305 mobility practice questions for final

A client is being discharged to home after application of a plaster leg cast. Which statement indicates that the client understands proper care of the cast? 1. "I need to avoid getting the cast wet." 2. "I need to cover the casted leg with warm blankets." 3. "I need to use my fingertips to lift and move my leg." 4. "I need to use something like a padded coat hanger end to scratch under the cast if it itches."

1. "I need to avoid getting the cast wet." Rationale: A plaster cast must remain dry to keep its strength. The cast should be handled with the palms of the hands, not the fingertips, until fully dry; using the fingertips results in indentations in the cast and skin pressure under the cast. Air should circulate freely around the cast to help it dry; the cast also gives off heat as it dries. The client should never scratch under the cast because of the risk of altered skin integrity; the client may use a hair dryer on the cool setting to relieve an itch.

The nurse has given the client instructions about crutch safety. Which statements indicate that the client understands the instructions? Select all that apply. 1. "I should not use someone else's crutches." 2. "I need to remove any scatter rugs at home." 3. "I can use crutch tips even when they are wet." 4. "I need to have spare crutches and tips available." 5. "When I'm using the crutches, my arms need to be completely straight."

1. "I should not use someone else's crutches." 2. "I need to remove any scatter rugs at home." 4. "I need to have spare crutches and tips available." Rationale: The client should use only crutches measured for the client. When assessing for home safety, the nurse ensures that the client knows to remove any scatter rugs and does not walk on highly waxed floors. The tips should be inspected for wear, and spare crutches and tips should be available if needed. Crutch tips should remain dry. If crutch tips get wet, the client should dry them with a cloth or paper towel. When walking with crutches, both elbows need to be flexed not more than 30 degrees when the palms are on the handle.

The nurse is caring for a client being treated for fat embolus after multiple fractures. Which data would the nurse evaluate as the most favorable indication of resolution of the fat embolus? 1. Clear mentation 2. Minimal dyspnea 3. Oxygen saturation of 85% 4. Arterial oxygen level of 78 mm Hg

1. Clear mentation Rationale: An altered mental state is an early indication of fat emboli; therefore, clear mentation is a good indicator that a fat embolus is resolving. Eupnea, not minimal dyspnea, is a normal sign. Arterial oxygen levels should be 80 to 100 mm Hg. Oxygen saturation should be higher than 95%.

In monitoring a client's response to disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs), which assessment findings would the nurse consider acceptable responses? Select all that apply. 1. Control of symptoms during periods of emotional stress 2. Normal white blood cell, platelet, and neutrophil counts 3. Radiological findings that show no progression of joint degeneration 4. An increased range of motion in the affected joints 3 months into therapy 5. Inflammation and irritation at the injection site 3 days after the injection is given 6. A low-grade temperature on rising in the morning that remains throughout the day

1. Control of symptoms during periods of emotional stress 2. Normal white blood cell, platelet, and neutrophil counts 3. Radiological findings that show no progression of joint degeneration 4. An increased range of motion in the affected joints 3 months into therapy Rationale: Because emotional stress frequently exacerbates the symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis, the absence of symptoms is a positive finding. DMARDs are given to slow the progression of joint degeneration. In addition, an improvement in the range of motion after 3 months of therapy with normal blood work is a positive finding. Temperature elevation and inflammation and irritation at the medication injection site could indicate signs of infection.

Allopurinol is prescribed for a client and the nurse provides medication instructions to the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide? 1. Drink 3000 mL of fluid a day. 2. Take the medication on an empty stomach. 3. The effect of the medication will occur immediately. 4. Any swelling of the lips is a normal expected response.

1. Drink 3000 mL of fluid a day. Rationale: Clients taking allopurinol are encouraged to drink 3000 mL of fluid a day, unless otherwise contraindicated. A full therapeutic effect may take 1 week or longer. Allopurinol is to be given with, or immediately after, meals or milk. A client who develops a rash, irritation of the eyes, or swelling of the lips or mouth should contact the primary health care provider because this may indicate hypersensitivity.

Cyclobenzaprine is prescribed for a client for muscle spasms, and the nurse is reviewing the client's record. Which disorder, if noted in the record, would indicate a need to contact the primary health care provider about the administration of this medication? 1. Glaucoma 2. Emphysema 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Diabetes mellitus

1. Glaucoma Rationale: Because cyclobenzaprine has anticholinergic effects, it should be used with caution in clients with a history of urinary retention, glaucoma, and increased intraocular pressure. Cyclobenzaprine should be used only for a short time (2 to 3 weeks). The conditions in options 2, 3, and 4 are not a concern with this medication.

Which cast care instructions should the nurse provide to a client who just had a plaster cast applied to the right forearm? Select all that apply. 1. Keep the cast clean and dry. 2. Allow the cast 24 to 72 hours to dry. 3. Keep the cast and extremity elevated. 4. Expect tingling and numbness in the extremity. 5. Use a hair dryer set on a warm to hot setting to dry the cast. 6. Use a soft, padded object that will fit under the cast to scratch the skin under the cast.

1. Keep the cast clean and dry. 2. Allow the cast 24 to 72 hours to dry. 3. Keep the cast and extremity elevated. Rationale: A plaster cast takes 24 to 72 hours to dry (synthetic casts dry in 20 minutes). The cast and extremity should be elevated to reduce edema if prescribed. A wet cast is handled with the palms of the hand until it is dry, and the extremity is turned (unless contraindicated) so that all sides of the wet cast will dry. A cool setting on the hair dryer can be used to dry a plaster cast (heat cannot be used on a plaster cast because the cast heats up and burns the skin). The cast needs to be kept clean and dry, and the client is instructed not to stick anything under the cast because of the risk of breaking skin integrity. The client is instructed to monitor the extremity for circulatory impairment, such as pain, swelling, discoloration, tingling, numbness, coolness, or diminished pulse. The primary health care provider is notified immediately if circulatory impairment occurs.

A client with a spinal cord injury is prone to experiencing autonomic dysreflexia. The nurse should include which measures in the plan of care to minimize the risk of occurrence? Select all that apply. 1. Keeping the linens wrinkle-free under the client 2. Preventing unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs 3. Limiting bladder catheterization to once every 12 hours 4. Turning and repositioning the client at least every 2 hours 5. Ensuring that the client has a bowel movement at least once a week

1. Keeping the linens wrinkle-free under the client 2. Preventing unnecessary pressure on the lower limbs 4. Turning and repositioning the client at least every 2 hours Rationale: The most frequent cause of autonomic dysreflexia is a distended bladder. Straight catheterization should be done every 4 to 6 hours (catheterization every 12 hours is too infrequent), and urinary catheters should be checked frequently to prevent kinks in the tubing. Constipation and fecal impaction are other causes, so maintaining bowel regularity is important. Ensuring a bowel movement once a week is much too infrequent. Other causes include stimulation of the skin from tactile, thermal, or painful stimuli. The nurse administers care to minimize risk in these areas.

A 1-month-old infant is seen in a clinic and is diagnosed with developmental dysplasia of the hip. On assessment, the nurse understands that which finding should be noted in this condition? 1. Limited range of motion in the affected hip 2. An apparent lengthened femur on the affected side 3. Asymmetrical adduction of the affected hip when the infant is placed supine with the knees and hips flexed 4. Symmetry of the gluteal skinfolds when the infant is placed prone and the legs are extended against the examining table

1. Limited range of motion in the affected hip Rationale: Asymmetrical and restricted abduction of the affected hip, when the child is placed supine with the knees and hips flexed, would be an assessment finding in developmental dysplasia of the hip in infants beyond the newborn period. Other findings include an apparent short femur on the affected side, asymmetry of the gluteal skinfolds, and limited range of motion in the affected extremity.

The nurse is caring for a client who begins to experience seizure activity while in bed. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply. 1. Loosening restrictive clothing. 2. Restraining the client's limbs. 3. Removing the pillow and raising padded side rails. 4. Positioning the client to the side, if possible, with the head flexed forward. 5. Keeping the curtain around the client and the room door open so when help arrives they can quickly enter to assist.

1. Loosening restrictive clothing. 3. Removing the pillow and raising padded side rails. 4. Positioning the client to the side, if possible, with the head flexed forward. Rationale: Nursing actions during a seizure include providing for privacy, loosening restrictive clothing, removing the pillow and raising padded side rails in the bed, and placing the client on 1 side with the head flexed forward, if possible, to allow the tongue to fall forward and facilitate drainage. The limbs are never restrained because the strong muscle contractions could cause the client harm. If the client is not in bed when seizure activity begins, the nurse lowers the client to the floor, if possible; protects the head from injury; and moves furniture that may injure the client.

The nurse notes documentation that a child is exhibiting an inability to flex the leg when the thigh is flexed anteriorly at the hip. Which condition does the nurse suspect? 1. Meningitis 2. Spinal cord injury 3. Intracranial bleeding 4. Decreased cerebral blood flow

1. Meningitis Rationale: the inability to extend the leg when the thigh is flexed anteriorly at the hip is a positive Kernig's signs, which is present in meningitis.

The nurse is instituting seizure precautions for a client who is being admitted from the emergency department. Which measures should the nurse include in planning for the client's safety? Select all that apply. 1. Padding the side rails of the bed. 2. Placing an airway at the bedside. 3. Placing the bed in the high position. 4. Putting a padded tongue blade at the head of the bed. 5. Placing oxygen and suction equipment at the bedside. 6. Flushing the intravenous catheter to ensure that the site is patent.

1. Padding the side rails of the bed. 2. Placing an airway at the bedside. 5. Placing oxygen and suction equipment at the bedside. 6. Flushing the intravenous catheter to ensure that the site is patent. Rationale: Seizure precautions may vary from agency to agency, but they generally have some common features. Usually, an airway, oxygen, and suctioning equipment are kept available at the bedside. The side rails of the bed are padded, and the bed is kept in the lowest position. The client has an intravenous access in place to have a readily accessible route if antiseizure medications must be administered, and as part of the routine assessment the nurse should be checking patency of the catheter.

The nurse is teaching a client with myasthenia gravis about the prevention of myasthenic and cholinergic crises. Which client activity suggests that teaching is most effective? 1. Taking medications as scheduled 2. Eating large, well-balanced meals 3. Doing muscle-strengthening exercises 4. Doing all chores early in the day while less fatigued

1. Taking medications as scheduled Rationale: Clients with myasthenia gravis are taught to space out activities over the day to conserve energy and restore muscle strength. Taking medications correctly to maintain blood levels that are not too low or too high is important. Muscle-strengthening exercises are not helpful and can fatigue the client. Overeating is a cause of exacerbation of symptoms, as is exposure to heat, crowds, erratic sleep habits, and emotional stress.

The nurse is caring for a client who has had spinal fusion, with insertion of hardware. The nurse would be most concerned with which assessment finding? 1. Temperature of 101.6° F (38.7° C) orally 2. Complaints of discomfort during repositioning 3. Old bloody drainage outlined on the surgical dressing 4. Discomfort during coughing and deep-breathing exercises

1. Temperature of 101.6° F (38.7° C) orally Rationale: The nursing assessment conducted after spinal surgery is similar to that done after other surgical procedures. For this specific type of surgery, the nurse assesses the neurovascular status of the lower extremities, watches for signs and symptoms of infection, and inspects the surgical site for evidence of cerebrospinal fluid leakage (drainage is clear and tests positive for glucose). A mild temperature is expected after insertion of hardware, but a temperature of 101.6° F (38.7° C) should be reported.

The nurse is assigned to care for a client with complete right-sided hemiparesis from a stroke (brain attack). Which characteristics are associated with this condition? Select all that apply. 1. The client is aphasic. 2. The client has weakness on the right side of the body. 3. The client has complete bilateral paralysis of the arms and legs. 4. The client has weakness on the right side of the face and tongue. 5. The client has lost the ability to move the right arm but is able to walk independently. 6. The client has lost the ability to ambulate independently but is able to feed and bathe herself or himself without assistance.

1. The client is aphasic. 2. The client has weakness on the right side of the body. 4. The client has weakness on the right side of the face and tongue. Rationale: Hemiparesis is a weakness of one side of the body that may occur after a stroke. It involves weakness of the face and tongue, arm, and leg on one side. These clients are also aphasic, unable to discriminate words and letters. They are generally very cautious and get anxious when attempting a new task. Complete bilateral paralysis does not occur in hemiparesis. The client with right-sided hemiparesis has weakness of the right arm and leg and needs assistance with feeding, bathing, and ambulating.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a child who is at risk for seizures. Which interventions apply if the child has a seizure? Select all that apply. 1. Time the seizure. 2. Restrain the child. 3. Stay with the child. 4. Place the child in a prone position. 5. Move furniture away from the child. 6. Insert a padded tongue blade in the child's mouth.

1. Time the seizure. 3. Stay with the child. 5. Move furniture away from the child.

The client arrives at the emergency department complaining of back spasms. The client states, "I have been taking 2 to 3 aspirin every 4 hours for the last week, and it hasn't helped my back." Since acetylsalicylic acid intoxication is suspected, the nurse should assess the client for which manifestation? 1. Tinnitus 2. Diarrhea 3. Constipation 4. Photosensitivity

1. Tinnitus Rationale: Mild intoxication with acetylsalicylic acid is called salicylism and is experienced commonly when the daily dosage is higher than 4 g. Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is the most frequent effect noted with intoxication. Hyperventilation may occur, because salicylate stimulates the respiratory center. Fever may result, because salicylate interferes with the metabolic pathways coupling oxygen consumption and heat production.

The nurse has given medication instructions to a client receiving phenytoin. Which statement indicates that the client has an adequate understanding of the instructions? 1. "Alcohol is not contraindicated while taking this medication." 2. "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing." 3. "The medication dose may be self-adjusted, depending on side effects." 4. "The morning dose of the medication should be taken before a serum medication level is drawn."

2. "Good oral hygiene is needed, including brushing and flossing." Rationale: Typical antiseizure medication instructions include taking the prescribed daily dosage to keep the blood level of the medication constant and having a sample drawn for serum medication level determination before taking the morning dose. The client is taught not to stop the medication abruptly, to avoid alcohol, to check with a primary health care provider before taking over-the-counter medications, to avoid activities in which alertness and coordination are required until medication effects are known, to provide good oral hygiene, and to obtain regular dental care. The client should also wear a MedicAlert bracelet.

A 4-year-old child sustains a fall at home. After an x-ray examination, the child is determined to have a fractured arm and a plaster cast is applied. The nurse provides instructions to the parents regarding care for the child's cast. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "The cast may feel warm as the cast dries." 2. "I can use lotion or powder around the cast edges to relieve itching." 3. "A small amount of white shoe polish can touch up a soiled white cast." 4. "If the cast becomes wet, a blow drier set on the cool setting may be used to dry the cast."

2. "I can use lotion or powder around the cast edges to relieve itching." Rationale: Teaching about cast care is essential to prevent complications from the cast. The parents need to be instructed not to use lotion or powders on the skin around the cast edges or inside the cast. Lotions or powders can become sticky or caked and cause skin irritation.

The nurse has completed discharge instructions for a client with application of a halo device who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury. Which statement indicates that the client needs further clarification of the instructions? 1. "I will use a straw for drinking." 2. "I will drive only during the daytime." 3. "I will be careful because the device alters balance." 4. I will wash the skin daily under the lamb's wool liner of the vest."

2. "I will drive only during the daytime." Rationale: The halo device alters balance and can cause fatigue because of its weight. The client should cleanse the skin daily under the vest to protect the skin from ulceration and should avoid the use of powder or lotions. The liner should be changed if odor becomes a problem. The client should have food cut into small pieces to facilitate chewing and use a straw for drinking. Pin care is done as instructed. The client cannot drive at all, because the device impairs the range of vision.

A client has a neurological deficit involving the limbic system. On assessment, which finding is specific to this type of deficit? 1. Is disoriented to person, place, and time. 2. Affect is flat, with periods of emotional lability. 3. Cannot recall what was eaten for breakfast today. 4. Demonstrates inability to add and subtract; does not know who is the president of the United States.

2. Affect is flat, with periods of emotional lability. Rationale: The limbic system is responsible for feelings (affect) and emotions. Calculation ability and knowledge of current events relate to function of the frontal lobe. The cerebral hemispheres, with specific regional functions, control orientation. Recall of recent events is controlled by the hippocampus.

The nurse is preparing discharge instructions for a client who sustained a skeletal muscle injury and is receiving baclofen. Which instruction should be included in the teaching plan? 1. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Avoid the use of alcohol. 3. Stop the medication if diarrhea occurs. 4. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP) if fatigue occurs.

2. Avoid the use of alcohol. Rationale: Baclofen is a skeletal muscle relaxant. The client should be cautioned against the use of alcohol and other central nervous system depressants, because baclofen potentiates the depressant activity of these agents. Constipation, rather than diarrhea, is a side effect. Restriction of fluids is not necessary, but the client should be warned that urinary retention can occur. Fatigue is related to a central nervous system effect that is most intense during the early phase of therapy and diminishes with continued medication use. The client does not need to notify the PHCP about fatigue.

The nurse is caring for the client with increased intracranial pressure as a result of a head injury? The nurse would note which trend in vital signs if the intracranial pressure is rising? 1. Increasing temperature, increasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure 2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure 3. Decreasing temperature, decreasing pulse, increasing respirations, decreasing blood pressure 4. Decreasing temperature, increasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure

2. Increasing temperature, decreasing pulse, decreasing respirations, increasing blood pressure Rationale: A change in vital signs may be a late sign of increased intracranial pressure. Trends include increasing temperature and blood pressure and decreasing pulse and respirations. Respiratory irregularities also may occur.

A client being measured for crutches asks the nurse why the crutches cannot rest up underneath the arm for extra support. The nurse responds knowing that which would most likely result from this improper crutch measurement? 1. A fall and further injury 2. Injury to the brachial plexus nerves 3. Skin breakdown in the area of the axilla 4. Impaired range of motion while the client ambulates

2. Injury to the brachial plexus nerves Rationale: Crutches are measured so that the tops are 2 to 3 fingerwidths from the axillae. This ensures that the client's axillae are not resting on the crutch or bearing the weight of the crutch, which could result in injury to the nerves of the brachial plexus.

The nurse prepares a list of home care instructions for the parents of a child who has a plaster cast applied to the left forearm. Which instructions should be included on the list? Select all that apply. 1. Use the fingertips to lift the cast while it is drying. 2. Keep small toys and sharp objects away from the cast. 3. Use a padded ruler or another padded object to scratch the skin under the cast if it itches. 4. Place a heating pad on the lower end of the cast and over the fingers if the fingers feel cold. 5. Elevate the extremity on pillows for the first 24 to 48 hours after casting to prevent swelling. 6. Contact the primary health care provider (PHCP) if the child complains of numbness or tingling in the extremity.

2. Keep small toys and sharp objects away from the cast. 5. Elevate the extremity on pillows for the first 24 to 48 hours after casting to prevent swelling. 6. Contact the primary health care provider (PHCP) if the child complains of numbness or tingling in the extremity. Rationale: While the cast is drying, the palms of the hands are used to lift the cast. If the fingertips are used, indentations in the cast could occur and cause constant pressure on the underlying skin. Small toys and sharp objects are kept away from the cast, and no objects (including padded objects) are placed inside the cast because of the risk of altered skin integrity. The extremity is elevated to prevent swelling, and the PHCP is notified immediately if any signs of neurovascular impairment develop. A heating pad is not applied to the cast or fingers. Cold fingers could indicate neurovascular impairment, and the PHCP should be notified.

Colchicine is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of gout. The nurse reviews the client's record, knowing that this medication would be used with caution in which disorder? 1. Myxedema 2. Kidney disease 3. Hypothyroidism 4. Diabetes mellitus

2. Kidney disease Rationale: Colchicine is used with caution in older clients, debilitated clients, and clients with cardiac, kidney, or gastrointestinal disease. The disorders in options 1, 3, and 4 are not concerns with administration of this medication.

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic back pain. Codeine has been prescribed for the client. Specific to this medication, which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care while the client is taking this medication? 1. Monitor radial pulse. 2. Monitor bowel activity. 3. Monitor apical heart rate. 4. Monitor peripheral pulses.

2. Monitor bowel activity. Rationale: While the client is taking codeine, the nurse would monitor vital signs and assess for hypotension. The nurse also should increase fluid intake, palpate the bladder for urinary retention, auscultate bowel sounds, and monitor the pattern of daily bowel activity and stool consistency, because the medication causes constipation. The nurse should monitor respiratory status and initiate deep breathing and coughing exercises. In addition, the nurse monitors the effectiveness of the pain medication.

The nurse is assessing the motor and sensory function of an unconscious client who sustained a head injury. The nurse should use which technique to test the client's peripheral response to pain? 1. Sternal rub 2. Nailbed pressure 3. Pressure on the orbital rim 4. Squeezing of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

2. Nailbed pressure Rationale: Nailbed pressure tests a basic motor and sensory peripheral response. Cerebral responses to pain are tested using a sternal rub, placing upward pressure on the orbital rim, or squeezing the clavicle or sternocleidomastoid muscle.

The nurse has conducted teaching with a client in an arm cast about the signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome. The nurse determines that the client understands the information if the client states that he or she should report which early symptom of compartment syndrome? 1. Cold, bluish-colored fingers 2. Numbness and tingling in the fingers 3. Pain that increases when the arm is dependent 4. Pain that is out of proportion to the severity of the fracture

2. Numbness and tingling in the fingers Rationale: The earliest symptom of compartment syndrome is paresthesia (numbness and tingling in the fingers). Other symptoms include pain unrelieved by opioids, pain that increases with limb elevation, and pallor and coolness to the distal limb. Cyanosis is a late sign. Pain that is out of proportion to the severity of the fracture, along with other symptoms associated with the pain, is not an early manifestation.

An infant with a diagnosis of hydrocephalus is scheduled for surgery. Which is the priority nursing intervention in the preoperative period? 1. Test the urine for protein. 2. Reposition the infant frequently. 3. Provide a stimulating environment. 4. Assess blood pressure every 15 minutes.

2. Reposition the infant frequently.

A client has been on treatment for rheumatoid arthritis for 3 weeks. During the administration of etanercept, which is most important for the nurse to assess? 1. The injection site for itching and edema 2. The white blood cell counts and platelet counts 3. Whether the client is experiencing fatigue and joint pain 4. Whether the client is experiencing a metallic taste in the mouth and a loss of appetite

2. The white blood cell counts and platelet counts Rationale: Infection and pancytopenia are adverse effects of etanercept. Laboratory studies are performed prior to and during medication treatment. The appearance of abnormal white blood cell counts and abnormal platelet counts can alert the nurse to a potentially life-threatening infection. Injection site itching is a common occurrence following administration. A metallic taste and loss of appetite are not common signs of adverse effects of this medication.

Meperidine has been prescribed for a client to treat pain. Which side and adverse effects should the nurse monitor for? Select all that apply. 1. Diarrhea 2. Tremors 3. Drowsiness 4. Hypotension 5. Urinary frequency 6. Increased respiratory rate

2. Tremors 3. Drowsiness 4. Hypotension Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic. Side and adverse effects include respiratory depression, drowsiness, hypotension, constipation, urinary retention, nausea, vomiting, and tremors. Meperidine is not commonly prescribed but may be used for acute pain and as a preoperative medication.

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of gout. Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to note in the client? 1. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL (2.25 mmol/L) 2. Uric acid level of 9.0 mg/dL (540 mcmol/L) 3. Potassium level of 4.1 mEq/L (4.1 mmol/L) 4. Phosphorus level of 3.1 mg/dL (1.0 mmol/L)

2. Uric acid level of 9.0 mg/dL (540 mcmol/L) Rationale: In addition to the presence of clinical manifestations, gout is diagnosed by the presence of persistent hyperuricemia, with a uric acid level higher than 8 mg/dL (480 mcmol/L); a normal value for a male ranges from 4.0 to 8.5 mg/dL (240-501 mcmol/L) and for a female, from 2.7 to 7.3 mg/dL (160-430 mcmol/L). Options 1, 3, and 4 indicate normal laboratory values. In addition, the presence of uric acid in an aspirated sample of synovial fluid confirms the diagnosis.

The parents of a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis call the clinic nurse because the child is experiencing a painful exacerbation of the disease. The parents ask the nurse if the child can perform range-of-motion exercises at this time. The nurse should make which response? 1. "Avoid all exercise during painful periods." 2. "Range-of-motion exercises must be performed every day." 3. "Have the child perform simple isometric exercises during this time." 4. "Administer additional pain medication before performing range-of-motion exercises."

3. "Have the child perform simple isometric exercises during this time." Rationale: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is an autoimmune inflammatory disease affecting the joints and other tissues, such as articular cartilage. During painful episodes of juvenile idiopathic arthritis, hot or cold packs and splinting and positioning the affected joint in a neutral position help reduce the pain. Although resting the extremity is appropriate, beginning simple isometric or tensing exercises as soon as the child is able is important. These exercises do not involve joint movement.

Parents bring their 2-week-old infant to a clinic for treatment after a diagnosis of clubfoot made at birth. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further teaching regarding this disorder? 1. "Treatment needs to be started as soon as possible." 2. "I realize my infant will require follow-up care until fully grown." 3. "I need to bring my infant back to the clinic in 1 month for a new cast." 4. "I need to come to the clinic every week with my infant for the casting."

3. "I need to bring my infant back to the clinic in 1 month for a new cast." Rationale: Treatment for clubfoot is started as soon as possible after birth. Serial manipulation and casting are performed at least weekly. If sufficient correction is not achieved in 3 to 6 months, surgery usually is indicated. Because clubfoot can recur, all children with clubfoot require long-term interval follow-up until they reach skeletal maturity to ensure an optimal outcome.

The nurse is providing instructions to the parents of a child with scoliosis regarding the use of a brace. Which statement by the parents indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "I will encourage my child to perform prescribed exercises." 2. "I will have my child wear soft fabric clothing under the brace." 3. "I should apply lotion under the brace to prevent skin breakdown." 4. "I should avoid the use of powder because it will cake under the brace."

3. "I should apply lotion under the brace to prevent skin breakdown." Rationale: The use of lotions or powders under a brace sho3. Ortolani's maneuveruld be avoided because they can become sticky and cake under the brace, causing irritation.

The parents of a child recently diagnosed with cerebral palsy ask the nurse about the limitations of the disorder. The nurse responds by explaining that the limitations occur as a result of which pathophysiological process? 1. An infectious disease of the central nervous system 2. An inflammation of the brain as a result of a viral illness 3. A chronic disability characterized by impaired muscle movement and posture 4. A congenital condition that results in moderate to severe intellectual disabilities

3. A chronic disability characterized by impaired muscle movement and posture Rationale: cerebral palsy is a chronic disability characterized by impaired movement and posture resulting from abnormality in the extrapyramidal or pyramidal motor system.

The nurse is evaluating the status of a client who had a craniotomy 3 days ago. Which assessment finding would indicate that the client is developing meningitis as a complication of surgery? 1. A negative Kernig's sign 2. Absence of nuchal rigidity 3. A positive Brudzinski's sign 4. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15

3. A positive Brudzinski's sign Rationale: Signs of meningeal irritation compatible with meningitis include nuchal rigidity, a positive Brudzinski's sign, and positive Kernig's sign. Nuchal rigidity is characterized by a stiff neck and soreness, which is especially noticeable when the neck is flexed. Kernig's sign is positive when the client feels pain and spasm of the hamstring muscles when the leg is fully flexed at the knee and hip. Brudzinski's sign is positive when the client flexes the hips and knees in response to the nurse gently flexing the head and neck onto the chest. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 is a perfect score and indicates that the client is awake and alert, with no neurological deficits.

A client is complaining of low back pain that radiates down the left posterior thigh. The nurse should ask the client if the pain is worsened or aggravated by which factor? 1. Bed rest 2. Ibuprofen 3. Bending or lifting 4. Application of heat

3. Bending or lifting Rationale: Low back pain that radiates down 1 leg (sciatica) is consistent with herniated lumbar disk. The nurse assesses the client to see whether the pain is aggravated by events that increase intraspinal pressure, such as bending, lifting, sneezing, and coughing, or by lifting the leg straight up while supine (straight leg-raising test). Bed rest, heat (or sometimes ice), and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) usually relieve back pain.

The nurse is administering an intravenous dose of methocarbamol to a client with a muscle skeletal injury. For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor? 1. Tachycardia 2. Rapid pulse 3. Bradycardia 4. Hypertension

3. Bradycardia Rationale: Intravenous administration of methocarbamol can cause hypotension and bradycardia. The nurse needs to monitor for these adverse effects. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not effects with administration of this medication.

A lumbar puncture is performed on a child suspected to have bacterial meningitis, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is obtained for analysis. The nurse reviews the results of the CSF analysis and determines that which results would verify the diagnosis? 1. Clear CSF, decreased pressure, and elevated protein level 2. Clear CSF, elevated protein, and decreased glucose levels 3. Cloudy CSF, elevated protein, and decreased glucose levels 4. Cloudy CSF, decreased protein, and decreased glucose levels

3. Cloudy CSF, elevated protein, and decreased glucose levels. Rationale: Meningitis is diagnosed by testing CSF obtained by lumbar puncture. In the case of bacterial meningitis, findings usually include an elevated pressure; turbid or cloudy CSF; and elevated leukocyte, elevated protein, and decreased glucose levels.

The nurse is evaluating the neurological signs of a client in spinal shock following spinal cord injury. Which observation indicates that spinal shock persists? 1. Hyperreflexia 2. Positive reflexes 3. Flaccid paralysis 4. Reflex emptying of the bladder

3. Flaccid paralysis Rationale: Resolution of spinal shock is occurring when there is return of reflexes (especially flexors to noxious cutaneous stimuli), a state of hyper-reflexia rather than flaccidity, and reflex emptying of the bladder.

A client has sustained a closed fracture and has just had a cast applied to the affected arm. The client is complaining of intense pain. The nurse elevates the limb, applies an ice bag, and administers an analgesic, with little relief. Which problem may be causing this pain? 1. Infection under the cast 2. The anxiety of the client 3. Impaired tissue perfusion 4. The recent occurrence of the fracture

3. Impaired tissue perfusion Rationale: Most pain associated with fractures can be minimized with rest, elevation, application of cold, and administration of analgesics. Pain that is not relieved by these measures should be reported to the primary health care provider because pain unrelieved by medications and other measures may indicate neurovascular compromise. Because this is a new closed fracture and cast, infection would not have had time to set in. Intense pain after casting is normally not associated with anxiety or the recent occurrence of the injury. Treatment following the fracture should assist in relieving the pain associated with the injury.

The nurse is analyzing the laboratory studies on a client receiving dantrolene to treat muscle spasms from an injury. Which laboratory test would identify an adverse effect associated with the administration of this medication? 1. Platelet count 2. Creatinine level 3. Liver function tests 4. Blood urea nitrogen level

3. Liver function tests Rationale: Dose-related liver damage is the most serious adverse effect of dantrolene. To reduce the risk of liver damage, liver function tests should be performed before treatment and throughout the treatment interval. Dantrolene is administered at the lowest effective dosage for the shortest time necessary.

The nurse is assigned to care for an 8-year-old child with a diagnosis of a basilar skull fracture. The nurse reviews the pediatrician's prescriptions and should contact the pediatrician to question which prescription? 1. Obtain daily weight. 2. Provide clear liquid intake. 3. Nasotracheal suction as needed. 4. Maintain a patent intravenous line.

3. Nasotracheal suction as needed. Rationale: a basillar skull fracture is a type of head injury. Nasotracheal suctioning is contraindicated because there is a possibility that the catheter will enter the brain through the fracture, creating a high risk of secondary infection.

The nurse is assisting a primary health care provider (PHCP) examine a 3-week-old infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip. What test or sign should the nurse expect the PHCP to assess? 1. Babinski's sign 2. The Moro reflex 3. Ortolani's maneuver 4. The palmar-plantar grasp

3. Ortolani's maneuver Rationale: Ortolani's maneuver is a test to assess for hip instability and can be done only before 4 weeks of age. The examiner abducts the thigh and applies gentle pressure forward over the greater trochanter. A "clicking" sensation indicates a dislocated femoral head moving into the acetabulum.

The nurse is assessing the casted extremity of a client. Which sign is indicative of infection? 1. Dependent edema 2. Diminished distal pulse 3. Presence of a "hot spot" on the cast 4. Coolness and pallor of the extremity

3. Presence of a "hot spot" on the cast Rationale: Signs of infection under a casted area include odor or purulent drainage from the cast or the presence of "hot spots," which are areas of the cast that are warmer than others. The primary health care provider should be notified if any of these occur. Signs of impaired circulation in the distal limb include coolness and pallor of the skin, diminished distal pulse, and edema.

The client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which past medical history finding makes the client most at risk for this disease? 1. Meningitis or encephalitis during the last 5 years 2. Seizures or trauma to the brain within the last year 3. Back injury or trauma to the spinal cord during the last 2 years 4. Respiratory or gastrointestinal infection during the previous month

3. Providing information, giving positive feedback, and encouraging relaxation Rationale: The client with Guillain-Barré syndrome experiences fear and anxiety from the ascending paralysis and sudden onset of the disorder. The nurse can alleviate these fears by providing accurate information about the client's condition, giving expert care and positive feedback to the client, and encouraging relaxation and distraction. The family can become involved with selected care activities and provide diversion for the client as well.

The nurse is caring for a client who had an above-knee amputation 2 days ago. The residual limb was wrapped with an elastic compression bandage, which has come off. Which immediate action should the nurse take? 1. Apply ice to the site. 2. Call the primary health care provider (PHCP). 3. Rewrap the residual limb with an elastic compression bandage. 4. Apply a dry, sterile dressing and elevate the residual limb on 1 pillow.

3. Rewrap the residual limb with an elastic compression bandage. Rationale: If the client with an amputation has a cast or elastic compression bandage that slips off, the nurse must wrap the residual limb immediately with another elastic compression bandage. Otherwise, excessive edema will form rapidly, which could cause a significant delay in rehabilitation. If the client had a cast that slipped off, the nurse would have to call the PHCP so that a new one could be applied. Elevation on 1 pillow is not going to impede the development of edema greatly once compression is released. Ice would be of limited value in controlling edema from this cause. If the PHCP were called, the prescription likely would be to reapply the compression dressing anyway.

The nurse is reviewing the record of a child with increased intracranial pressure and notes that the child has exhibited signs of decerebrate posturing. On assessment of the child, the nurse expects to note which characteristic of this type of posturing? 1. Flaccid paralysis of all extremities 2. Adduction of the arms at the shoulders 3. Rigid extension and pronation of the arms and legs 4. Abnormal flexion of the upper extremities and extension and adduction of the lower extremities

3. Rigid extension and pronation of the arms and legs Rationale: Decerebrate (extension) posturing is characterized by the rigid extension and pronation of the arms and legs.

A client is taking the prescribed dose of phenytoin to control seizures. Results of a phenytoin blood level study reveal a level of 35 mcg/mL (140 mcmol/L). Which finding would be expected as a result of this laboratory result? 1. Hypotension 2. Tachycardia 3. Slurred speech 4. No abnormal finding

3. Slurred speech Rationale: The therapeutic phenytoin level is 10 to 20 mcg/mL (40 to 79 mcmol/L). At a level higher than 20 mcg/mL, involuntary movements of the eyeballs (nystagmus) occur. At a level higher than 30 mcg/mL (120 mcmol/L), ataxia and slurred speech occur.

The home health nurse visits a client who is taking phenytoin for control of seizures. During the assessment, the nurse notes that the client is taking birth control pills. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan? 1. Pregnancy must be avoided while taking phenytoin. 2. The client may stop the medication if it is causing severe gastrointestinal effects. 3. There is the potential of decreased effectiveness of birth control pills while taking phenytoin. 4. There is the increased risk of thrombophlebitis while taking phenytoin and birth control pills together.

3. There is the potential of decreased effectiveness of birth control pills while taking phenytoin. Rationale: Phenytoin enhances the rate of estrogen metabolism, which can decrease the effectiveness of some birth control pills. Options 1, 2, and 4 are inappropriate instructions. Pregnancy does not need to be "avoided" while taking phenytoin; however, because phenytoin may cause some risk to the fetus (Pregnancy Category D medication), consultation with the primary health care provider should be done if pregnancy is considered. Telling a client that there is an increased risk of thrombophlebitis is incorrect and inappropriate and could cause anxiety in the client. A client should not be instructed to stop antiseizure medication.

The nurse is evaluating a client in skeletal traction. When evaluating the pin sites, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding? 1. Redness around the pin sites 2. Pain on palpation at the pin sites 3. Thick, yellow drainage from the pin sites 4. Clear, watery drainage from the pin sites

3. Thick, yellow drainage from the pin sites Rationale: The nurse should monitor for signs of infection such as inflammation, purulent (thick white or yellow) drainage, and pain at the pin site. However, some degree of inflammation, pain at the pin site, and serous drainage would be expected; the nurse should correlate assessment findings with other clinical findings, such as fever, elevated white blood cell count, and changes in vital signs. Additionally, the nurse should compare any findings to baseline findings to determine if there were any changes.

A client with trigeminal neuralgia is being treated with carbamazepine, 400 mg orally daily. Which value indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect to the medication? 1. Sodium level, 140 mEq/L (140 mmol/L) 2. Uric acid level, 4.0 mg/dL (240 mcmol/L) 3. White blood cell count, 3000 mm3 (3.0 × 109/L) 4. Blood urea nitrogen level, 10 mg/dL (3.6 mmol/L)

3. White blood cell count, 3000 mm3 (3.0 × 109/L) Rationale: Carbamazepine, classified as an antiseizure medication, is used to treat nerve pain. Adverse effects of carbamazepine appear as blood dyscrasias, including aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia; cardiovascular disturbances, including thrombophlebitis and dysrhythmias; and dermatological effects. The low white blood cell count reflects agranulocytosis.

The nurse is instructing a client with Parkinson's disease about preventing falls. Which client statement reflects a need for further teaching? 1. "I can sit down to put on my pants and shoes." 2. "I try to exercise every day and rest when I'm tired." 3. "My son removed all loose rugs from my bedroom." 4. "I don't need to use my walker to get to the bathroom."

4. "I don't need to use my walker to get to the bathroom." Rationale: The client with Parkinson's disease should be instructed regarding safety measures in the home. The client should use her or his walker as support to get to the bathroom because of bradykinesia. The client should sit down to put on pants and shoes to prevent falling. The client should exercise every day in the morning when energy levels are highest. The client should have all loose rugs in the home removed to prevent falling.

The nurse has given instructions to a client returning home after knee arthroscopy. Which statement by the client indicates that the instructions are understood? 1. "I can resume regular exercise tomorrow." 2. "I can't eat food for the remainder of the day." 3. "I need to stay off the leg entirely for the rest of the day." 4. "I need to report a fever or swelling to my health care provider."

4. "I need to report a fever or swelling to my health care provider." Rationale: After arthroscopy, the client usually can walk carefully on the leg once sensation has returned. The client is instructed to avoid strenuous exercise for the length of time prescribed by the surgeon. The client may resume the usual diet. Signs and symptoms of infection should be reported to the primary health care provider.

The nurse has given suggestions to a client with trigeminal neuralgia about strategies to minimize episodes of pain. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client makes which statement? 1. "I will wash my face with cotton pads." 2. "I'll have to start chewing on my unaffected side." 3. "I should rinse my mouth if toothbrushing is painful." 4. "I'll try to eat my food either very warm or very cold."

4. "I'll try to eat my food either very warm or very cold." Rationale: Facial pain can be minimized by using cotton pads to wash the face and using room temperature water. The client should chew on the unaffected side of the mouth, eat a soft diet, and take in foods and beverages at room temperature. If brushing the teeth triggers pain, an oral rinse after meals may be helpful instead.

The nurse has instructed the family of a client with stroke (brain attack) who has homonymous hemianopsia about measures to help the client overcome the deficit. Which statement suggests that the family understands the measures to use when caring for the client? 1. "We need to discourage him from wearing eyeglasses." 2. "We need to place objects in his impaired field of vision." 3. "We need to approach him from the impaired field of vision." 4. "We need to remind him to turn his head to scan the lost visual field."

4. "We need to remind him to turn his head to scan the lost visual field." Rationale: Homonymous hemianopsia is loss of half of the visual field. The client with homonymous hemianopsia should have objects placed in the intact field of vision, and the nurse also should approach the client from the intact side. The nurse instructs the client to scan the environment to overcome the visual deficit and does client teaching from within the intact field of vision. The nurse encourages the use of personal eyeglasses, if they are available.

The nurse is conducting health screening for osteoporosis. Which client is at greatest risk of developing this problem? 1. A 25-year-old woman who runs 2. A 36-year-old man who has asthma 3. A 70-year-old man who consumes excess alcohol 4. A sedentary 65-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes

4. A sedentary 65-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes Rationale: Risk factors for osteoporosis include female gender, being postmenopausal, advanced age, a low-calcium diet, excessive alcohol intake, being sedentary, and smoking cigarettes. Long-term use of corticosteroids, anticonvulsants, and/or furosemide also increases the risk.

A client with myasthenia gravis has become increasingly weaker. The primary health care provider prepares to identify whether the client is reacting to an overdose of the medication (cholinergic crisis) or an increasing severity of the disease (myasthenic crisis). An injection of edrophonium is administered. Which finding would indicate that the client is in cholinergic crisis? 1. No change in the condition 2. Complaints of muscle spasms 3. An improvement of the weakness 4. A temporary worsening of the condition

4. A temporary worsening of the condition Rationale: An edrophonium injection makes the client in cholinergic crisis temporarily worse. An improvement in the weakness indicates myasthenia crisis. Muscle spasms are not associated with this test.

The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department who has been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. The client has been taking acetaminophen, and acetaminophen overdose is suspected. Which antidote should the nurse prepare for administration if prescribed? 1. Pentostatin 2. Auranofin 3. Fludarabine 4. Acetylcysteine

4. Acetylcysteine Rationale: The antidote for acetaminophen is acetylcysteine. The normal therapeutic serum level of acetaminophen is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. A toxic level is higher than 50 mcg/mL, and levels higher than 200 mcg/mL 4 hours after ingestion indicates that there is risk for liver damage. Auranofin is a gold preparation that may be used to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Pentostatin and fludarabine are antineoplastic agents.

A mother arrives at the emergency department with her 5-year-old child and states that the child fell off a bunk bed. A head injury is suspected. The nurse checks the child's airway status and assesses the child for early and late signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which is a late sign of increased ICP? 1. Nausea 2. Irritability 3. Headache 4. Bradycardia

4. Bradycardia Rationale: late signs of IICP include a significant decrease in LOC, bradycardia, decreased motor and sensory responses, alterations in PERRLA, posturing, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, and coma.

A child is placed in skeletal traction for treatment of a fractured femur. The nurse creates a plan of care and should include which intervention? 1. Ensure that all ropes are outside the pulleys. 2. Ensure that the weights are resting lightly on the floor. 3. Restrict diversional and play activities until the child is out of traction. 4. Check the primary health care provider's (PHCP's) prescriptions for the amount of weight to be applied.

4. Check the primary health care provider's (PHCP's) prescriptions for the amount of weight to be applied. Rationale: When a child is in traction, the nurse would check the PHCP's prescription to verify the prescribed amount of traction weight. The nurse would maintain the correct amount of weight as prescribed, ensure that the weights hang freely, check the ropes for fraying and ensure that they are on the pulleys appropriately, monitor the neurovascular status of the involved extremity, and monitor for signs and symptoms of complications of immobilization. The nurse would provide therapeutic and diversional play activities for the child.

The nurse is assessing the adaptation of a client to changes in functional status after a stroke (brain attack). Which observation indicates to the nurse that the client is adapting most successfully? 1. Gets angry with family if they interrupt a task 2. Experiences bouts of depression and irritability 3. Has difficulty with using modified feeding utensils 4. Consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self

4. Consistently uses adaptive equipment in dressing self Rationale: Clients are evaluated as coping successfully with lifestyle changes after a stroke if they make appropriate lifestyle alterations, use the assistance of others, and have appropriate social interactions.

A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen is taken daily for the relief of generalized discomfort. Which laboratory value would indicate toxicity associated with the medication? 1. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L (140 mmol/L) 2. Platelet count of 400,000 mm3 (400 × 109/L) 3. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds (12 seconds) 4. Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL (34 mcmol/L)

4. Direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL (34 mcmol/L) Rationale: In adults, overdose of acetaminophen causes liver damage. The correct option is an indicator of liver function and is the only option that indicates an abnormal laboratory value. The normal direct bilirubin level is 0.1 to 0.3 mg/dL (1.7 to 5.1 mcmol/L). The normal sodium level is 135 to 145 mEq/L (135 to 145 mmol/L). The normal prothrombin time is 11 to 12.5 seconds (11 to 12.5 seconds). The normal platelet count is 150,000 to 400,000 mm3 (150 to 400 × 109/L).

The nurse is admitting a client with Guillain-Barré syndrome to the nursing unit. The client has complaints of inability to move both legs and reports a tingling sensation above the waistline. Knowing the complications of the disorder, the nurse should bring which most essential items into the client's room? 1. Nebulizer and pulse oximeter 2. Blood pressure cuff and flashlight 3. Nasal cannula and incentive spirometer 4. Electrocardiographic monitoring electrodes and intubation tray

4. Electrocardiographic monitoring electrodes and intubation tray Rationale: The client with Guillain-Barré syndrome is at risk for respiratory failure because of ascending paralysis. An intubation tray should be available for use. Another complication of this syndrome is cardiac dysrhythmias, which necessitates the use of electrocardiographic monitoring. Because the client is immobilized, the nurse should assess for deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism routinely. Although items in the incorrect options may be used in care, they are not the most essential items from the options provided.

The nurse is admitting a client with multiple trauma injuries to the nursing unit. The client has a leg fracture and had a plaster cast applied. Which position would be best for the casted leg? 1. Elevated for 3 hours, then flat for 1 hour 2. Flat for 3 hours, then elevated for 1 hour 3. Flat for 12 hours, then elevated for 12 hours 4. Elevated on pillows continuously for 24 to 48 hours

4. Elevated on pillows continuously for 24 to 48 hours Rationale: A casted extremity is elevated continuously for the first 24 to 48 hours to minimize swelling and promote venous drainage.

A client recovering from a head injury is participating in care. The nurse determines that the client understands measures to prevent elevations in intracranial pressure if the nurse observes the client doing which activity? 1. Blowing the nose 2. Isometric exercises 3. Coughing vigorously 4. Exhaling during repositioning

4. Exhaling during repositioning Rationale: Activities that increase intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressures cause an indirect elevation of the intracranial pressure. Some of these activities include isometric exercises, Valsalva's maneuver, coughing, sneezing, and blowing the nose. Exhaling during activities such as repositioning or pulling up in bed opens the glottis, which prevents intrathoracic pressure from rising.

A client has clear fluid leaking from the nose following a basilar skull fracture. Which finding would alert the nurse that cerebrospinal fluid is present? 1. Fluid is clear and tests negative for glucose. 2. Fluid is grossly bloody in appearance and has a pH of 6. 3. Fluid clumps together on the dressing and has a pH of 7. 4. Fluid separates into concentric rings and tests positive for glucose.

4. Fluid separates into concentric rings and tests positive for glucose. Rationale: Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the ears or nose may accompany basilar skull fracture. CSF can be distinguished from other body fluids, because the drainage will separate into bloody and yellow concentric rings on dressing material, called a halo sign. The fluid also tests positive for glucose.

Carbidopa-levodopa is prescribed for a client with Parkinson's disease. The nurse monitors the client for side and adverse effects of the medication. Which finding indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect? 1. Pruritus 2. Tachycardia 3. Hypertension 4. Impaired voluntary movements

4. Impaired voluntary movements Rationale: Dyskinesia and impaired voluntary movements may occur with high carbidopa-levodopa dosages. Nausea, anorexia, dizziness, orthostatic hypotension, bradycardia, and akinesia are frequent side effects of the medication.

The nurse is planning care for a child with acute bacterial meningitis. Based on the mode of transmission of this infection, which precautionary intervention should be included in the plan of care? 1. Maintain enteric precautions. 2. Maintain neutropenic precautions. 3. No precautions are required as long as antibiotics have been started. 4. Maintain respiratory isolation precautions for at least 24 hours after the initiation of antibiotics.

4. Maintain respiratory isolation precautions for at least 24 hours after the initiation of antibiotics.

A child who has undergone spinal fusion for scoliosis complains of abdominal discomfort and begins to have episodes of vomiting. On further assessment, the nurse notes abdominal distention. On the basis of these findings, the nurse should take which action? 1. Administer an antiemetic. 2. Increase the intravenous fluids. 3. Place the child in a Sims' position. 4. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP).

4. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP). Rationale: A complication after surgical treatment of scoliosis is superior mesenteric artery syndrome. This disorder is caused by mechanical changes in the position of the child's abdominal contents, resulting from lengthening of the child's body. The disorder results in a syndrome of emesis and abdominal distention similar to that which occurs with intestinal obstruction or paralytic ileus. Postoperative vomiting in children with body casts or children who have undergone spinal fusion warrants attention because of the possibility of superior mesenteric artery syndrome.

A child has a right femur fracture caused by a motor vehicle crash and is placed in skin traction temporarily until surgery can be performed. During assessment, the nurse notes that the dorsalis pedis pulse is absent on the right foot. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Administer an analgesic. 2. Release the skin traction. 3. Apply ice to the extremity. 4. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP).

4. Notify the primary health care provider (PHCP). Rationale: An absent pulse to an extremity of the affected limb after a bone fracture could mean that the child is developing or experiencing compartment syndrome. This is an emergency situation, and the PHCP needs to be notified immediately.

A client with a hip fracture asks the nurse about Buck's (extension) traction that is being applied before surgery and what is involved. The nurse should provide which information to the client? 1. Allows bony healing to begin before surgery and involves pins and screws 2. Provides rigid immobilization of the fracture site and involves pulleys and wheels 3. Lengthens the fractured leg to prevent severing of blood vessels and involves pins and screws 4. Provides comfort by reducing muscle spasms, provides fracture immobilization, and involves pulleys and wheels

4. Provides comfort by reducing muscle spasms, provides fracture immobilization, and involves pulleys and wheels Rationale: Buck's (extension) traction is a type of skin traction often applied after hip fracture before the fracture is reduced in surgery. Traction reduces muscle spasms and helps immobilize the fracture. Traction does not allow for bony healing to begin or provide rigid immobilization. Traction does not lengthen the leg for the purpose of preventing blood vessel severance. This type of traction involves pulleys and wheels, not pins and screws.

A child is diagnosed with Reye's syndrome. The nurse creates a nursing care plan for the child and should include which intervention in the plan? 1. Assessing hearing loss 2. Monitoring urine output 3. Changing body position every 2 hours 4. Providing a quiet atmosphere with dimmed lighting

4. Providing a quiet atmosphere with dimmed lighting Rationale: Reye's syndrome is an acute encephalopathy that follows a viral illness and is characterized pathologically by cerebral edema and fatty changes in the liver. In Reye's syndrome, supportive care is directed toward monitoring and managing cerebral edema. Decreasing stimuli in the environment by providing a quiet environment with dimmed lighting would decrease the stress on the cerebral tissue and neuron responses. The child should be positioned with the head elevated to decrease the progression of the cerebral edema and promote drainage of cerebrospinal fluid.

A client with diabetes mellitus has had a right below-knee amputation. Given the client's history of diabetes mellitus, which complication is the client at most risk for after surgery? 1. Hemorrhage 2. Edema of the residual limb 3. Slight redness of the incision 4. Separation of the wound edges

4. Separation of the wound edges Rationale: Clients with diabetes mellitus are more prone to wound infection, wound separation, and delayed wound healing because of the disease. Postoperative hemorrhage and edema of the residual limb are complications in the immediate postoperative period that apply to any client with an amputation. Slight redness of the incision is considered normal, as long as the incision is dry and intact.

The nurse witnessed a vehicle hit a pedestrian. The victim is dazed and tries to get up. A leg appears fractured. Which intervention should the nurse take? 1. Try to reduce the fracture manually. 2. Assist the victim to get up and walk to the sidewalk. 3. Leave the victim for a few moments to call an ambulance. 4. Stay with the victim and encourage him or her to remain still.

4. Stay with the victim and encourage him or her to remain still. Rationale: With a suspected fracture, the victim is not moved unless it is dangerous to remain in that spot. The nurse should remain with the victim and have someone else call for emergency help. A fracture is not reduced at the scene. Before the victim is moved, the site of fracture is immobilized to prevent further injury.

The nurse creates a plan of care for a child at risk for tonic-clonic seizures. In the plan of care, the nurse identifies seizure precautions and documents that which item(s) need to be placed at the child's bedside? 1. Emergency cart 2. Tracheotomy set 3. Padded tongue blade 4. Suctioning equipment and oxygen

4. Suctioning equipment and oxygen. Rationale: Because increased oral secretions and apnea can occur during and after the seizure, oxygen and suctioning equipment are placed at the bedside.

Alendronate is prescribed for a client with osteoporosis, and the nurse is providing instructions on administration of the medication. Which instruction should the nurse provide? 1. Take the medication at bedtime. 2. Take the medication in the morning with breakfast. 3. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication. 4. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning.

4. Take the medication with a full glass of water after rising in the morning. Rationale: Precautions need to be taken with the administration of alendronate to prevent gastrointestinal adverse effects (especially esophageal irritation) and to increase absorption of the medication. The medication needs to be taken with a full glass of water after rising in the morning. The client should not eat or drink anything for 30 minutes following administration and should not lie down after taking the medication.

A client had a left anterior total hip arthroplasty 2 days ago. Which precautions will the nurse teach the client to prevent surgical complications? Select all that apply. A. "Avoid extending your left hip behind you when you sit." B. "Do not flex your hips more than 90 degrees when toileting." C. "You may cross your legs to be more comfortable in a chair." D. "Avoid twisting your body when moving or performing ADLs." E. "Stand on your right leg and pivot into the chair when getting out of bed."

A. "Avoid extending your left hip behind you when you sit." D. "Avoid twisting your body when moving or performing ADLs." E. "Stand on your right leg and pivot into the chair when getting out of bed."

The primary health care provider prescribes acetaminophen for a client with osteoarthritis. Which health teaching will the nurse provide for the client regarding this drug? Select all that apply. A. "Don't take more than 3000-4000 mg of this drug each day." B. "Stop taking the drug if unusual bleeding occurs and call your primary health care provider." C. "Tell your primary health care provider if you notice any yellowing of your skin or eyes." D. "Expect fluid accumulation in your legs and feet that usually gets worse during the day." E. "Check over-the-counter drugs to see if they contain acetaminophen."

A. "Don't take more than 3000-4000 mg of this drug each day." C. "Tell your primary health care provider if you notice any yellowing of your skin or eyes." E. "Check over-the-counter drugs to see if they contain acetaminophen."

A nursing assistant (NA) is assigned to care for a client who had a cemented total knee arthroplasty. Which statement by the NA indicates a need for further teaching and supervision by the nurse? A. "I'll keep an abduction pillow in place at all times." B. "I'll tell the client not to place a pillow under the surgical knee." C. "I'll apply ice packs to decrease swelling in the knee as ordered." D. "I'll check to make sure the client's leg is not rotated."

A. "I'll keep an abduction pillow in place at all times."

The nurse provides health teaching for a client beginning glatiramer acetate therapy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional teaching? A. "I'll take this drug with food every morning." B. "I'll look for signs of skin reaction at the injection site." C. "I'll stay away from kids who have colds." D. "I'll avoid large crowds so I don't get sick."

A. "I'll take this drug with food every morning."

The nurse is teaching a client about self-management measures to help prevent low back pain. Which teaching should be included? Select all that apply. A. "Losing weight can decrease strain on your back." B. "Avoid twisting at your waist." C. "Exercise on a regular basis, including walking." D. "Don't bend at your waist when lifting a heavy object." E. "Eat foods high in calcium and vitamin D to prevent bone loss."

A. "Losing weight can decrease strain on your back." B. "Avoid twisting at your waist." C. "Exercise on a regular basis, including walking." D. "Don't bend at your waist when lifting a heavy object." E. "Eat foods high in calcium and vitamin D to prevent bone loss."

Which health teaching by the nurse is important for clients diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus? Select all that apply. A. "Take frequent rest periods to prevent fatigue." B. "Avoid green leafy vegetables to prevent bleeding." C. "Avoid sun exposure to prevent disease flare-ups." D. "Report fever to your health care provider immediately" E. "Use a mild soap for bathing to prevent skin irritation."

A. "Take frequent rest periods to prevent fatigue." C. "Avoid sun exposure to prevent disease flare-ups." D. "Report fever to your health care provider immediately" E. "Use a mild soap for bathing to prevent skin irritation."

Which assessment findings will the nurse expect for the client with late-stage rheumatoid arthritis? Select all that apply. A. Bony nodes in finger joints B. Subcutaneous nodules C. Severe weight loss D. Joint deformity E. Thrombocytosis

A. Bony nodes in finger joints B. Subcutaneous nodules C. Severe weight loss D. Joint deformity E.Thrombocytosis

What is the nurse's priority when doing an admission for a client who returned directly from the operating suite after a carpal tunnel repair? A. Monitor vital signs, including pulse oximetry. B. Check the surgical dressing to ensure that it is intact. C. Assess neurovascular assessment in the affected arm. D. Monitor intake and output.

A. Monitor vital signs, including pulse oximetry.

A client has a synthetic cast placed for a right wrist fracture in the emergency department. Which priority health teaching is important for the nurse to provide for this client before returning home? Select all that apply. A. "Keep your right arm below the level of your heart as often as possible." B. "Use an ice pack for the first 24 hours to decrease tissue swelling." C. "Move the fingers of the right hand frequently to promote blood flow." D. "Report coolness or discoloration of your right hand to your doctor." E. "Don't place any device under the cast to scratch the skin if it itches."

B. "Use an ice pack for the first 24 hours to decrease tissue swelling." C. "Move the fingers of the right hand frequently to promote blood flow." D. "Report coolness or discoloration of your right hand to your doctor." E. "Don't place any device under the cast to scratch the skin if it itches."

A nurse is caring for a client who has a hard cervical collar for a complete cervical spinal cord injury. Which assessment finding will the nurse report to the primary health care provider? A. Purulent drainage from the pin sites on the client's forehead B. Painful pressure injury under the collar C. Inability to move legs or feet D. Oxygen saturation of 95% on room air

B. Painful pressure injury under the collar

A client who has a plaster leg splint reports a painful pressure sensation under the elastic wrap that is holding the splint in place. What is the nurse's best initial action? A. Remove the splint to reduce skin pressure. B. Perform a neurovascular assessment. C. Report the client's concern to the primary health care provider. D. Inspect the skin under the elastic bandage.

B. Perform a neurovascular assessment.

The nurse is preparing to give medications to a group of clients. Which drug is not appropriate to treat the disease with which it is matched? A. Rheumatoid arthritis—leflunomide B. Osteoarthritis—acetaminophen C. Acute gout—allopurinol D. Systemic lupus erythematosus—prednisone

C. Acute gout—allopurinol

A client who had an elective below-the-knee amputation (BKA) reports pain in the foot that was amputated last week. What is the nurse's most appropriate response to the client's pain? A. "The pain will go away after the swelling decreases." B. "That's phantom limb pain, and every amputee has that." C. "Your foot has been amputated, so it's in your head." D. "On a scale of 0 to 10, how would you rate your pain?"

D. "On a scale of 0 to 10, how would you rate your pain?"

A client who sustained a recent cervical spinal cord injury reports feeling flushed. The client's blood pressure is 180/100. What is the nurse's best action at this time? A. Perform a bladder assessment. B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter. C. Turn on a fan to cool the patient. D. Place the patient in a sitting position.

D. Place the patient in a sitting position.