303 Hinkle PrepU Chapter 59: Assessment and Management of Patients with Male Reproductive Disorders

The nurse is obtaining a medication history from a client who is reporting erectile dysfunction. Which medication would the nurse identify as being least likely to contribute to the client's condition?

ibuprofen Certain medications, such as antihypertensive agents (e.g. methyldopa and spironolactone), antidepressants, narcotics, and cimetidine cause sexual dysfunction in men. Ibuprofen is not associated with causing erectile dysfunction.

When assessing a client with benign prostatic hyperplasia, which of the following would the nurse expect the client to report as the initial complaint?

increased effort to void The symptoms of BPH appear gradually. At first, the client notices that it takes more effort to void. Eventually, the urinary stream narrows and has decreased force. The bladder empties incompletely. As residual urine accumulates, the client has an urge to void more often and nocturia occurs.

A nurse is instructing a client in testicular self-examination. Which client statement indicates the need for additional teaching?

"I should do this exam at least once a week" Testicular self-examination is performed monthly, preferably when warm, such as in the shower. The client should place his thumb on top and his middle and index fingers under the testis. It is normal for one testis to be larger than the other.

A client comes to the clinic reporting urinary symptoms. Which statement would most likely alert the nurse to suspect benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?

"I've had trouble getting started when I urinate, often straining to do so." Symptoms that might alert the nurse to BPH include difficulty initiating urination and abdominal straining with urination. Although fever, urinary frequency, nocturia, pelvic pain, nausea, vomiting, and fatigue may be noted, they also may suggest other conditions such as urinary tract infection. Fever, nausea, vomiting, and fatigue are general symptoms that can accompany many conditions.

A male client has undergone a semen analysis for evaluation of fertility. The nurse understands that a sperm count of which of the following would suggest infertility?

18 million/mL A sperm count of fewer than 20 million spermatozoa per milliliter results in infertility. Normal sperm count ranges on average from 60 to 100 million /mL.

The nurse working on the postoperative unit receives a report on various clients. Based on the information provided, whom should the nurse see first?

A 67-year-old male patient recovering from a prostatectomy, with a potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L and a serum sodium level of 130 mEq/L. Vital signs are temperature 99.2°F, pulse 88, respirations 22, and blood pressure 156/92. This client's condition is consistent with hyponatremia and needs to be reported to the physician. Scrotal swelling, discomfort, and ecchymoses are expected findings following a vasectomy. Acute prostatitis is characterized by the sudden onset of fever, dysuria, perineal prostatic pain, and severe lower urinary tract symptoms (dysuria, frequency, urgency, hesitancy, and nocturia). The signs and symptoms listed are expected in a client with orchitis.

A client is undergoing a diagnostic workup for suspected testicular cancer. When obtaining the client's history, the nurse checks for known risk factors for this type of cancer. Testicular cancer has been linked to:

Cryptorchidism Cryptorchidism (failure of one or both testes to descend into the scrotum) appears to play a role in testicular cancer, even when corrected surgically. Other significant history findings for testicular cancer include mumps orchitis, inguinal hernia during childhood, and maternal use of diethylstilbestrol or other estrogen-progestin combinations during pregnancy. Testosterone therapy during childhood, sexually transmitted disease, and early onset of puberty aren't risk factors for testicular cancer.

A patient is planning to use a negative-pressure (vacuum) device to maintain and sustain an erection. What should the nurse caution the patient about with the use of this device?

Do not leave the constricting band in place for longer than 1 hour to avoid penile injury. Negative-pressure (vacuum) devices may also be used to induce an erection. A plastic cylinder is placed over the flaccid penis, and negative pressure is applied. When an erection is attained, a constriction band is placed around the base of the penis to maintain the erection. To avoid penile injury, the patient is instructed not to leave the constricting band in place for longer than 1 hour.

A patient is diagnosed with prostatitis. Which of the following is the most commonly isolated organism that will be present in this patient's laboratory results?

Escherichia coli E. coli is the most commonly isolated organism with prostatitis. Microorganisms are usually carried to the prostate from the urethra.

Which component of client teaching helps the nurse assist a client following treatment for cancer of the prostate gland to manage and minimize the possibility of a recurrence of the primary cancer or metastasis?

Have regular prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels tested and repeat lymph node biopsies. Regular monitoring of PSA levels after treatment aids in the early detection of cancer recurrence or metastasis. Repeat lymph node biopsies may be part of the surgical follow-up. Cancer cells are spread via the lymphatic system. Exercise routines and avoiding sexual intercourse are not known to have any role in recurrence of the primary cancer or metastasis.

Which client would the nurse identify as being at highest risk for the development of testicular cancer?

a 25 year old male with a history of cryptorchidism Testicular cancer is most common in between 15 and 34 years of age and is the leading cause of cancer deaths in men between 25 to 34 years of age. Its incidence is higher in White men and men with a history of cryptorchidism. Other clients at risk are those with a family history of the disease, those who are HIV-positive or have developed AIDS, and those who already have had cancer in one testicle.

` Which client is most likely to develop prostate cancer according to a nurse working at a health screening at the local mall?

a 56 year old African American man Age over 40 and African American race are both risk factors for prostate cancer. Age younger than 40 and Asian heritage reduce the risk of prostate cancer.

A nurse is obtaining a male client's health history before performing a physical examination. Which information would most likely not be obtained?

age of first ejaculate Age of first ejaculate would most likely not be asked. Premature ejaculation or other concerns of a sexual nature, pain during sexual intercourse, and contraceptive practices would most likely be included in the health history.

After teaching a group of student about structural abnormalities of the male reproductive system, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as an example?

cryptorchidism Structural abnormalities include cryptorchidism, torsion of the spermatic cord, phimosis, paraphimosis, hydrocele, spermatocele, and varicocele. Erectile dysfunction and priapism are erection disorders. Prostatitis is an infectious disorder.

Which age-related change affects the male reproductive system?

decreased plasma testosterone levels Changes in gonadal function include a decline in plasma testosterone levels and reduced production of progesterone. The testes become smaller and more firm.

Which of the following is the obstructive and irritative symptom complex caused by benign prostatic hypertrophy?

prostatism Symptoms of prostatism include increased frequency of urination, nocturia, urgency, dribbling, and a sensation that the bladder has not completely emptied. Prostatitis is an inflammation of the prostate gland. Prostaglandins are physiologically active substances present in tissues with vasodilator properties. Prostatectomy refers to the surgical removal of the prostate gland.

An client with a history of hypertension is being seen by the urologist due to erectile dysfunction. Results from the client's nocturnal penile tumescence test measured several spontaneous erections while the client slept. What does this indicate?

psychological etiology Evidence of spontaneous erections during sleep but erectile dysfunction in a waking state suggests a psychological etiology.

A health care provider prescribed a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonist to suppress testicular androgen and treat prostate cancer. Which medication is the primary drug of choice?

lupron Lupon is an LHRH agonist. The other three choices are antiandrogen receptor antagonists.

A young client who awoke with sudden, severe testicular pain with edema arrives at the ED unable to walk and nauseated. After examination, what treatment would the physician likely order?

surgery In spermatic cord torsion, immediate surgery is necessary to prevent atrophy of the spermatic cord and preserve fertility.

A client is undergoing treatment for prostate cancer. He has chemotherapy sessions regularly. However, of late he is showing symptoms of food allergy and loss of appetite. He has lost considerable weight as a result. Which is an appropriate nursing task in this situation?

ask the client to keep a diet diary The appropriate nursing task in this situation is to assess the amount of food eaten. This assessment will help determine nutrient intake. The nurse should ensure adequate fluid hydration before, during, and after drug administration when the client has side effects of nausea and vomiting. Administration of fruits is not recommended when the client is at risk of infection, such as during chemotherapy. Serotonin blockers are administered to control nausea and vomiting.

A patient has been prescribed an oral medication for the treatment of ED. The three most common drugs are slightly different in dosage, use, and side effects. As part of health teaching, the nurse knows to tell the patient that Cialis has a unique side effect which is:

back pain Back pain is an anticipated side effect of Cialis but not of Viagra or Levitra. Refer to Table 34-2 in the text.

Which of the following is the most immediate danger after prostate surgery?

bleeding The immediate danger after prostate surgery is bleeding and hemorrhagic shock. If, after 20 minutes, the bleeding is not controlled, surgical exploration may be considered. Since bleeding is increased in the sitting position, which increases bladder and venous pressure, the patient is encouraged to rest in bed with the head of the bed slightly elevated.

Which is inconsistent with a digital rectal examination (DRE)?

can reveal a hydrocele DRE is recommended as part of the regular health checkup for every man older than 50 years of age. It is a screening for cancer of the prostate gland. It enables the examiner to assess the size, shape, and consistency of the prostate gland.

Which condition is associated with buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavernosum, causing curvature of the penis when it is erect?

Peyronie's disease Peyronie's disease may require surgical removal of the plaques when the disease makes sexual intercourse painful, difficult, or impossible. Bowen's disease refers to a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ of the penile shaft. Phimosis refers to the condition in which the foreskin is constricted so that it cannot be retracted over the glans. Priapism refers to an uncontrolled, persistent erection of the penis occurring from either neural or vascular causes.

A 48-year-old man recently diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) reports consuming <i>Serenoa repens</i> (saw palmetto berry). The nurse needs to intervene if the physician orders which treatment?

finasteride Serenoa repens (saw palmetto berry) should not be used with finasteride. Terazosin is an alpha-adrenergic blocker and can be taken with Serenoa repens. Sipuleucel-T is a therapeutic cancer vaccine. Ketoconazole is an adrenal-ablating drug used to inhibit cytochrome P450 enzymes.

A nurse is teaching a client about a circumcision. Which external reproductive structure is removed by circumcision?

prepuce In an uncircumcised male, the prepuce, sometimes referred to as the foreskin, that covers the glans is removed by circumcision. The glans is the rounded head of the penis. The corpora cavernosa is erectile tissue. The mons pubis is fatty tissue near the pubic bones.

Which cancer ranks second as the cause of death in American men?

prostate Prostatic cancer is second to skin cancer in frequency among American men. It ranks second as the cause of deaths from cancer. Cancer of the testes is a malignancy seen in men between 18 and 40 years of age. Although this cancer is relatively rare, accounting for approximately 1% of cancers in men, it is the most common type in men between 15 and 34 years of age and is the leading cause of cancer deaths in men between 25 and 34 years of age. Skin cancer ranks first in frequency among American men. Penile cancer is rare and occurs more often in men who are uncircumcised.

Consuming a diet high in which of the following has been found to increase the risk for prostate cancer?

red meats Data suggest that men who consume a diet containing excessive amounts of red meat or dairy products that are high in fat are at increased risk for prostate cancer.

Which of the following herbal remedies is used to treat symptoms of benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)?

saw palmetto Saw palmetto is an herbal product used to treat symptoms associated with BPH.

After having transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), a client returns to the unit with a three-way indwelling urinary catheter and continuous closed bladder irrigation. Which finding suggests that the client's catheter is occluded?

the client reports bladder spasms and the urge to void Reports of bladder spasms and the urge to void suggest that a blood clot may be occluding the catheter. After TURP, urine normally appears red to pink, and normal saline irrigant usually is infused at a rate of 40 to 60 drops/minute or according to facility protocol. The amount of returned fluid (1,200 ml) should correspond to the amount of instilled fluid, plus the client's urine output (1,000 ml + 200 ml), which reflects catheter patency.

A nurse is working in an oncology treatment center. Which clinical manifestation when reported by a client would the nurse know may be related to metastasis from prostate cancer?

constant hip aching and discomfort Symptoms related to metastases include backache, hip pain, perineal and rectal discomfort, anemia, oliguria, weight loss, weakness, nausea, and spontaneous pathologic fractures. These symptoms may be the first indications of prostate cancer.

Which of the following recommendations would a nurse advocate during infancy and childhood to help reduce potential adult complications such as orchitis?

ensure immunizations against infectious diseases like mumps Nurses should advocate for infant and childhood immunizations against infectious diseases such as mumps to reduce potential adult complications such as orchitis. Minimizing activities involving heavy lifting or urging limited intake of caffeine have no effect on the potential for adult complications such as orchitis. The nurse should encourage foods that are low in fat and starch; however, this also would have no effect on the potential for orchitis.

In a client with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), which assessment finding provides the best indication of urinary retention?

frequency As residual urine accumulates, the client has an urge to void more often. Urgency, hesitancy, and dribbling are all urinary symptoms associated with BPH but not specific to urinary retention.

Which of the following is an immediate danger after a prostate surgery?

hemorrhagic shock The immediate dangers after prostate surgery are bleeding and hemorrhagic shock. The patient is monitored for major complications such as hemorrhage, infection, deep vein thrombosis, catheter obstruction, and sexual dysfunction.

The nurse is preparing a presentation for a local community group about prostate cancer and possible dietary risk factors. Which of the following would the nurse most likely include?

high fat diet Although the cause of prostatic cancer is unknown, there seems to be a relationship with increased testosterone levels and a diet high in fat. No other dietary links have been suggested.

The nurse is demonstrating the technique for performing a testicular self examination (TSE) to a group of men for a company health fair. One of the men asks the nurse at what age a man should begin performing TSE. What is the best answer by the nurse?

it should begin in adolescence TSE should begin during adolescence.

The nurse is providing instruction for testicular self-examination to a group of young adolescents. Which is the most correct examination technique?

palpate each testicle separately following a warm shower It is best to examine and palpate each testicle following a warm shower, when the testes are relaxed and not retracted. Because one testicle is normally larger and hangs lower, comparing the two sides is not indicated. Both testes should be oval in shape, smooth, and firm without masses or tenderness. Most tumors are located on the lateral aspect of the testicles.

The nurse is teaching a young adult male how to perform testicular self-examination (TSE). The nurse determines that the client has understood the instructions when he states which of the following?

"The best time to do it is once a month after I take my warm morning shower" TSE is to be performed monthly, usually after a warm bath or shower when the scrotum is more relaxed. Both hands are used to palpate the testis. The index and middle fingers are placed under the testis and the thumb is placed on top. The testis is rolled gently in a horizontal plane between the thumb and fingers. A cordlike structure on the top and back of the testicle is the epididymis. This is normal and does not need to be reported.

Which assessment finding is most important in determining which client has a higher risk for developing testicular cancer?

Cryptorchidism as an infant Men who have had cryptorchidism as an infant, regardless of whether an orchiopexy was performed, are at higher risk for incidence of testicular cancer. STIs, low sperm count, and family history of general cancers are not indicative of testicular cancer risk.

The diagnosis of prostate cancer is confirmed by which of the following?

histologic exam of tissue The diagnosis of prostate cancer is confirmed by a histologic examination of tissue. Other tests that may be used to establish the extent of the disease include bone scans to detect metastases to the bones, and computed tomography scan to identify metastases in the pelvic lymph nodes.

A client is ordered continuous bladder irrigation at a rate of 60 gtt/minute. The nurse hangs a 2 L bag of sterile solution with tubing on a three-legged IV pole. She then attaches the tubing to the client's three-way urinary catheter, adjusts the flow rate, and leaves the room. Which important procedural step did the nurse fail to follow?

evaluating patency of the drainage lumen The nurse should evaluate patency of the drainage tubing before leaving the client's room. If the lumen is obstructed, the solution infuses into the bladder but isn't eliminated through the drainage tubing, a situation that may cause client injury. Balancing the pole is important; however, the nurse would have had to address this issue immediately after hanging the 2 L bag. Using an I.V. pump isn't necessary for continuous bladder irrigation. Unless specifically ordered, obtaining a urine specimen before beginning continuous bladder irrigation isn't necessary.

A client is receiving leuprolide as part of his treatment for prostate cancer. The nurse would be alert for which of the following as a possible adverse effect?

gynecomastia Adverse effects associated with *leuprolide*, a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone agonist, are related to hypogonadism and include vasomotor flushing, loss of libido, decreased bone density, anemia, fatigue, increased fat mass, decreased muscle mass, gynecomastia, and mastodynia (breast/nipple tenderness).

Which should be included as part of the home care instructions for a client with epididymitis and orchitis?

take prescribed antibiotics Home care for a client with epididymitis and orchitis includes instructions to continue administering prescribed antibiotics, take Sitz baths, apply local heat after scrotal swelling subsides, avoid lifting, and refrain from sexual intercourse until symptoms are relieved.

A client who comes to the clinic complaining of perineal pain, dysuria and fever is diagnosed with prostatitis. The nurse understands that which of the following organisms would be the most likely cause?

Escherichia coli Prostatitis is an inflammation of the prostate gland and is most often caused by microorganisms that reach the prostate by way of the urethra. Escherichia coli and microbes that cause sexually transmitted infections often are responsible. Staphylococcus and streptococcus are not typically a cause of prostatitis. Paramyxovirus is the cause of mumps.

Which of the following patient populations have the highest risk for developing testicular cancer?

European American European American men have a five times greater risk than that of African American men and more than double the risk of Asian American men.

A nurse is teaching a male client to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. Which point is appropriate to make?

testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer Testicular cancer is highly curable, particularly when it's treated in its early stage. Self-examination allows early detection and facilitates the early initiation of treatment. The highest mortality rates from cancer among men are in men with lung cancer. Testicular cancer is found more commonly in younger, not older, men.

A client is to undergo a TURP for BPH. Which statement is accurate with regard to a TURP?

Urethral strictures are more frequent for TURP than for nontransurethral procedures. Urethral strictures are more frequent for TURP than with nontransurethral procedures. TURP rarely causes erectile dysfunction. It requires an overnight stay. There is danger of retrograde ejaculation.

Bright red bleeding following prostate surgery indicates which of the following?

arterial bleed Bright red bleeding with increased viscosity and numerous clots usually indicates arterial bleeding, and requires surgical intervention. Venous bleeding, which is dark red in color, may be controlled by the provider via "overinflating" the urinary catheter balloon and applying traction to the catheter so that the balloon holding the urinary catheter in place applies pressure to the prostatic fossa. It does not represent disseminated intravascular coagulation or thrombocytopenia.

A nurse is teaching a male client who is older than 50 years about prostate cancer. What teaching should be included by the nurse?

have a digital rectal examination A serum prostate-specific antigen level test and a digital rectal exam, which are recommended by the American Cancer Society, are used to screen for prostate cancer in men with at least a 10-year life expectancy and for men at high risk, including those with a strong family history of prostate cancer and those of African American ethnicity. Testicular self-examinations won't identify changes in the prostate gland because of its location in the body. A transrectal ultrasound, complete blood count, blood urea nitrogen, and creatinine level test are usually done after diagnosis to identify the extent of the disease and potential metastasis.

Which of the following may result if prostate cancer invades the urethra or bladder?

hematuria Hematuria may result if the cancer invades the urethra or bladder. Symptoms related to metastases include backache, hip pain, perineal and rectal discomfort, anemia, weight loss, weakness, nausea, and oliguria.

Which of the following should nurses teach all men, especially those who have had cryptorchidism?

how to perform a testicular examination The nurses should teach all men, especially those who have had cryptorchidism, to perform testicular self-examination to detect any abnormal mass in the scrotum. The nurse instructs the clients to examine the testicles monthly, preferably when warm, such as in the shower. Having regular PSA levels, lymph node biopsies, and blood tests for measuring serum acid phosphatase are for the clients who are treated for prostate cancer.

When developing an educational program for a group of adolescents about sexually transmitted infections (STIs), what should the nurse inform the group about the single greatest risk factor for contracting an STI?

the number of sexual partners The single greatest risk factor for contracting an STI is the number of sexual partners. As the number of partners increases, so does the risk of exposure to a person infected with an STI.

A 65-year-old man complains to his health care provider that, when he urinates, he has to start and stop several times over a period of minutes in order to fully empty his bladder. The nurse is aware that this is not uncommon in men over the age of 60. This "double voiding" is directly related to which of the following?

hyperplasia of the prostate gland Urination, without bladder emptying, is an indication that the prostate gland is enlarged. It causes an increased sense of urgency to void, as well as a decreased force of the urine stream. Enlargement of the prostate gland is associated with weakening of prostatic contractions and lower urinary tract obstruction.

After a radical prostatectomy for prostate cancer, a client has an indwelling catheter removed. The client then begins to have periods of incontinence. During the postoperative period, which intervention should be implemented first?

kegel exercises Kegel exercises are noninvasive and are recommended as the initial intervention for incontinence. Fluid restriction is useful for the client with increased detrusor contraction related to acidic urine. Artificial sphincter use isn't a primary intervention for post-prostatectomy incontinence. Self-catheterization may be used as a temporary measure but isn't a primary intervention.

A client with erectile dysfunction is prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following would the nurse include in the teaching plan for this client?

you may experience a headache and some flushing with this drug Sildenafil (Viagra) may cause *headache, flushing, dyspepsia, diarrhea, nasal congestion, and lightheadedness*. It is taken 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity. It can be taken more than once a day, but doing so will not increase its effect. It should be taken only when the client wants to have intercourse, to a maximal dose of 100 mg/24 hours. The drug may cause low blood glucose levels and abnormal liver function tests.

Which nursing assessment finding is most significant in determining the plan of care in a client with erectile dysfunction?

medication use Certain medications such as antihypertensive drugs, antidepressants, narcotics, etc. can cause sexual dysfunction in men. Impotence is not a normal part of aging. Undescended testicle is not indicative of ED. Sexual history is not indicative of ED.

A patient is having a DRE in the physician's office and the nurse is to assist in the examination. What can the nurse instruct the client to do to decrease the discomfort from the exam?

take deep breaths and exhale when the physician inserts a gloved finger into the rectum To minimize discomfort and relax the anal sphincter during the digital rectal examination, the patient is instructed to take a deep breath and exhale slowly as the practitioner inserts a finger. If possible, he should turn his feet inward so his toes are touching.

Which treatment involves implantation of interstitial radioactive seeds under anesthesia to treat prostate cancer?

brachytherapy Brachytherapy involves the implantation of interstitial radioactive seeds under anesthesia. Hormone therapy for advanced prostate cancer suppresses androgenic stimuli to the prostate by decreasing the level of circulating plasma testosterone or interrupting the conversion to or binding of DHT. Teletherapy involves 6 to 7 weeks of daily radiation treatments. High-dose ketoconazole (HDK) lowers testosterone through its abilities to decrease both testicular and endocrine production of androgen.

The client states to the nurse that he is very anxious about having prostate cancer ever since his prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test came back elevated. The client asks, "Which diagnostic test produces definitive results if cancer is present?" The nurse is most correct to state which of the following?

tissue biopsy Obtaining an actual piece of the tissue and analyzing it for cancer is a definitive test when cancer is found. A transrectal ultrasonography is a test to view the prostate gland from different angles. This test provides additional data on the status of the prostate gland. The tumor marker studies include the prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level. This antigen indicates a potential problem but is not definitive. PSA elevations have been noted for reasons other than cancer. A digital rectal exam provided data on the shape, size, and texture of the prostate gland.

The nurse is describing various terms related to the male reproductive system. Which term would the nurse use to describe the discharge of semen from the penis?

ejaculation Ejaculation refers to the discharge of semen from the penis. Erection refers to the state in which the penis becomes elongated and rigid. Dilation of the penile arteries compresses the veins within the penis causing engorgement of blood within the tissue. Emission refers to the movement of sperm and their mixture with fluid forms the seminal vesicles and prostate gland into the urethra.

Following morning hygiene of an elderly client, the nurse is unable to replace the retracted foreskin of the penis. Which is the most likely outcome?

painful swelling Paraphimosis results in strangulation of the glans penis from inability to replace the retracted foreskin. The strangulation results in painful swelling of the glans. Erection of the penis in the presence of phimosis can cause pain but is not a result of retracted foreskin. Nausea and vomiting are not indicated with retraction of foreskin.

The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who has had a prostatectomy. Which of the following would be appropriate to include?

perform perineal exercises frequently throughout the day After a prostatectomy, the client should be instructed in how to perform perineal exercises and to perform them hourly throughout the day, each day. In addition, the client should avoid bearing down (straining) to urinate because of the increased risk for hematuria. He should also avoid strenuous exercise, which increases the tendency to rebleed. The client should be instructed to urinate as soon as he feels the first urge to do so.

A client comes to the emergency department reporting severe testicular pain that started about 1 hour ago. Examination reveals a thickened spermatic cord, an elevated testis, and testicular tenderness. The nurse would interpret these findings to suggest which of the following?

testicular torsion Testicular torsion is manifested by student pain in the testicle, usually developing over 1 to 2 hours, accompanied by swelling of the scrotum, testicular tenderness, elevated testis, thickened spermatic cord, and a swollen, painful scrotum. Epididymitis is manifested by low-grade fever, chills, and heaviness in the affected testicle developing over 1 to 2 days. Orchitis is manifested by fever, pain, tenderness in one or both testicles, testicular swelling, penile discharge, blood in the semen, and leukocytosis. It is common after an episode of mumps. Testicular cancer is manifested by a lump or mass on the testicle and usually painless enlargement of the testis that appears gradually.

A patient experiences hypotension, lethargy, and muscle spasms while receiving bladder irrigations after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). What is the first action the nurse should take?

discontinue the irrigations Transurethral resection syndrome is a rare but potentially serious complication of TURP. Symptoms include lethargy, hypotension, and muscle spasms. The first action the nurse should take is to discontinue irrigation. The other interventions listed are not appropriate.

A triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted for continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate. In addition to balloon inflation, the functions of the three lumens include:

continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution When preparing for continuous bladder irrigation, a triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted. The three lumens provide for balloon inflation and continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution.

A 59-year-old African American man has opted for hormonal androgen deprivation therapy (ADT) to treat his prostate cancer. Which surgical procedures is the client most likely to undergo?

orchiectomy ADT is commonly used to suppress androgenic stimuli to the prostate by decreasing the level of circulating plasma testosterone or interrupting the conversion to or binding of dihydrotestosterone (DHT). As a result, the prostatic epithelium atrophies (decreases in size). This effect is accomplished by an orchiectomy (removal of the testes). Circumcision is excision of the foreskin, or prepuce, of the glans penis. Vasectomy is the ligation and transection of part of the vas deferens to prevent the passage of the sperm from the testes. Hydrocelectomy describes the surgical repair of a hydrocele, a collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis.

The nurse is preparing a presentation for an older adult group of males at a senior center. Which of the following would the nurse expect to include when describing the effects of aging on the male reproductive system?

men retain the ability to fertilize ova irrespective of age As men age, they retain the ability to fertilize ova even though there is a gradual decrease in sperm and testosterone production. Along with decreased sperm production, the volume and viscosity of seminal fluid decrease with age. A loss of muscular tone causes the scrotum to become more pendulous.

After teaching a group of students about erectile dysfunction, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as true?

erectile dysfunction may be due to testosterone deficiency Common causes of erectile dysfunction include neurologic disorder like spinal cord injury, perineal trauma, testosterone insufficiency, side effects of drug therapy such as antihypertensives or antidepressants, atherosclerosis, hypertension, and complications of diabetes mellitus. Erectile dysfunction may be related to anxiety or depression. It is not a normal aspect of aging.

Which instruction regarding future sexual activity should a nurse give a client with a vasectomy?

use a reliable method of contraception until the physician ensures that sperm are no longer present For a client with a vasectomy, the nurse advises the client to use a reliable method of contraception until the physician ensures that sperm are no longer present, which may be determined after 10 or more ejaculations. The client should resume sexual activity when comfort allows, usually in 1 week. Administer a mild analgesic, such as aspirin or acetaminophen, for discomfort, not before the sexual activity. The client should expect some bruising and incisional soreness after the local anesthetic wears off.

Students preparing for a test are reviewing the structure and function of the male reproductive system. They demonstrate understanding of the material when they identify which of the following as the site of spermatogenesis?

testes The testes are responsible for producing sperm (spermatogenesis). The vas deferens are the tubes that carry the sperm from the testicles and epididymis to the seminal vesicles, which acts as the reservoir for testicular secretions. The prostate gland produces a secretion that is chemically and physiologically suitable to the needs of the sperm in their passage from the testes.

Which assessment finding would create the greatest risk to a client ordered a phosphodiesterase inhibitor such as sildenafil?

nitrates PDE5 inhibitors facilitate penile erection by producing smooth muscle relaxation in the corpora cavernosa via vasodilation of the blood vessels. If a client is using nitrates (which also exhibit vasodilation) hypotension is likely to occur. History of hypertension and diabetes does not interfere with the administration of PDE5 inhibitors. Use of diuretics is not significant.