9-12 chapters

A client with a diagnosis of sepsis has received intravenous immune globulin (IVIg) as partial treatment. The nurse knows that which client response would best suggest an accurate understanding of IVIg treatment? "The IVIg should help stimulate fever, inflammation, and tissue repair in the fight against the infection." "These antibodies in the solution have been collected from individuals who have successfully fought off the same infection." "The main effect of IVIg is to cause her body to produce more white blood cells to fight infection." "A big part of my IVIg treatment is actually stimulating and supplementing my immune system to do the work itself."

"A big part of my IVIg treatment is actually stimulating and supplementing my immune system to do the work itself."

The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of blood to a client. The client says that he is not sure he wants to give consent to receive the blood transfusion because he does not want to get AIDS from the blood. Select the best response from the nurse. "Tell me more about your fear of getting AIDS." "All blood is now tested for the AIDS virus, so the risk of getting AIDS from a blood transfusion is extremely low." "All blood is now tested for the AIDS virus, so there is no risk of getting AIDS from a blood transfusion." "I understand what you are saying, but the doctor ordered the blood, so it is important that you receive it."

"All blood is now tested for the AIDS virus, so the risk of getting AIDS from a blood transfusion is extremely low."

When a client who has been newly diagnosed with HIV asks, "What are the chances that I can be cured?," what is the nurse's most therapeutic response? "Your doctor will want to see you on a regular basis in order to evaluate your viral load and prescribe the appropriate medications." "The key to success is the management of your immune system so that life- threatening opportunistic diseases do not develop." "Routine follow-up care of a stable, asymptomatic person infected with HIV , like yourself, will include a history and physical examination along with CD4+ cell count and viral load testing every 3 to 4 months." "Although there is no current treatment that provides a possible cure, there are ones that have successfully managed the infection."

"Although there is no current treatment that provides a possible cure, there are ones that have successfully managed the infection."

A mother brings her 5-month-old infant to the pediatrician for recurrent colds. The mother has never breast-fed and the infant is fed iron-fortified formula. The mother asks, "My baby has been perfectly healthy up until last month—now it seems like she has been sick constantly. Why?" How should the physician respond? "An infant must contract multiple viruses in order to help the immune system fully mature." "We will need to complete some additional lab tests to help identify the problem with your infant's immune system." "There is a possibility that your infant is allergic to the formula. Switching brands of formula may alleviate the problem." "An infant gets immunity from the mother at birth and from breast milk; this provides protection from infection but wears off in approximately 3 to 6 months. An infant still needs time for his own immune system to mature."

"An infant gets immunity from the mother at birth and from breast milk; this provides protection from infection but wears off in approximately 3 to 6 months. An infant still needs time for his own immune system to mature."

Following surgery for appendicitis, a teenaged client notes four small "stab" wounds on the abdomen. The client is obviously worried about body appearance. The nurse explains, "Your body will heal quickly and tissue repair will allow for regeneration of any cells needed." The client asks, "What does regeneration mean?" The nurse responds that tissue repair by regeneration means: "Your body will develop a complex matrix of cells that will fill in the scar, giving it greater structure than before." "Your body will fill in the wound with connective tissue, making the scar area very strong." "Your blood will send stem cells to the area to allow it to heal faster than normal." "Any injured cells are replaced with cells of the same type. Therefore, after healing, the wound will look like your surrounding skin."

"Any injured cells are replaced with cells of the same type. Therefore, after healing, the wound will look like your surrounding skin."

Members of an AIDS support group who have more advanced cases are sharing some of their recent health problems with a member who has just been diagnosed. Which of the members' statements is most accurate? "One of the scariest things out there now is the huge increase in drug-resistant tuberculosis." "Those of us with HIV are so much more prone to loss of vision and hearing." "As people with HIV live longer, more of us are eventually succumbing to the cancers that are associated with HIV." "The eradication of pneumocystic pneumonia (PCP) has helped extend the life expectancy of a lot of persons living with AIDS."

"As people with HIV live longer, more of us are eventually succumbing to the cancers that are associated with HIV."

An unlicensed assistive worker expresses fear of becoming infected while caring for a client with HIV? Which statement by the nurse conveys accurate information? "If you have cuts on your hands, wash with 10% bleach." "Use personal protective equipment and an N95 respirator." "As long as you wear an isolation gown, you are protected." "Avoid mucous membrane contact with blood or semen."

"Avoid mucous membrane contact with blood or semen."

A nurse is instructing a client on the long-term use of antibiotics and antibiotic resistance. Which statement by the client indicates that the teaching has been successful? "Because of the risk of antibiotic resistance, I cannot take antibiotics for longer than 21 days." "Due to super infections fewer new antibiotics have been produced." "The antibiotics increase the immune system's ability to fight infection." "Bacterial resistance to antibiotics can occur due to genetic mutations."

"Bacterial resistance to antibiotics can occur due to genetic mutations."

A client has been diagnosed with Coxiella burnetii infection. She asked the health care provider how she could have gotten this disease. The health care provider's best response is: "While swimming in an unsanitary pond." "Drinking contaminated milk." "Probably while walking outside without your shoes on." "Eating undercooked fish."

"Drinking contaminated milk."

Which statement from a group of young adults demonstrates the need for further teaching related to HIV and prevention of the spread of HIV? "My HIV medications do not prevent me from passing the virus on to my partners." "A woman can still get pregnant if she is HIV positive." "Good perineal care following sex will not have an effect on the transmission of HIV." "Having oral sex is one way I can prevent passing on HIV to my partner."

"Having oral sex is one way I can prevent passing on HIV to my partner."

The employee health nurse is working with a nursing student who has just sustained a needlestick injury and has received a dose of hepatitis B immune globulin. The nurse is counseling the student about vaccination against hepatitis B. Which statement by the student indicates understanding? "I don't need to receive the hepatitis B vaccine because I will now produce antibodies against hepatitis B." "I will make an appointment to start the hepatitis B vaccination series within the next 3 months." "I need to start the hepatitis B vaccination series as soon as possible." "I will only need to receive two doses of the hepatitis B vaccine because you just gave me one dose of the immune globulin."

"I need to start the hepatitis B vaccination series as soon as possible.

A nurse is teaching a parent group about the importance of regular childhood vaccines. The nurse evaluates that the teaching is successful based on which of the following statements? "As long as my baby is kept at home there is no risk of catching any of the vaccine-preventable illnesses." "I will have my baby vaccinated as scheduled to reduce the senseless spread of vaccine-preventable illnesses." "Since my baby received maternal antibodies at birth, vaccines are not necessary until 6-9 months of age." "Vaccines can cause autism in children; I should research each vaccine prior to having my child vaccinated."

"I will have my baby vaccinated as scheduled to reduce the senseless spread of vaccine-preventable illnesses."

The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a postoperative client. The nurse determines the teaching is effective when the client verbalizes which statement about wound healing? "I will regain tensile strength in 1 month." "At the end of the first week, wound strength is approximately 100%." "I will regain almost full-tensile strength of an unwounded skin at the end of 3 months." "I have no activity restrictions now that my wound is strong."

"I will regain almost full-tensile strength of an unwounded skin at the end of 3 months."

A parent brings a 6-month-old infant to the primary care physician to treat the infant's third respiratory infection since birth. What explanation will the nurse give for the order to administer intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIg)? "This medication helps prevent infection through the school years." "Immunosuppressive agents are needed to treat an autoimmune disorder." "IVIg supplements the infant's immunity to prevent recurrent infection." "Without this drug, the infant will develop anaphylactic reactions when older."

"IVIg supplements the infant's immunity to prevent recurrent infection."

The nurse is teaching a group of college students about reducing the risk of HIV transmission during sexual relations. The nurse makes which appropriate teaching point? "Oral sex is a safe alternative to vaginal intercourse to prevent HIV infection." "Lambskin or natural condoms should be used rather than latex condoms." "If a person has a sexually transmitted disease (STD), there is an increased risk for HIV infection." "A person who is infected with HIV will not be contagious until the CD4+ count is less than 200."

"If a person has a sexually transmitted disease (STD), there is an increased risk for HIV infection."

A client describes himself as being "devastated" after hearing that his HIV test has come back positive. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? "It's entirely normal to feel that way. We are going to try our best to help you get all the support you need." "I understand how difficult this must be for you, but it's nothing that you should be ashamed of." "This is certainly scary news, but the care team is going to make sure that you get all the information you need." "I've provided care for many clients living with HIV and AIDS, so I understand how you feel."

"It's entirely normal to feel that way. We are going to try our best to help you get all the support you need."

A nurse is teaching a new mother diagnosed with HIV about the transfer of the infection to her newborn. The mother begins to cry and states, "It's too late, the lab tests on my baby are already positive for HIV." How should the nurse respond? "Let's discuss the progression of HIV and plan for your baby's care once you go home." "Just because the test is positive for HIV does not mean your baby is infected with the virus." "I understand you are upset; would you like me to call someone to come and talk with you?" "I'm sorry I did not realize the test results were back yet; let me check your baby's chart." SUBMIT ANSWER

"Just because the test is positive for HIV does not mean your baby is infected with the virus."

While conducting client education at a public health clinic, a nurse teaches about sexually transmitted disease prevention. Included in the education is a segment on HIV/AIDS. Which statement from a client would indicate that more teaching is needed? "Natural or lambskin condoms are as protective as latex condoms." "Adopting risk-free or low-risk behavior is the best protection against HIV/AIDS." "Latex condoms provide protection from HIV/AIDS." "There is no cure for HIV/AIDS."

"Natural or lambskin condoms are as protective as latex condoms."

A client is very concerned about the harmful effect that all microorganisms may have. The bestresponse by the nurse would be: "Only the outside of the body may have potentially harmful microorganisms." "All microorganisms are harmful and you should be worried." "Not all interactions between microorganisms and humans are detrimental." "Daily use of antibiotics as a preventive measure will prevent a problem."

"Not all interactions between microorganisms and humans are detrimental."

A client was tested for HIV and received a positive result from the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) followed by a negative Western blot test. The client asks the nurse what this means. What is the nurse's best response? "This result is inconclusive and you will need to repeat the tests in 1 month." "The tests give similar results. There must have been contamination and you need a retest." "The ELISA looks for antibodies while the Western blot looks for the actual antigen. You have HIV." "The ELISA test gives some false positives, but the Western blot confirms you don't have HIV."

"The ELISA test gives some false positives, but the Western blot confirms you don't have HIV."

A client develops an immunodeficiency disorder after receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of lung cancer. The client asks the nurse if he was born with this deficiency. What is the nurse's best response? "You have developed a secondary immunodeficiency disorder as a result of your chemotherapy." "You must have caught this disorder from another person." "You were probably born with an immunodeficiency disorder and it remained dormant until you began receiving chemotherapy." "The immunodeficiency disorder is a result of your body's rejection of the chemotherapy."

"You have developed a secondary immunodeficiency disorder as a result of your chemotherapy."

A client with infectious mononucleosis asks the nurse why the lymph nodes are enlarged. Which statement is the nurse's appropriate response? "Your lymph nodes are blocked and need to be drained." "Your lymph nodes are infected and should be removed." "Your lymph nodes trap and destroy viruses." "Your lymph nodes multiply to fight infection."

"Your lymph nodes trap and destroy viruses."

A client with infectious mononucleosis asks the nurse why the lymph nodes are enlarged. Which statement is the nurse's appropriate response? "Your lymph nodes multiply to fight infection." "Your lymph nodes are blocked and need to be drained." "Your lymph nodes trap and destroy viruses." "Your lymph nodes are infected and should be removed."

"Your lymph nodes trap and destroy viruses."

A clinic health care provider has noticed an increase in the number of clients getting tested for Lyme disease. In addition to blood testing, what other manifestations will clients diagnosed with Lyme disease display? Select all that apply. diarrhea nosebleeds "bull's eye" red rash headaches joint pain and swelling

"bull's eye" red rash headaches joint pain and swelling

When an HIV-positive woman gives birth, she is told that there is a possibility that the HIV antibody detected in the newborn will disappear within how many months? 24 18 6 12

18

Place the following in the sequence of the progression of HIV/AIDS on a cellular level.1)The HIV virus is uncoded.2)HIV attaches to the receptors on the CD4+ cell.3)DNA synthesis occurs by reverse transcription.4)Transcription of the DNA to form a single-strand messenger RNA. 4,3,1,2 2,1,3,4 3,4,1,2, 1,2,3,4

2,1,3,4

A client has experienced an acute inflammatory response with an elevation of white blood cells. The nurse is reviewing the client's most recent lab results to determine if the counts have returned to a normal range. Select the result that suggests the client is now within normal range. 1000 to 3000 cells/μL 1500 to 20,000 cells/μL 14,000 to 20,000 cells/μL 4000 to 10,000 cells/μL

4000 to 10,000 cells/μL

A client states, "I heard that my healed wound tissue is stronger than my normal tissue. Is that true?" The nurse responds that roughly 3 months after a wound, the wound tensile strength is approximately what percentage of normal? 50% of normal 30% of normal 70% of normal 10% of normal

70% of normal

What type of viral hepatitis is not associated with transmission through contact with infected blood? B D C A

A

Which individual most clearly demonstrates the processes of innate immunity? A man who is complaining of itching and is sneezing because he is allergic to pollen A boy who is experiencing heat and swelling of his skinned knuckle A woman who is experiencing rejection of a donor liver after transplantation A man whose blood work indicates increased antibody titers during his acute illness

A boy who is experiencing heat and swelling of his skinned knuckle

Which wound is most likely to heal by secondary intention? A child's "road rash" that occurred after falling off a bicycle A finger laceration that a cook received while cutting onions A needlestick injury that a nurse received when injecting a client's medication The incision from a teenager's open appendectomy

A child's "road rash" that occurred after falling off a bicycle

Which client has the highest risk of contracting an opportunistic infection? A client who has had HIV for 10 years and has a platelet count of 200/mL A client who recently contracted HIV with a viral load of 1 million copies/mL A client who has had HIV for 3 years and has a CD4+ count of 50 cells/μL A client who has had HIV for 30 years and has a CD4+ count of 1000 cells/μL

A client who has had HIV for 3 years and has a CD4+ count of 50 cells/μL

Which client is at the greatest risk for developing an intracellular pathogen infection? A client with AIDS who has a decreased CD4+ TH1 count A teenager who attends a crowded high school A client with hyperthyroidism who has received treatment with radioactive iodine A client with breast cancer who has a WBC count of 8000

A client with AIDS who has a decreased CD4+ TH1 count

Which client is at the greatest risk for developing an intracellular pathogen infection? A teenager who attends a crowded high school A client with hyperthyroidism who has received treatment with radioactive iodine A client with AIDS who has a decreased CD4+ TH1 count A client with breast cancer who has a WBC count of 8000

A client with AIDS who has a decreased CD4+ TH1 count

Which client is most likely to experience impaired (slow) wound healing? A client who takes nebulized bronchodilators several times daily to treat chronic obstructive pulmonary disease A child whose severe cleft lip and palate have required a series of surgeries over several months A client with persistent hypertension who takes a beta-blocker and a potassium-wasting diuretic daily A client with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes and a history of poor blood sugar control

A client with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes and a history of poor blood sugar control

A nurse informs her supervisor that she thinks she has developed an allergy to the latex gloves. A latex-specific serum IgE immunoassay has been performed with negative results. What definitive diagnostic test should be performed at this time? A red blood cell count A PPD skin test A white blood cell count A contact test

A contact test

The nurse is caring for a client who has a CD4+ cell count of 700 cells/μL of blood and appears to be free from opportunistic infections. Based on this information, which statement is true? The client is HIV negative. The client is HIV positive, but without AIDS. A diagnosis cannot be determined based on the given information. The client is HIV positive and positive for AIDS.

A diagnosis cannot be determined based on the given information.

Which outpatient is at a greater risk for developing Treponema pallidum, the cause of syphilis? Select all that apply. A homeless adolescent female performing oral sex for money A homosexual male couple who have had a monogamous relationship for the past 20 years A male who frequents clubs catering to exotic dancers and sexual favors An older adult female living in a condominium who regularly has sex with three to four different men per week

A homeless adolescent female performing oral sex for money A male who frequents clubs catering to exotic dancers and sexual favors An older adult female living in a condominium who regularly has sex with three to four different men per week

The nurse is teaching a client infected with the flu about viruses. Which explanation would the nurse use to describe a viral infection? An irritant causes an inflammatory response. It is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to a biologic agent. A parasitic relationship between an organism and host is present. It is caused by a defect in the immune system.

A parasitic relationship between an organism and host is present.

Sometimes the host's white blood cells are unable to eliminate the microorganism, but the body is able to contain the dissemination of the pathogen. What is this called? Acne Lesion Pimple Abscess

Abscess

Which statement is true about HIV infection? Most AIDS clients are children or older adults. Accidental stick with a needle used on an HIV-infected client carries little risk of infection. HIV can be transmitted by some insects. Non-HIV diseases cause almost as much immunodeficiency as HIV.

Accidental stick with a needle used on an HIV-infected client carries little risk of infection

The nurse is administering a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination to a pediatric client. When the nurse explains immunity to the mother, which type of immunity will she explain that this vaccination provides? Active artificial immunity Passive natural immunity Active natural immunity Passive artificial immunity

Active artificial immunity

A client is brought to the physician's office with a raised, red macular rash on the trunk and arms accompanied by a fever. A diagnosis of measles is made. Which type of immunity does this disease process provide? Active artificial immunity Active natural immunity Passive artificial immunity Passive natural immunity

Active natural immunity

A client who has undergone a liver transplant 7 weeks ago has developed the following assessment data: ALT/AST elevation; jaundice of skin and sclera; weight gain with increase in abdominal circumference; and low-grade fever. The nurse suspects: Acute graft rejection Chronic rejection Hyperacute graft rejection Atherosclerosis of arteries of the liver

Acute graft rejection

A client who had a kidney transplant 3 months ago is experiencing an organ rejection. The reaction would be classified as: Hyperacute rejection Hypoacute rejection Chronic rejection Acute rejection

Acute rejection

An infant is suspected of having a severe combined T- and B-cell immunodeficiency disorder. Which effect on the infant makes early detection a priority? The infant is at risk for cardiovascular disease. The infant may have developmental delays. Administering live attenuated virus vaccines can be fatal. The infant may develop food allergies.

Administering live attenuated virus vaccines can be fatal

Which intervention would be the best treatment option to prevent perinatal transmission of HIV antibodies to a fetus from the HIV-positive mother? Administration of zidovudine to the mother during pregnancy, labor, and delivery Administration of a fusion inhibitor immediately on diagnosis of pregnancy Administration of efavirenz starting within the first trimester of pregnancy Administration of zidovudine to the newborn immediately after delivery

Administration of zidovudine to the mother during pregnancy, labor, and delivery

In reference to infectious disease, a client cannot be a/an: Host Agent Carrier Reservoir

Agent

What is the correct type of isolation for the nurse to implement to prevent transmission of herpes zoster while caring for a client with an active chickenpox infection? Blood Airborne Droplet Contact

Airborne

Which factor is used to categorize the potential danger of an organism that could be used in bioterrorism? Mortality rate Transmissibility Invasiveness All of the above.

All of the above.

A hospitalized client's progress has been noted as the convalescent stage. Select the statement that best describes this stage. Period during which the host experiences the maximum impact of the infectious process corresponding to rapid proliferation and dissemination of the pathogen Containment of infection, progressive elimination of the pathogen, repair of damaged tissue, and resolution of associated symptoms Total elimination of a pathogen from the body without residual signs or symptoms of disease Initial appearance of symptoms in the host, although the clinical presentation during this time may be only a vague sense of malaise

Containment of infection, progressive elimination of the pathogen, repair of damaged tissue, and resolution of associated symptoms

A client presents to the urgent care clinic with erythematous, papular, and vesicular lesions associated with intense pruritus and weeping. The client states he was in the woods and thinks he may have come in contact with poison ivy. The reaction may be classified as: Allergic rhinitis Allergic contact dermatitis Allergic asthma Allergic systemic response

Allergic contact dermatitis

The molecules that are recognized as foreign on allografts are called: MHC proteins Antigens Alloantigens Autoantigens

Alloantigens

A client will be receiving a bone graft from an unrelated individual. Which type of graft does the nurse inform the client that he or she will be receiving? Allograft Syngeneic graft Monogeneic graft Autograft

Allograft

Which condition is a protozoan infection? Amebic dysentery Ascariasis Echinococcosis Helminthiasis

Amebic dysentery

Which client is at greatest risk for decreased wound healing? A school-aged child who is post-appendectomy An adult client with type 1 diabetes and an infection in the foot An adult client who recently had a cardiac valve replacement An older adult client who has undergone an elective knee surgery

An adult client with type 1 diabetes and an infection in the foot

Which condition is an example of wound healing by secondary intention? Abdominal wound with staples Sacral skin tear closed with Steri-Strip Leg laceration with sutures An infected burn of the arm

An infected burn of the arm

The nurse is evaluating the wounds of four clients. Select the client most likely to be treated with hyperbarically delivered oxygen. Skin tears on the arm and shoulder of an 82-year-old client A second-degree burn on the left hand and arm of a 5-year-old child A sutured abdominal surgical site on an obese 50-year-old client An infected foot wound on a 45-year-old client with peripheral vascular disease

An infected foot wound on a 45-year-old client with peripheral vascular disease

Passive immunity is immunity that is transferred from another source and lasts only weeks to months. What is an example of passive immunity? Exposure to poison ivy An injection of γ-globulin (gamma-globulin) An immunization Allergy shots

An injection of γ-globulin (gamma-globulin)

Which is not correct about an opportunistic infection? Fungi can cause life-threatening opportunistic diseases. An opportunistic infection primarily affects an individual with a weakened immunity as a result of illness. Chemotherapy or radiation can cause life-threatening opportunistic diseases. An opportunistic infection primarily affects a host with a normal immunity.

An opportunistic infection primarily affects a host with a normal immunity.

A client with common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) who is also deficient in IgA is being treated with IV immunoglobulin (IV Ig) in the hospital. For which sign/symptom should the nurse closely monitor the client during treatment? Anaphylaxis Chest pain Diarrhea Nausea and vomiting

Anaphylaxis

A 12-year-old boy's severe wound that he received from a dog bite has begun to heal and currently shows no signs of infection. Which processes occurred first during this process of repair by connective tissue deposition? Reorganization of fibrous tissue Emigration of fibroblasts to the wound site Deposition of the extracellular matrix Angiogenesis

Angiogenesis

A client is admitted with swelling of the subcutaneous tissues, severe vomiting, and diarrhea. The swelling is particularly severe in the client's face. After several serologic tests are performed, it is determined that the client is suffering from an immunodeficiency. Which diagnosis is most likely? Systemic lupus erythematosus Angioneurotic edema Ataxia-telangiectasia Wiskott--Aldrich syndrome

Angioneurotic edema

Canada's Centre for Emergency Preparedness and Response is vigilantly keeping watch for terrorist events involving biologic agents. Of those on the list, which is of highest concern? Prion diseases Anthrax Parvovirus AIDS

Anthrax

A client is diagnosed with a bacterial infection of the respiratory system. The nurse teaches the client about the body's natural defenses and identifies which of the following as most likely to be fighting the antigen? Helper T cells Self-antigens Antibodies Cytotoxic T cell

Antibodies

The cells that mediate humoral immunity do so because they are capable of producing: Antibodies Helper T cells Platelets Stem cells

Antibodies

The cells that mediate humoral immunity do so because they are capable of producing: Helper T cells Stem cells Platelets Antibodies

Antibodies

Which factor is considered during serology testing? DNA sequencing Direct antigens Antibody titers Culture growth

Antibody titers

The nurse is caring for a client with an infection of Candida albicans. Which type of antimicrobial agent will the nurse plan to administer to effectively treat this disease? Antibacterial Antifungal Antiprotozoal Antiviral

Antifungal

Following a spider bite she received while camping, a 20-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with rash, edema, and fever and was subsequently diagnosed with serum sickness. Which statement best describes the physiologic rationale for the broad systemic effects of this event? The woman is experiencing diffuse tissue necrosis as a consequence of an Arthus reaction. Antibody-binding to specific target cell receptors is bringing about a change in cell function. Deposited antibodies are activating her complement system. Antigen-antibody complexes have been deposited in a variety of locations throughout the body.

Antigen-antibody complexes have been deposited in a variety of locations throughout the body.

Substances foreign to the host that can stimulate an immune response are known as: Antibodies Antigens MHC proteins Cytokines

Antigens

A dental assistant comes to the clinic with reports of a rash on her hands that feel like they are coming from the gloves being worn. The nurse observes both hands with crusted and thickened areas. What type of education does the nurse anticipate providing to the client? Apply a topical corticosteroid and avoid further contact with latex-containing products. Wash the hands in hot soapy water to remove any powder from the gloves after being worn. Take an antihistamine daily for 10 days to eliminate the allergens. Use alcohol based cleaning products on the hands.

Apply a topical corticosteroid and avoid further contact with latex-containing products.

A client has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of HIV infection, which has recently progressed to overt AIDS. Which nursing action should the nurse prioritize when providing care for this client? Careful monitoring of fluid balance and neurologic status Astute infection control and respiratory assessments Hemodynamic monitoring and physical therapy Frequent neurologic vital signs and thorough skin care

Astute infection control and respiratory assessments

Combined immunodeficiency (CID) is distinguished by low, not absent, T-cell function. These diseases are usually associated with other disorders and arise from diverse genetic causes. Which of the following diseases is considered a CID? Ataxia-telangiectasia Adair-Dighton syndrome Angelman syndrome Pierre Robin syndrom

Ataxia-telangiectasia

A nurse is caring for several clients with disorders of inflammatory responses. Which client pathophysiologic disease states may arise from this inflammatory response? Select all that apply. Atherosclerosis Multiple sclerosis Duodenal ulcers Bronchial asthma Osteoarthritis

Atherosclerosis Bronchial asthma Multiple sclerosis

Select the statement that best describes autoimmune disease. Autoimmune diseases represent a disruption in self-tolerance that results in damage to body tissues by the immune system. Autoimmune diseases represent overuse of the immune system that causes damage to the body tissues. Autoimmune diseases result from an overuse of antibiotics that causes damage to body tissues by the immune system. Autoimmune diseases represent an increase in self-tolerance that results in damage to body tissues by the immune system.

Autoimmune diseases represent a disruption in self-tolerance that results in damage to body tissues by the immune system.

Which type of a hypersensitivity reaction involves failure of the development of self-tolerance? Immune complex reaction Immediate hypersensitivity reaction Autoimmune reaction Antibody-mediated reaction

Autoimmune reaction

A client is taking a vacation in a foreign country. The nurse teaches the client about giardiasis, a common traveler's infection. Which statement should be included in the teaching plan? Avoid swimming in the coastal waters of the foreign country. Avoid close contact with other passengers while flying on an airplane. Avoid eating food and drinking beverages that might be contaminated. Complete the necessary inoculations before traveling out of the country.

Avoid eating food and drinking beverages that might be contaminated.

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules, with human leukocyte antigens (HLAs), are markers on all nucleated cells and have which important role in the body? Cell membrane transport Identifying blood types Suppressing viral replication Avoiding transplant rejections

Avoiding transplant rejections

A client with a diagnosis of cirrhosis has experienced an acute rejection of a donor liver. Which cell is most likely responsible for the rejection of the client's transplanted organ? Neutrophils Mast cells B cells CD8+ cells

B cells

The early management recommendations for an asymptomatic person confirmed to have HIV antibodies would consist of which intervention? Quarantine to a special AIDS unit Administration of intravenous anti-infective medications Immediately starting antiviral medications Baseline screening for viral load and CD4+ counts

Baseline screening for viral load and CD4+ counts

Which statement about opportunistic pathogen infection in AIDS is true? HIV mainly attacks B cells. Opportunistic pathogens often infect previously healthy people. Becoming infected with an opportunistic pathogen is one requirement for the diagnosis of AIDS. Most infections with opportunistic pathogens are not serious

Becoming infected with an opportunistic pathogen is one requirement for the diagnosis of AIDS.

Respiratory infections are a common opportunistic infection in people with HIV/AIDS. When the CD4+ level drops below 200 cells/μL, what is the recommended course of action? Collect urine samples Begin treatment for the infection Monitor the client's white blood cell count to see if the immune system will fight the infection Administer steroids to aid the immune system

Begin treatment for the infection

A diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is identified when the CD4+ T cell count reaches which level? 200 to 499 cells/μL 500 to 800 cells/μL Below 200 cells/μL 800 to 1000 cells/μL

Below 200 cells/μL

Cell-mediated immunity is involved in resistance to infectious diseases caused by bacteria and some viruses. It is also involved in cell-mediated hypersensitivity reactions. Which of these does not cause a cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction? X-ray dye Poison ivy Latex Blood transfusion

Blood transfusion

Which statement about acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is true? B-cell function is unaffected. Heterosexual spread is the most common mode of spread in developed nations. Both B-cell and T-cell function are affected. By definition all clients with HIV infection also have AIDS.

Both B-cell and T-cell function are affected.

A client is brought to the emergency room with reports of facial muscle paralysis and increasing upper extremity weakness several hours after eating canned peppers. Histologic examination reveals a bacterial infection and further testing reveals a decrease in the release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine from cholinergic neurons. What is the most likely cause of this illness? Botulism exotoxin Cholera antitoxin Septicemia Diphtheria endotoxin

Botulism exotoxin

A client presents to the clinic with a swollen, painful "hang nail" on the index finger and a large pustule that needs to be lanced. The health care worker knows that which mediator of inflammation causes this increase in capillary permeability and pain? Histamine Nitric oxide Serotonin Bradykinin

Bradykinin

HIV virus preferentially infects which cells? CD3+ lymphocytes Platelets CD4+T lymphocytes and nerve cells Red blood cells

CD4+T lymphocytes and nerve cells

A nurse is educating a parent group on childhood infectious diseases and various modes of pathogen transmission. Which topics should be included in the teaching plan? Select all that apply. Avoid sitting directly on public toilet seats or touching door knobs. Caution parents about children playing barefoot on dirt. Avoid giving children unpasteurized milk or dairy products. Instruct children to avoid sharing grooming articles such as combs and brushes with friends. Avoid eating at fast food establishments and restaurants.

Caution parents about children playing barefoot on dirt. Avoid giving children unpasteurized milk or dairy products. Instruct children to avoid sharing grooming articles such as combs and brushes with friends.

Which child has the highest risk of experiencing a wound complication? Child who has family history of cancers Child recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes Child who is taking oral antibiotics for an upper respiratory infection Child who is a carrier of an antibiotic-resistant organism

Child recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes

A client tells the nurse that the primary care provider prescribed an antibiotic. The client was instructed to take the antibiotic three times a day for 10 days. After the 4th day, the client was feeling much better and decided to stop taking the medication. What complication could result from stopping the antibiotic early? Septicemia Bacteremia Septic shock Chronic infection

Chronic infection

A client with end-stage renal disease received a kidney transplant with a kidney donated by a family member. The client has been carefully monitored for signs of rejection. The physician informs the client that there has been a gradual rise in the serum creatinine over the last 5 months. What type of rejection does this depict? Chronic rejection Hyperacute rejection Acute rejection Acute antibody-mediated rejection

Chronic rejection

A client develops a ruptured tendon after taking an antibiotic for an infection. Which antibiotic prescription would the nurse checking the history expect to find? Ampicillin Rifampin Ciprofloxacin Doxycycline

Ciprofloxacin

Of the pathways available to recognize microbes and activate the complement system, which one requires the presence of an antibody? Classical Adaptive Lectin Alternative

Classical

All antiretroviral medications interfere with some stage of the HIV life cycle. What stage do protease inhibitors prevent? Attachment of the virus to CD4+ cell receptors Killing of the CD4+ T cell to release virions into the bloodstream Cleavage of the polyprotein chain into the individual proteins that will be used to make new virus Addition of more nucleosides to the DNA chain

Cleavage of the polyprotein chain into the individual proteins that will be used to make new virus

Which description does the nurse recognize fits a client in the prodromal stage of an infection? Client is experiencing vague symptoms of fatigue and low grade fever. Residual symptoms of the disease are present in the client's body. Client has been exposed, but is experiencing no apparent symptoms. Client's symptoms specific to the disease are evident.

Client is experiencing vague symptoms of fatigue and low grade fever

Which client would be diagnosed with wasting syndrome? Client with HIV, fever, diarrhea, and significant involuntary weight loss Client with AIDS with pneumonia, chronic fever, and chronic fatigue Client with chronic fatigue syndrome, no fever and herpes simplex, and candidiasis around the oral mucosa Client with HIV a CD4+ T-cell count of 1000 cells/μL, Kaposi sarcoma, and nausea and vomiting for more than 2 weeks

Client with HIV, fever, diarrhea, and significant involuntary weight loss

A client underwent an open cholecystectomy 2 days ago, and the incision is now in the proliferative phase of healing. What is the dominant cellular process that characterizes this phase of the client's healing? Collagen secretion by fibroblasts Phagocytosis by neutrophils Hemostasis Keloid formation

Collagen secretion by fibroblasts

While explaining to a young child why he should be careful with a wound, the nurse reviews healing with the parent. The nurse educates the parent about how strength in the healing wound site is developed based on which substance being available? Collagen synthesis Plasma Stable cells Exudate

Collagen synthesis

A hospital client was swabbed on admission for antibiotic-resistant organisms and has just been informed that methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is present in his groin. The client has a normal core temperature and white blood cell count. This client is experiencing: Proliferation Inflammation Colonization Infection

Colonization

What is the term for a subset of cytokines that stimulate the production of large numbers of platelets, erythrocytes, lymphocytes, neutrophils, and monocytes, eosinophils, basophils, and dendritic cells? Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs) Natural killer (NK) cells Chemokines Immunoglobulins

Colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)

Which regimen serves as the rationale for AIDS treatment with antiretroviral therapy? Monotherapy with protease inhibitors Combination therapy incorporating the five classes of antiretroviral drugs Monotherapy with reverse transcriptase inhibitors Monotherapy with fusion inhibitors

Combination therapy incorporating the five classes of antiretroviral drugs

A client is receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer. Which type of immunodeficiency is this client at risk for developing? Complement system disorder Humoral B-cell immunodeficiency Combined B-cell and T-cell immunodeficiency Cellular T-cell immunodeficiency

Combined B-cell and T-cell immunodeficiency

When caring for a client with a deeply infected wound that has been slow to heal, the nurse recognizes which of these are considered inflammatory mediators present during wound healing? Select all that apply. Globulins Tumor necrosis alpha Vascular endothelial growth factor Complement Thrombocytes

Complement Tumor necrosis alpha Vascular endothelial growth factor

A client has had recurrent infections with the encapsulated bacteria, Streptococcus pneumoniae. This is characteristic of which type of deficiency? B-cell immunodeficiency Phagocytosis disorders T-cell immunodeficiency Complement deficiencies

Complement deficiencies

Which response best describes a granulomatous inflammatory response to a foreign body like a splinter? The foreign body, the splinter, will be digested and dissolved. Connective tissue encapsulates the splinter and isolates it. Normal inflammatory mechanisms act on the foreign body. Macrophages attack the foreign object, the splinter, to dissolve it.

Connective tissue encapsulates the splinter and isolates it.

Which best describes the structure of a virus? A small prokaryote that lacks a cell wall Possesses both a cell wall and a cell membrane Has a helical cell wall Consists of a capsid that surrounds a nucleic acid core

Consists of a capsid that surrounds a nucleic acid core

A client suspects he may have developed an allergic response to latex. What most common allergic response would the nurse expect to find? Angioedema Contact dermatitis Rhinorrhea Airway obstruction

Contact dermatitis

A nurse is speaking to a group of students about the transmission of HIV. Which modes of transmission should be included? Select all that apply. Ingesting the saliva of an HIV-positive person Contact with blood containing HIV Skin to skin contact with a person with HIV Transmission from mother to infant through breast milk Contact with the semen of an HIV-positive person

Contact with blood containing HIV Contact with the semen of an HIV-positive person Transmission from mother to infant through breast milk

When the nurse is performing a skin assessment on a client, a small wound is noted on the client's right leg. The wound is covered with a desiccated scab. The appropriate action by the nurse is: Document the finding Request a chemical debriding agent Request a surgical consult Cover the scab with an antibiotic ointment

Document the finding

The nurse is reviewing the medical record for laboratory blood work that would indicate if a client is HIV infected. The nurse reviews which lab test? Creatine phosphokinase test Indirect Coombs test Indirect fluorescent antibody assay ELISA enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

ELISA enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay

The cells that are associated with allergic disorders and the inflammation associated with immediate hypersensitive reactions are known as what? Select all that apply. Basophils Nitrous oxide Histamines Eosinophils Mast cells

Eosinophils Mast cells Basophils

The nurse is educating a client who is being discharged from the hospital with severe allergies and who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction. What should the client be advised to have on hand at all times? EpiPen Antibiotic Cimetadine Diphenhydramine

EpiPen

Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), a highly transmissible respiratory infection, crossed international borders in the winter of 2002. What terms are used to describe the outbreak of SARS? Pandemic and nosocomial Regional and endemic Nosocomial and endemic Epidemic and pandemic

Epidemic and pandemic

Which cells block the entry of microbes and destroy them by secreting antimicrobial enzymes, proteins, and peptides within the mucous membrane linings of the gastrointestinal, respiratory, and urogenital tract? Epithelial Leukocytes Immune Lymphatic

Epithelial

Bacteria on a sliver in a boy's finger have initiated an adaptive immune response. Which would cause the boy's lymphocytes and antibodies to recognize immunologically active sites on bacterial surfaces? Epitopes Opsonins Chemokines Toll-like receptors

Epitopes

Immunologically active sites on antigens are recognized as: Antigens Effector cells Opsonins Epitopes

Epitopes

The nurse is reviewing assessment documentation of a client's wound and notes "purulent drainage." The nurse would interpret this as: Exudate containing white blood cells, protein, and tissue debris Exudate that resulted from leakage of red cells Exudate that is watery fluid, low in protein Exudate containing large amounts of fibrinogen

Exudate containing white blood cells, protein, and tissue debris

A 70-year-old female client has had her mobility and independence significantly reduced by rheumatoid arthritis. Which process likely contributed to the development of her health problem? Proliferation of cytotoxic T cells Failure of normal self-tolerance Delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) reaction Deletion of autoreactive B cells

Failure of normal self-tolerance

While explaining to a client undergoing chemotherapy the effect the medications have on bone marrow cells, the nurse mentions that bone marrow stem cells have been shown to not only generate blood cells but also which other type of cells? Select all that apply. Muscle cells Bone cells Nerve cells Cartilage cells Fat cells

Fat cells Cartilage cells Bone cells Muscle cells

The laboratory finds IgA in a sample of cord blood from a newborn infant. This finding is important because it signifies what? Maternal exposure to an infection in a sexual partner Fetal reaction to exposure to an intrauterine infection Maternal reaction to an infection in the fetus Fetal reaction to an infection acquired at birth

Fetal reaction to exposure to an intrauterine infection

A specific type of gram-negative bacteria contains endotoxin in the bacterial cell envelope. What is the likely clinical manifestation if these bacteria become pathogenic? Constipation Vomiting Leukopenia Fever

Fever

A specific type of gram-negative bacteria contains endotoxin in the bacterial cell envelope. What is the likely clinical manifestation if these bacteria become pathogenic? Leukopenia Vomiting Constipation Fever

Fever

The nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with varicella. The nurse is aware that nonspecific manifestations may include: Fever Liquid-filled blisters Sores with crustations Pruritic rash

Fever

Which body response to an acute inflammation will the nurse assess if the client is experiencing a systemic response? Fever and tachycardia Positive nitrogen balance Decreased C-reactive protein Bradycardia and hypertension

Fever and tachycardia

Inflammation can be either local or systemic. What are the most prominent systemic manifestations of inflammation? Widening pulse pressure, thrombocytopenia, and the latent phase response Fever, leukocytosis or leukopenia, and the acute phase response Fever, leukocytosis or leukopenia, and the transition phase response Widening pulse pressure, thrombocytopenia, and the recovery phase response

Fever, leukocytosis or leukopenia, and the acute phase response

When caring for a client during the proliferative phase of wound healing, the nurse teaches the client that which of these processes is taking place? White blood cells phagocytize bacteria and cellular debris. Fibroblasts secrete collagen for wound healing. Scar tissue formation is complete. Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin to form a blood clot in the area.

Fibroblasts secrete collagen for wound healing.

A client is being treated for a pressure ulcer and the care team has observed that the wound is healing. Which activity will take place during the proliferative phase? White blood cells migrate the site of the client's wound Fibroblasts secrete the cells necessary for wound healing Scar tissue is synthesized and becomes visible at the wound site Blood clots form at the wound site to prevent bleeding

Fibroblasts secrete the cells necessary for wound healing

A lactation nurse visits a new mother after delivery of her first child and encourages the mother to breast-feed her infant, even for a short time. Which statement made by the nurse correctly explains the importance of breast-feeding? For several months, colostrum will provide the infant with passive immunity to diseases to which the mother has immunity. Colostrum will provide the infant with innate immunity to diseases to which the mother is immune. Colostrum will provide the infant with passive immunity to all childhood illnesses for several months. Colostrum will provide the infant with active immunity to many childhood illnesses for several years.

For several months, colostrum will provide the infant with passive immunity to diseases to which the mother has immunity.

A client with poor arterial circulation in the lower limbs has developed areas of inflammation and "weeping" clear serous exudate. Chronic inflammation can be associated with which changes in physiological response? Select all that apply. Formation and development of new blood vessels Release of a number of potent inflammatory mediators, altering adhesive properties Release of scavenger cells capable of engulfing bacteria through phagocytosis Regulation and modulation of the immune response through synthesis and release of inflammatory mediators The death of one or more cells in the body within a localized area

Formation and development of new blood vessels The death of one or more cells in the body within a localized area

A home health nurse is visiting an older adult client who is exhibiting signs of an upper respiratory infection but denies contact with an infected person. The nurse evaluates the home and recommends air conditioner duct cleaning as a precautionary measure against which pathogen? Viruses Fungi Bacteria Protozoa

Fungi

Which action is involved in acute allograft rejection of a transplanted organ? Graft cells destroyed by CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. Immunosuppresion can no longer control the production of antigraft antibodies. B-lymphocytes reproduce at a faster rate than normal. Destroy the host T cells, thereby making the cells unable to stop the rejection.

Graft cells destroyed by CD8+ cytotoxic T cells.

One week after a client received a transplant the nurse notes that the skin shows a maculopapular rash on the hands and feet. The client reports itching and nausea. What is the likely cause of these manifestations? Opportunistic infection Immunodeficiency disorder Anaphylactic reaction Graft-versus-host disease

Graft-versus-host disease

The bacteriologist is staining the slides of a client diagnosed with scarlet fever and rheumatic fever. The slide identifies S. pyogenes and stains purple by crystal violet dye. The result would indicate: Acid-fast bacilli Gram-negative organism Anaerobic organism Gram-positive organism

Gram-positive organism

A nursing student is cleaning a client's sacral pressure injury by vigorously scrubbing the wound bed to remove all of the beefy, red tissue that existed there. What type of tissue did the student most likely removed? Extracellular matrix Necrotic tissue Stem cells Granulation tissue

Granulation tissue

Epithelialization, the first component of the proliferative phase of wound healing, is delayed in open wounds until what type of tissue has formed? Capillary circulation Granulation tissue Collagenous layers Fibrinous meshwork

Granulation tissue

A client is experiencing a decrease in the number of circulating neutrophils (neutropenia) during an active bacterial infection. The nurse examines the client's lab results looking for which cytokines that is responsible for promoting growth and maturation of neutrophils during inflammatory reactions? Monocyte CSF (M-CSF) Interferon (IFN) Histamine Granulocyte CSF (G-CSF)

Granulocyte CSF (G-CSF)

A client diagnosed with sepsis has a critically low neutrophil count. The nurse expects which drug or drug class to be used to stimulate white blood cell production? Monocolonal antibodies such as adalimumab Interferons Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents such as epoetin alfa Granulocyte CSF (G-CSF) such as filgrastim

Granulocyte CSF (G-CSF) such as filgrastim

While explaining evasive factors by microbes to evade various components of the host's immune system, the instructor uses which example? H. Pylori being able to survive in an acidic environment An infectious agent's ability to produce toxins Ability of S. aureus to immobilize IgG Enzymes capable of destroying cell membranes

H. Pylori being able to survive in an acidic environment

An infant born to a woman with documented HIV will likely undergoe which type of diagnostic testing? HIV antibody testing 2 weeks after birth. RNA testing while in delivery room. Antigen/antibody testing at birth. Virologic assays at birth.

HIV antibody testing 2 weeks after birth.

Which serves as a recognition marker to aid in self-tolerance? Inactivated T cells Inactivated B cells HLA antigens encoded by MHC genes Macrophages of the immune system

HLA antigens encoded by MHC genes

A client fell off his motorcycle, receiving several large abrasion-related surface wounds. What physiologic phenomenon will the client first experience? Healing by primary intention Healing by secondary intention Remodelling Maturation

Healing by secondary intention

A client arrives with a large calf burn from contact with a motorcycle exhaust pipe. Inspection reveals the epidermis and dermis layers are affected with associated pain, redness, swelling, and blistering. What type of wound repair/healing will the nurse explain to this client? Healing will occur by teritary intention. Healing will occur by secondary intention. Wound healing will have to undergoe several phases of remodeling. Healing will occur by primary intention.

Healing will occur by secondary intention

The nurse is caring for a client whose temperature is increasing. Which other vital sign/body response will the nurse monitor for an increase? Blood pressure Heart rate Respiratory rate Red blood cell count

Heart rate

In the vascular phase of acute inflammation, initial vasoconstriction is followed rapidly by which assessment finding? Bleeding Cool, dry skin Infiltration of leukocytes Heat and redness

Heat and redness

In the vascular phase of acute inflammation, initial vasoconstriction is followed rapidly by which assessment finding? Infiltration of leukocytes Cool, dry skin Bleeding Heat and redness

Heat and redness

A client has recently received a pneumococcal vaccine and the client's B cells are consequently producing antibodies. Which cells may enhance this production of antibodies? Cytotoxic T cells Regulatory T cells Helper T cells Natural killer cells

Helper T cells

A client has recently received a pneumococcal vaccine and the client's B cells are consequently producing antibodies. Which cells may enhance this production of antibodies? Helper T cells Regulatory T cells Cytotoxic T cells Natural killer cells

Helper T cells

Escherichia coli (E. coli) produces an exotoxin called Shiga toxin that enters the body when you eat undercooked hamburger meat and fruit juices that are not pasteurized. What can E. coliinfection cause? Neuroleptic malignant syndrome Hemolytic thrombocytopenia Hemorrhagic colitis Nephritic syndrome

Hemorrhagic colitis

A nurse, educating a client about disease transmission, learns that the client has received weekly manicures and pedicures in various commercial salons for many years. Which diseases is the client at risk for due to improper sterilization of equipment used in the salons? Hepatitis B Staphylococcus infection Candidiasis infection Herpes simplex infection

Hepatitis B

A nurse, educating a client about disease transmission, learns that the client has received weekly manicures and pedicures in various commercial salons for many years. Which diseases is the client at risk for due to improper sterilization of equipment used in the salons? Herpes simplex infection Hepatitis B Candidiasis infection Staphylococcus infection

Hepatitis B

Some viruses have the ability to transform host cells into cancer cells. For which viruses should the client be assessed regularly to detect the potential development of cancer? Select all that apply. Hepatitis A Epstein-Barr Human papillomavirus Varicella Hepatitis B SUBMIT ANSWER

Hepatitis B Human papillomavirus Epstein-Barr

During the acute inflammatory response, there is a period called the transient phase where there is increased vascular permeability. What is considered the principal mediator of the immediate transient phase? Histamine Cytokines Arachidonic acid Fibroblasts

Histamine

The wound care nurse is teaching a group of nurses about wound healing and, specifically, delays in wound healing. Which situations that interfere with wound healing, and could cause a delay in healing, should the nurse include in the discussion? Select all that apply. Superficial wound Infections Malnutrition Hyperglycemia Children with wounds

Hyperglycemia Infections Malnutrition

The immune system typically responds to invaders of all types in our body. However, it can also cause tissue injury and disease. What is this effect called? Allergen-stimulating reaction Hypersensitivity action Antigen reaction Mediator-response action

Hypersensitivity action

A client receives an interleukin-2 (IL-2) infusion to treat cancer. Which response explains how this cytokine will affect the growth of cancer cells? IL-2 stimulates growth of cytotoxic T lymphocytes. IL-2 delays synthesis of malignant cells. IL-2 increases B cell production of antibodies. IL-2 induces inflammation and fever to slow cancer growth.

IL-2 stimulates growth of cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

A client comes to the clinic with reports of runny nose, itchy eyes, and congestion due to seasonal allergies. The nurse teaches the client about the allergic reaction. The nurse knows that teaching has been effective when the client identifies which CD4 helper T-cell cytokine as the cause of this Type I hypersensitivity reaction? IL-2 IL-4 IL-6 Interferons

IL-4

A client with common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is admitted to the hospital for treatment. Which type of treatment will the nurse be administering to the client? Bone marrow transplant IV antibiotics IV corticosteroids IV immunoglobulin

IV immunoglobulin

The nurse is assisting a new mother with breast-feeding. What does the nurse understand is a primary secretory Ig that is found in the colostrum? IgD IgM IgD IgA

IgA

Which immunoglobulin is primarily found in secretions and has a primary function of providing local immunity on mucosal surfaces? IgM IgA IgG IgD

IgA

A client experiences an allergic reaction. Select the immunoglobulin that would bind to mast cells and release histamine. IgE IgG IgD IgA

IgE

A client is being treated for an anaphylactic reaction after eating shrimp. Which class of antibodies mediates the anaphylaxis? IgG IgM IgE IgA

IgE

Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is released in response to allergy or parasitic infections? IgM IgG IgA IgE

IgE

A client has been diagnosed with an intestinal parasite. The nurse monitors laboratory test levels for which cells necessary for the activation of eosinophils that, along with IgE, functions in the control of helminths? B lymphocytes and IL-4 cells IgE and IL-5 cells CD8+ lymphocytes and memory T cells Macrophages and IL-12 cells SUBMIT ANSWER

IgE and IL-5 cells

The nurse is providing care for a client whose abrupt-onset hypersensitivity reaction was stimulated by an antigen challenge. The nurse should understand that this reaction is: complement-mediated. antibody-mediated. IgE-mediated. T-cell-mediated.

IgE-mediated.

A 1-day-old infant was exposed to an infectious microorganism prior to discharge home from the hospital, but was able to affect a sufficient immune response in the hours and days following exposure. The nurse knows that which immunoglobulin assisted with this process? IgE IgG IgA IgM

IgG

In a newborn, which antibody crosses the placenta to provide protection from infection? IgM IgG IgA IgE

IgG

The nurse is aware that the only class of immunoglobulins to cross the placenta is: IgD IgM IgG IgA

IgG

The nurse is aware that the only class of immunoglobulins to cross the placenta is: IgG IgD IgA IgM

IgG

Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is the most abundant of circulating antibodies? IgG IgA IgE IgM

IgG

A nurse is evaluating lab results of a client newly diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia. Which immunoglobulin will elevate during the early stage of the infection? IgE IgM IgA IgG

IgM

Which immunoglobulin is the first circulating immunoglobulin to appear in response to an antigen and is the first antibody type made by a newborn? IgG IgA IgM IgD

IgM

A premature neonate in the ICU suspected of having an infection has blood drawn for class specific antibodies. Which of the following confirms that the neonate has developed a congenital infection? Initial IgM-specific antibodies are negative. IgM antibodies are elevated. IgG antibodies remain elevated throughout entire ICU admission. IgG titer is decreased.

IgM antibodies are elevated.

The nurse is reviewing the functions of immunoglobulins and determines which immunoglobulin is associated with its correct action? IgA, plays a role in B-cell differentation. IgD, prevents the attachment of viruses and bacterial to epithelial cells. IgE, functions as a receptor for antigen. IgM, the first antibody to be produced by a developing fetus.

IgM, the first antibody to be produced by a developing fetus

The nurse is reviewing the functions of immunoglobulins and determines which immunoglobulin is associated with its correct action? IgE, functions as a receptor for antigen. IgD, prevents the attachment of viruses and bacterial to epithelial cells. IgA, plays a role in B-cell differentation. IgM, the first antibody to be produced by a developing fetus.

IgM, the first antibody to be produced by a developing fetus.

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction involves complement activation stimulated by disposition of bound antigen to antibody? Immune complex reaction Antibody-mediated reaction Autoimmune reaction Immediate hypersensitivity reaction

Immune complex reaction

A client is brought to the emergency department after being bitten by a stray dog. To prevent rabies infection, the nurse anticipates administering: Antihistamines Immunoglobulins (IgG) Tetanus toxoid vaccination Antibiotics

Immunoglobulins (IgG)

A nurse caring for a client who has undergone an organ transplant. Advances in which process has made organ transplants a reality? Mendel's laws Transcription Immunology Transgenics

Immunology

A nurse is counseling a client about risk factors for yeast infections. Which should the nurse list as a risk factor for an overgrowth of Candida albicans? Select all that apply. Impaired immune system Core body temperature of 37°C (98.6°F) Recent exposure to a person with athlete's foot Antibiotic therapy Decrease in amount of bacterial flora

Impaired immune system Decrease in amount of bacterial flora Antibiotic therapy

Which common neurologic conditions may be seen in clients who have AIDS? Select all that apply. Slowing of mental speed and agility Impairment of attention and concentration Hemiplegia Slowing of motor speed Apathetic behavior

Impairment of attention and concentration Slowing of mental speed and agility Apathetic behavior Slowing of motor speed

Following an injury, the client's health care provider states the wound is healing well. The client asks the nurse, "If my wound is healing so fine, why is it still swollen?" The nurse's response is based on the principle that angiogenesis (which is occurring in the wound) can result in blood vessels being leaky due to which factors? Select all that apply. VEGF, a growth factor, increasing vascular permeability Incompletely formed interendothelial cell junctions A change in the colloidal osmotic pressure Nutrients that arrived to facilitate healing take a long time to be resorbed. Excess fluid volume in the form of plasma entering the area

Incompletely formed interendothelial cell junctions VEGF, a growth factor, increasing vascular permeability

A nurse is teaching a group of seniors about the decline of the immune system due to aging. Which topic should be included in the teaching plan regarding the immune response of older adults? Select all that apply. Higher incidence of cancer Decrease in autoimmune disorders Weakened response to vaccinations Increase in activation of immune responsiveness Increase in susceptibility to infections

Increase in susceptibility to infections Higher incidence of cancer Weakened response to vaccinations

If a client has a bacterial infection in the blood, the nurse will note which laboratory value that correlates with this? Increased eosinophils Inhibit prostaglandin release Increased neutrophils Severe decrease in neutrophils

Increased neutrophils

A nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome with thymic hypoplasia. Which immune response would the nurse anticipate in this child? No change in immunity Reduced risk of infection Increased risk of infection Reduced antigen response

Increased risk of infection

Which sequence accurately describes the stages of a disease? Incubation, prodromal, acute, convalescent, and resolution. Prodromal, subacute, acute, postdromal, and resolution Incubation, prodromal, current, recovery, and resolution Subacute, prodromal, acute, postacute, and convalescent

Incubation, prodromal, acute, convalescent, and resolution.

A client attending a health fair asks how anthrax will be treated in the event of a bioterrorism attack. How should the nurse respond? Anthrax is a virus that spreads by spores that can be inactivated with disinfectants. Individuals who are exposed will be isolated and given antibiotics. If you have anthrax, you will need infusion of antitoxins. Everyone should have an emergency supply of antibiotics to take in case of an attack.

Individuals who are exposed will be isolated and given antibiotics.

The nurse is teaching a new mother about caring for her baby and reducing the risk for infection. On what principle does the nurse base the knowledge of passive immunity? Infants are protected at birth from infection by maternal IgA. Infants are protected at birth from infection by maternal IgG. Infants are protected at birth from infection by maternal IgM. Infants are protected at birth from infection by maternal IgD.

Infants are protected at birth from infection by maternal IgG.

A client tells the nurse she is at risk to prematurely deliver her baby and is concerned that the baby does not have a developed immune system. The best response would be: Infants born prematurely may have deficient immunity. All babies have deficient systems. The immune system and protection are completed early in pregnancy. Antibiotics are available; do not worry.

Infants born prematurely may have deficient immunity.

What is the term for parasitic relationships between microorganisms and the human body in which the human body is harmed? Mutual disease Communicable disease Infectious disease Commensal disease

Infectious disease

In contrast to acute inflammation, chronic inflammation is characterized by which physiologic phenomena? A "shift to the left" of granulocytes Profuse fibrinous exudation Metabolic and respiratory alkalosis Inflitration of lymphocytes and macrophages

Inflitration of lymphocytes and macrophages

A client with a history of cancer and recent chemotherapy was hospitalized with fever, weakness, shortness of breath and productive cough. A bronchoscopy with transbronchial biopsy showed granulomas containing the fungus Histoplasma. Based on client history and the biopsy results, a nurse can conclude that the most likely cause of this infection was due to which reason? Inhalation of fungi and decreased host defenses permitting an opportunistic infection. A dormant enveloped virus, shed from an infected cell surface, mutated and caused an active infection. Cancer cell mutations allowed for the overgrowth of fungi in the respiratory system. Ingestion of fungi led to the development of pneumonia.

Inhalation of fungi and decreased host defenses permitting an opportunistic infection.

Select the phases that make up the reaction of the complement system. Emulsification phase, recovery phase, reactivation phase Initial activation, amplification of inflammation, membrane attack response Initial activation, memory phase, resolution phase Primary phase, secondary phase, tertiary phase

Initial activation, amplification of inflammation, membrane attack response

Select the phases that make up the reaction of the complement system. Initial activation, memory phase, resolution phase Emulsification phase, recovery phase, reactivation phase Primary phase, secondary phase, tertiary phase Initial activation, amplification of inflammation, membrane attack response

Initial activation, amplification of inflammation, membrane attack response

The course of any infectious disease progresses through several distinct stages after the pathogen enters the host. Although the duration may vary, which sign/symptom is the hallmark of the prodromal stage? Containment of infectious pathogens Progressive pathogen elimination Initial appearance of symptoms Tissue inflammation and damage

Initial appearance of symptoms

While reviewing how tissue repairs itself after injury, the students note that it follows a certain pattern. Place the steps of the repair of tissue in their proper sequence of events

Injury to connective tissue occurs. Fibroblasts migrate. Induction of fibroblast occurs and endothelial cells proliferate. Granulation tissue appears. Formation of a scar develops. Remodeling occurs with the reorganization of the fibrous tissue.

Natural killer cells are specialized lymphocytes that are one of the major parts of which immunity? Adaptive Cell-mediated Innate Humoral

Innate

A client comes into a clinic complaining of cough, fever, shortness of breath. The client informs the health care provider he is HIV positive. Upon physical exam, the family nurse practitioner (FNP) may note which clinical manifestations of suspected Pneumocystic jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)? Select all that apply. Night sweats that require clothing changes frequently throughout the night Stridor when taking a deep breath Interstitial infiltrates on chest X-ray Use of abdominal muscles to breathe while sitting on the exam table Respiratory rate of 32 with normal breath sounds

Interstitial infiltrates on chest X-ray Respiratory rate of 32 with normal breath sounds

Antibiotics target bacteria. If an antibiotic is bactericidal, how does it affect the bacteria? It causes an inhibition of mitochondrial ATP synthesis, resulting in death of the bacteria. It causes irreversible and lethal damage to the bacterial pathogen. Binds irreversibly to ergosterol in the bacterial membrane Inhibitory effects on bacterial growth are reversed when the agent is eliminated.

It causes irreversible and lethal damage to the bacterial pathogen.

A client diagnosed with the autoimmune disorder Hashimoto's thyroiditis asks the nurse what he has done to cause this disorder. What knowledge by the nurse should the response be based upon? It is a result of the loss of immunolgic self-tolerance. It is a result of the ability of the immune system to repair itself. It is a result of molecular mimicry. It is a breakdown in T-cell antigens

It is a result of the loss of immunolgic self-tolerance.

The nurse is caring for a client who is HIV positive and is newly diagnosed with Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB). Which manifestations does the nurse associate with TB? Select all that apply. Weight gain Night sweats Fever Cough Rash

Cough Fever Night sweats

Contact with poison ivy has resulted in intense pruritus, erythema, and weeping on a client's forearm. Which pathological process is responsible for the client's manifestations? IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation Cytokine release by sensitized T cells Formation of antibodies against cell surface antigens Formation of antigen-antibody complexes

Cytokine release by sensitized T cells

Once T helper cells are activated, they secrete which substance that activates and influences nearly all of the other cells of the immune system? Bradykinins Leukotrienes Complement proteins Cytokines

Cytokines

A client's exposure to an antibiotic-resistant microorganism while in the hospital has initiated an immune response. Which process is responsible for the mediated and regulated actions that occur in this situation? Cytokines released at cell-to-cell interfaces bind to specific receptors on the cells that they target Peripheral lymphoid tissues Chemokines that contribute to an ongoing immune response Phagocytosis in the response to viral invasion

Cytokines released at cell-to-cell interfaces bind to specific receptors on the cells that they target

Which of the types of T cells is responsible for destroying pathogens by punching holes in their cell membrane and by secreting cytokines/lymphokines? Cytotoxic T cells Memory T cells Regulatory T cells Helper T cells

Cytotoxic T cells

Which findings are considered part of normal aging? Select all that apply. Elevated CD8+ T cells Decrease in CD4+ count Increased absolute number of lymphocytes Decreased IL-2 level Increase in B-cell production

Decrease in CD4+ count Decreased IL-2 level

A nurse who works in a long-term care facility has observed the high incidence of infectious illnesses among the older adults who reside there. What is the best explanation for a diminished immune capacity in older adults? Altered function in peripheral lymphocytes Overexpression of cytokines and receptors Decreased numbers and responsiveness of T lymphocytes Decreased antigen recognition by B lymphocytes

Decreased numbers and responsiveness of T lymphocytes

When assessing a client's incision, the nurse notes that the edges of the once approximated incision has begun to pull apart. The nurse documents that the client's incision has: Proliferated Remodeled Epithilialized Dehisced

Dehisced

A group of teenagers spent an entire day on the beach without using sunscreen. The first night, their skin was reddened and painful to touch. The second day, they awoke to find large fluid-filled blisters over several body areas. The nurse recognizes the development of blisters as which type of inflammatory response? Cellular response Immediate transient response Continuous response Delayed response

Delayed response

A client asks the nurse what happens when a pathogen enters the body. Select the bestresponse. Pathogens all enter the body through inhalation. Pathogens that enter the body through the intestinal tract will always lead to infection. Pathogens that enter through disrupting the skin are entering by direct contact. Pathogens that enter the intestinal mucosa can cause diseases in the lungs or liver.

Pathogens that enter the intestinal mucosa can cause diseases in the lungs or liver.

Which of the following helps the innate immune system differentiate between body cells and foreign substances? Distinct antigenic properties allow the T cells to isolate specific organisms. Pattern recognition receptors identify structures not shared by body tissues. Colony-stimulating factors are triggered by the presence of activated lymphocytes. Chemokines attract monocytes to sites of chronic inflammation.

Pattern recognition receptors identify structures not shared by body tissues.

A 33-year-old client who is a long-term intravenous user of heroin has been recently diagnosed with hepatitis C. Which portal of entry most likely led to the client's infection? Direct contact Ingestion Penetration Vertical transmission

Penetration

Transmission of the rabies virus from a dog bite would be best described by which mechanism of entry? Penetration Direct contact Inhalation Ingestion

Penetration

The CDC recommends routine testing for HIV of which groups of people? Select all that apply. People who have more than one sex partner People who exchange sex for money All people between 13 and 64 years of age People who inject illicit drugs

People who inject illicit drugs People who exchange sex for money People who have more than one sex partner

The cell responsible for migrating to the site of an infection and enveloping invading microorganisms is: Neutrophil Phagocyte T-Cell B-Cell

Phagocyte

A client is admitted with recurrent infections and granulomatous lesions. The client also reports arthritis and shows signs of respiratory congestion. Which immunodeficiency does this client most likely have? Phagocytic disorder Wiskott-Aldrich Severe combined immunodeficiency Complement disorder

Phagocytic disorder

Which actions would be considered an effector response of innate immunity? Select all that apply. Phagocytosis Initiation of inflammatory response Viral destruction Bacterial destruction Recruitment of the complement system

Phagocytosis Viral destruction Initiation of inflammatory response Recruitment of the complement system

What is the main effect of HIV infection? Poor suppressor T-cell function Poor helper T-cell function Poor B-cell function Poor natural killer cell function

Poor helper T-cell function

Chlamydiaceae, a rather common sexually transmitted infectious organism, has characteristics of both viruses and bacteria. Which of the following occurs with the infectious form of this organism's life cycle until it enters the host cell? Propulsion by filaments Adherence to cholesterol Encapsulated hyphae Presence of an elementary body

Presence of an elementary body

A continuing education nurse in a long-term care facility is discussing wound healing in older adult clients. Because older adult clients are more likely to have comorbidities like problems with mobility, diabetes, or vascular problems, the nurse should assess the clients for which problems? Select all that apply. Facial lacerations related to shaving Impaired healing related to diabetes Ischemic ulcer formation in feet Skinned knees from bumping into doors Pressure wounds on buttocks

Pressure wounds on buttocks Impaired healing related to diabetes Ischemic ulcer formation in feet

A continuing education nurse in a long-term care facility is discussing wound healing in older adult clients. Because older adult clients are more likely to have comorbidities like problems with mobility, diabetes, or vascular problems, the nurse should assess the clients for which problems? Select all that apply. Skinned knees from bumping into doors Impaired healing related to diabetes Ischemic ulcer formation in feet Facial lacerations related to shaving Pressure wounds on buttocks

Pressure wounds on buttocks Impaired healing related to diabetes Ischemic ulcer formation in feet

Which best describes the number of active disease cases at any given time? Prevalence Epidemic Incidence Endemic

Prevalence

A nurse is caring for a child who has had a history of recurrent severe infections that have been resistant to treatment with antibiotics. Which disorder should be suspected in this child? Diabetes Hypersensitivity reactions Primary immunodeficiency disorder (PID) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

Primary immunodeficiency disorder (PID)

A client with HIV has a low-grade fever, a rash, swollen lymph nodes, pharyngitis, and states, "I feel like I've been having the flu for the past 5 days." No reports of diarrhea, nausea, or weight loss. Which phase of HIV infection is the client most likely exhibiting? Primary infection Overt AIDS Latent period Terminal phase

Primary infection

The nurse caring for a postoperative client documents that the surgical incision is healing by: Secondary intention Tertiary intention Systemic intention Primary intention

Primary intention

The nurse is assessing the wound of a postoperative client. The client has a 6-inch abdominal wound that is well approximated and closed with surgical suture. The wound does not display any redness or drainage. The nurse would document the healing process as: Secondary intention Progressive intention Primary intention Tertiary intention

Primary intention

Transmissible neurodegenerative diseases such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease are associated with: Prokaryotic infection Virus Prion Bacteria

Prion

Which statement about prion diseases is correct? Prion diseases' method of replication is not clearly understood. Their are several antimicrobial agents that are useful against prions. Prion diseases do not present significant problems to the medical community. Prions have reproductive and metabolic functions.

Prion diseases' method of replication is not clearly understood

Which infective agent contains no DNA or RNA? Fungi Prions Bacteria Viruses

Prions

A client newly diagnosed with the neurodegenerative disease Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) asks why antibiotics are not part of the treatment plan. How should the nurse respond? Prions are not affected by antibiotics. CJD is only susceptible to antiretrovirals. Anaerobic parasites are destroyed by oxygen. Antifungals are needed to kill CJD.

Prions are not affected by antibiotics.

Activating lymphocytes depends on which actions of antigens by macrophages? Memory and clustering Processing and displaying Capture and destruction Recognition and grouping

Processing and displaying

A client complains of general malaise and fatigue and has a mild fever. The nurse would evaluate this stage of disease as the: Incubation stage Convalescent stage Prodromal stage Resolution stage

Prodromal stage

Which process that contributes to immunity takes place in a child's thymus gland? Differentiation of B cells Filtration of antigens from the blood Production of mature, immunocompetent T lymphocytes Production of natural killer (NK) cells

Production of mature, immunocompetent T lymphocytes

Which statement best describes the major difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes? Eukaryotes lack an organized nucleus. Prokaryotes lack an organized nucleus. Prokaryotes are composed of organized intracellular organelles. Only prokaryotes contain DNA and RNA. SUBMIT ANSWER

Prokaryotes lack an organized nucleus.

Which statement best describes the major difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes? Prokaryotes lack an organized nucleus. Eukaryotes lack an organized nucleus. Prokaryotes are composed of organized intracellular organelles. Only prokaryotes contain DNA and RNA.

Prokaryotes lack an organized nucleus.

A client sustained an injury 3 days ago. The nurse is assessing the status of the wound and anticipates the wound to be in which phase of healing? Remodeling Inflammatory Collagen Proliferative

Proliferative

A class of student nurses is hearing a lecture on wound healing. The professor explains about primary and secondary healing. What are the phases of wound healing? Select all that apply. Activation phase Proliferative phase Inflammatory phase Nutritional phase Remodeling phase

Proliferative phase Inflammatory phase Remodeling phase

What is the priority intervention for a nurse caring for a client with wasting syndrome from HIV? Administer antidiarrheal medications Monitor daily weight Promote nutritional intake Provide moisturizing skin care

Promote nutritional intake

Hyperbaric treatment for wound healing is used for wounds that have problems in healing due to hypoxia or infection. It works by raising the partial pressure of oxygen in plasma. How does hyperbaric oxygen treatment enhance wound healing? Promotion of angiogenesis Destruction of anaerobic bacteria Increased action of eosinophils Decrease in fibroblast activity

Promotion of angiogenesis

Which medication is used in the treatment of HIV to prevent cleavage of the polyprotein chain into individual proteins? Fusion inhibitor Reverse transcriptase inhibitor Integrase inhibitor Protease inhibitor

Protease inhibitor

The nurse is planning care for a client with a diagnosis of primary immunodeficiency. What is a priority intervention to incorporate into the plan? Protecting the client from infection Providing a referral to a support group prior to discharge Educating the client about required lifestyle changes Identifying the cause of the immune deficiency

Protecting the client from infection

Which differences in the healing process of a neonate versus an adult should the nurse consider when planning care for a neonate with a skin tear? Increased energy stores Increased elasticity of skin Immature immune system Rapid spread of infection

Rapid spread of infection Immature immune system Increased energy stores

What is the initial step in the process of phagocytosis to degrade any bacteria and cellular debris? Antigen margination Engulfment Intracellular killing Recognition and adherence

Recognition and adherence

There are two criteria that have to be met in order for a diagnosis of an infectious disease to occur. What are these two criteria? Identification by microscopic appearance and Gram stain reaction Recovery of probable pathogen and documentation of signs and symptoms compatible with an infectious process. Serology and an antibody titer specific to the serology Propagation of a microorganism outside the body and testing to see what destroys it.

Recovery of probable pathogen and documentation of signs and symptoms compatible with an infectious process.

The nurse would identify the presence of granulation tissue at a wound site by which characteristic? White wound bed Fibrous scar tissue Purulent drainage Red, moist tissue

Red, moist tissue

A client in the acute stage of inflammation will experience vasodilation of the arterioles and congestion in the capillary beds. The nurse would assess the client's skin for: Coolness Increased bacterial infection Decreased sensation at the site Redness

Redness

A client who had an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) returns the next week with a fever, chills, and elevated WBC. The physician suspects the wound is infected. If this wound does not respond to antibiotic therapy, the nurse can anticipate the client will undergo: Debridement Removal of device Whirlpool therapy Skin grafting

Removal of device

What is the primary purpose of tissue regeneration in wound healing? Minimize pain resulting from the injury Fill the gap caused by tissue damage Remodel the area to preinjury appearance Replace injured tissue to its original structure

Replace injured tissue to its original structure

A community health nurse has observed an increase in the incidence and prevalence of tuberculosis. Which factor could be a potential cause of this increase? Resistance to antibiotics Decreasing immunization rates Bacterial evasion Increases in nosocomial tuberculosis infection

Resistance to antibiotics

The results of recent research suggest that a key role in the origin of some diseases is played by inflammation. For which disease is it thought that inflammation has a role in its beginnings? Hydronephrosis Rheumatoid arthritis Osteogenesis imperfecta Osteoporosis

Rheumatoid arthritis

The infectious agents that cause Rocky Mountain spotted fever and epidemic typhus are transmitted to the human body via vector such as a tick. What are these infectious agents? Chlamydiae Viruses Ehrlichieae Rickettsia

Rickettsia

The rehabilitation nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) with hemiplegia. The family asks the nurse if the paralysis will be permanent. Upon which of these physiologic rationales should the nurse base the response? Permanent paralysis will probably not occur because the neurologic cells are stable cells that divide only when tissue damage occurs. It is likely that paralysis is permanent, as nerve cells do not normally regenerate. Paralysis is likely permanent, as inflammation causes brain swelling. Permanent paralysis is unlikely as the cells of the brain are labile cells that can replicate throughout the life span.

It is likely that paralysis is permanent, as nerve cells do not normally regenerate.

Which statements are true regarding chronic inflammation? Select all that apply. It is usually a result of persistent irritants. The condition is self-limiting in nature. The inflammatory agent is usually resistant to phagocytosis. It involves the presence of mononuclear cells like lymphocytes. Granulocytes are generally observed at sites of chronic inflammation.

It is usually a result of persistent irritants. The inflammatory agent is usually resistant to phagocytosis. It involves the presence of mononuclear cells like lymphocytes.

A 36-year-old male who is positive for HIV antibodies notices purplish spots on his upper body. Which term is used to identify these areas as an opportunistic infection? Multifocal leukoencephalopathy Liver spots Toxoplasmosis Kaposi sarcoma

Kaposi sarcoma

A 36-year-old male who is positive for HIV antibodies notices purplish spots on his upper body. Which term is used to identify these areas as an opportunistic infection? Multifocal leukoencephalopathy Toxoplasmosis Kaposi sarcoma Liver spots

Kaposi sarcoma

Which is a characteristic finding in AIDS? Overactive T-cell function Kaposi sarcoma Carcinoma of the lung High peripheral blood CD4+ lymphocyte counts

Kaposi sarcoma

The nurse is caring for a client with an accumulation of 2.5 cm of darkened tissue scar over the area of a 3-mm injury. How does the nurse correctly document this finding in the medical record? Hernia Thrombus Tumor Keloid

Keloid

The nurse is caring for a client with an accumulation of 2.5 cm of darkened tissue scar over the area of a 3-mm injury. How does the nurse correctly document this finding in the medical record? Tumor Keloid Thrombus Hernia

Keloid

What is a characteristic indicator that an individual is in the latent phase of HIV? Very high viral loads Mononucleosis-like symptoms Manifestations of opportunistic infections Lack of symptoms

Lack of symptoms

A nurse is reviewing the process required for the development of a healthy innate immune response. Which components need to be included in the review? Select all that apply. Complement B cells Cytokines Leukocytes Opsonins

Leukocytes Opsonins Cytokines Complement

The nurse is evaluating the bloodwork results of a client with an infected leg ulcer. The white blood cell count is 18,000 cells/uL. The nurse interprets this as: Leukocytosis Lymphadenitis Neutropenia Lymphocytosis

Leukocytosis

When caring for a client who has developed bacterial pneumonia, the nurse assesses for which of these abnormalities that supports presence of infection? Leukocytosis Neutropenia Thrombocytopenia Elevated eosinophils

Leukocytosis

The mother of an infant born with profound intellectual disability and hearing loss tells the nurse that she had a viral infection in the first trimester of pregnancy. The nurse identifies which congenital infection as the cause of the fetal defects? Rubella Roseola Mumps Measles

Rubella

A health care provider is providing information to a client about ectoparasites. The most prominent human ectoparasite would be: Scabies Borrelia Tapeworm Ringworm

Scabies

The ability to recognize self-cells from non-self (antigens)-cells is known as what term? Immunocompatibility Autoimmunity Self-tolerance Nonself anergy

Self-tolerance

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with systemic inflammatory response syndrome. Which illness is likely responsible for this diagnosis? Acute renal failure Respiratory arrest Sepsis Anaphylactic shock

Sepsis

Which condition is a complication of infection in which pathogens gain access to the blood? Septicemia Chronic infection Septic shock Bacteremia

Septicemia

A client is being evaluated for atopic dermatitis possibly caused by a latex-related allergic reaction. The nurse will review which lab results to determine if an allergy is present? Neutrophils Basophils Serum IgE Serum IgG

Serum IgE

A client is being evaluated for atopic dermatitis possibly caused by a latex-related allergic reaction. The nurse will review which lab results to determine if an allergy is present? Serum IgG Serum IgE Basophils Neutrophils

Serum IgE

Which term best describes a systemic immune complex disorder that is caused by insoluble antigen-antibody complexes being deposited in blood vessels, the joints, the heart, or kidney tissue? Antigen-antibody sickness Rh incompatibility Anti-immune disease Serum sickness

Serum sickness

The first physical line of defense in innate immunity is: Specialized lymphocytes Skin and mucous membranes Neutrophils Plasma proteins

Skin and mucous membranes

International travel has contributed to increased prevalence and incidence of nonindigenous diseases by increasing which of the following? Disease course Virulence Sources of infection Portals of entry

Sources of infection

A client has been identified as having an excess of macrophage inhibitory factor, causing the client to have inhibited movement and activity of macrophages. Which process should the health care team expect to remain unaffected? Initiation of adaptive immunity Amplification of the immune response Destruction of virus-infected or tumor cells Specificity and memory of the immune response

Specificity and memory of the immune response

Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid structure located high in the left abdominal cavity? Lymph node Spleen Peyer patch Thymus

Spleen

Antinuclear antibodies are characteristic of: Rheumatoid arthritis Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis Immunodeficiency syndromes Systemic lupus erythematosus

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Which type of immunity provides a defense against intracellular microbes such as viruses? Suppressor B cells Antibodies T lymphocytes Histamines

T lymphocytes

There are many cells that make up the passive and adaptive immune systems. Which cells are responsible for the specificity and memory of adaptive immunity? Select all that apply. Dendritic cells B lymphocytes T lymphocytes Natural killer cells Phagocytes

T lymphocytes B lymphocytes

Which statement explains how T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes differ? T lymphocytes recognize bacteria; B lymphocytes recognize viruses and cancer. T lymphocytes secrete antibodies; B lymphocytes provide cellular response to antigens. T lymphocytes are helpers that assist B lymphocytes to amplify the lysis of antigens. T lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland; B lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow.

T lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland; B lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow.

The nurse notes the client has developed a systemic response of inflammation based on assessment findings. Which clinical manifestations support this diagnosis? Select all that apply. Generalized achiness Temperature of 100.9°F (38.3°C) Somnolence Pounding, throbbing headache Decreased capillary permeability

Temperature of 100.9°F (38.3°C) Somnolence Generalized achiness

While working in the newborn nursery, a nurse is assessing a new admission. The nurse notes the infant has an increased distance between his eyes, a very small jaw, and a split uvula. Thinking this infant might have DiGeorge syndrome, the nurse should be assessing this infant for which electrolyte imbalance? Frequent ventricular beats on ECG due to hyperkalemia Decreased reflexes due to hypermagnesemia Tetany due to hypocalcemia Loss of consciousness due to hyponatremia

Tetany due to hypocalcemia

Which responsibility of the extracellular matrix (ECM) is most accurate? An injured body part can be restored without the ECM. The ECM provides the scaffolding for tissue renewal. When the basement membrane is disrupted, cells will proliferate in an organized fashion. The structural integrity of the ECM does not have to remain intact for healing to occur.

The ECM provides the scaffolding for tissue renewal.

A client has presented to the emergency department after he twisted his ankle while playing soccer. Which assessment findings are cardinal signs that the client is experiencing inflammation? Select all that apply. The ankle is bleeding The ankle is warmer than the unaffected ankle The client is experiencing pain The ankle appears to be swollen The client's ankle is visibly red

The ankle is warmer than the unaffected ankle The client is experiencing pain The ankle appears to be swollen The client's ankle is visibly red

The cardinal signs of inflammation include swelling, pain, redness, and heat. What is the fifth cardinal sign of inflammation? Loss of function Fever Sepsis Altered level of consciousness

Loss of function

Which lab values correlate to the fact that the client has developed a lytic drug reaction and is having an antibody response that lyses the drug-coated cell? Select all that apply. Low hemoglobin of 9.1 WBC level of 5000/μL Elevated liver enzyme levels CD4 T-cell count of 500 cells Low platelet level of 10,000/mm3

Low hemoglobin of 9.1 Low platelet level of 10,000/mm3

A client has common variable immunodeficiency (CVID), a form of humoral primary immunodeficiency. Which alteration in serum levels would the nurse expect to see? Low serum IgD levels Elevated serum IgM levels Elevated serum IgA levels Low serum IgG levels

Low serum IgG levels

A hospital client with a diagnosis of sepsis is in need of a specific response to microorganisms and a long-lasting immunity to the pathogens in question. Which component of the client's immune system is most able to meet these criteria? Neutrophils Macrophages Natural killer cells Lymphocytes

Lymphocytes

Cellular abnormalities in AIDS include which one of the following? B-cell suppression Lymphocytopenia (low lymphocyte count in peripheral blood) Macrocytosis Excessive T-cell activity

Lymphocytopenia (low lymphocyte count in peripheral blood)

A client has been diagnosed with an abscess. Upon assessment of the client, the nurse would expect to find: several raised, reddened nodules containing sanguineous fluid. white patchy areas on the anterior surface. a localized pocket of infection composed of devitalized tissue, microorganisms, and the host's phagocytic white blood cells. a circular pigmented area with a bull's-eye

a localized pocket of infection composed of devitalized tissue, microorganisms, and the host's phagocytic white blood cells.

A client with hereditary angioneurotic edema (HAE) is experiencing an attack. Which priority intervention should the nurse be prepared to administer? Administering an antihistamine for the itching. Maintaining a patent airway Starting an IV Administering an antiemetic for vomiting

Maintaining a patent airway

A client is being treated for lupus, an autoimmune disease. The nurse is teaching the client how the immune system normally differentiates between self and non-self (foreign peptides). The nurse knows teaching has been effective when the client correctly identifies which molecule as the self-recognition protein? Deoxynucleotidyl transferase Complement Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) Immunoglobulins

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

Which cellular mediator is involved in the development of type I hypersensitivity reactions? Monocytes Mast cells Plasma cells Arachidonic acid

Mast cells

An obstetrics nurse is counseling an expectant mother. The mother is concerned about letting people hold her baby once the baby is born, fearing that the infant will get sick. What should the nurse explain to the mother? Maternal immunoglobulins cross the placenta and protect the newborn early in life. The innate immune system will protect the baby. IgA that is present at birth, and which originates with the mother, will protect the baby, Abundant lymphoid tissues protect the infant in the first few months of life.

Maternal immunoglobulins cross the placenta and protect the newborn early in life.

An obstetrics nurse is counseling an expectant mother. The mother is concerned about letting people hold her baby once the baby is born, fearing that the infant will get sick. What should the nurse explain to the mother? The innate immune system will protect the baby. Abundant lymphoid tissues protect the infant in the first few months of life. Maternal immunoglobulins cross the placenta and protect the newborn early in life. IgA that is present at birth, and which originates with the mother, will protect the baby,

Maternal immunoglobulins cross the placenta and protect the newborn early in life.

A pregnant client gets immunized for influenza while in the second trimester. What response occurs in the newborn after birth with regard to protection from the flu? Maternal vaccination may offer fetal and neonatal passive immunity against the flu. The newborn will not require further immunization against the flu for at least 12 months. Only the mother will receive the benefits of immunization. The newborn will have to receive immunization against influenza to have any immunity.

Maternal vaccination may offer fetal and neonatal passive immunity against the flu.

A client has developed a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction. When should the nurse assess for a possible progressing response to the secondary or late-phase? May occur 2 to 8 hours after the primary or initial-phase response and lasts for several days May occur within minutes and lasts approximately 2 hours Will not occur, as it has been 1 hour since the primary or initial-phase response May occur 12 to 18 hours after the primary or initial-phase response and lasts for 1 day

May occur 2 to 8 hours after the primary or initial-phase response and lasts for several days

A person has been exposed to a particular antigen and a now experiences a repeat exposure. What stimulates a quicker immune response? Antibodies Memory T cells Immunity Macrophages

Memory T cells

A person has been exposed to a particular antigen and a now experiences a repeat exposure. What stimulates a quicker immune response? Macrophages Memory T cells Antibodies Immunity

Memory T cells

The nurse is teaching a group of parents about foods that commonly cause allergic reactions in children. The most important information to provide would be: Select all that apply. Strawberries Peanuts Eggs Milk Shellfish

Milk Eggs Peanuts Shellfish

What would constitute a normal assessment finding in a neonate? Minimal or absent levels of IgA and IgM Absence of mature B cells with normal T-cell levels and function Absence of plasma cells in the lymph nodes and spleen Undetectable levels of all immunoglobulins

Minimal or absent levels of IgA and IgM

Which is least likely to contribute to the spread of HIV infection? Vaginal intercourse Oral sex Sharing of intravenous needles Mosquitoes

Mosquitoes

Systemic lupus erythematosus is best characterized by which principle? The main immune problem is anaphylactic (type I immune) reaction. It is a consequence of streptococcal infection. Most clients have antinuclear antibodies present in their blood. It is principally a disease of men.

Most clients have antinuclear antibodies present in their blood.

Combined immunodeficiency syndrome is a disorder in which both B and T lymphocytes are affected. This results in defects in both humoral and cell-mediated immunity. What could be the cause of this disorder? A single misplaced gene that influences major histocompatibility A single mutation in any gene that influences major histocompatibility antigens Multiple misplaced genes that influence lymphocyte development and response Multiple mutations in genes that influence lymphocyte development and response

Multiple mutations in genes that influence lymphocyte development and response

Which disorder does the nurse know is considered to be an autoimmune disease? Osteoarthritis Rhabdomyolysis Diverticulitis Myasthenia gravis

Myasthenia gravis

While caring for a pediatric client admitted with a viral infection, the nurse knows that which type of cell will be the child's primary defense against the virus? Leukotrienes Complement Bradykinin Natural killer (NK) cells

Natural killer (NK) cells

Which type of immunity is achieved by an infant from its mother through antibodies transferred in utero or in breast milk? Artificially acquired passive immunity Artificially acquired active immunity Naturally acquired passive immunity Naturally acquired active immunity

Naturally acquired passive immunity

The nurse is assessing a client who has AIDS and has the opportunistic infection toxoplasmosis. In view of this diagnosis, the nurse performs a focused assessment on which body system? Digestive Skeletal Muscular Nervous

Nervous

A blood smear is being examined and a stain has been added that will identify granulocytes. Which cell types will be visible with the stain? Select all that apply. Monocytes Neutrophil Basophil Eosinophil Macrophage

Neutrophil Eosinophil Basophil

A teenager with an infected wound asks, "How does my body fight off the germs in my scraped arm?" Which response by the nurse correctly identifies the cells that play a central role to the innate immune response to an infectious microorganism? B lymphocytes T lymphocytes Neutrophils Antibodies

Neutrophils

A teenager with an infected wound asks, "How does my body fight off the germs in my scraped arm?" Which response by the nurse correctly identifies the cells that play a central role to the innate immune response to an infectious microorganism? Neutrophils Antibodies T lymphocytes B lymphocytes

Neutrophils

During a lecture on inflammation, the physiology instructor discusses the major cellular components involved in the inflammation response. The instructor asks, "Which cells arrive early in great numbers?" Which student response is correct? Lymphocytes Monocytes Neutrophils Basophils

Neutrophils

During a lecture on wound care, the instructor mentions the final stage of the cellular response of acute inflammation. Which statement describes what physiologically occurs in the final stage? Neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages engulf and degrade the bacteria/cellular debris. Mediators are transformed into inactive metabolites. Leukocytes accumulate and begin migration to the site of injury. Chemokines direct the trafficking of leukocytes.

Neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages engulf and degrade the bacteria/cellular debris.

Typical symptoms seen in the latent period of HIV infection include which of the following? Night sweats Gastrointestinal problems Skin lesions No signs or symptoms

No signs or symptoms

A male infant is diagnosed with a primary humoral immunodeficiency caused by a defect in early B-cell development, creating a severe decrease in production, maturation, and survival of mature B lymphocytes. Which clinical manifestation does the nurse anticipate assessing after the birth? No symptoms; infants are usually asymptomatic at birth. Hypertonic reflexes Feeding difficulties Facial deformities

No symptoms; infants are usually asymptomatic at birth.

A 37-year-old male with HIV who has recently become symptomatic has begun highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). Among the numerous medications that he now regularly takes are several that inhibit the change of HIV RNA to DNA in a CD4+ cell. Which class of medications addresses this component of the HIV replication cycle? Integrase inhibitors Entry inhibitors Protease inhibitors Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

A child has a congenital condition in which the thymus gland is absent. What should the nurse include in the education of care of this client to the parents? Observe and report signs and symptoms of infection. Report if the child has 2 to 3 loose stools in a day. Do not immunize the child with inactive or live viruses. Observe and report any signs of bleeding.

Observe and report signs and symptoms of infection

The process by which microbes are coated to allow for more efficient recognition by phagocytes is known as: Immunity Memory Opsonization Immunization

Opsonization

Which statement correctly identifies the role of the C3b subcomponent of the complement system? Dilates arterioles Opsonizes microbes to facilitate phagocytosis Lyses cells Induces rapid degranulation of mast cells

Opsonizes microbes to facilitate phagocytosis

Although both eukaryotes and prokaryotes are capable of causing infectious diseases in humans, eukaryotes are unique because they have a/an: Circular plasmid DNA Cytoplasmic membrane Organized nucleus Variation of shape and size

Organized nucleus

Which scenario is an example of how international travel has contributed to increased prevalence and incidence of nonindigenous diseases? An airline pilot getting ill after eating pork in a restaurant in Hong Kong Hepatitis A outbreak when a restaurant worker forgot to wash the hands after using the restroom Outbreak of hemolytic-uremic syndrome related to contaminated salad being shipped to various regions Increase in the number of reported Lyme disease cases related to a hot summer with local large deer population

Outbreak of hemolytic-uremic syndrome related to contaminated salad being shipped to various regions

A woman experiences a viral infection while pregnant. Which type of immunity does an infant have at birth against this infection? Tolerance Active Passive Adaptive

Passive

Why do neonates and small children have problems with wound healing? Their immune systems are hypersensitive to infectious agents. They do not have the reserves needed for proper healing. Their skin is fragile, thin and easily disrupted. Their bodies are not yet capable of an inflammatory response.

They do not have the reserves needed for proper healing.

A tourist has presented to a primary health clinic reporting malaise, fever, and headache. She has subsequently been diagnosed with Rocky Mountain spotted fever, a pathology caused by Rickettsiaceae. Which statement best captures a characteristic trait of Rickettsiaceae? They are neither Gram negative nor Gram positive. They have a distinct spiral-shaped morphology. They have both RNA and DNA. They are eukaryotic. SUBMIT ANSWER

They have both RNA and DNA.

A client with otitis media is ordered to receive amoxicillin. The client questions the nurse on how the drug works. Which statement describes how penicillin works? This drug causes the interruption of nucleic acid synthesis. This drug causes interference with a specific step in bacterial cell wall synthesis. This drug causes the inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis. This drug causes the interference with normal cell metabolism.

This drug causes interference with a specific step in bacterial cell wall synthesis.

Which statements are true regarding the contraction and remodeling of a wound? Select all that apply. This phase can take up to 6 months or longer to complete. This phase generally begins about 3 weeks after the injury. The development of a fibrous scar is important to the success of the process. This phase demonstrates an increase in tissue vascularity. The scar site generally has less tensile strength than surrounding tissue.

This phase generally begins about 3 weeks after the injury. The development of a fibrous scar is important to the success of the process. This phase can take up to 6 months or longer to complete. The scar site generally has less tensile strength than surrounding tissue.

The nurse is caring for a client who has experienced hypovolemic shock secondary to penetrating multiple trauma. When caring for the client postoperatively, which of these factors does the nurse recognize places the client at risk for poor wound healing? Pain Keloid formation Hyperbaric oxygen Tissue hypoxia

Tissue hypoxia

Which is the main purpose of the complement system in the presence of invading microorganisms? To prevent uncontrolled reactions of complement To create an inflammatory response To stimulate change in neutrophils To attack and destroy antigens

To attack and destroy antigens

One of the self-regulatory actions of the immune system is to identify self-antigens and be nonreactive to them. Which term best describes this process of the immune system? Tolerance Nonreactivity Antigen diversity Antigen specificity

Tolerance

A mature scar will likely be pale in color due to which rationale? Protection from the sun via sunscreen. Lack of elastic tissue results in an inability to vasodilate vessels. Lack of melanocytes in the new tissue. Transformation from a highly vascular granulation tissue into an avascular scar.

Transformation from a highly vascular granulation tissue into an avascular scar.

Levels A, B, and C are levels assigned to potential agents of bioterrorism. What are these categorical assignments based on? Transmissibility Safety to terrorist Ease of use to terrorist Environmental impact

Transmissibility

The type of hypersensitivity reaction that is dependent on IgE-mediated activation of mast cells and basophils and the subsequent release of chemical mediators of the inflammatory response is known as which of the following types of hypersensitivity reaction? Type IV Type III Type I Type II

Type I

The type of hypersensitivity reaction that is mediated by IgG or IgM antibodies directed against target antigens on specific host cell surfaces or tissues is also known as which type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type II Type IV Type III Type I

Type II

A client has developed a hypersensitivity reaction resulting in the diagnosis of serum sickness. In documentation, the nurse would categorize this reaction as which type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type IV hypersensitivity reaction Type III hypersensitivity reaction Type I hypersensitivity reaction Type II hypersensitivity reaction

Type III hypersensitivity reaction

The nurse is assessing a client with diabetes and notes an area on the client's right foot as inflamed, necrotic, and eroded. The client states he accidentally slammed his foot in a door 2 weeks ago. The nurse would document this finding as a(n): Ulceration Abscess Pustule Fungus

Ulceration

A male infant has been diagnosed with X-linked agammaglobulinemia. Which laboratory results confirm this diagnosis? Low levels of T lymphocytes Low levels of neutrophils Decreased levels of B lymphocytes Undetected levels of all serum immunoglobulin

Undetected levels of all serum immunoglobulin

A male infant with X-linked (Bruton) agammaglobulinemia is typically diagnosed by: Serum levels of low immunoglobulin at 1 year of age Decreased serum immunoglobulin levels after age 9 months of age The age of 3 months based on the presence of antibodies A failed response to antibiotic treatments for an infection

Undetected levels of all serum immunoglobulin

What is the length of time from infection with the AIDS virus to seroconversion? Immediately Approximately 1 week Up to 6 months 10 to 12 years

Up to 6 months

A client seeks treatment in the clinic for exposure to poison ivy with a rash over the right arm and hand. The nurse is aware that what toxin is found in the oils on poison ivy that is responsible for eliciting an allergic reaction? Lymphocytes Urushiol Streptococcus pneumonia Kupffer cells

Urushiol

A client seeks treatment in the clinic for exposure to poison ivy with a rash over the right arm and hand. The nurse is aware that what toxin is found in the oils on poison ivy that is responsible for eliciting an allergic reaction? Streptococcus pneumonia Lymphocytes Urushiol Kupffer cells

Urushiol

The nurse understands that the best way for a health care worker to protect against the transmission of HIV is to utilize which form of precaution? Use blood and body fluid precautions on clients known to be HIV positive. Use universal precautions on all clients. use contact-isolation on all clients known to be HIV positive. Use proper hand-washing techniques before and after contact with all clients.

Use universal precautions on all clients.

A health care provider would best decrease his or her risk of a respiratory allergic response to latex gloves by performing which intervention? Not wearing sterile gloves when performing health care duties Wearing powdered gloves to decrease skin contact with the latex Applying two layers of latex gloves to decrease the spread of latex proteins Using non-powdered gloves when performing health care duties

Using non-powdered gloves when performing health care duties

What is the most common mode of transmission of HIV? Mother to newborn via perinatal transmission Vaginal and anal intercourse Infection from shared needles Occupational exposure Blood transfusion

Vaginal and anal intercourse

A client in the primary or initial phase of a type I hypersensitivity reaction would most likely experience which physiologic response? Tissue destruction in the form of epithelial cell damage Vasodilation of the capillaries from the release of histamine An IgE-mediated response that protects from damage Smooth muscle relaxation produced by increased acetylcholine

Vasodilation of the capillaries from the release of histamine

An HIV-positive mother passes the virus to her infant during delivery. This type of transmission is known as: Heterozygous transmission Horizontal transmission Vesicle transmission Vertical transmission

Vertical transmission

The nurse is caring for a client with common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) disorder. Which clinical manifestation of the disorder is common with this client? Viral pneumonia Perirectal abscesses Glomerulonephritis Colonic polyps

Viral pneumonia

When caring for a postoperative client, in order to promote wound healing, which of these nutrients does the nurse encourage the client to consume? Vitamin D Vitamin E Magnesium Vitamin C

Vitamin C

When caring for a postoperative client, in order to promote wound healing, which of these nutrients does the nurse encourage the client to consume? Vitamin E Vitamin C Vitamin D Magnesium

Vitamin C

While educating a group of individuals about to undergo knee surgery, the nurse stresses the importance of eating a well-balanced diet, especially high in vitamins. Which vitamin promotes collagen synthesis to facilitate the wound to the knee to heal properly? Vitamin K Vitamin A Vitamin B6 Vitamin C

Vitamin C

The nurse is caring for a client with a chronic wound. The most important intervention for the nurse to include in the plan of care would be: Low-carbohydrate diet Vitamin C and zinc supplements Steroid therapy Protein-controlled diet

Vitamin C and zinc supplements

A client presents at the clinic complaining of unplanned 10% weight loss, diarrhea, fever and weakness that "just won't go away." After a complete history and physical, an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay test is ordered. This order is based on what suspected diagnosis? WAGAR syndrome AIDS syndrome Beal syndrome Wasting syndrome

Wasting syndrome

A 67-year-old client diagnosed with myasthenia gravis will likely display which clinical manifestations as a result of autoantibodies ultimately blocking the action of acetylcholine, resulting in destruction of the receptors? Weakness of the eye muscles, difficulty in swallowing and slurred speech, impaired gait. Tremor of hands/arms, rigidity of the arms, shuffling gait. Short-term memory lapses, problems with orientation, a lack of drive or initiative. Facial droop, slurred speech, weakness on one side of the body. SUBMIT ANSWER

Weakness of the eye muscles, difficulty in swallowing and slurred speech, impaired gait.

The nurse is administering an intramuscular medication to a client who has AIDS. Which precaution will the nurse take when administering the medication? Wear double gloves Wear a mask Wear gloves Wear a gown and gloves

Wear gloves

A nurse is teaching a group of hikers about Lyme disease prevention. Which statement should be included in the teaching? Restrict activities that might lead to exposure. Take low-dose antibiotics daily to prevent exposure. Complete an immunization series in early infancy. Wear long sleeves and pants tucked into socks while hiking.

Wear long sleeves and pants tucked into socks while hiking.

A client fears she may have acquired HIV and asks the nurse what test is likely to be used to confirm a diagnosis. The best response would be: OraSure test ELISA (enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay) OraQuick Rapid HIV-1 Antibody Test Western blot assay

Western blot assay

A public health nurse notes an increase in regional throat cancer cases. Upon epidemiological studies, many of the throat cancer clients also had oral exposure to human papillomavirus (HPV). This exposure to HPV would be considered by: deep penetration of open lesions. ingestion of HPV through the GI tract. direct contact with infected secretions. accidental aspiration and inhalation of pathogens.

direct contact with infected secretions.

Which intervention is the priority for a client with hereditary angioneurotic edema (HAE) who is experiencing a spontaneous episode of deep localized tissue swelling? administration of attenuated androgens emergency intubation for laryngeal edema IV infusion of fluids for hypotension subcutaneous epinephrine injection for hives

emergency intubation for laryngeal edema

The surgeon has documented that a client is developing "proud flesh" at the postoperative wound site. The nurse recognizes this as: restorative granulation tissue. excessive granulation tissue. infected granulation tissue. deficient granulation tissue.

excessive granulation tissue.

A client with severe peripheral artery disease (PAD) has been educated about the various growth factors and their functions. This client is hoping that the growth factor, fibroblast growth factor (FGF), will be able to repair the circulation to his lower extremities because this growth factor's function is to: stimulate replication of hepatocytes. increase vascular permeability. grow new vessels into the damaged area (angiogenesis). stimulate keratinocyte migration and the formation of granulation tissue.

grow new vessels into the damaged area (angiogenesis).

A child is brought to the emergency department after falling and cutting the leg on a piece of fencing. While explaining the process of normal tissue repair, the nurse explains that certain cells, like fibroblasts, proliferate at times like this with the production of: growth factors to help the cells respond and expand in numbers to repair the injury. glucocorticoids that help with the "fight or flight" reaction. nerve fibers to assist with building new connections between the new tissue and the injured tissue. blood clots to help stop the bleeding from the injured tissue.

growth factors to help the cells respond and expand in numbers to repair the injury.

Select the assessment data that place a client most at risk for the development of an opportunistic infection. A client who: Select all that apply. has a compromised immune system. just completed 6 weeks of radiation therapy. is currently receiving chemotherapy. has normal nutrition and body weight. has a diagnosis of malnutrition.

has a compromised immune system. is currently receiving chemotherapy. just completed 6 weeks of radiation therapy. has a diagnosis of malnutrition

Select the assessment data that place a client most at risk for the development of an opportunistic infection. A client who: Select all that apply. has a compromised immune system. has normal nutrition and body weight. has a diagnosis of malnutrition. is currently receiving chemotherapy. just completed 6 weeks of radiation therapy.

has a compromised immune system. is currently receiving chemotherapy. just completed 6 weeks of radiation therapy. has a diagnosis of malnutrition.

The most important function of the thymus is: to filter antigens from the blood and respond to systemic infections. to remove foreign material from lymph before it enters the bloodstream. immune cell production and maturation. to serve as a center for proliferation and response of immune cells.

immune cell production and maturation.

A client with COPD controlled with long-term corticosteroids has developed an infection following bowel surgery. The nurse anticipated this complication since steroids: are considered anti-anabolic, and long term therapy can cause muscle bulking. impair the phagocytic property of leukocytes. can result in fluid retention and hypotension. cause hypoglycemia in most clients.

impair the phagocytic property of leukocytes.

A client with COPD controlled with long-term corticosteroids has developed an infection following bowel surgery. The nurse anticipated this complication since steroids: impair the phagocytic property of leukocytes. can result in fluid retention and hypotension. cause hypoglycemia in most clients. are considered anti-anabolic, and long term therapy can cause muscle bulking.

impair the phagocytic property of leukocytes.

Although bacterial toxins vary in their activity and effects on host cells, a small amount of gram-negative bacteria endotoxin: inactivates key cellular functions. uses protein to activate enzymes. in the cell wall activates inflammation. is released during cell growth.

in the cell wall activates inflammation.

A client is experiencing the early stages of an inflammatory process and develops leukocytosis. The nurse recognizes this as a/an: decrease in blood supply to the affected area. decrease in eosinophils at the tissue injury site. increase in circulating neutrophils. increase in cell production.

increase in circulating neutrophils.

A fomite is a/an: tick-like ectoparasite. natural disinfectant. infection transfer agent. natural antibiotic.

infection transfer agent.

A client has been diagnosed with syphilis and will be treated with penicillin. The client's medication will achieve a therapeutic effect through: interruption of nucleic acid synthesis. interference with cell wall synthesis. interference with normal metabolism. inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis.

interference with cell wall synthesis.

The nurse is caring for a client who has lesions of Kaposi sarcoma (KS). The nurse understands that KS: is a malignancy of the endothelial cells that line small blood vessels. is an opportunistic infection. is restricted to lesions of the skin. is usually extremely painful.

is a malignancy of the endothelial cells that line small blood vessels.

HIV is considered to be a retrovirus because: it carries a genetic marker for a previously discovered virus that was a source of an epidemic in an earlier time period. it reproduces at a rapid rate. it carries its genetic information in ribonucleic acid (RNA) rather than deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). it converts to a primitive form of virus when duplicat

it carries its genetic information in ribonucleic acid (RNA) rather than deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

While the nurse is performing a skin assessment on a dark-skinned client, the nurse notes that the client has a healed wound on the leg but that the wound has an excess of scar tissue. The nurse documents this as: proud flesh. keloid. remodeling. epithelialization.

keloid.

While explaining immunity to a client, the nurse responds, "The body's internal organs are protected from pathogens because: we have special glands that can secrete cytokines on a moment's notice." our mucosal tissue contains all the necessary cell components to fight a pathogen with an immune response." the tonsils store a large amount of natural killer cells at that location." the actions of the cytokines in the mouth can act on different cell types at the same time it is fighting pathogens."

our mucosal tissue contains all the necessary cell components to fight a pathogen with an immune response."

After many years of cigarette smoking, a client is admitted to have a "mass" removed from the lung. When explaining the surgery and recovery, the physician notes that the client is likely to have a good amount of fibrosis develop at the surgical area. After the physician leaves the room, the client asks the nurse what was meant by "fibrosis" in the lung. The nurse bases the response on the fact that tissue repair can: result with injured cells being replaced with cells of the same type. result in replacement tissue in the form of connective (fibrous) tissue, which leads to scar formation or fibrosis of the lung. form an extracellular matrix (like a web), which is composed of connective tissue that ends up being scar tissue at the surgical site. be slowed in an aging adult, and therefore may end up with part of the scar not being able to perform its normal function.

result in replacement tissue in the form of connective (fibrous) tissue, which leads to scar formation or fibrosis of the lung.

A nurse who had a needlestick injury 15 years ago has developed hepatitis C and now progressed to liver failure. This nurse was hoping that the growth factor, transforming growth factor-alpha (TGF-alpha), would have been able to repair her liver since this growth factor's function is to: increase vascular permeability. stimulate keratinocyte migration and the formation of granulation tissue. stimulate replication of hepatocytes. grow new vessels into the damaged area (angiogenesis).

stimulate replication of hepatocytes.

A nurse educator is explaining how the HIV virus is responsible for AIDS and AIDS syndromes. The educator should explain that replication involves the killing of: the CD8+ T cell and the release of HIV copies into the bloodstream. plasma cells and their eventual replacement with HIV cells. macrophages and the release of HIV copies into the bloodstream. the CD4+ T cell and the release of HIV copies into the bloodstream.

the CD4+ T cell and the release of HIV copies into the bloodstream

The nurse is reviewing the client's medical record for the results of a Western blot test with the understanding that: the Western blot is a less specific test than the ELISA test. the Western blot is performed before the ELISA test. the Western blot can have many situations causing false positive results. the Western blot is used to confirm a diagnosis of HIV infection. SUBMIT ANSWER

the Western blot is used to confirm a diagnosis of HIV infection.

A student asks, "What does cell-mediated immunity mean to the client?" The instructor responds, "This means: the body is trying to defend itself against intracellular microbe invasion by engulfing and destroying the microbe." our body is trying to systematically control the immune response." the person's immune system is trying to eliminate all responses to certain antigens." the person's immune system is trying to rapidly mature more killer cells to protect against any microbial invasion."

the body is trying to defend itself against intracellular microbe invasion by engulfing and destroying the microbe."

Following delivery, the parents have chosen to have their infant's cord blood frozen. A blood test is performed on the cord blood and found to contain IgM antibodies. The nurse interprets this to mean: the child likely already has developed an immunocompromised disease. the infant has received active antibodies from the mother. the infant has been exposed to an intrauterine infection. the child's placenta was defective since it did not filter the IgM out of the blood.

the infant has been exposed to an intrauterine infection.

Following a severe automobile accident, a client is scheduled to have surgery to either repair or remove his spleen, pancreas, and stomach. The client wants the organs repaired and not removed if at all possible. However, the nursing staff understands that extensive regeneration in parenchymal organs can only occur if: the residual tissue is structurally and functionally intact. these organs are infected and inflamed. scar formation can remodel the tissue to make them technically stronger than before the accident. hemorrhage is not occurring in this area since RBCs carry oxygen needed for the cells to regenerate.

the residual tissue is structurally and functionally intact.

A client cuts herself with a sharp knife while cooking dinner. The client describes how the wound started bleeding and had a red appearance almost immediately. The nurse knows that in the vascular stage of acute inflammation, the vessels: bleed profusely until the body can compensate and start to send fibrinogen to the wound. swell to the point of compromising circulation, causing the limb to become cool to touch. vasodilate, causing the area to become congested and resulting in the red color and warmth. constrict as a result of "fight/flight" hormone release, resulting in pale-colored skin

vasodilate, causing the area to become congested and resulting in the red color and warmth

A client with diabetes has an admission hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) level of 13 (goal is 6) and an abdominal wound that will not heal. The nurse knows that hyperglycemia (poor blood glucose control) has an effect on wound healing, especially related to neutrophils affecting: ability to engulf and kill bacteria because of poor phagocytic function. collagen synthesis. ability to carry oxygen to the wound bed. ability to utilize protein to begin the inflammatory phase of healing.

ability to engulf and kill bacteria because of poor phagocytic function.

The nurse is selecting a dressing for a vascular wound that has a dry wound surface. The most appropriate dressing for this wound is one that: adds moisture to wound bed. removes exudate from wound. debrides the wound. absorbs moisture.

adds moisture to wound bed.

The nurse is explaining the quality of pleiotropism that is possessed by many cytokines. The quality of pleiotropism implies that such cytokines: have a unique function in all cells. are able to act on different types of cells. perform unique functions in a specific body cell. can perform different functions in the same cells.

are able to act on different types of cells.

Although growth rate is variable among types of bacteria, the growth of bacteria is dependent on: an intact protein capsid. availability of nutrients. individual cell motility. biofilm communication.

availability of nutrients.

An oncology client is about to begin chemotherapy. During the education, the nurse mentions that continuously dividing cells will be most affected by the chemotherapy. The client asks, "What are continuously dividing cells?" The nurse responds, "These are cells that continue to divide and replicate like: Select all that apply. heart muscle cells." cells on the surface of your skin." neurons." cells in your mouth." cells lining your GI tract."

cells on the surface of your skin." cells in your mouth." cells lining your GI tract."

The entrance of a microbe into an individual's vascular space has initiated opsonization. How will the health care provider explain this process that is critical in stopping the infiltration of the microbe through opsonization? Opsonization: releases proteins that stimulate cell production by the bone marrow. coats a microbe to activate phagocytosis recognition. involves lysis of intracellular microbes by cytotoxic T cells. stimulates B cells by helper T cells.

coats a microbe to activate phagocytosis recognition.

When caring for a child with ataxia-telangiectasia mutation (ATM), which assessment findings correlate with this diagnosis? Select all that apply. bloody diarrhea frequent seizure activity decreased lymphocyte count elevated serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level cognitive developmental delay elevated hemoglobin levels

cognitive developmental delay decreased lymphocyte count elevated serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level

There has been an incidence of influenza in both Europe and in the United States. What is the term that best describes this incidence? Outbreak Pandemic Epidemic Endemic

Pandemic

Infections that are passed from animals to humans are known as: Nosocomial Perinatal Zoonotic Opportunistic

Zoonotic

A college student has been called into the student health office because she tested positive for HIV on the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). The student asks, "What is this Western blot assay going to tell you?" The best response by the health care provider is: "If you are afraid of another blood test, we can do a rapid oral test to see if we get the same results." "This assay will actually look at all the individual cells in your blood and count how many HIV cells you have, so we can treat you with the proper medication." "The Western blot is a more sensitive assay that looks for the presence of antibodies to specific viral antigens." "We always want two positive test results before we give you medicine."

"The Western blot is a more sensitive assay that looks for the presence of antibodies to specific viral antigens

A client stepped on a nail at work. The emergency room physician prescribes a tetanus "booster" shot. The client asks the nurse, "If I have already been vaccinated for tetanus why do I need to have another shot?" How should the nurse respond? "If you have questions about your treatment, I will ask the physician to come back in and talk to you." "Tetanus can mutate and form a new strain; therefore yearly vaccinations are recommended." "Your initial vaccination is outdated so you are no longer immune to tetanus." "The booster shot will stimulate your immune system's memory, causing an immediate rise in antibodies to protect you from an infection."

"The booster shot will stimulate your immune system's memory, causing an immediate rise in antibodies to protect you from an infection."

A client was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and started on antiviral therapy. The nurse evaluates the client's understanding of the antiviral drug when the client correctly makes which statement regarding the pharmacologic mechanism of action "The primary target of most antiviral compounds is viral RNA or DNA synthesis." "The antiviral drug causes agglutination of the virus cells." "The antiviral drug's action is to stimulate the body's immune response allowing the body to naturally kill the virus." "The antiviral drug will kill the virus and inhibit further replication."

"The primary target of most antiviral compounds is viral RNA or DNA synthesis."

A nurse educator is describing the way that cells involved in the inflammatory response find their way to the site of injury. Which description best reflects this physiologic mechanism? "The process of chemotaxis is the process where cells wander through the tissue guided by secreted chemoattractants." "Tissues have an abundance of inflammatory cells that are constantly migrating and just waiting for tissue injury." "Phagocytosis is the dynamic and energy-directed process where cells migrate, directed by chemoattractants." "The process of margination ensures that cells will follow the cytokine gradient."

"The process of chemotaxis is the process where cells wander through the tissue guided by secreted chemoattractants.

A client was unaware that intestinal flora are beneficial, stating, "I thought all bacteria were bad." Which is the nurse's most accurate response? "An interaction such as this is called commensalism: The colonizing bacteria acquire nutritional needs and shelter, and the host is able to keep their numbers under control." "The term 'mutualism' is applied to an interaction in which the microorganism and the host both derive benefits from the interaction." "Any organism capable of supporting the nutritional and physical growth requirements of another is called a host." "There's a parasitic relationship by which the bacteria benefits but there's a minimal effect on the host's health."

"The term 'mutualism' is applied to an interaction in which the microorganism and the host both derive benefits from the interaction."

A client will be undergoing an autologous stem cell transplant. Which statement should the nurse validate as an indication the client understands this procedure? "A compatible donor will need to undergo a procedure to harvest the bone marrow before I can get the transplant." "I will need to take potent antirejection drugs after the transplant that will increase my risk for infection." "The transplant will replace cells lost from the chemotherapy treatments and improve my ability to fight infection." "The purpose of a bone marrow transplant is to prepare me for chemotherapy and reduce the negative effects of treatment."

"The transplant will replace cells lost from the chemotherapy treatments and improve my ability to fight infection."

A sixth-grade science teacher asks the students to explain the role of cilia in the lower respiratory tract. Which student response is best? "Cilia can trap the microbes in one location so the body can grow scar tissue around them and wall them off so they can't cause disease." "Cilia help to warm the airways so that moisture in the air can neutralize any germs that get in our lungs." "Cilia help facilitate a chemical defense against germs by secreting an enzyme that will cement the germ to the lining of the airways." "These little hairs move germs trapped in mucus toward the throat so the body can cough them out."

"These little hairs move germs trapped in mucus toward the throat so the body can cough them out."

A client with cancer has been receiving amphotericin B intravenously. The client asks, "How will this help with my fungal disease?" The health care provider responds: "This drug impairs the synthesis of enzymes needed for viral replication." "This medication will keep the body from growing any new funguses." "This drug binds to ergosterol and forms holes in the cell membrane, killing the fungus." "This medication inhibits the synthesis of ergosterol."

"This drug binds to ergosterol and forms holes in the cell membrane, killing the fungus."

A 5-year-old child is experiencing itchy, watery eyes and an increased respiratory rate with some inspiratory wheezes. He has been outside playing in the yard and trees. The mother asks, "Why does he get like this?" The health care worker's best response is: "This is pretty common in children. He is just getting used to all the allergens in the air. I suggest you just give him a shower after every time he plays outside." "This sounds like he is on his way to having an anaphylactic reaction and you need to get a prescription for an EpiPen to decrease his response to monocytes." "This is what we call a type I hypersensitivity reaction and usually occurs a few minutes after exposure to his allergen. It is primarily caused by mast cells in his body." "Because his allergy is related to something in his environment, the best thing you can do is try to keep him indoors as much as possible."

"This is what we call a type I hypersensitivity reaction and usually occurs a few minutes after exposure to his allergen. It is primarily caused by mast cells in his body."

What is the minimum number of antiretroviral medications used in highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART), also known as combined antiretroviral therapy (CAR)?

3

Which client scenario best describes an example of infection originating with a fomite? 44-year-old man who has trichinosis after eating undercooked pork 44-year-old nurse who tests positive for tuberculosis (TB) after admitting a TB-positive client 22-year-old woman who contracts Lyme disease after a tick bite 32-year-old man who contracts hepatitis B by sharing a syringe

32-year-old man who contracts hepatitis B by sharing a syringe

A client presents with an oral temperature of 101.7°F (38.7°C) and painful, swollen cervical lymph nodes. Laboratory results indicate neutrophilia with a shift to the left. Which diagnosis is most likely? A severe bacterial infection A mild viral infection A mild parasitic infection A localized fungal infection

A severe bacterial infection

Which of the following is a known trigger for many autoimmune disorders? Acute anxiety disorder A bacterial infection Chronic psychological stress A viral infection

A viral infection

A client asks the nurse, "Which organisms does a broad-spectrum antibiotic fight?" Which response by the nurse is best? A wide variety of viruses Only gram-negative infections A wide variety of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria Only gram-positive infections

A wide variety of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria

The school nurse is preparing a lecture on HIV/AIDS for a health class of high school students. The nurse would know to include what information about the transmission of AIDS in her lecture? Select all that apply. AIDS is transmitted through blood-to-blood contact. AIDS is transmitted through sexual contact. AIDS is transmitted from the mother to her unborn baby. AIDS is transmitted through the bite of an insect. AIDS is transmitted through nonsexual household contact.

AIDS is transmitted through sexual contact. AIDS is transmitted through blood-to-blood contact. AIDS is transmitted from the mother to her unborn baby.

Which agent is considered to be high-risk in a bioterrorism event? Hantavirus E. coli B. anthracis M. tuberculosis

B. anthracis

Which agent is considered to be high risk in a bioterrorism event? E. coli Bacillus anthracis Hantavirus M. tuberculosis

Bacillus anthracis

While caring for a child who has a defect in humoral immunity, the nurse would focus the assessment on the development of which type of infection? Bacterial infections such as Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, or Pseudomonas species Intracellular bacterial infection of mycobacteria Infections with fungi such as Aspergillus or tinea corporis Viral infections such as respiratory syncytial virus, rotovirus, and fifth disease.

Bacterial infections such as Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, or Pseudomonas species

A client has a latex allergy. Which foods will the nurse teach the client to eat with caution because they could trigger a cross-sensitivity reaction? Wine and cheese Wheat and peanuts Broccoli and lettuce Bananas and avocados

Bananas and avocados

A clinical research study is evaluating cells that bridge both the innate and adaptive immune systems. A nurse has identified the dendritic cells (DCs) as a key component. Which statement validates this finding? Dendritic cells (DCs) directly sense pathogens, capture foreign agents, and transport them to secondary lymphoid tissues. Once activated, they undergo a maturation process and function as antigen-presenting cells (APCs) capable of initiating adaptive immunity. Dendritic cells (DCs) spontaneously kill target tumor and/or infected cells without previous exposure to surface antigens. Dendritic cells (DCs) can also act as opsonins and can coat cellular particles on pathogens and enhance the phagocytic function of innate cells. Dendritic cells (DCs) destroy the invading organism through the process of phagocytosis.

Dendritic cells (DCs) directly sense pathogens, capture foreign agents, and transport them to secondary lymphoid tissues. Once activated, they undergo a maturation process and function as antigen-presenting cells (APCs) capable of initiating adaptive immunity.

A number of fungi, such as ringworm, athlete's foot, and jock itch, are incapable of growing at a core body temperature. Hence, their infection is limited to cooler cutaneous surfaces. What are these pathogens known as? Parasites Superficial mycoses Dermatophytes Systemic mycoses

Dermatophytes

A woman reports to the nurse that she has developed a yeast infection. The woman does not understand how she could get a yeast infection since she has been on antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. What is the rationale for this client's complaint? Antibiotics allow yeast to access sterile environments in the body. Destroying one type of resident flora (bacteria) can allow overproliferation of another competing type (yeast). Yeast grows well when exposed to sugar, which is found as a carrier substance in most antibiotics. Yeast prefers a warm, moist, and dark environment, such as that present in the female perineum.

Destroying one type of resident flora (bacteria) can allow overproliferation of another competing type (yeast).

Primary cell-mediated disorders of the immune system cause severe problems with infections. Children with these disorders rarely survive beyond childhood without a bone marrow transplant. Which condition is a disease that involves primary cell-mediated disorders of the immune system? DiGeorge syndrome X-linked agammaglobulinemia Y-linked hyper-IgM syndrome Y-linked agammaglobulinemia

DiGeorge syndrome

The nurse caring for a client with a large leg wound notes that the client's past medical history includes diabetes, chronic atrial fibrillation, asthma controlled by maintaninence medication, and neuropathy. Which one has the greatest potential to negatively impact the healing of the client's wound? Diabetes Asthma Chronic atrial fibrillation Neuropathy

Diabetes

Which gastrointestinal disorder is commonly associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Diarrhea Ulcerative colitis Hypermetabolism Crohn disease

Diarrhea

Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are typically spread by which mechanisms? Direct contact Ingestion Penetration Vertical transmission

Direct contact

During a blood transfusion, a client begins to have chills, back pain, and develops a fever. The nurse determines the client is experiencing a transfusion reaction. The nurse educates the client about transfusion reactions. Which statement indicates the cause of the reaction? Blood is typed based on the haplotype compatibility. A reaction occurs when the blood is not typed correctly. Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) are the major target involved in rejection. ABO blood compatibility must be determined to avoid transfusion reactions. If the blood is correctly typed, the reaction is being caused by another antigen in the body. There is no known cause for blood reactions. Even if the correct haplotypes are identified the body can still activate the immune system and reject the blood. Each person has two HLA haplotypes that identify human cells. Blood typing involves the identification of these haplotypes (ABO compatibility). The closer the matching of HLA types, the greater is the probability of identical antigens and the lower the chance of rejection. A reaction occurs if the immune system views the HLA types as foreign.

Each person has two HLA haplotypes that identify human cells. Blood typing involves the identification of these haplotypes (ABO compatibility). The closer the matching of HLA types, the greater is the probability of identical antigens and the lower the chance of rejection. A reaction occurs if the immune system views the HLA types as foreign.

The nurse is assessing a client for acute inflammation of a wound. For which symptom of infection does the nurse assess? Pallor Edema Tissue necrosis Hypothermia

Edema

The nurse is caring for a pregnant woman who is infected with HIV. What is an important nursing intervention for this client? Education about medication compliance First-trimester therapy with efavirenz Grief counseling Instructions regarding breast-feeding techniques

Education about medication compliance

Which of these is found in the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria? Exotoxin Prion Endotoxin DNA

Endotoxin

A 9-month-old infant has been diagnosed with botulism after he was fed honey. The child's mother was prompted to seek care because of this child's sudden onset of neuromuscular deficits, which were later attributed to the release of substances by Clostridium botulinum.Which virulence factor contributed to this child's illness? Adhesion factors Exotoxins Evasive factors Endotoxins

Exotoxins

A 9-month-old infant has been diagnosed with botulism after he was fed honey. The child's mother was prompted to seek care because of this child's sudden onset of neuromuscular deficits, which were later attributed to the release of substances by Clostridium botulinum.Which virulence factor contributed to this child's illness? Endotoxins Evasive factors Exotoxins Adhesion factors

Exotoxins

A 9-month-old infant has been diagnosed with botulism after he was fed honey. The child's mother was prompted to seek care because of this child's sudden onset of neuromuscular deficits, which were later attributed to the release of substances by Clostridium botulinum.Which virulence factor contributed to this child's illness? Evasive factors Endotoxins Adhesion factors Exotoxins

Exotoxins

A family consumed some undercooked hamburger at a picnic and has since developed bloody diarrhea. The nurse knows that which statement is correct regarding the infectious process? Exotoxins that damage vascular endothelial cells cause bleeding and low platelet counts. Evasive factors can become more virulent by evading parts of the host's immune system. Adhesion factors that can anchor a pathogen firmly to the host tissue surfaces. Invasive factors capable of destroying the cell membrane by utilization of enzymes.

Exotoxins that damage vascular endothelial cells cause bleeding and low platelet counts.

Select the statement that best describes the effectiveness of vaccination in the older adult population. Experimental evidence suggests that vaccination is less successful in inducing immunization in older persons than in younger adults. Age does not influence the effectiveness; it depends on the amount of medication you receive. Vaccinations are only effective in older adult populations if their families have been vaccinated. Older adults who are immunized have the same effective response in immunity as younger persons do.

Experimental evidence suggests that vaccination is less successful in inducing immunization in older persons than in younger adults.

A client has symptoms of an atopic reaction. Which clinical manifestations would the nurse expect the client to display? Select all that apply. Hypotension Allergic rhinitis Atopic dermatitis Hives Diarrhea

Hives Allergic rhinitis Atopic dermatitis

The clinic nurse suspects the client is having a genetically determined hypersensitivity to common environmental allergens since the client is experiencing which clinical manifestations? Select all that apply. Hives (urticaria) Diarrhea Topical pustules Wheezes Runny nose

Hives (urticaria) Runny nose Wheezes

An essential property of the immune system is self-regulation. An immune response that is not adequate can lead to immunodeficiency, while an immune response that is excessive can lead to conditions from allergic responses all the way to autoimmune diseases. Which condition/disease is not an example of a breakdown of the self-regulation of the immune system? Huntington disease Fibromyalgia Multiple sclerosis Systemic lupus

Huntington disease

A client is suffering from the effects of the opportunistic infection, Cryptosporidium parvum. An important nursing intervention would be to encourage which action? Deep breathing and coughing Ambulation Weight-bearing exercise Hydration

Hydration

The surgeon is performing a kidney transplant on a client. The surgeon attaches the kidney and immediately notes that the kidney takes on a cyanotic, mottled appearance. The surgeon would interpret this as: Hypoacute rejection Hyperacute rejection Chronic rejection Acute rejection

Hyperacute rejection

A physician orders a real-time PCR (polymerase chain reaction) DNA detection test on a client experiencing severe diarrhea following IV antibiotic administration. Which statement is the reason for this diagnostic test? PCR allows for rapid enhanced diagnosis using an artificial growth media. PCR allows direct visualization of an infectious agent without the use of a microscope. PCR is an indirect means of identifying infectious agents by measuring serum antibodies. PCR is effective in determining the diagnosis of Clostridium difficile.

PCR is effective in determining the diagnosis of Clostridium difficile

Which infection is a common opportunistic infection in clients who have AIDS? Pneumocystis jiroveci Clostridium difficile Streptococcus pneumoniae Staphylococcus aureus

Pneumocystis jiroveci

What is a common opportunistic infection in AIDS clients? Syphilis Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) Chancroid Myalgia

Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP)

The nurse is caring for a client admitted with rule-out sepsis. When reviewing the laboratory test results, elevation of which of these elements of the blood causes the nurse to determine acute infection is present? Mast cells Eosinophils Basophils Polymorphonuclear neutrophils

Polymorphonuclear neutrophils

A client with cirrhosis has just received a liver transplant. Tissue rejection can be best prevented by what means? Suppression of normal neutrophil activity Drug-induced activation of the complement system Suppression of macrophage activity Suppression of CD8+ cytotoxic T cells

Suppression of CD8+ cytotoxic T cells

A client with a long-standing diagnosis of Crohn disease has developed a perianal abscess. Which treatment will this client most likely require? Surgical draining Antiviral therapy Pressure dressing Antibiotic therapy

Surgical draining

When caring for a client with a wound that is healing by primary intention, the nurse recognizes which characterization best describes this type of wound? Burn injury Abcess Surgical incision Fibrin clot (scab)

Surgical incision

A nurse has just learned that her child has a life-threatening complement disorder known as hereditary angioneurotic edema (HAE). Due to deficiency in C1-INH, the nurse needs to be prepared for which possible life-threatening clinical manifestation? Bulging eyeballs Swelling of the airway Compressed carotid arteries Compression of brachial nerves

Swelling of the airway

The clinical picture, or presentation of a disease in the body, is called: Virulence of the disease Source of the disease Diagnosis of the disease Symptomatology of the disease

Symptomatology of the disease

An elementary school student has a severe allergy to peanuts and is displaying the signs of anaphylactic shock after inadvertently eating a candy bar containing peanuts. Which statement best describes the child's current status and preferred treatment? The child is approaching vascular shock and developing edema due to actions of IgE antibodies, situations that can be reversed by administration of epinephrine. The child is experiencing shortness of breath caused by potent vasoconstriction, which can be relieved by epinephrine injection. The child's mast cells and basophils have been sensitized, but systemic effects can be mitigated by administration of bronchodilators. The child is likely in a primary- or initial-stage allergic response that can be relieved by antihistamine administration.

The child is approaching vascular shock and developing edema due to actions of IgE antibodies, situations that can be reversed by administration of epinephrine.

A client experiencing severe neck pain and fever comes to the emergency room and is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Knowing that the client's immune system is fighting the infection, the infectious disease nurse correctly identifies which pathway as the activation of the complement system? The classical Compliment has not been activated The alternative The lectin

The classical

A teenager has been exposed to a person infected with chicken pox. After 2 weeks, the client has not contracted the virus. How is this possible? Select all that apply. Only children are at risk of contracting chickenpox; teens and adults are immune. The client is naturally immune from birth. The client was vaccinated for chickenpox. The client was previously exposed to chickenpox. The chickenpox virus is not contagious.

The client was vaccinated for chickenpox. The client was previously exposed to chickenpox.

The treatment prescribed for an autoimmune disorder is primarily dependent upon what? Corticosteroids is always the first line of treatment. The age and gender of the client The presence of existing chronic disorders and the client's medical history The current manifestations of the disease and the mechanisms that cause the disease process

The current manifestations of the disease and the mechanisms that cause the disease

Which HIV test is the most accurate (and least expensive) in determining the presence of HIV antibodies? The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) The Western blot Viral load and CD4+ counts Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) SUBMIT ANSWER

The enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

All wounds are considered contaminated at the time they occur. Usually, the natural defenses in our bodies can deal with the invading microorganisms; however, there are times when a wound is badly contaminated and host defenses are overwhelmed. What happens to the healing process when host defenses are overwhelmed by infectious agents? Fibroblast production becomes malignant due to hypersensitization by invading organisms. The inflammatory response is shortened and does not complete destruction of the invading organisms. Collagen fibers cannot draw tissues together. The formation of granulation tissue is impaired.

The formation of granulation tissue is impaired.

Which statements are true regarding the effects of aging on the immune system? Select all that apply. The number of lymphocytes increases as we age. The size of the thymus gland increases with age. The incidence of cancer increases as we age. Older adults tend to have more evidence of autoimmune disorders as we age. Vaccinations are less effective as we age.

The incidence of cancer increases as we age. Vaccinations are less effective as we age. Older adults tend to have more evidence of autoimmune disorders as we age.

A nurse practitioner is explaining the current methods of detection of HIV to a community group. In explaining the definitive method of detection, which statement is most accurate? Electrophoresis of white blood cell samples will indicate the presence or absence of HIV. The most sensitive and specific test is the Western blot analysis. The gold standard in testing is the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. The saliva test has been found to be more accurate than blood tests.

The most sensitive and specific test is the Western blot analysis.

A newborn has been lethargic, is not nursing well, and is basically looking ill. Following lab tests, it has been found that the newborn has IgM present in his blood. How should the nurse interpret this finding? All newborns have IgM in their blood so this is a normal finding. IgM is usually only found in saliva so the specimen must be contaminated. IgM in the blood means the infant may be allergic to breast milk. The presence of IgM suggests the infant has a current infection.

The presence of IgM suggests the infant has a current infection.

In an attempt to best explain the innate immune system to a class of first-year nursing students, the instructor should describe what characteristic? The innate immune system consists of lymphocytes and their products, including antibodies. The innate immune system is mediated by specific T-cells and defends against intracellular microbes such as viruses. The response of the innate immune system is rapid, usually within minutes to hours, and prevents the establishment of infection and deeper tissue penetration of microorganisms. The innate immune system is mediated by molecules called antibodies and is the principal defense against extracellular microbes and toxins.

The response of the innate immune system is rapid, usually within minutes to hours, and prevents the establishment of infection and deeper tissue penetration of microorganisms.

When a client with a kidney transplant develops graft versus host disease, signs and symptoms develop first in which organ? The heart, with tachycardia and hypotension The kidney, with inability to urinate The lungs, with excess fluid and coughing The skin, with pruritis and maculopapular rash

The skin, with pruritis and maculopapular rash

A college student has just received a positive HIV test result. How can the nurse most accurately interpret and respond to this finding? The student has AIDS and psychosocial help should be offered. The student has HIV antigens and further testing should be done. The student has HIV and will eventually develop AIDS. The student has HIV and may or may not develop AIDS.

The student has HIV antigens and further testing should be done.

The nurse is caring for a client with an infected wound that is left to heal by secondary intention. Which observation does the nurse expect to make during assessment of the wound area? A large mass of scar tissue has developed at the original wound site. The wound is healing slowly with epithelial and scar tissues present. Sutures or staples are present in the wound. The scar tissue present is larger than the original wound.

The wound is healing slowly with epithelial and scar tissues present.

What distinguishes primary immunodeficiency disorders from another disorder? They are inherited abnormalities of immune function that render a person susceptible to diseases normally prevented by an intact immune system. They impair the ability of the immune system to protect against fungal, protozoan, viral, and intracellular bacterial infections. They are infections caused by contact with bacteria that are resistant to antibiotics. They affect antibody production and inhibit the ability of the immune system to defend against bacteria and toxins.

They are inherited abnormalities of immune function that render a person susceptible to diseases normally prevented by an intact immune system.

The nurse is explaining to a colleague the basis of a client's allergy to dust. What statement by the nurse most accurately describes antigens in this situation? They are substances foreign to the host that can stimulate an immune response. They possess the ability to communicate critical information by cell-to-cell contact. Synthesis by leukocytes and the ability to act on other leukocytes interferes with virus multiplication. They have a characteristic four-polypeptide structure consisting of at least two identical binding sites.

They are substances foreign to the host that can stimulate an immune response.

Select the response that correctly identifies B lymphocytes. They are responsible for cell-mediated immunity. They have a subset of T cells called helper T cells. They do not differentiate into plasma cells, which produce antibody. They are the only cells capable of producing antibodies.

They are the only cells capable of producing antibodies.

A client comes to the clinic with the following cardinal signs of inflammation: redness, heat, pain and swelling, following a laceration to the thigh. Which statement correctly explains the cause of swelling at the laceration site? When activated, the complement protein C3 breaks into two fragments. The larger 3b fragment acts as an enzyme to cleave C5 into two components; the C5b fragment produces vasodilation and increases vascular permeability, causing edema. When activated, the inflammatory process begins with the release of a chemoattractant that calls white blood cells to the site of injury. The increase in blood flow causes pressure on the nerve endings, leading to pain and redness at the site of injury. When activated, the complement protein C5b fragment initiates the formation of a complex of complement proteins C6, C7, C8, and C9 that allows fluids to enter the tissues and cause edema. When activated, the complement protein C3 breaks into two fragments. The smaller 3a fragment stimulates inflammation by acting as a chemoattractant for neutrophils, which produces vasodilation and increases capillary permeability, causing swelling in the tissues.

When activated, the complement protein C3 breaks into two fragments. The larger 3b fragment acts as an enzyme to cleave C5 into two components; the C5b fragment produces vasodilation and increases vascular permeability, causing edema.

A client with cancer who is experiencing severe malnutrition and dehydration due to chemotherapy asks the nurse why her skin is so dry and sloughing off. The nurse's response is based on which pathophysiologic principle? The dermal layer is responding to the lack of nutrition by contracting, thereby making the skin look dried out and cracked. When the epithelial cells of the skin are not getting proper nutrients they exit the cell cycle and go to the resting state of G0. The client needs to increase her usage of moisturizing lotions to offset the water loss she is experiencing. Connective tissue is losing its connection to the subcutaneous tissue causing the skin to look cracked and wrinkled.

When the epithelial cells of the skin are not getting proper nutrients they exit the cell cycle and go to the resting state of G0.

The timeline after actual HIV infection and before seroconversion is known as what period? Initiation of symptoms Negative antibody screening Window Transmission

Window

A nurse in the emergency department knows that research has shown that the possibility of infection in a bite wound is tied to what caused the bite, the location of the bite, and the type of injury inflicted by the bite. Which bite would have the highest possibility of infection? Wound caused by a dog bite Wound caused by a cat bite Bite inflicted by an adult Bite inflicted by a child

Wound caused by a cat bite

The nurse is caring for an obese client who has had abdominal surgery. The medical record states the wound has developed a dehiscence. Which finding does the nurse anticipate observing when changing the dressing? The suture line is reddened. Wound edges are 1.5 inches apart. Wound has purulent drainage. There is a foreign body in the wound.

Wound edges are 1.5 inches apart.

A client comes into the emergency room with an animal bite to the hand. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate? Wound irrigation Intravenous fluids Hyperbaric oxygen Suturing wound

Wound irrigation

Select the option that best describes a single-celled organism that reproduces by a budding process. Virus Yeast Bacteria Mold

Yeast

Select the option that best describes a single-celled organism that reproduces by a budding process. Yeast Mold Bacteria Virus

Yeast

Which of these is a single-celled organism that is about the size of a red blood cell and reproduces by a budding process? Virus Mold Yeast Bacteria

Yeast

A client recently diagnosed with leukocyte adhesion deficiency (LAD) asks, "Why am I always sick with an infection?" Which response by the nurse explains this rare autosomal recessive disorder? I don't really understand this, but it sounds like a good question to ask your physician." Your body doesn't make enough white blood cells." Your white blood cells are not able to leave the blood vessels and move into the area of infection." Your bone marrow is damaged and can't put out enough white blood cells to fight off your infections."

Your white blood cells are not able to leave the blood vessels and move into the area of infection."

A nurse reviewing assessment data for a client with HIV notes a white blood cell count of 2.1 thou/mm³, red blood count of 2.9 mil/mm³, fever, nausea, and chills. Which medication is the most likely cause of these results? Raltegravir Tenofovir Indinavir Zidovudine Nevirapine

Zidovudine

Metalloproteinase requires which mineral to be present before degraduation of collagen occurs? Magnesium Calcium Iron Zinc

Zinc

Which explanation most accurately describes the characteristics of saprophytes? They: are beneficial components of human microflora. have RNA or DNA, but never both. are capable of spore production. derive energy from decaying organic matter.

derive energy from decaying organic matter.

An infant was born with facial nerve paralysis that occurred with delivery. As the infant ages, it becomes apparent that the facial muscles affected by the nerve damage are not moving. Seeking surgical repair, the family asks why the damage to the child's face is not being repaired by the body. The health care provider states that neurons (connected to the facial muscles) are highly specialized cells that: lose their ability to proliferate once development of the nervous system is complete. cannot repair themselves without growth factors coming to the area. will require stem cell injections in order to start the repair process. cannot divide and repair themselves without a parent cell of the same lineage.

lose their ability to proliferate once development of the nervous system is complete

A client in the second trimester of pregnancy arrives for the first prenatal visit and admits that she and her partner traveled to South America where they went on a rain forest excursion when she was 4 weeks' pregnant. Which congenital mosquito-borne abnormality may be seen on ultrasound if the fetus is affected? spina bifida syndactyly of the hands microcephaly gastroschisis

microcephaly

A client in the second trimester of pregnancy arrives for the first prenatal visit and admits that she and her partner traveled to South America where they went on a rain forest excursion when she was 4 weeks' pregnant. Which congenital mosquito-borne abnormality may be seen on ultrasound if the fetus is affected? syndactyly of the hands gastroschisis spina bifida microcephaly

microcephaly

The bacteria that line the gut of a human help maintain normal gut health and provide essential nutrients. This type of relationship is: commensal. saprophytic. parasitic. mutualistic.

mutualistic.

While reviewing the phases of wound healing, the students note that the first cells to arrive after the injury are the: neutrophils. macrophages. fibroblasts. epithelial cells.

neutrophils.