combination of drugs can lead to delirium tremens." B. "A combination of an MAOI and Luvox can lead to a life-threatening hypertensive crisis." C. "That's a good idea. There have been good results with the combination of these two drugs." D. "The only disadvantage would be the exorbitant cost of the MAOI."

ANS: B The nurse should explain to the client that combining an MAOI and Luvox can lead to a life-threatening hypertensive crisis. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis include severe occipital and/or temporal pounding headaches with occasional photophobia, sensations of choking, palpitations, and a feeling of "dread."

A nursing instructor is teaching about specific phobias. Which student statement should indicate that learning has occurred? A. "These clients do not recognize that their fear is excessive and rarely seek treatment." B. "These clients have a panic level of fear that is overwhelming and unreasonable." C. "These clients experience symptoms that mirror a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)." D. "These clients experience the symptoms of tachycardia, dysphagia, and diaphoresis."

ANS: B The nursing instructor should evaluate that learning has occurred when the student knows that clients experiencing phobias have a panic level of fear that is overwhelming and unreasonable. Phobia is fear cued by a specific object or situation in which exposure to the stimuli produces an immediate anxiety response.

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of depression NOS (not otherwise specified). Which client statement would describe a somatic symptom that can occur with this diagnosis? A. "I am extremely sad, but I don't know why." B. "Sometimes I just don't want to eat because I ache all over." C. "I feel like I can't ever make the right decision." D. "I can't seem to leave the house without someone with me."

ANS: B When a client diagnosed with depression expresses physical complaints, the client is experiencing somatic symptoms. Somatic symptoms occur with depression because of a general slowdown of the entire body reflected in sluggish digestion, constipation, impotence, anorexia, difficulty falling asleep, and a wide variety of other symptoms.

A nurse is discussing treatment options with a client whose life has been negatively impacted by claustrophobia. The nurse would expect which of the following behavioral therapies to be most commonly used in the treatment of phobias? (Select all that apply.) A. Benzodiazepine therapy B. Systematic desensitization C. Imploding (flooding) D. Assertiveness training E. Aversion therapy

ANS: B, C The nurse should explain to the client that systematic desensitization and imploding are the most commonly used behavioral therapies in the treatment of phobias. Systematic desensitization involves the gradual exposure of the client to anxiety-provoking stimuli. Imploding is the intervention used in which the client is exposed to extremely frightening stimuli for prolonged periods of time.

A client who is a veteran of the Gulf War is being assessed by a nurse for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following client symptoms would support this diagnosis? (Select all that apply.) A. The client has experienced symptoms of the disorder for 2 weeks. B. The client fears a physical integrity threat to self. C. The client feels detached and estranged from others. D. The client experiences fear and helplessness. E. The client is lethargic and somnolent.

ANS: B, C, D Clients diagnosed with PTSD can experience the following symptoms: fear of a physical integrity threat to self, detachment and estrangement from others, and intense fear and helplessness. Characteristic symptoms of PTSD include re-living the traumatic event, a sustained high level of arousal, and a general numbing of responsiveness.

An individual experiences sadness and melancholia in September continuing through November. Which of the following factors should a nurse identify as most likely to contribute to the etiology of these symptoms? (Select all that apply.) A. Gender differences in social opportunities that occur with age B. Drastic temperature and barometric pressure changes C. Increased levels of melatonin D. Variations in serotonergic functioning E. Inaccessibility of resources for dealing with life stressors

ANS: B, C, D The nurse should identify drastic temperature and barometric pressure changes, increased levels of melatonin, and/or variations in serotonergic functioning as contributing to the etiology of the client's symptoms. A number of studies have examined seasonal patterns associated with mood disorders and have revealed two prevalent periods of seasonal involvement: spring (March, April, May) and fall (September, October, November).

A nurse admits an older client who is experiencing memory loss, confused thinking, and apathy. A psychiatrist suspects depression. What is the rationale for performing a mini-mental status exam? A. To rule out bipolar disorder B. To rule out schizophrenia C. To rule out senile dementia D. To rule out a personality disorder

ANS: C A mini-mental status exam should be performed to rule out senile dementia. The elderly are often misdiagnosed with senile dementia when depression is their actual diagnosis. Memory loss, confused thinking, or apathy symptomatic of dementia actually may be the result of depression.

A 75-year-old client diagnosed with a long history of depression is currently on doxepin (Sinequan) 100 mg daily. The client takes a daily diuretic for hypertension and is recovering from the flu. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse assign highest priority? A. Risk for ineffective thermoregulation R/T anhidrosis B. Risk for constipation R/T excessive fluid loss C. Risk for injury R/T orthostatic hypotension D. Risk for infection R/T suppressed white blood cell count

ANS: C A side effect of Sinequan is orthostatic hypotension. Dehydration due to fluid loss from a combination of diuretic medication and flu symptoms can also contribute to this problem, putting this client at risk for injury R/T orthostatic hypotension.

How would a nurse differentiate a client diagnosed with a social phobia from a client diagnosed with a schizoid personality disorder (SPD)? A. Clients diagnosed with social phobia can manage anxiety without medications, whereas clients diagnosed with SPD can manage anxiety only with medications. B. Clients diagnosed with SPD are distressed by the symptoms experienced in social settings, whereas clients diagnosed with social phobia are not. C. Clients diagnosed with social phobia avoid interactions only in social settings, whereas clients diagnosed with SPD avoid interactions in all areas of life. D. Clients diagnosed with SPD avoid interactions only in social settings, whereas clients diagnosed with social phobias tend to avoid interactions in all areas of life.

ANS: C Clients diagnosed with social phobia avoid interactions only in social settings, whereas clients diagnosed with SPD avoid interactions in all areas of life. Social phobia is an excessive fear of situations in which a person might do something embarrassing or be evaluated negatively by others.

How should a nurse best describe the major maladaptive client response to panic disorder? A. Clients overuse medical care due to physical symptoms. B. Clients use illegal drugs to ease symptoms. C. Clients perceive having no control over life situations. D. Clients develop compulsions to deal with anxiety.

ANS: C The major maladaptive client response to panic disorder is the perception of having no control over life situations which leads to nonparticipation in decision making and doubts regarding role performance.

A client is experiencing a severe panic attack. Which nursing intervention would meet this client's immediate need? A. Teach deep breathing relaxation exercises B. Place the client in a Trendelenburg position C. Stay with the client and offer reassurance of safety D. Administer the ordered prn buspirone (BuSpar)

ANS: C The nurse can meet this client's immediate need by staying with the client and offering reassurance of safety and security. The client may fear for his or her life and the presence of a trusted individual provides assurance of personal safety.

A depressed client reports to a nurse a history of divorce, job loss, family estrangement, and cocaine abuse. Which theoretical principle best explains the etiology of this client's depressive symptoms? A. According to psychoanalytic theory, depression is a result of anger turned inward. B. According to object-loss theory, depression is a result of abandonment. C. According to learning theory, depression is a result of repeated failures. D. According to cognitive theory, depression is a result of negative perceptions.

ANS: C The nurse should assess that this client's depressive symptoms may have resulted from repeated failures. This assessment was based on the principles of learning theory. Learning theory describes a model of "learned helplessness" in which multiple life failures cause the client to abandon future attempts to succeed.

A client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder is receiving paliperidone (Invega). Which symptoms should a nurse identify that warrant the need for this medication? A. Flat affect and anhedonia B. Persistent anorexia and 10 lb weight loss in 3 weeks C. Flashbacks of killing the enemy D. Distant and guarded relationships

ANS: C The nurse should identify that a client who has flashbacks of killing the enemy may need paliperidone (Invega). Paliperidone is an antipsychotic medication that can be used to treat the psychotic symptom of flashbacks.

Which treatment should a nurse identify as most appropriate for clients diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? A. Long-term treatment with diazepam (Valium) B. Acute symptom control with citalopram (Celexa) C. Long-term treatment with buspirone (BuSpar) D. Acute symptom control with ziprasidone (Geodon)

ANS: C The nurse should identify that an appropriate treatment for clients diagnosed with GAD is long-term treatment with buspirone. Buspirone is an anxiolytic medication that is effective in 60% to 80% of clients with GAD. It takes 10 to 14 days for alleviation of symptoms but does not have the dependency concerns of other anxiolytics.

A nurse has been caring for a client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder. What short-term, realistic, correctly written outcome should be included in this client's plan of care? A. The client will have no flashbacks. B. The client will be able to feel a full range of emotions by discharge. C. The client will not require zolpidem (Ambien) to obtain adequate sleep by discharge. D. The client will refrain from discussing the traumatic event.

ANS: C The nurse should include obtaining adequate sleep without zolpidem (Ambien) by discharge as a realistic outcome for this client. Having no flashbacks and experiencing a full range of emotions are long-term not short-term outcomes for this client. Clients are encouraged to discuss the traumatic event.

A college student is unable to take a final examination due to severe test anxiety. Instead of studying, the student relieves stress by attending a movie. Which priority nursing diagnosis should a campus nurse assign for this client? A. Noncompliance R/T test taking B. Ineffective role performance R/T helplessness C. Altered coping R/T anxiety D. Powerlessness R/T fear

ANS: C The priority nursing diagnosis for this client is altered coping R/T anxiety. The nurse should assist in implementing interventions that should improve the client's healthy coping skills and reduce anxiety.

What client information does a nurse need to assess prior to initiating medication therapy with phenelzine (Nardil)? A. The client's understanding of the need for regular blood work B. The client's mood and affect score, using the facility's mood scale C. The client's cognitive ability to understand information about the medication D. The client's access to a support network willing to participate in treatment

ANS: C There are many dietary and medication restrictions when taking Nardil. A client must have the cognitive ability to understand information about the medication and which foods, beverages, and medications to eliminate when taking Nardil.

A client diagnosed with generalized anxiety states, "I know the best thing for me to do now is to just forget my worries." How should the nurse evaluate this statement? A. The client is developing insight. B. The client's coping skills are improving. C. The client has a distorted perception of problem resolution. D. The client is meeting outcomes and moving toward discharge.

ANS: C This client has a distorted perception of how to deal with the problem of anxiety. Clients should be encouraged to openly deal with anxiety and recognize the triggers that precipitate anxiety responses.

The nurse is providing counseling to clients diagnosed with major depressive disorder. The nurse chooses to assess and attempt to modify the negative thought patterns of these clients. The nurse is functioning under which theoretical framework? A. Psychoanalytic theory B. Interpersonal theory C. Cognitive theory D. Behavioral theory

ANS: C When a nurse assesses and attempts to modify negative thought patterns related to depressive symptoms, the nurse is using a cognitive theory framework.

Sertraline (Zoloft) has been prescribed for a client complaining of poor appetite, fatigue, and anhedonia. Which consideration should the nurse recognize as influencing this prescriptive choice? A. Zoloft is less expensive for the client. B. Zoloft is extremely sedating and will help with sleep disturbances. C. Zoloft has less adverse side effects than other antidepressants. D. Zoloft begins to improve depressive symptoms quickly.

ANS: C Zoloft is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that has a relatively benign side effect profile as compared with other antidepressants.

A nurse is planning care for a child who is experiencing depression. Which medication is approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the treatment of depression in children and adolescents? A. Paroxetine (Paxil) B. Sertraline (Zoloft) C. Citalopram (Celexa) D. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

ANS: D Fluoxetine (Prozac) is FDA approved for the treatment of depression in children and adolescents. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) used in the treatment of depression. All antidepressants carry an FDA warning for increased risk of suicide in children and adolescents.

A nurse is caring for four clients taking various medications including imipramine (Tofranil), doxepine (Sinequan), ziprasidone (Geodon), and tranylcypromine (Parnate). The nurse orders a special diet for the client receiving which medication? A. Tofranil B. Senequan C. Geodon D. Parnate

ANS: D Hypertensive crisis occurs in clients receiving monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) who consume foods or drugs high in tyramine content.

A client diagnosed with seasonal affective disorder (SAD) states, "I've been feeling 'down' for 3 months. Will I ever feel like myself again?" Which reply by the nurse will best assess this client's symptoms. A. "Have you been diagnosed with any physical disorder within the last 3 months?" B. "Have you experienced any traumatic events that triggered this mood change?" C. "People who have seasonal mood changes often feel better when spring comes." D. "Help me understand what you mean when you say, 'feeling down'?"

ANS: D The nurse is using a clarifying statement in order to gather more details related to this client's mood. The diagnosis of SAD is not associated with a traumatic event.

A nurse assesses a client suspected of having major depressive disorder. Which client symptom would eliminate this diagnosis? A. The client is disheveled and malodorous. B. The client refuses to interact with others. C. The client is unable to feel any pleasure. D. The client has maxed-out charge cards and exhibits promiscuous behaviors.

ANS: D The nurse should assess that a client who has maxed-out credit cards and exhibits promiscuous behavior would be exhibiting manic symptoms. According to the DSM-IV-TR, these symptoms would rule out the diagnosis of major depressive disorder.

A client is newly diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder and spends 45 minutes folding clothes and rearranging them in drawers. Which nursing intervention would best address this client's problem? A. Distract the client with other activities whenever ritual behaviors begin. B. Report the behavior to the psychiatrist to obtain an order for medication dosage increase. C. Lock the room to discourage ritualistic behavior. D. Discuss the anxiety-provoking triggers that precipitate the ritualistic behaviors.

ANS: D The nurse should discuss with the client the anxiety-provoking triggers that precipitate the ritualistic behavior. If the client is going to be able to avoid the anxiety, he or she must first learn to recognize precipitating factors. Attempting to distract the client, seeking medication increase, and locking the client's room are not appropriate interventions because they do not help the client recognize anxiety triggers.

A client diagnosed with an obsessive-compulsive disorder spends hours bathing and grooming. During a one-on-one interaction, the client discusses the rituals in detail but avoids any feelings that the rituals generate. Which defense mechanism should the nurse identify? A. Sublimation B. Dissociation C. Rationalization D. Intellectualization

ANS: D The nurse should identify that the client is using the defense mechanism of intellectualization when discussing the rituals of obsessive-compulsive disorder in detail while avoiding discussion of feelings. Intellectualization is an attempt to avoid expressing emotions associated with a stressful situation by using the intellectual processes of logic, reasoning, and analysis.

How would a nurse differentiate a client diagnosed with panic disorder from a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? A. GAD is acute in nature, and panic disorder is chronic. B. Chest pain is a common GAD symptom, whereas this symptom is absent in panic disorders. C. Hyperventilation is a common symptom in GAD and rare in panic disorder. D. Depersonalization is commonly seen in panic disorder and absent in GAD.

ANS: D The nurse should recognize that a client diagnosed with panic disorder experiences depersonalization, whereas a client diagnosed with GAD would not. Depersonalization refers to being detached from oneself when experiencing extreme anxiety.

A cab driver, stuck in traffic, suddenly is lightheaded, tremulous, diaphoretic, and experiences tachycardia and dyspnea. An extensive workup in an emergency department reveals no pathology. Which medical diagnosis is suspected, and what nursing diagnosis takes priority? A. Generalized anxiety disorder and a nursing diagnosis of fear B. Altered sensory perception and a nursing diagnosis of panic disorder C. Pain disorder and a nursing diagnosis of altered role performance D. Panic disorder and a nursing diagnosis of anxiety

ANS: D The nurse should suspect that the client has exhibited signs/symptoms of a panic disorder. The priority nursing diagnosis should be anxiety. Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent, sudden onset panic attacks in which the person feels intense fear, apprehension, or terror.

A confused client has recently been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). The client's spouse is taking paroxetine (Paxil). The client presents with restlessness, tachycardia, diaphoresis, and tremors. What complication does a nurse suspect and what could be its possible cause? A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome caused by ingestion of two different seratonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome caused by ingestion of an SSRI and a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) C. Serotonin syndrome caused by ingestion of an SSRI and an MAOI D. Serotonin syndrome caused by ingestion of two different SSRIs

ANS: D The nurse should suspect that the client is suffering from serotonin syndrome possibly caused by ingesting two different SSRIs (Zoloft and Paxil). Symptoms of serotonin syndrome include confusion, agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, nausea, abdominal pain, myoclonus, muscle rigidity, fever, sweating, and tremor.

When providing care to a victim of abuse, which of the following would the nurse do? a) Make the decisions for the woman. b) Provide an overview of the procedures to be done. c) Allow the woman to participate in her care. d) Take the lead in providing the interventions quickly.

Allow the woman to participate in her care. Correct Explanation: Active participation in care is critical because it promotes feelings of control. The victim should be allowed to actively participate in her care and decision making. The nurse should offer step-by-step explanations of procedures to alleviate her fears and to demonstrate a caring attitude. The nurse should let the woman set the pace of the nursing interventions.

When teaching a group of students about the cycle of violence, which behavior would the nurse describe as eventually disappearing as the violence becomes accelerated over time? a) Apologies for the pain and abuse b) Denial of the seriousness of the injuries c) Excessive hostility and friction d) Loss of control

Apologies for the pain and abuse Correct Explanation: As the violence increases in frequency and severity over time, the honeymoon phase gradually shortens and eventually disappears altogether. The abuser no longer feels the need to apologize and indulge in a honeymoon phase as the woman becomes increasingly disempowered by the relationship.

A nurse is performing a physical examination of a pregnant woman. As she is examining her, she notices a bruise on her abdomen. Which of the following should the nurse do? a) Ask the client to account for the bruise b) Make a note in the patient's chart regarding the finding and plan to observe for other signs of abuse in the future c) Assume that the bruise is from intimate partner violence and call the police while the patient is still with you d) Assume that the bruise is from an accident and not worry about it

Ask the client to account for the bruise Correct Explanation: As many as 20% to 30% of women seen in emergency departments are there because they have been maltreated by their intimate partner. Common injuries suffered include burns, lacerations, bruises, and head injuries. Asking all women at physical examinations to account for any bruise they have helps detect physical maltreatment. The nurse should not assume that the bruise is just the result of an accident or that it is the result of intimate partner violence; she should question the client to learn more. Depending on how the client responds, it may be appropriate to make a note in the patient's chart or to take some other action to help protect the client.

A nurse suspects that a 6-year-old girl is being sexually maltreated by her father, based on some comments made by the girl. Which of the following methods would be most effective in confirming the nurse's suspicion? a) Assess the girl for unexplained fractured bones b) Ask the girl's mother what she knows of the father's activities c) Check for any sexual perpetrators listed in the area under Megan's law d) Ask the girl to draw a picture of what happened

Ask the girl to draw a picture of what happened Correct Explanation: Incest is sexual activity between family members. Asking the child to draw a picture of what happened may be an effective way of revealing sexual maltreatment. Incest results in a destructive relationship because it causes a great deal of guilt and loss of self-esteem in both the abusing and the maltreated person. Other members of the family are likely to suspect the maltreatment is occurring but are helpless to do anything about it; this leads to guilt and feelings of worthlessness on their part for not being able to protect the victim. Thus, the child's mother may not reveal anything when questioned by the nurse due to guilt or fear. Sexual maltreatment does not always involve physical maltreatment, such as would result in fractures. The father may not be listed as a sexual perpetrator.

A pregnant client and her husband are at their first prenatal visit. While performing the admission history, the nurse notes several new and old bruises on the woman's neck and body. She is silent and withdrawn. The husband answers all the questions. Based on these observations, the nurse suspects intimate partner violence. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing intervention at this time? a) Ask the husband to wait in the lobby while the client is being examined. b) Ask the couple if they would like to see a social worker. c) Ask the woman if she would like her husband to wait outside in the lobby. d) Ask the husband if he feels the client has been depressed throughout the pregnancy.

Ask the husband to wait in the lobby while the client is being examined. Correct Explanation: Abusers commonly isolate their partners to maintain control. Pregnancy and birth are trigger points for intimate partner abuse, because they may cause abusers to experience a sense of loss of control. The health care visit may be the only opportunity a victim has to communicate her problems to others. It is important to assess the woman apart from the potential abuser to further explore the suspicions. Asking the potential abuser to wait in another room helps the nurse achieve this goal. It is not appropriate to direct questions toward the husband; by doing so, the nurse may imply a lack of support for the woman. It is not appropriate to consult a social worker at this stage and may encourage further abuse if the abuser suspects that the woman may have disclosed this type of information. Asking the woman if she would like the spouse to wait outside may shut down the opportunity out of her fear of being disloyal.

A nurse is assigned to care for a hospitalized 14 year old with gastroenteritis. The teen tells the nurse that a brother ran away about 2 months ago and hasn't been heard from since, a sister has a substance abuse problem, and both parents are fighting. What type of situation is this family displaying? a) Impaired parenting b) Child neglect c) Dysfunctional dynamics d) Child abuse

Dysfunctional dynamics Correct Explanation: A dysfunctional family that cannot resolve and work through stresses in a positive, socially acceptable manner. Families often face multiple pressures at the same time; this dynamic creates additional stress and adds to the risk of dysfunctional coping.

Which type of elder abuse involves harm of self-worth? a) Neglect b) Abandonment c) Physical d) Emotional

Emotional Correct Explanation: The six types of elder abuse are physical (injury by hitting, kicking, pushing, slapping, burning, and so on), sexual (unconsented sexual act), emotional (harm of self-worth or emotional well-being), neglect (failure to meet the older adult's basic needs of shelter, food, and so on), abandonment (leaving an older adult alone and no longer providing care), and financial (illegally misusing money, property, or assets).

A nurse is assessing a boy who was recently found to have been molested by a neighbor. Which of the following characteristics is most likely in a pedophile? a) Violent b) Emotional fixation at a childhood level c) Physically abusive d) Homosexual

Emotional fixation at a childhood level Correct Explanation: Molestation is a vague term that includes "indecent liberties" such as oral-genital contact, genital fondling and viewing, or masturbation. A pedophile is an adult who seeks out prepubescent children (Tanner stage 0-1, usually under age 12 years) for sexual gratification, whereas a hebephile seeks out pubescent children (Tanner stage 1-4, usually age 11 to 15). In contrast to a rapist, whose crime is violent, both pedophiles and hebephiles may be very gentle and limit the involvement to molestation. The relationship may involve people with either homosexual or heterosexual orientations. Rehabilitation of pedophiles/hebephiles is difficult because they are fixated emotionally at a childhood level (seeing themselves as children, they do not perceive relationships with children as wrong).

A nurse is assessing a boy who was recently found to have been molested by a neighbor. Which of the following characteristics is most likely in a pedophile? a) Emotional fixation at a childhood level b) Physically abusive c) Homosexual d) Violent

Emotional fixation at a childhood level Explanation: Molestation is a vague term that includes "indecent liberties" such as oral-genital contact, genital fondling and viewing, or masturbation. A pedophile is an adult who seeks out prepubescent children (Tanner stage 0-1, usually under age 12 years) for sexual gratification, whereas a hebephile seeks out pubescent children (Tanner stage 1-4, usually age 11 to 15). In contrast to a rapist, whose crime is violent, both pedophiles and hebephiles may be very gentle and limit the involvement to molestation. The relationship may involve people with either homosexual or heterosexual orientations. Rehabilitation of pedophiles/hebephiles is difficult because they are fixated emotionally at a childhood level (seeing themselves as children, they do not perceive relationships with children as wrong).

Which of the following are biologic indicators of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a) A feeling of unreality about oneself b) Auditory hallucinations c) Memory difficulties d) Flashbacks

Flashbacks Explanation: Biologic indicators, such as elevated pulse and blood pressure, sleep and appetite disturbances, exaggerated startle responses, flashbacks, and nightmares, may suggest PTSD or depression. Signs and symptoms of dissociation include memory difficulties, a feeling of unreality about oneself or events, a feeling that a familiar place is strange and unfamiliar, auditory and visual hallucinations, and evidence of having done things without remembering them.

On a follow-up visit, a woman who was a victim of rape states that she has joined a rape survivor advocacy group. The nurse interprets this as indicating that the woman is in which phase of rape recovery? a) Reorganization b) Denial c) Integration and recovery d) Disorganization

Integration and recovery Correct Explanation: During the disorganization phase, the woman typically experiences shock, fear, disbelief, anger, shame, guilt, and feelings of uncleanliness. During denial, the woman appears outwardly composed and returns to work or school but refuses to discuss the assault and denies the need for counseling. During the reorganization phase, the woman attempts to make life adjustments by moving or changing jobs and uses emotional distancing to cope. During integration and recovery, the woman begins to feel safe and starts to trust others. She also may become an advocate for other rape victims.

A mother brings her 10-year-old daughter in and tells the nurse that she believes the child has a brain tumor and quickly runs through a list of some classic symptoms associated with brain cancer. On examination and after performing routine blood work, however, the nurse finds nothing wrong with the child. The child says that she feels fine. When the nurse reviews the patient's chart, she finds that this is the sixth time the mother has brought the girl in for various serious conditions in the past 6 months. Which of the following situations does the nurse suspect? a) Physical neglect b) Psychological maltreatment c) Failure to thrive d) Munchausen syndrome by proxy

Munchausen syndrome by proxy Correct Explanation: Munchausen syndrome by proxy refers to a parent who repeatedly brings a child to a health care facility and reports symptoms of illness when, in fact, the child is well. For example, a parent might report symptoms such as seizures, excessive sleepiness, or abdominal pain in a child. Because of these symptoms, the child is submitted to needless diagnostic procedures or therapeutic regimens. There is no evidence of psychological maltreatment, physical neglect, or failure to thrive in this case.

In caring for a child who has been admitted after being sexually abused, which of the following interventions would be included in the child's plan of care? a) Test the urine for glucose upon admission b) Observe for signs of anxiety c) Encourage frequent family visits d) Weigh on the same scale each day

Observe for signs of anxiety Correct Explanation: The child who has been sexually abused may exhibit anxiety, acts of aggression or hostility, or have physical complaints regarding various aches and pains, gastrointestinal upsets, changes in bowel and bladder habits (including enuresis), or nightmares. In cases of incest it is important that the perpetrator not be allowed to visit the child. Weighing the child and testing urine for glucose are not indicated for a child who has been sexually abused.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding intimate partner violence? a) Women who are in an abusive relationship experience less abuse while they are pregnant. b) One in four women will be a victim of violence. c) Even though women seldom blame themselves for the abuse, they often cannot leave the relationship. d) Abusers often have outward signs that they are abusers or have a mental illness.

One in four women will be a victim of violence. Explanation: Approximately 20% to 30% of women will be a victim of violence. Women experience an increase in violence during pregnancy. Abusers often have no outward signs that they are abusers or have a mental illness. Women usually blame themselves and feel they cannot leave the relationship.

A pregnant client discloses to the nurse that she has been abused by her husband for the past 4 years. Which of the following is true regarding violence against pregnant women? a) Partner abuse may increase during pregnancy. b) Partner abuse in pregnant women is rare. c) Alcohol and substance abuse always cause abusive behavior. d) It occurs most frequently in lower socioeconomic and minority groups.

Partner abuse may increase during pregnancy. Correct Explanation: Pregnancy and birth are trigger points for intimate partner abuse (IPA), because the abuser may experience a sense of loss of control. During pregnancy, the mother and fetus take priority, and the abuser attempts to maintain or regain control by abusing the woman. IPA occurs in families of all social, economic, educational, racial, and religious backgrounds. Many women experience IPA; it is a common problem. Substance abuse and violence against women are two separate problems. Substance abuse is a disease, but violence is a learned behavior. Alcohol and drugs do not always lead to abuse.

A nurse is performing a routine physical for a 7-year-old girl who is thin, unwashed, and dressed in rags. Although it is winter time, she has no coat with her. Her teenaged brother in the waiting room, however, is dressed in trendy clothes and looks healthy and well-fed. Which of the following should the nurse most strongly suspect regarding this girl? a) Physical maltreatment b) Sexual maltreatment c) Psychological maltreatment d) Physical neglect

Physical neglect Correct Explanation: Physical neglect is a more subtle form of maltreatment than physical maltreatment, but it can be just as damaging to a child's welfare. A neglected child may appear unwashed, thin, and malnourished or be dressed inappropriately, such as without mittens, a coat, or shoes in cold weather. In some families, no one has a warm coat to wear or receive enough food because there is no money for these things; that is different from the family in which parents do have these things, but the children or one particular child does not. There is no evidence in this scenario of physical, sexual, or psychological maltreatment, although they could be present.

Which of the following is not linked to domestic violence in pregnancy? a) Placental abruption b) Psychological disorders c) Delayed prenatal care d) Substance abuse e) Post-term deliveries

Post-term deliveries

Nurses sometimes have difficulty assessing women for violence. Which of the following refers to the screen protocol to use to be the most thorough? a) The SBAR model b) The RACE model c) The SAVE model d) The FACE model

The SAVE model Explanation: The SAVE model is a screening protocol that nurses can use when assessing women for violence. It stands for screen, ask, validate and evaluate. The SBAR is a reporting tool used by nurses when handing off patients. The FACE model is a pain scale used to evaluate pain in children. The RACE model is used when there is a fire.

The nurse is assisting with a physical exam on a child who has been admitted with a diagnosis of possible child abuse. Which of the following findings might alert the nurse to this possibility that the child may have been abused? a) The child has bruises on the knees and elbows. b) The child has a fractured bone. c) The child is hyperactive and angry. d) The child has a burn that has not been treated.

The child has a burn that has not been treated. Correct Explanation: Burns are a common type of injury seen in the abused child. Although burns may be accidental in young children, certain types of burns are highly suspicious. Cigarette burns, or burns from immersion of a hand in hot liquid, from a hot register (as evidenced by the grid pattern), from a steam iron, or from a curling iron are common abuse injuries. Caregivers have been known to immerse the buttocks of a child in hot water if they thought the child was uncooperative in toilet training. Children often injure themselves and may have fractured bones or bruises on knees and elbows that are not from child abuse. Hyperactivity and anger are not physical signs of child abuse; they are emotional signs.

A young mother brings her 6-month-old in for an examination, appearing listless and inattentive of her child. She sets the child in the floor and reads and sends text messages on her phone. The child appears underweight and lethargic. Which finding would confirm the nurse's suspicion that this child is experiencing failure to thrive? a) The child cries when the nurse picks her up b) The child rests her head on the nurse's shoulder and cuddles with her after the examination c) The child is below the fifth percentile for weight and height d) The child resists when the nurse takes her vital signs

The child is below the fifth percentile for weight and height Explanation: Failure to thrive is a unique syndrome in which an infant falls below the 5th percentile for weight and height on a standard growth chart or is falling in percentiles on a growth chart. Such a child would more likely exhibit a lack of resistance to the examiner's manipulation and a lack of cuddling or conforming to being held. Crying when being picked up by a stranger is normal for an infant, and not a sign of failure to thrive.

Which of the following is an example of Screening using the SAVE model? a) The nurse states "I believe you and I'm here to help." b) The nurse provides the patient with a 24/7 abuse hotline number c) The patient states "My sister lives near here and says I can stay with her." d) The nurse asks "Do you feel you are in control of your life?"

The nurse asks "Do you feel you are in control of your life?"

Which of the following situations should the nurse investigate further for suspected intimate partner violence? a) The patient states "I let my husband control our finances, I am really bad with money." b) The significant other has not attended any prenatal visits with the patient c) The patient is experiencing labor pain and the significant other has not left her side d) The patient consistently looks at the significant other before answering any questions

The patient consistently looks at the significant other before answering any questions

Which of the following is FALSE regarding screening for intimate partner violence in women? a) An elderly female may be a victim of intimate partner violence. b) Screening should be routinely done at every visit. c) Although women who are abused may exhibit certain behavior patterns, all women should be screened for intimate partner violence. d) Women tend to fit a profile of abuse, and victims tend to share similar physical characteristics.

Women tend to fit a profile of abuse, and victims tend to share similar physical characteristics. Correct Explanation: Women do not typically fit a physical profile, and any woman can be a victim of abuse. Therefore, all women, even elderly women, should be screened at every visit.

The nurse has learned that the number one factor that will motivate a woman to escape an abusive relationship is which of the following? a) fear of harm to her unborn child b) fear of death c) fear of harm to herself d) fear of harm to other family members

fear of harm to her unborn child Correct Explanation: Frequently, the fear of harm to her unborn child will motivate a woman to escape an abusive relationship.

When a pregnant patient is abused during her pregnancy what complication is likely to occur after delivery due to the abuse? a) low birth weight b) post-partum depression c) edema d) schizophrenia

post-partum depression Correct Explanation: Several studies have confirmed the relationship between abuse and poor mental health, especially depression. For the pregnant woman, this most often manifests itself as post-partum depression.

A 5-year-old girl is being admitted with a possible diagnosis of child abuse. The child has bruises in various places on her body that the caregiver attributes to the child recently beginning to play soccer. Bruises associated with child abuse would likely be found in which of the following areas of the body? a) knees b) thighs c) elbows d) forehead

thighs Correct Explanation: Bruises that occur in areas of soft tissue, such as the abdomen, buttocks, genitalia, thighs, and mouth, may be suspect of child abuse.

If the following data was collected on a group of children, which of the following would most likely be evaluated as possibly related to child abuse? Select all that apply. a) A child whose blood work shows evidence of anemia. b) A child who has chronic nausea and diarrhea. c) A child whose X-ray shows bone fractures in various stages of healing. d) A child whose CT scan shows a cerebral hemorrhage. e) A child who has a spiral fracture in the femur.

• A child whose X-ray shows bone fractures in various stages of healing. • A child whose CT scan shows a cerebral hemorrhage. • A child who has a spiral fracture in the femur. Correct Explanation: Signs or possible evidence of child abuse can be further evaluated by the use of technology. On a radiograph, bone fractures in various stages of healing may be noted. Spiral fractures of the long bones of a young child are not common, and their presence might indicate possible abuse. Children who have been harshly shaken may not show a clear picture of abuse, but computed tomography may demonstrate cerebral edema or cerebral hemorrhage.

A community health nurse is speaking at a local Chamber of Commerce luncheon on women's issues related to abuse. Some of the myths about violence that she needs to address are which of the following? (Check all that apply.) a) Women provoke their partners to abuse them. b) Battering of women occur only in lower socioeconomic classes. c) Violence occurs to only a small percentage of women. d) Women stay in the abused relationship because they feel they have no options. e) Substance abuse causes the violence.

• Women provoke their partners to abuse them. • Battering of women occur only in lower socioeconomic classes. • Violence occurs to only a small percentage of women. • Substance abuse causes the violence. Correct Explanation: Common nyths about violence that the nurse needs to denounce refute include that battering of women occurs in lower socioeconomic classes, that substance abuse causes the violence, that violence occurs to only a small percentage of women, and that women provoke their partners to abuse them. The statement that women stay in an abused relationship because they feel they have no options is factual.

The nurse who counsels women who suffer from abuse understands that abuse can come in different forms that include which of the following? (Check all that apply.) a) financial abuse b) sexual abuse c) spiritual abuse d) physical abuse e) emotional abuse

• financial abuse • sexual abuse • physical abuse • emotional abuse Correct Explanation: Abusers may use whatever it takes to controp a situation-from emotional abuse to physical assault. The different types of abuse include emotional, physical, financial, and sexual. Although a person could put down someone's religion and/or keep them from worshipping, there is not a distinct abuse labeled as spiritual abuse at this time.

The nursing instructor is teaching about violence and informs the students that its three cycles and include which of the following? (Check three.) a) courting phase b) tension-building phase c) pre-honeymoon phase d) honeymoon phase e) acute battering phase

• tension-building phase • honeymoon phase • acute battering phase Correct Explanation: In an abusive relationship, the cycle of violence comprises 3 distinct phases: the tension building phase, the acute battering phase, and the honeymoon phase.