227 Anatomy and Physiology Chapter 27
16) Which of the following glands are responsible for 70% of the synthesis of semen? A) the seminal vesicles B) the bulbourethral glands C) the prostate D) the pituitary
A
20) If gametes were diploid like somatic cells, how many chromosomes would the zygote contain? A) Twice the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to double and normal development could not occur. B) Triple the diploid number, and with every succeeding generation, the chromosome number would continue to triple and normal development would not occur. C) Half the diploid number with no change in development. D) There is no relationship between gametes and somatic cells.
A
24) Which of the following female structures is homologous to the male scrotum? A) labia majora B) labia minora C) clitoris D) vagina
A
33) Which of the choices below is not a function of the vagina? A) serves as a passageway for the primary oocyte B) serves as a passageway for menstrual flow C) serves as the birth canal D) receives semen from the penis during sexual intercourse
A
47) Which hormone is the necessary trigger for ovulation to occur? A) LH B) FSH C) progesterone D) estrogen
A
49) Select the correct statement about testosterone control. A) GnRH from the hypothalamus causes FSH and LH release from the anterior pituitary. B) FSH stimulates testicular production of testosterone. C) Inhibin and testosterone exert positive feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary. D) The pineal gland is believed to be the gland that exerts the most influence in testosterone control.
A
7) During spermiogenesis ________. A) the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic enzymes will be needed for penetration when the sperm contacts the egg during fertilization B) the acrosome migrates towards the posterior end of the spermatid because its hydrolytic enzymes will be needed for digestion of the excessive cytoplasm around the flagella of the developing sperm C) the acrosome migrates towards the anterior end of the spermatid because its pointy shape helps the sperm to move more efficiently D) the acrosome migrates towards the posterior end of the spermatid because of its ability to propel the flagella moving the sperm through the female reproductive system towards the egg
A
Using Figure 27.1, match the following: Stem cell.
A
Using Figure 27.2, match the following: 7) Location of mitochondria.
A
Using Figure 27.2, match the following: 8) Midpiece.
A
Using Figure 27.3, match the following: Primordial follicle.
A
11) The oral contraceptive pill, informally called "the pill" contains an estrogen and progesterone or a synthetic mimic of this hormone. The combination of these two hormones taken in the pill and circulating in the blood work because. A) The hormones create an acid condition in the vagina that acts as a spermicide. B) The hormones cause the woman's body to mimic the activities of a pregnancy and disrupt the ovarian cycle, preventing ovulation. C) The hormones prevent the proliferative or secretory phase of the menstrual cycle and the embryo will have no place to implant. D) The hormones cause a thickening of the mucus plug at the cervix that prevents sperm from penetrating the womb and reaching the ovulated egg.
B
13) The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following is true about the role they play? A) They contract to push sperm along the ductus deferens. B) They regulate the temperature of the testes. C) They are responsible for penile erection. D) They contract to allow ejaculation.
B
14) The ability of sperm cells to move along the ductus deferens is due to ________. A) gravity B) peristaltic contractions C) enzymatic activity D) hormonal action
B
19) The structures that receive the ovulated oocyte, providing a site for fertilization, are called the ________. A) Graafian follicles B) fallopian tubes C) infundibula D) fimbriae
B
22) The constancy of the chromosome number from one cell generation to the next is maintained through ________. A) mitosis B) meiosis C) cytokinesis D) DNA synthesis
B
25) In humans, separation of the cells at the two-cell state following fertilization may lead to the production of twins, which in this case would be ________. A) dizygotic B) genetically identical C) fraternal D) potentially of different sexes
B
26) How do the testes respond to exposure to excessive body warmth? A) They move close to the pelvic cavity. B) They move away from the pelvic cavity. C) Excessive warmth has no effect on the testicles because of their location in the scrotum. D) Excessive warmth is actually beneficial in that it speeds up the maturation of sperm.
B
28) Secretion of progesterone stimulates ________. A) contraction of uterine muscles B) preparation of the mammary glands for lactation C) proliferation of the uterine myometrium D) development of the female secondary sex characteristics
B
34) Select the correct statement about male sexual response. A) Sympathetic impulses are responsible for causing penile arteriolar dilation, resulting in erection. B) Erection is the result of vascular spaces in the erectile tissues filling with blood. C) Expansion of the penile tissues results in dilation of the venous outflow. D) Ejaculation is the result of parasympathetic stimulation.
B
36) Which male hormone inhibits the secretion of FSH? A) ACTH B) inhibin C) ICSH D) GnRH
B
37) During the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle ________. A) LH reaches its highest levels B) progesterone levels are at their highest C) estrogen reaches its highest levels D) the Graafian follicle forms
B
41) Normally menstruation occurs when ________. A) blood levels of FSH fall off B) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease C) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase D) the corpus luteum secretes estrogen
B
44) Which of the following will occur after ovulation? A) The corpus luteum secretes estrogen only. B) The endometrium enters its secretory phase. C) The secretion of anterior pituitary gonadotropins is enhanced. D) The corpus luteum prepares to become a corpus albicans.
B
46) Spermatogenesis ________. A) is the process of releasing mature sperm cells into the lumen of the seminiferous tubule B) involves a kind of cell division limited to the gametes C) results in the formation of diploid cells D) uses mitosis to produce gamete cells
B
48) The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis ________. A) is the tight relationship between the cortex and the control of testicular function B) involves FSH and LH release C) involves posterior pituitary release of regulating hormones D) involves a positive feedback loop control of spermatogenesis
B
50) Which of the following is a correct statement about uterine tubes? A) The ampulla is the narrow constricted region. B) The infundibulum is the funnel-shaped region near the ovary. C) The isthmus is the normal site of fertilization. D) The mesometrium supports the uterine tubes along their entire length.
B
51) Select the correct statement about the hormonal events of the ovarian cycle. A) Rising levels of estrogen start follicle development. B) High estrogen levels result in a surge of LH release. C) The follicle begins to secrete progesterone in response to estrogen stimulation. D) The LH surge stimulates further development of the secondary oocyte.
B
6) All but one of the following statements are true regarding the differences between early and late spermatids. Select the answer below that does not reflect a difference between early and late spermatids. A) Early spermatids have not undergone spermiogenesis. B) Early spermatids have not undergone meiosis and are still diploid. C) Early spermatids have not formed a flagella. D) Early spermatids are round and have excessive cytoplasm.
B
Using Figure 27.1, match the following: Type B spermatogonia.
B
Using Figure 27.2, match the following: 6) Acrosome.
B
Using Figure 27.3, match the following: Primary follicles.
B
15) The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is ________. A) smoking B) a diet high in fat C) failure of the testis to make their normal decent D) sexually transmitted infections
C
17) Which of the following hormones controls the release of anterior pituitary gonadotropins? A) LH B) FSH C) GnRH D) testosterone
C
18) The genetic determinate for male reproductive development is ________. A) presence of testosterone B) inhibition of estrogen C) the SRY gene D) lack of an X chromosome
C
2) Which of the following statements is true of metaphase I of meiosis I? A) Tetrads align randomly on the spindle equator with all the maternal homologs on one side and all the paternal homologs on the opposite side. B) Joined homologous pair uniformly line up on the equatorial spindle with chromosome one at the top and chromosome 23 on the bottom. C) The sister chromatids line up randomly on the spindle equator with some maternal and paternal chromatids on both sides of the equator. D) Homologous pairs align randomly on the spindle equator with a mix of paternal and maternal homologs destined for each of the daughter cells.
C
21) Human egg and sperm are similar in that ________. A) about the same number of each is produced per month B) they have the same degree of motility C) they have the same number of chromosomes D) they are about the same size
C
27) Effects of estrogen include ________. A) increased oiliness of the skin B) deepening of the voice C) growth of the breasts at puberty D) growth of the larynx
C
3) Select the statement below that is false. A) A cell undergoing meiosis results in 4 cells while a cell undergoing mitosis results in two cells. B) Meiosis results in haploid cells while mitosis results in diploid cells. C) Meiosis occurs only in stem cells while mitosis can occur in any of the body's cells. D) Meiosis occurs only after the onset of puberty and produces genetically unique cells while mitosis occurs throughout an entire life time and produces genetically identical cells.
C
30) Which of the following occurs as a result of undescended testes? A) Male sex hormones will not be circulated in the body. B) Sperm will have no means of exit from the body. C) Inadequate or nonviable sperm will be produced. D) Inadequate blood supply will retard the development of the testes.
C
32) Which is not a part of the proliferative phase of the female menstrual cycle? A) late in this phase, cervical mucus becomes thin and crystalline B) vesicular follicle growth C) corpus luteum D) development of endometrial cells
C
39) Which of the choices below is not a part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis? A) hypothalamus B) anterior pituitary gland C) thalamus D) interstitial cells
C
43) Occasionally three polar bodies are found clinging to the mature ovum. One came from an unequal division of the ovum, but from where did the other two arise? A) There were originally four polar bodies and one disappeared. B) One is an undeveloped primary oocyte that failed to mature. C) The first polar body has also divided to produce two polar bodies. D) What you really see are two polar bodies and the sperm that will fertilize the egg.
C
45) Why doesn't semen enter the urinary bladder during ejaculation? A) There is no common duct between the reproductive system and the urinary system. B) There is no urge to urinate during sexual intercourse because of the suppression of LH by testosterone buildup in the blood. C) The smooth muscle sphincter at the base of the urinary bladder closes. D) Ejaculation is a parasympathetic reflex resulting in no response by urinary contraction muscles.
C
All of the following things occur during meiosis I with the exception of one thing. Select the statement below that does not occur during meiosis I. A) The homologous chromosomes are separated from each other. B) A single diploid (2n) cell has become two haploid (n) cells. C) The sister chromatids are separated from each other. D) Portions of maternal chromosomes crossover with equivalent portions of paternal chromosomes.
C
Using Figure 27.1, match the following: Primary spermatocyte.
C
Using Figure 27.2, match the following: 10) Area of compacted DNA.
C
Using Figure 27.2, match the following: 9) Location of nucleus.
C
Using Figure 27.3, match the following: Vesicular (Graafian) follicle.
C
Using Figure 27.3, match the following: Mature follicle.
C
12) All but one of the following statements describes the necessity of the blood testis barrier. Select the one statement that does not describe a necessity of the blood testis barrier. A) Spermatocytes undergo meiosis only during puberty, well after the immune system has come to recognize "self" from "non-self" cells. B) Spermatogenesis produces new combinations of genes and chromosomes that results in unique antigens that the immune system may see as foreign. C) Foreign antigens produced by the newly formed sperm could initiate an autoimmune response against the developing sperm. D) Sperm can only be produced at temperatures lower than body temperature. Inflammation in the testis could raise the temperature too high to produce sperm.
D
23) Fertilization generally occurs in the ________. A) ovary B) uterus C) vagina D) fallopian tubes
D
29) The cells that produce testosterone in the testis are called ________. A) spermatocytes B) spermatogonia C) sustentacular cells D) interstitial endocrine cells
D
31) Erection of the penis results from ________. A) a sympathetic reflex B) parasympathetic activation of the bulbourethral glands C) dilation of the veins in the penis D) a parasympathetic reflex
D
35) Which of the choices below is not a function of testosterone? A) stimulates the male pattern of development B) contributes to male sexual behavior and spermatogenesis C) stimulates protein synthesis D) stimulates mammary gland development
D
38) Select the correct statement about the uterine cycle. A) The menstrual phase of the cycle is normally from day 1 to day 8. B) During the secretory phase, estrogen levels are at their highest. C) During the proliferative phase, levels of progesterone rise as the follicle begins to produce more hormone. D) If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the developing embryo.
D
4) Select the statement which is true regarding independent assortment. A) Its effects are significant in meiosis and in mitosis. B) It is a significant source of genetic variation that occurs in meiosis I and meiosis II. C) It only occurs in meiosis II. D) It is a significant source of genetic variation only during meiosis I.
D
40) Which of the following statements is true concerning the mammary glands of both males and females? A) Both sexes are equally prone to breast cancer. B) All lumps identified in breast tissue are malignant. C) The only time hormones target breast tissue is during pregnancy and lactation. D) The mammary glands are modified sweat glands that are actually part of the integumentary system.
D
5) Select the statement which is false. A) Further genetic variation typically does not occur after meiosis I. B) Meiosis II is essential the same process as mitosis except the starting cells are haploid (n). C) Meiosis II is essential the same process as mitosis except the genetic material will not replicate before division takes place. D) Crossing over is a source of genetic variability seen in meiosis while independent assortment is a source of genetic variability seen in mitosis.
D
8) All but one of the events described below occur during spermiogenesis. Select the event that does not occur during spermiogenesis. A) Mitochondria form around the proximal end of the flagellum. They will provide the ATP to drive the motion of the flagellum. B) Excessive cytoplasm will be shed to reduce unneeded mass of the maturing sperm. C) The centrioles migrate to the posterior end of the developing sperm to form the microtubules that make up the flagellum. D) Mitochondrial DNA is packaged into the nucleus to be delivered to the egg during fertilization.
D
9) All but one of the following statements is true with regard to the blood testis barrier. Select the one statement that is false. A) Sustentocytes form the barrier with tight junctions. B) The barrier separates the spermatocytes dividing by meiosis from exposing their unique antigens to the immune system. C) The barrier marks the border between the basal compartment and the adluminal compartment. D) The barrier is made up of astrocytes that surround blood vessels in the testis.
D
Using Figure 27.1, match the following: First cells with n number of chromosomes.
D
Using Figure 27.2, match the following: Flagellum
D
Using Figure 27.3, match the following: Corpus luteum.
D
Using Figure 27.1, match the following: Early spermatids.
E
Using Figure 27.3, match the following: The stage called ovulation.
E
53) Which of the following statements about spermatogenesis is not true? A) The spermatogonium forms the primary spermatocyte. B) The primary spermatocyte forms two secondary spermatocytes. C) The secondary spermatocytes each form two spermatids. D) Each spermatid forms two sperm.
Each spermatid forms two sperm.
True or false: 27) Extremely stressful physical activity in young females can result in excessive bone mass due to large amounts of estrogen production.
F
True or false: 8) The testis is divided into seminiferous tubules which contain the lobules that produce sperm and the ejaculatory duct that allows the sperm to be ejected from the body.
F
True or false: 13) Ovulation occurs near the end of the ovarian cycle.
F
True or false: 14) The corpus luteum secretes progesterone only.
F
True or false: 19) The testes are innervated by the sympathetic division of the ANS only.
F
True or false: 24) The molecule that enhances the ability of testosterone to promote spermatogenesis is inhibin.
F
True or false: 25) Sperm are ejaculated from the corpora cavernosa of the penis.
F
True or false: 10) A human egg or sperm contains 23 pairs of chromosomes.
F
True or false: 12) The adenohypophyseal hormone that triggers ovulation is estrogen.
F
True or false: 15) Female orgasm is required for conception.
F
True or false: 17) The primary function of the testes is to produce testosterone.
F
True or false: 18) The stage in meiosis where chromosomal exchange takes place is telophase.
F
True or false: 2) The prostate atrophies as a man ages, and it usually causes no health problems.
F
True or false: 3) When it is cold, the scrotum is pulled away from the body.
F
True or false: 5) The amount of testosterone and sperm produced by the testes is dependent on the influence of FSH alone.
F
True or false: 6) Ovarian follicles contain mature eggs.
F
57) All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true except ________. A) FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium B) estrogen is secreted by the developing follicle in the follicular phase of the cycle C) the corpus luteum is formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation D) a decrease in the levels of ovarian hormones signals menstruation
FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium
Match the following: Genital herpes
Human herpes virus type 2
Match the following: Genital warts
Human papillomavirus
Match the following: Occurs in two stages.
Meiosis
Match the following: Forms tetrads.
Meiosis
Match the following: Produces four daughter cells.
Meiosis
Match the following: Produces haploid cells.
Meiosis
Match the following: Produces cells for growth and tissue repair.
Mitosis
Match the following: One division consisting of prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
Mitosis
Match the following: Chlamydia
Organism responsible for up to half of the diagnosed cases of pelvic inflammatory disease.
55) Which of the following statements about the female reproductive process is not true? A) Fertilization usually occurs in the fallopian tube. B) Ovulation usually occurs 14 days after the beginning of menses. C) Rebuilding the endometrium is under the control of prolactin. D) The monthly discharge of the uterus (menses) is initiated by the decrease in secretion of female hormones.
Rebuilding the endometrium is under the control of prolactin
52) Which of these statements about sexually transmitted infections is false? A) Chlamydia is caused by bacteria that can often be asymptomatic or bring on a wide variety of symptoms. B) Gonorrhea is caused by a bacterium that can bring on painful discharges in males. C) Syphilis is caused by a virus that may lead to death if untreated. D) Genital herpes is caused by a virus that may cause intermittent lesions.
Syphilis is caused by a virus that may lead to death if untreated.
True or false: 26) Sperm from the male parent determines the sex of the child.
T
True or false: 23) The zona pellucida is formed as the follicle becomes a secondary follicle.
T
True or false: 4) When a couple is having difficulty conceiving a child, it is necessary to investigate the sperm of the male.
T
True or false: 9) The smaller cell produced by oogenesis meiosis I, called the first polar body, is essentially a packet of discarded nuclear material.
T
True or false: 1) It is necessary for the testes to be kept below body temperature for abundant, viable sperm formation.
T
True or false: 11) The Pap smear is a test to detect cancerous changes in cells of the cervix.
T
True or false: 16) The first sign of puberty in females is budding breasts.
T
True or false: 20) The soft mucosal lining of the uterus is the endometrium.
T
True or false: 21) A scrotal muscle that contracts in response to cold environmental temperature is the cremaster.
T
True or false: 22) The secretions of the bulbourethral glands neutralize traces of acidic urine in the urethra and serve as a lubricant during sexual intercourse.
T
True or false: 7) Sexually transmitted infections are the most important cause of reproductive disorders.
T
10) All but one of the following statements is true of uterine function. Select the statement that is not true of uterine function. A) The myometrium contracts to expel the fetus during child birth. B) The endometrium has a functional layer that the embryo will implant into. C) Its rhythmic, reverse peristalsis can propel sperm toward the egg. D) The narrow portion of the uterus near the cervix is the most typical site of fertilization.
The narrow portion of the uterus near the cervix is the most typical site of fertilization.
Match the following: Syphilis
Treponema pallidum.
Match the following: Gonorrhea
Urethritis in males
54) A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After he grows to maturity, one would expect that he would ________. A) be unable to produce viable sperm B) not develop secondary sex characteristics C) be impotent (unable to have an erection) D) have impaired function of interstitial cells
be unable to produce viable sperm
59) The duct system of the male reproductive system includes all but which of the following? A) epididymis B) urethra C) ductus deferens D) corpus spongiosum
corpus spongiosum
56) A low secretion of luteinizing hormone (LH) in the normal male adult would cause ________. A) decreased testosterone secretion B) excessive beard growth C) increased spermatogenesis D) shrinkage of the anterior pituitary gland
decreased testosterone secretion
42) The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that ________. A) during spermatogenesis two more polar bodies are produced B) the mature ovum is n, while the sperm is 2n C) in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell D) spermatogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis, but oogenesis involves meiosis only
in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell
58) Which of the following phases or processes in the monthly reproductive cycle of the female occur simultaneously? A) maximal LH secretion and menstruation B) maximal steroid secretion by the corpus luteum and menstruation C) early follicular development and the secretory phase in the uterus D) regression of the corpus luteum and a decrease in ovarian progesterone secretion
regression of the corpus luteum and a decrease in ovarian progesterone secretion
60) Prostate cancer is ________. A) the number-one cause of death in men B) sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient C) most common in Asians D) often the result of a distortion of the urethra
sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient