AA 737 Aerosim Questions

What is the minimum fuel temperature limitation?

-43C

How does the APU receive fuel for operation?

-A #1 main tank fuel pump can be turned ON -The APU can suction feed from the left main fuel tank -A #2 main tank fuel pump can be turned ON with the crossfeed valve open

The following light illuminates (STANDBY PWR OFF) what electrical busses may not be powered?

-AC Standby Bus -DC Standby Bus -Battery Bus

Which of the following causes loss of IRS alignment?

-AC and DC power failure -Aircraft is moved during alignment -IRS Mode Selector switch is moved to off

Fuel can be fed to the APU by which of the following?

-AC powered fuel pump -Suction feed

An autopilot can be disengaged by:

-Activating either control wheel trim switch -Pushing the autopilot Disengage Bar -Pushing an illuminated autopilot ENGAGE switch

Which of the following are mechanically controlled during manual reversion?

-Ailerons -Elevator

How does the auto brakes system disarm?

-Applying manual braking -Advancing either thrust lever (except during first 3 seconds after touchdown) -Selecting the AUTO BRAKES system to OFF -Moving the SPEED BRAKE lever to the DOWN detent

Which of the following are available in the normal brake system?

-Auto brakes -Brake accumulator -Parking brake -Anti-skid protection to each wheel individually

If any gear is not down and locked, when will the aural gear warning horn sound?

-Below 800 feet RA, either thrust lever is set at idle thrust,and flaps at 0 through 10 degrees -Flaps greater than 25 regardless of thrust lever position

How is the First Officer's flight director selected as the Master (MA)?

-By selecting the First Officer's F/D switch ON first -By engaging Autopilot B to CMD

Which of the following are indications of a successful Cargo Fire system test?

-Cargo Fire Bottle Discharge (DISCH) light illuminates -Both Cargo Fire (FWD/AFT) Warning lights illuminate -Both Extinguisher (EXT) Test lights illuminate

What occurs when an engine Fire Warning switch is pulled?

-Closes the engine bleed air valve -Closes the engine and spar fuel shutoff valves -Shuts off the associated hydraulics and trips off the engine generator -Arms the appropriate squibs

Which of the following variables are used in FMC performance calculations?

-Cruise altitude -Center of gravity -Gross weight -Cost index

The Landing Gear Transfer Unit operates under which of the following conditions?

-Engine #1 RPM below a certain limit -Landing gear handle up -In-flight -Either main gear not up and locked

Which of the following are electrical power sources on the B737NG?

-Engine generators (IDG) -APU generator -External ground power

The Flap Load Relief function operates when flaps are in which position? (3AA - 3LB)

-Flaps 30 -Flaps 40

The Fuel Quantity Indication system is comprised of?

-Fuel quantity sensors in each tank -Fuel quantity processor unit -Fuel quantity indicators

What communication stations can be connected through the flight interphone system?

-Ground crew at the nose gear station -All flight deck positions

IDG low oil pressure, with the DRIVE light illuminated, is caused by which of the following conditions?

-IDG failure -IDG manually disconnected -Automatic disconnect -Engine shutdown

The PTU operates which of the following systems?

-Leading edge flaps, slats, amd autoslats

Which of the following configurations will cause the DUAL BLEED light to illuminate?

-Left engine BLEED air switch selected ON and APU bleed air valve OPEN -Right engine BLEED air switch selected ON, isolation valve OPEN, and APU bleed air valve OPEN

Which of the following are required to engage the autopilot in CMD?

-No force applied to the control wheel -the Stabilizer Trim AUTOPILOT Cutout switches in the normal position

Two basic principles of operation are (AC electrical)?

-No paralleling of AC power sources -A source of power connected to an AC Transfer Bus automatically disconnects the previous

Select the locations in the FMC where fuel data can be found:

-PROG page -PERF INIT page

How is the autothrottle disengaged?

-Pressing an A/T DISENGAGE switch on the thrust levers -Two seconds after touchdown -Selecting the A/T ARM switch OFF on the MCP

In the event of a fire, the APU can be immediately shut down by?

-Pulling the APU Fire Warning Switch -Pulling the APU Fire Control Handle on the APU Ground Control Panel

Once the glideslope captures, how can the approach mode be exited?

-Re-tuning a VHF NAV receiver -Disengaging the Autopilot and turning off both Flight Directors -Pushing either TO/GA switch

The mix manifold receives air from:

-Right pack -Left pack -Recirculation fans

The primary Flight controls consist of:

-Rudder -Elevators -Ailerons

When does the Pitch Limit Indicator (PLI) display in the PFD?

-Slow airspeed -Flaps extended

The standby system provides backup hydraulic pressure to which of the following:

-Standby yaw damper -Rudder -Thrust reversers

By selecting the Engine Anti-ice on, which additional systems are affected?

-The EEC's reset to approach idle -Stall warning logic is set for icing conditions

What happens as a result of selecting the APU switch to START?

-The LOW OIL PRESSURE light illuminates -The Fuel Shutoff valve opens -The air inlet door opens

The Ground Service Busses provide power to?

-The aircraft cabin -Battery charger

What does an illuminated Landing Gear indicator light indicate?

-The gear position disagrees with the gear lever position -Below 800 feet RA, both throttles are at idle, and any gear not down and locked

What does the bright blue COWL VALVE OPEN light indicate?

-The valve is in transit -The position of the valve disagrees with the commanded switch position

What are the possible reasons for the WHEEL WELL fire warning light to be extinguished during the OVHT/FIRE test?

-There is a fault in the Wheel Well fire detection system -No AC power has been established on the aircraft -The WHEEL WELL fire warning light is burned out

What is the purpose of selecting the BUS TRANSFER switch OFF?

-To inhibit Bus Tie Breaker auto switching -To open the cross bus tie relay

Which of the following systems are monitored by the Takeoff Configuration alert?

-Trailing edge flaps -Speed Brake lever -Parking brake -Stabilizer trim

The Yaw Damper system is capable of providing which of the following?

-Turn coordination -Gust damping -Dutch Roll prevention

Which of the following sources of information does the Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) use to provide data to the flight instruments?

-Two alpha vanes -Two main pitot probes

TCAS traffic can be displayed in which modes?

-VOR -MAP -Center MAP

When will a pack automatically go to high flow?

-When operating one pack from APU, with both engine BLEED air switches OFF -With one pack operating, in flight with flaps retracted

The aircrafts radar system cannot effectively display which of the following?

-hail several miles from a thunderstorm -clear air turbulence

Each of the following are bleed air users:

-hydraulic reservoir pressurization -air conditioning and pressurization -engine anti-ice

What is required to engage LNAV when the aircraft is greater than 3 miles from the FMC route?

-intercept heading must be less than 90 degrees -The airplane must intercept the route before the active waypoint

The left WING BODY OVERHEAT may be an indication of a bleed duct leak in the?

-left engine strut -left inboard wing leading edge -left air conditioning bay -keel beam -bleed duct from APU

Which of the following panels has controls for the emergency lights?

-on the flight deck overhead panel -on the aft flight attendant panel

Which of the following are sources of bleed air?

-pressurized external ground air -engines -APU

If normal electrical power is lost, which cockpit lights automatically illuminate?

-standby magnetic compass light -emergency instrument flood lights -dome light on the captain's side of the flight deck

The Mach trim system automatically functions above Mach _________.

.615

How many APU Fire bottles are installed on the aircraft?

1

How many fire extinguishers are located on the flight deck?

1

How many emergency exits does the B737NG have?

10

The SPEED Trend Vector predicts where the airspeed will be in ________ seconds.

10

The maximum altitude for APU bleed air and electrical load is?

10,000 ft

What altitude does the top of the white line indicate?

1000 feet above touchdown field elevation

Predictive windshear alerts are available from the moment takeoff power is set to what altitude?

1200 feet RA

What color will engine oil pressure and temperature indications and readouts display in the caution range?

Amber

What does EFIS MODE/NAV FREQ DISAGREE indicate?

An ILS frequency is tuned with the EFIS CONTROL PANEL set to VOR mode

The secondary engine parameters will automatically appear when:

An engine fails in flight

The OIL FILTER BYPASS alert indicates:

An impending bypass of scavenge oil filter

What does the amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicate?

An overpressure condition in the engine inlet cowl

What does pushing the AFT Cargo Compartment ARM switch do?

Arms the aft compartment squib

During a normal start, when should the ENGINE START switch automatically move from the GRD position to the OFF position?

At 56% N2 RPM

How is the lavatory fire extinguisher discharged?

Automatically

What is the purpose of the Bus Tie Breakers?

Automatically control AC power distribution

Terrain Awareness is displayed on the pilot's ND:

Automatically during an EGPWS terrain alert

When a fault is detected in one of the engine fire detection loops, the system _____________.

Automatically reconfigures to single detector operations

Boeing 737 aircraft have a Rejected Takeoff (RTO) function within the autobrake system. Select the true statement.

If armed and the takeoff is rejected above 90 knots (by retarding both throttles to idle) RTO braking occurs.

What side of the pneumatic manifold normally receives APU bleed air?

Left

With the FMC Source Select switch in the NORMAL position, both CDU's are controlled by the _________ FMC.

Left

What bus powers the alternate gear extension?

None of the above. (Mechanically operated, no electrical power necessary)

During Flap Load Relief, when the flaps are set to 30, the TE flaps:

Retract to 25 if the airspeed exceeds 176 knots

What side of the pneumatic manifold normally receives ground external air?

Right

The normal method of shutting down the APU is?

Selecting the APU switch to OFF

What does selecting IGN L with the Ignition Select switch provide?

Selects the left ignitor for use on both engines

Which if the following Leading Edge devices are NOT monitored for skew conditions?

Slats 1 and 8 (far left and far right)

What hydraulic system provides pressure for normal landing gear extension and retraction?

System A

The normal brake system is powered by which hydraulic system?

System B

What is the purpose of the automatic on-line feature?

To automatically transfer power to the engine generators in the event the APU is shut down or fails while connected to both AC Transfer busses

The purpose of the recirculation fan is:

To reduce the pack demand for bleed air

Flight Path Angle (FPA) is the actual flight path angle based on present ground speed and _______________.

Vertical speed

Terrain that is ____________ is displayed as shaded amber dots.

500 feet below to 2000 feet above the airplane

At what altitude will the GPWS alerts if the landing gear is not down and locked?

500 ft agl

Bleed air comes from the _________ stage compressor section.

5th

The engine-driven pump provides approximately_____ times the fluid volume as the respective electric motor-driven pump.

6

During a CLB-2 reduced thrust climbout, N1 is reduced by ____________%.

6%

The__________ controls and monitors the APU.

Electronic Control Unit (ECU)

Which unit controls metered fuel and prevents engine limits from being exceeded?

Electronic Engine Control (EEC)

The Leading Edge Slats are in what position?

Extended

What does the blue GRD POWER AVAILABLE light indicate?

External power is connected and meets aircraft quality standards

Which of the following provides the necessary input data for Autopilot A?

FCC A

The landing gear warning horn can be silenced if any of the gear is not down and locked with flaps at 30 degrees...T or F?

False -Flaps greater than 10 -Below 200 feet RA, flaps are at 1 to 10 degrees

Full movement of the nose wheel tiller can turn the nose wheel up to a maximum of 65 degrees in either direction...T or F?

False 78 degrees

During normal operation, DEU 2 supplies information to which Display Units?

First Officer's DU

If the aileron control system is jammed, force applied to the First Officer's control wheel provides roll control from the _______________.

Flight Spoilers

What is the name of the component that calculates fuel quantity?

Fuel Quantity Processor Unit

Which of the following causes the DRIVE light to illuminate?

IDG oil low oil pressure

The standby hydraulic system has a single electric motor-driven pump...T or F?

True

The three hydraulic systems do not share pumps or reservoirs...T or F?

True

The wing anti-ice has just been selected off. The stall warning logic remains set for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight...T or F?

True

There are no flight deck power requirements for powering the refueling system...T or F?

True

There is no flight deck controls or indications for the fuel scavenge pump...T or F?

True

To make a heading change greater than 180 degrees, the HDG SEL switch should be pressed then the Heading Selector rotated in the desired direction of the turn...T or F?

True

When refueling, fuel is delivered to the fuel tanks via a separate refueling manifold...T or F?

True

When the SERVICE INTERPHONE switch is selected ON, additional communications jacks are available for use by ground personnel...T or F?

True

When the windshield OVERHEAT light illuminates power is automatically removed from the respective window...T or F?

True

What is displayed on the CDU scratchpad if ANP exceeds the limit RNP value during an approach?

UNABLE REQD NAV PERF-ANP

During takeoff what does the following bug indicate? (White bug above V2)

V2 + 15

What speed does the flight director command during climb shortly after takeoff?

V2 + 20 knots

The maximum altitude for APU electrical generator use is (no bleed air)

41,000 ft

The B737NG radar antenna can be manually tilted a maximum of _________________.

+ or - 15 degrees relative to the aircraft

At what altitude will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?

14000' msl

On the ground, the minimum amount of fuel required in each main fuel tank to operate an electric hydraulic pump is?

1675 pounds

The maximum altitude for APU bleed air is (no electrical load)

17,000 ft

APU bleed air can be used up to _____________ feet.

17000

What is the maximum pressure for the flight crew oxygen system?

1850 psi

How many ILS receivers are installed?

2

How many TR units are capable of supplying the total connected load?

2

A RESOLUTION ADVISORY alerts the pilots when an aircraft is approximately _______ seconds from the point of closest approach.

25

During a reduced thrust takeoff, the maximum reduction that the FMC will allow is ________% N1.

25%

Which of the following is the recommended altitude for an APU start?

25000 ft

How many DC motors are able to control the outflow valve?

3

How many Transformer Rectifiers (TRs) does the B737NG have?

3

With a loss of all generators, what duration time can the aircraft's batteries power the standby system?

30 minutes

The equipment cooling system contains ______ fans.

4 fans, 2 supply and 2 exhaust

A TRAFFIC ADVISORY alerts the pilots when an aircraft is approximately _______ seconds from the point of closest approach.

40

The landing gear system is powered by Hydraulic System_____.

A

The ON DC light (IRS Display panel) illuminates when?

IRS is being powered by the switched hot battery bus

Air for APU compartment cooling is drawn from what location?

A (cooling inlet)

The aircraft has both engines running, there is more than 1600 lbs of fuel in the center tank, and the center tank fuel pump switches are off. What indication will you see?

A CONFIG message on the center tank fuel quantity indication

During climb the autothrottle mode is N1. What does the autothrottle command?

A fixed thrust setting at climb N1

How many engine fire extinguisher bottles are installed in the aircraft?

A total of 2 engine fire extinguisher bottles are installed which can be discharged into either engine depending on which Fire Warning switch is pulled

What happens when the STANDBY POWER switch is placed to the BAT position?

AC Standby, DC Standby, and Battery Busses are placed on battery power

What is the normal source of power for TR3?

AC Transfer Bus 2, with a backup from AC Transfer Bus 1

What are the indications of a single auto controller failure?

AUTO FAIL and ALTN lights illuminated

While descending at a high descent rate (during approach) in instrument flight conditions the GPWS alerts "WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP". What is the proper flight crew response?

Abandon the normal approach and execute a GPWS escape procedure

Moving the FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD:

Activates the standby hydraulic system pump

What is the aircraft power source while operating on standby power?

Aircraft battery

Hydraulic system _______ controls the normal operation of the yaw damper system.

B

Hydraulics system ______ controls the normal operation of TE flaps.

B

The trailing edge flaps are normally powered by Hydraulic System______.

B

What is indicated by illumination of the BLEED TRIP OFF light?

Bleed air temperature or pressure has exceed a predetermined limit. The bleed air valve closes.

At cruise altitude, an amber GPS light illuminating with an IRS annunciator and MASTER CAUTION indicates which of the following?

Both GPS receivers have failed

In the event of total hydraulic system A and B pressure loss, what brake system remains to stop the aircraft?

Brake accumulator

Upon stowing the mask after use (left oxygen mask panel door closed) how is the individual oxygen shutoff valve closed?

By pressing the TEST/RESET switch

If an engine fire condition is sensed, the appropriate Fire Warning switch should electrically unlock. If this does not occur, how can you override the mechanical lock?

By pushing the mechanical override switch located under the Fire Warning switch

TAI displays amber when:

Cowl anti-ice valve is in transit or a disagreement with the switch

How are the Engine Anti-ice valves controlled?

Electrically controlled, pneumatically operated

What does the (engine fire) FAULT light indicate?

Dual loop failure in one of the engines

The EGT readout will blink on and off when:

EEC senses a condition that may lead to a hot start

With the ISOLATION VALVE selected to AUTO, the valve will open when:

Either PACK switch is selected OFF, or either BLEED air switch is selected OFF.

What electrical power must be available for the engine and APU fire extinguishing systems (fire protections) to function?

Electrical power from the Hot Battery Bus

An illuminated MCP switch indicates the active navigation mode...T or F?

False

Cargo heat is controlled from the flight deck...T or F?

False

If dual HF radios are installed, they can transmit at the same time...T or F?

False

In the event hydraulic system B fails, the LE devices can be retracted after being extended during the Alternate Flap Extension method...T or F?

False

It is not possible to test the indicator lights on the B737NG...T or F?

False

Operating the engines with no fuel pumps selected on will likely cause a flame out...T or F?

False

The B737NG has the ability to jettison fuel...T or F?

False

The GEN OFF BUS light only illuminates when the engine generator is running and is not powering the related AC Transfer Bus...T or F?

False

The Mach/Airspeed warning get can be cancelled by pressing the Master Caution Reset light...T or F?

False

The nose gear taxi light automatically illuminates when the nose landing gear is down and locked with the switch off...T or F?

False

The radar shows weather returns up to 640 nm, when 640 is selected on the EFIS control panel...T or F?

False

The static ports are heated when the PROBE HEAT switches are selected ON...T or F?

False

There are no flight deck controls to deploy the passenger oxygen masks manually...T or F?

False

While in-flight the wing anti-ice valves will automatically close if an overheat is sensed...T or F?

False

During cruise flight, an ELECTRIC light indicates a fault in the DC power system or standby system...T or F?

False (only on the ground)

What would likely happen if the main tanks were loaded completely full and thermal expansion occurred?

Fuel would be ducted into the surge tank

The FMC selects _________ first as the primary update to the aircraft position.

GPS

What switch would you use to alert ground personnel you would like to talk to them?

GRD CALL switch on the overhead panel

When will the DC cross bus tie relay open automatically?

Glide slope capture during a Flight Director or Autopilot engaged ILS approach. (APP mode selected in the MCP)

Which types of VOR's are displayed with the ND range set to 160 nm?

High VOR's

The alternate brake system is powered by which hydraulic system?

Hydraulic System A

What hydraulic system NORMALLY powers nose wheel steering?

Hydraulic System A

Placing the ENGINE START switch to FLT provides:

Ignition to both ignitors

How many degrees can the nose wheel be turned with the rudder pedals?

Left or right 7 degrees

Fuel tank temperature is measured from which fuel tank?

Main tank 1

Commands to the Autoflight System that are typically "short term" in nature are entered in the?

Mode Control Panel (MCP)

How does Control Wheel Steering (CWS) allow the pilot to control the aircraft?

Moving the control wheel sends signals to the autopilot commanding pitch and roll

The upper display unit show the following indications:

N1, EGT

Which relief valve prevents ambient pressure from exceeding cabin pressure by an excessive amount?

Negative pressure relief valve

What actions, of any, must pilots accomplish for the alternate brake system to become active if hydraulic system B fails?

No action is required since it automatically occurs

When are the ram air doors full open?

On the ground or during slow flight with the flaps extended

Using the Audio Control Panel, how many MIC transmissions can be made at one time?

One

A single high pressure oxygen cylinder provides gaseous oxygen for:

Only the flight deck crew

Which of the following are available with the alternate brake system?

Parking brake

The FMC alert message INSUFFICIENT FUEL indicates?

Predicted fuel at your destination is less than 2000 lbs.

What function does the LANDING GEAR lever lock serve?

Prevents the gear handle from being moved to the UP position on the ground

The Fuel Quantity Processor Unit provides fuel information for all except:

Primary Flight Display

It is important that Engine Anti-ice be selected on__________.

Prior to entering icing conditions

Placing the Window Heat test switch to PWR TEST:

Provides a confidence test.

The GPWS windshear alert is a ____________ detection system.

Reactive

Which radar mode will not emit radio waves?

TEST

A TR UNIT light in-flight indicates?

TR 1, or TR 2 AND TR 3 have failed

Given the following display (APU GEN panel with a FAULT light) what has occurred?

The APU has auto shutdown due to a fault detected by the ECU

What does the blue APU GEN OFF BUS light indicate?

The APU is running and not powering any AC Transfer Bus

How does the APU receive fuel for starting and operation when there is no AC electrical power available?

The APU suction feeds from main tank 1

While the APU is operating what will happen if the Battery (BAT) switch is moved to off?

The APU will shut down because power is lost to the ECU

Slats extend to the full extend position when ___________. (3AA - 3LB)

The Flap Lever is beyond FLAPS 5

How does the B737NG descend in LVL CHG.

The aircraft controls pitch to maintain the selected speed. The thrust levers retard to idle

What warnings will occur if the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet?

The cabin altitude warning horn sounds and the red CABIN ALTITUDE warning light illuminates

During descent a flashing "8" appears on the IAS/MACH Display window. What does this indicate?

The commanded speed cannot be reached because the commanded speed is greater than the overspeed limit

FWD SUPPLY DUCT temperature indicates the temperature from ___________.

The duct temperature leading to the forward passenger zone

What does an amber TAI on the upper DU indicate?

The engine anti-ice valve and switch position disagree or is in transit

The engine idle speed increases to approach idle when:

The flaps are in a landing configuration

If the EEC normal mode is not available, the EEC downgrades to:

The soft alternate mode

The APU has been operated for over an hour before the engine start with all the fuel pumps off. The crossfeed valve has been closed and the main tanks are now unbalanced. Which statement is true?

The left main tank quantity will be lower than the right.

With a ZONE TEMP light over the CONT CABIN:

The left pack produces what is selected on the CONT CAB selector, and the right pack produces the coolest between the FWD and AFT zone selectors.

The Engine Start Levers control which valves?

The related engine fuel and spar valves

The blue L VALVE OPEN and COWL VALVE OPEN lights illuminated dim indicate:

The related wing anti-ice valve is open and the switch is on

What does the TRANSFER BUS OFF light indicate?

The respective AC Transfer Bus is not powered

What does the green TAI on the upper DU indicate?

The respective engine anti-ice valve is open

What does an amber light on the Probe Heat Panel indicate?

The respective probe is not heated

With all Temperature Control Selectors positioned OFF___________.

The right pack will produce 65 degree air and the left pack will produce 75 degree air

A Green REV annunciation above the N1 RPM readout display means:

The thrust reverser is deployed

What is the position of the Wing Anti-ice valves after takeoff thrust has been set with the switch on?

The wing anti-ice valves automatically close

What are the flight deck indications of the lavatory extinguishing system being used?

There are no flight deck indications

What is indicated by WING BODY OVERHEAT annunciator?

There is a bleed air leak

What does the FWD light illuminate? (Cargo Fire panel)

There is smoke detected in the forward cargo compartment

When is the PSEU light inhibited?

Thrust levers advanced to takeoff power

The weather radar automatically begins scanning for wind shear when:

Thrust levers are set for takeoff

And amber Thrust Reverser (REV) alert indicates:

Thrust reverser is moved from the stowed position

A TR UNIT light illuminated on the ground indicates any TR has failed...T or F?

True

Actual Navigation Performance (ANP) is the FMC's estimate of the quality of its position determination...T or F?

True

After selecting the CROSSFEED selector to OPEN or CLOSE, it is normal to see the VALVE OPEN light illuminate bright momentarily...T or F?

True

Any page containing boxes indicates that data entry into that field is mandatory...T or F?

True

As the "brain" of the engine, the EEC provides engine overboost and overspeed protection, but does not provide EGT overtemp protection in flight...T or F ?

True

As the aircraft reaches the top of climb, the FMC/CDU automatically sequences from the CLB page to the CRZ page...T or F?

True

Center tank pumps have greater pressure than main tank pumps...T or F?

True

Differences between left and right pressurization is normal, as long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurization...T or F?

True

During descent in VNAV PTH, pitch maintains the vertical flight path while aircraft speed is secondary...T or F?

True

During normal operation, both fire detection loops in one engine must detect a fire or overheat condition to activate a fire warning or overheat alert...T or F?

True

Each landing gear unit is equipped with two air/ground sensors...T or F?

True

Enhanced GPWS, or EGPWS, uses a GPS signal and terrain database to provide "look-ahead alerting"...T or F?

True

Grasping the Stabilizer Trim Wheel stops the electric trim from moving the horizontal stabilizer...T or F?

True

If a leak develops in the hydraulic A system engine-driven pump lines, the fluid level will drop down to approximately 20% and hydraulic system pressure will not be lost...T or F?

True

If a leak develops in the hydraulic B system electric motor-driven pump lines, the fluid level will drop down to the standpipe. All pressure will be lost, however sufficient fluid remains for PTU operation...T or F?

True

If bleed air from the engines is unavailable, the APU is capable of supplying bleed air for two packs on the ground or one pack in flight...T or F?

True

If the autopilot is engaged, actuating either pair of stabilizer trim switches automatically disengages the autopilot...T or F?

True

It is possible to transfer fuel between tanks utilizing the defuel valve...T or F?

True

RNP values can be manually entered into the CDU by the flight crew...T or F?

True

Surge tanks are located outboard of the main tanks...T or F?

True

Surge tanks are vented to the exterior...T or F?

True

The APU operates at a constant speed to meet the aircraft's electrical demand...T or F ?

True

The Boeing 737NG is certified for operation in known icing conditions...T or F ?

True

The Boeing 737NG is designed so that if both A and B hydraulic systems fail there is no decrease in controllability...T or F?

True

The EEC is comprised of 2 channels, primary and secondary. Either channel is capable of controlling the engine...T or F?

True

The EEC'S primary mode of operation is the normal mode...T or F?

True

The SPD INTV switch allows the crew to change the FMC target speed while remaining in VNAV...T or F?

True

The amber CDS FAULT message indicates a non-dispatchable fault...T or F?

True

The automatic on-line feature operates only when the aircraft is in-flight and once per flight...T or F?

True

The dome light on the P18 panel (captain's side) has dual bulbs installed...T or F?

True

The forward and aft Cargo Compartments are equipped with dual smoke detector loops that sense smoke particles...T or F?

True

The fuel panel does not indicate the presence of fuel in the surge tank...T or F?

True

The main wheel well has fire detection capabilities but no fire extinguishing systems...T or F?

True

The oxygen mask microphone is disabled and and the boom microphone enabled when the left oxygen mask panel door is closed and the TEST/RESET switch is pushed...T or F?

True

When does the cruise phase of the pressurization system start?

When the aircraft is within 0.25 psi of the selected FLT ALT

What color are the strobe lights (located on each wing tip)?

White

Will the autopilot remain engaged when windshear is encountered during a single engine autopilot approach?

Yes