A&P II Finals
Hemoglobinuria
Hemoglobin breakdown products are too high in blood then will pick up as red/ brown in urine. This excess hemolysis in bloodstream is a problem.
antibodies
Humoral immunity is provided by __________.
The first step in formation of a mature RBC from a hemocytoblast is the
- differentiation of a myeloid stem cell to a proerythroblast
Blood type is determined by:
- glycoproteins present on the surface of erythrocytes.
The percentage of blood volume occupied by erythrocytes is called the ________.
- hematocrit
Overproduction of white blood cells is called:
- leukocytosis.
In addition to basophils, _____________ found in connective tissue can release histamine when they bind to IgE antibodies.
- mast cells
Platelets are derived from:
- megakaryocytes.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the large intestine?
It contains a large number of bacteria.
The immune cell is able to respond quickly after any subsequent encounter with the same antigen
Memory cell
What happens to ESV and MAP during stress
ESV (End Systolic Volume) decreases MAP (Mean Arterial Pressure) increases
end systolic volume
ESV; the volume of blood remaining in a ventricle after it has contracted
spleen
What is the largest lymphatic organ
lacteal
What lymphatic structure absorbs lipids in the intestine?
palatine tonsils
What lymphatic structures trap bacteria in the posterior oral cavity?
they are not encapsulated but do have crypts
What makes the tonsils simple
antigens
What mobilizes the adaptive defenses and provokes an immune response?
The T cell enters a state of anergy.
What occurs if a T cell binds to an antigen and the T cell does not receive a co-stimulatory signal?
lymphatic capillaries
What part of the lymphatic system is most closely associated with capillary beds?
eosinophil
Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid cell?
opsonization
Which of the following is NOT one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?
A secondary immune response lasts longer than a primary immune response.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a secondary immune response?
mucous membranes
Which of the following is a nonspecific barrier defense?
alkalosis
arterial blood PH rises above 7.45
acidosis
arterial blood Ph drops below 7.35
Explain how reduced stretch of granular cells release renin.
as mechanoreceptors, reduced tension in the granular cells plasma stimulates them to release renin
How is blood pressure measured
as systemic arterial BP in large arteries near the heart
apical pulse
caused by the apex of the beating heart contracting the chest wall
What does Direct Renal Mechanism do when there is a decrease in blood pressure or volume
causes kidneys to conserve water - thus BP rises
stimulated by the sight or smell of food
cephalic phase
Peyer's patches
destroy bacteria in appendix; generate "memory" lymphocytes for long-term memory in intestine
cells that inhibit bicarbonate secretion
H+ and HCO3-, hco3- and pct cells
equation for carbon dioxide transport in plasma
H2CO3=40X0.03=1.2mEq/L
Which of the following products does the stomach produce?
HCl and intrinsic factor
True
HIV attacks helper T cells by binding into the CD4 proteins.
cardiac output, how do you calculate CO
HR x SV , amout of blood pumped out by each ventricle per minute
Maintaining Blood Pressure requires the cooperation of what things
Heart Blood Vessels Kidneys Supervision of the brain
Circulatory system
Heart -> Arteries -> Arterioles -> Capillaries -> Venules -> Veins -> Heart
Prolonged hypertension is a major cause of
Heart failure vascular disease renal failure stroke
False
Lymph arrives to the lymph nodes via efferent lymphatic vessels.
afferent lymphatic vessels
Lymph vessels that conduct lymph into a lymph node are termed
red lines under the skin that are sensitive to touch
Lymphangitis presents itself as __________.
Capillary beds
Lymphatic collecting vessels are most closely associated with:
return tissue fluid to the bloodstream
Lymphatic vessels:
Agranulocytes
Lymphocytes & monocytes, lack visible granules, have spherical nuclei
cytotoxic T
Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells.
T lympocytes
Lymphocytes that develop immunocompetence in the thymus are __________.
Saliva and lacrimal fluids contain this enzyme that destroys bacteria
Lysozyme
True
MHC I proteins (major histocompatibility class I proteins) are found on most cells of the body.
antigen-presenting cells
MHC II proteins are found on __________.
Which of the following is NOT one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?
Opsonization
enhancing phagocytosis of antigens
Opsonization
What forces dominate at the venous end of a capillary bed
Osmotic forces
Distribution of
Oxygen, nutrients, wastes, hormones
Fractionation
Process of separating whole blood for clinical analysis after VENIPUNCTURE sample take. Into plasma and formed elements
antibodies
Proinflammatory signals include all of the following except:
Cardioacceleratory center
Projects to sympathetic neurons at T1-T5 level of spinal cord: I) Post-ganglionic neurons innervate the SA and AV nodes, heart muscle and coronary arteries. II) Action on SA node: increase slope of pacemaker potential (and rate of depolarization)
Which is mismatched?
Protease: lipid digestion
lipids
fatty acids and monoglycerides
phagocytic cell
fibroblast-like cell that produces the reticular fiber stroma
skin
first line of defense against invading organisms
venous sinuses
flattened veins with extrememly thin walls
embolisms
floating thrombus, help prevent w/ asprin
stimulated by partially digested proteins in the stomach and increases gastric gland secretions
gastrin
During deglutition, the bolus passes into the stomach from the esophagus through the __________.
gastroesophageal sphincter
lies at superior end and regulates movement of food from the esophagus
gastroesophageal sphincter
The alimentary canal is also called the ________.
gastrointestinal (GI) tract
IgM
large antibody released by plasma cells in a primary response
Bile is produced by the:
liver
desomosomes
prevent cells from separating during contraction
MARASMUS
Protein calorie malnutrition, accompanied by by progressive wasting. Often due to ingestion of food of very poor nutritional quality. Growth is severely stunted
Reticulocyte Counts
Provides an approximate index of the rate of RBC formation.
begins carbohydrate digestion in the mouth
salivary amylase
how salts enter and exit the body
salts enter the body via ingestion and are lost via perspiration, feces, and urine
lymphatic trunks
same three tunics as veins; the largest of lymph vessels
vasa vasorum
series of small vessels on tunica externa that bring blood to large vessel walls
Fetal Hemoglobin
Strong form of hemoglobin found in embryos Takes oxygen more readily from mother's hemoglobin
2 places that veins are carrying oxygenated blood
- Pulmonary veins - Umbilical vessels of a fetus
During the life cycle of red blood cells,
- RBCs are unable to synthesize proteins, grow, or undergo mitotic division.
Capillary Blood Pressure
- Ranges from 15 - 35 mm Hg - Low capillary pressure is desirable - Most are very permeable so low pressure forces filtrate into interstitial spaces
Blood Viscosity
- Relatively constant - The "stickiness of the blood due to formed elements and plasma proteins -Males Viscosity = 46 -Females viscosity = 42 *Ex taking EPO would change it
Which of the following is a function of basophils?
- Release histamine during allergic reaction
Erythroblastosis fetalis is due to
- Rh incompatibility between an Rh-negative mother and her Rh-positive baby during pregnancy.
Which of the following plasma expanders would be associated with the least complications.
- Ringer's solution
Individuals with malaria have a better chance of surviving if they have the following type of anemia.
- Sickle-cell anemia
Arterioles
- Smallest arteries - Lead to capillary beds - Control flow into capillary beds via vasodilation and vasoconstriction
Tunica Media
- Smooth Muscle and sheets of elastin - Metabolically active tissue that requires nutrients in order to help movement of materials throughout the vessels -responsible for expansion and recoiling of vessel -Important site for nervous system innervation
true regarding the extrinsic pathway of blood clotting?
- The extrinsic pathway is triggered by tissue factor.
has the greatest effect on making RBCs very efficient oxygen transporters?
- They generate ATP by anaerobic mechanisms and do not consume any of the oxygen they carry.
Veins compared to arteries
- Thinner walls - larger lumens - lower blood pressure in them compared to arteries
Systolic Pressure in BP reading
- when sounds first occur - because blood starts to spurt through the artery -Normally 110-140 Hg
spermatogenic cells
-(sperm forming) -give rise to sperm
Nonspecific
The Alternative Pathway is what type of method?
Specific Defense
The Classic Pathway is what type of Defense
Indirect Renal Mechanism
The Renin-angiotensin mechanism
Palantine tonsils
The ________ is (are) the most likely to become infected.
Resistance (peripheral resistance)
-Opposition to flow -Measure of the amount of friction blood encounters -Generally encountered in peripheral systemic circulation
True Capillaries
-Part of Capillary bed -10 to 100 exchange vessels per capillary bed -Branch off the metarteriole/vascular shunt or terminal arteriole
How does Blood flow through capillary beds
-Precapillary sphincters regulate blood flow into true capillaries - Regulated by local chemical conditions and vasomotor nerves
Where does the vasomotor center get its input?
-Receives inputs from baroreceptors, chemoreceptors, higher brain centers
myoid cells
-by contracting, help squeeze sperm and testicular fluids through tubules and out of testes
Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
-causes blood volume and blood pressure to decline -Causes generalized vasodilation -part of the short-term hormonal response
nipple
-central protruding part of mammary gland -autonomic nerve fibers cause to be erect when stimulated by tactile or sexual stimuli, or cold temperatures
amenorrhea
-cessation in menstruation -can be caused by stress, strenuous physical activity
meiosis II
-mirrors mitoses in every way except that the chromosomes are not replicated before it begins -sometimes called equal division of meiosis
chronic prostatitis / pelvic pain syndrome
-most common 2 types 1) inflammatory type several of the urinary tract infection symptoms are present as well as the pains in external genitalia and lower back. leukocytes but not bacteria are present in bacteria 2) noninflammatory type, symtoms mimic inflammatory type but no leucocytes and bacteria are present in urine
testicular cancer
-most common cancer in young men -history of mumps or orchitis, exposure to enviromental toxins before birth, most important risk is crypyorchidism -common sign is painless solid mass -orchiectomy has highest cure rate
breast cancer
-most common other than nonmekanoma skin cancer -small cluster of cells grow into a lump which cells eventually metastasize -risk factors: early onset of menstruation, late menopause, no pregnancies or 1st pregnancy later in life, no or short periods of breast feeding , family history -treatment: 1) radiation therapy, 2) chemotherapy, 3) surgery followed by 1 or 2.
duct of the epididymis
-mucosa exhibit long, nonmotile, microvilli
crypyorchidism
-non descent testes
diploid chromosomal number
-normal number of chromosomes -symbolises as 2n -46 -23 pairs
haploid chromosomal number
-number of chromosomes in human gametes is 23 or n
spermatogenesis
-occurs in seminiferous tubules of testes that produces male gametes
if a sperm penetrates..
-oocyte completes meiosis II, yielding one large ovum and a tiny second polar body -this union constitutes for fertilization
lactiferous ducts
-open to the outside at the nipple
cervical canal
-or cavity or cervix -empties into the vagina via internal os
sperm
-or spermatozoon -has a head, midpiece and tail aka genetic, metabolic and locomotor regions -head holds the DNA -acrosome, adhere to the top of the nucleus like a helmet -midpiece: contains mitochondria around microtubules of the tail -tail: typically flagellum
spermatogonia
-outermost tubule cells -indirect contact w/ epithelial basal lamina
females internal genitalia
-ovaries -duct system
ovarian artery
-ovaries are served by -branches of abdominal aorta and ovarian branch of uterine arteries - blood vessels travel through mesovarium and suspensory ligament
external genitalia (male)
-penis and scrotum
Bilirubin
A yellow pigment that is released to the blood and binds to albumin for transport. Liver cells secrete it (via bile) into the intestines where it is metabolized into urobilinogen, and exits the body as sterobilin (via feces).
Normal adult blood volume
5 liters
Normal adult cardiac output
5.25 L/min (average) Entire blood supply.
describe potassium ion reabsorption and secretion in kidney tubules
60% reabsorbed passively in proximal tubule, 20% reabsorbed in thick ascending limb of henle's loop, secretion is by principal cells in cortical collecting duct and outer medullary collecting duct
Which of the choices below happens during the absorptive state? A) Anabolic processes exceed catabolic ones. B) Catabolic processes exceed anabolic ones. C) No metabolism occurs. D) Only glucose metabolism occurs
A) Anabolic processes exceed catabolic ones.
A) Glycolysis, OR B) Krebs cycle and electron transport chain? Glucose serves as the initial reactant.
A) Glycolysis
A) Glycolysis, OR B) Krebs cycle and electron transport chain? Occurs in the cytosol of a cell.
A) Glycolysis
antigen
A "nonself" substance that can provoke an immune response is called a(n) __________.
Anemia
A condition in which the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity is too low to support normal metabolism. Conditions include fatigue, pale coloration, shortness of breath, and chilled body temperature.
APPETITE
A desire for food. Psychological phenomenon dependent on memory and associations, as opposed to hunger, which is a physiological need to eat
Erythropoietin (EPO)
A glycoprotein hormone that stimulates the formation of erythrocytes. Kidneys and liver produce EPO production.
isograft
A graft that is transplanted from one person to a genetically identical individual (i.e., to an identical twin) is an example of a(n) __________.
return of tissue fluid to the cardiovascular system
A major function of the lymphatic system is __________.
True
A moderate fever is a protective adaptive response.
Heparin
A natural anticoagulant contained in basophil, mast cell granules, and found on the surface of endothelial cells. It inhibits thrombin.
Hemostasis
A plug-the-hole defensive reaction of the body to stop bleeding from cuts or tears. Steps of hemostasis nclude vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, and coagulation.
Adensosine diphosphate (ADP)
A potent aggregating agent that causes more platelets to stick to the area and release their contents.
Prostacyclin
A prostaglandin chemical released by the endothelial cells that restricts aggregation to the injury site. Also called PGI2.
Antithrombin III
A protein present in plasma, it quickly inactivates any thrombin not bound to the fibrin, and inhibits the activity of other intrinsic pathway clotting factors.
that receives lymph drainage from a body area suspected of cancer
A sentinel node is the first lymph node __________.
Plasma
A sticky fluid consisting mainly of water (90%) with over 100 different dissolved solutes; includes nutrients, gases, hormones, wastes and products of cell activity.
Buffy Coat
A thin, whitish layer that is present at the erythrocyte-plasma junction.
Hemoglobin F
A unique hemoglobin found in fetuses that has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin. After birth, the liver rapidly destroys the fetal erythrocytes carrying hemoglobin F.
artificial active immunity
A vaccination works to establish __________.
Which is the correct sequence of layers in the heart wall, starting with the outer layer? A. Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium B. Endocardium, smooth muscle, epicardium C. Endocardium, epicardium, myocardium D. Parietal pericardium, myocardium, endocardium E. Myocardium, pericardium, endocardium
A. Epicardium, myocardium, endocardium
Which of the following is an age-related change of the heart that affects function? A. Fibrosis of cardiac muscle B. Stretching of myocardium due to overuse C. Increase in cardiac reserve D. Loss of elasticity of cardiac muscle E. Thinning of the valve flaps
A. Fibrosis of cardiac muscle
The pacemaker of the heart is the A. SA node. B. the bundle branches. C. AV node. D. Bundle of His. E. Purkinje fibers.
A. SA node
The cells of the myocardium behave as a single coordinated unit called a A. functional syncytium. B. cardiac cycle. C. sarcomere. D. contractile unit. E. pacemaker
A. functional syncytium.
A doctor puts his stethoscope on a patient's chest over the location of the heart and hears a swishing sound. Which of the following conditions is the best diagnosis for the patient's condition? A. incompetent cardiac valve B. angina pectoris C. cardiac tamponade D. myocardial infarction
A. incompetent cardiac valve
The second heart sound is heard during which phase of the cardiac cycle A. isovolumetric relaxation B. isovolumetric contraction C. ventricular ejection D. ventricular filling
A. isovolumetric relaxation
During systemic circulation, blood leaves the A. left ventricle and goes directly to the aorta. B. right atrium and goes directly to the lungs. C. lungs and moves to the left atrium. D. right ventricle and goes directly to the aorta. E. right ventricle and moves to the lungs
A. left ventricle and goes directly to the aorta.
The fossa ovalis is located in the A. ventricle. B. interatrial septum. C. interventricular septum. D. atrium
B. interatrial septum.
Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the... A. right atrium B. left atrium C. right ventricle D. left ventricle
B. left atrium
The tricuspid valve is located between the A. right and left atria. B. right atrium and right ventricle. C. left atrium and left ventricle. D. right and left ventricles. E. right ventricle and the aorta
B. right atrium and right ventricle.
True
Binding of a helper T cell with an antigen-presenting cell and binding of a B7 protein are necessary for co-stimulation and T cell activation.
Hematopoiesis
Blood cell formation in epiphysis of long bones
Hematopoiesis
Blood cell formation.
What gets filtered out of filtrate?
Blood cells (both red and white) and platelets
Relationship between blood flow and blood pressure
Blood flow (F) is directly proportional to the blood (hydrostatic) pressure gradient (^P) *EX: If ^P increases, blood flow speeds up
Relationship between blood flow and resistance
Blood flow is inversely proportional to peripheral resistance (R) *EX: If R increases, blood flow decreases: F = ^P/R R is more important in influencing local blood flow because it is easily changed by altering blood vessel diameter
Small muscle masses attached to the chordae tendineae are the... A. trabeculae carneae B. pectinate muscles C. papillary muscles D. vena cava
C. papillary muscles
In regards to the myogenic mechanism of renal autoregulation, what do the vascular smooth muscles do when stretched?
Contracts
regulation of water output
Controlled via urine alterations, leaves kidneys via kidneys, skin, lungs, digestive tract, regulated primarily by kidneys...
The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the... A. coronary sinus B. fossa ovalis C. coronary arteries D. coronary veins
C. coronary arteries
Which of the following events would cause the gap junctions between cardiac cells to close? A. atrial fibrillation B. arrhythmia C. ischemia D. premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)
C. ischemia
The phase in the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles are completely closed and the volume of blood in them is constant is referred to as the A. isovolumetric relaxation phase. B. quiescent period. C. isovolumetric contraction phase. D. ventricular ejection phase
C. isovolumetric contraction phase.
The interventricular septum forms a dividing wall between the A. left atrium and right atrium. B. right ventricle and left atrium. C. left and right ventricles. D. left atrium and left ventricle. E. right atrium and right ventricle
C. left and right ventricles
Plasma proteins
Consists of albumin (60%), globulins (36%), fibrinogens (4%), and gamma (antibodies released by plasma cells).
Formed elements
Consists of buffy coat (WBCs and platelets) and erythrocytes (RBCs).
__________ can result if food passes too slowly through the large intestine.
Constipation
Type AB Blood
Contains both type A and type B agglutinogens.
Type A Blood
Contains only type A agglutinogen.
Type B Blood
Contains only type B agglutinogen.
All of the renal corpuscles are located where?
Cortex
What are 3 distinct regions of the kidney?
Cortex, medulla, and pelvis
What type of nephrons have short loops?
Cortical nephrons
What are the classes of nephrons?
Cortical nephrons and juxtamedullary nephrons
The process that begins when a helper T cell binds to a class II MHC protein on a displaying cell is known as
Costimulation
Complete Blood Count (CBC)
Counts the different types of formed elements, the hematocrit, measurements of hemoglobin content, and the size of RBCs.
What are 4 microscopic characteristics of proximal convoluted tubules (PCT)?
Cuboidal epithelial cells, large mitochondria, apical surfaces bear dense microvilli, and a brush border
through insertion of perforins into the target's membrane
Cytotoxic T cells kill target cells __________.
In the respiratory burst, ____ are released, which have a potent cell-killing ability
Free radicals
How is blood pressure controlled short term
From Neural (sympathetic & Parasymp) & Hormonal controls -They Counteract fluctuations in blood pressure by altering peripheral resistance
As the collecting ducts approach the renal pelvis, they do what?
Fuse together and deliver urine into the minor calyces via papillae of the pyramids
Which of the following intestinal hormones stimulates the secretion of insulin?
GIP
inhibits gastric gland secretions; released in response to presence of fatty chyme in the small intestine
GIP
During the gastric phase of GI tract control, which of the following hormones increases activity in the ileum and relaxes the ileocecal sphincter?
Gastrin
Which hormone, released in response to stomach distention, increases gastric motility?
Gastrin
severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)
Genetic defect resulting in a shortage of B and/or T cells
Electrocardiography
Device that records the overall electrical currents created by heart that spread throughout the body.
Neutrophils flatten and squeeze out of capillary
Diapedesis
Complement proteins work by
Forming pores in the membranes of target cells
vasomotor center
a cluster of sympathetic neruons in the medulla that oversee changes in blood vessel diameter
macrophages
a common APC
fibrillation
a condition of rapid & irregular or out-of-phase contractions in which control of heart rhythm is taken from the SA node by rapid activity in other heart regions
EXTRA CRED TERM cor pulmonale
a condition of right sided heart failure resulting from elevated blood pressure in the pulmonary circuit. Acute cases may develop suddenly due to pulmonary embolism, chronic cases are usually associated with chronic lung conditions
spleen
a filter and reservoir for the blood
Blood
a fluid, connective tissue
EXTRA CRED TERM heart palpatation
a heart beat that is unusually strong, fast, or irregular so that the person is aware of it. may be caused by drugs, emotional pressure, or heart disorders
subcapsular sinus
a large, baglike structure leading into a number of small sinuses
prolonged hypertension
a major cause of heart failure, vascular disease, renal failure, & stroke
What type of process is glomerular filtration?
a passive process
chemoreceptor
a sensory nerve cell that responds to a change in the chemical composition (CO2 and pH) of the fluid around it
end diastolic volume
amt of blood that collects in ventricle during diastole
This enzyme, which digests carbohydrates, is found in saliva and in the small intestine.
amylase
In the Loop of Henle, what characteristics could you expect to see in regards to the epithelium?
an abrupt transition from simple squamous to simple cuboidal when it goes from the thick portion to the thin portion
electrolyte balance
an equilibrium between the amounts of electrolytes
defensins
antibiotic-like chemicals released by neutrophils
extracellular
antibodies bind to _____ pathogens
Naturally acquired passive immunity
antibodies from mom to baby
artificially acquired passive immunity
antibodies injected for temporary immunity
naturally passively acquired humoral immunity
antibodies passed from mother to fetus via placenta, or to infant in her milk
humoral , naive or unexposed B
antibody or ___ immunity involves ____ lymphocytes & ______ lymphocytes
naturally aquired active immunity
antigens inhaled after being sneezed on by someone with the flu
artificially acquired active immunity
antigens injected to stimulate immune system
Complete antigens
antigens with immunogenicity & reactivity
weak bases
any base that reacts with water to a very small extent
acids
any substance that when dissolved in water, produces hydrogen ions
Where is velocity of blood flow fastest?
aorta
elastic (conducting) arteries
aorta and its branches; D= 1-2.5 cm; highly elastic; act as pressure reservoirs-- expand & recoil as blood is ejected from the heart
semilunar valves
aortic & pulmonary valves; prevent backflow into the assoiciated ventricles
What arteries is defined as a 90 degree turn at the base of the pyramid into the cortex?
arcuate arteries
lungs autoregulation
areas of lungs with low oxygen vasocontrict and with high oxygen vasodialate
systemic circuit
associated with the left ventricle; blood vessels that carry functional blood supply to & from all body tissues; encounters 5 times as much friction (reisitanace) to blood flow
important sources of resistance
blood viscosity, total blood vessel length, clotting factors, & blood vessel diameter
Coagulation
blood goes from liquid to gel, causes formation of a fiber mesh, prothrombin->thrombin
Coagulation Process
blood goes from liquid to gel, causes formation of a fiber mesh, prothrombin->thrombin
Anemia
blood has low oxygen carrying capacity
Protection of
blood loss & infection
skin autoregulation
blood moves towards the skin when body temp is high because blood releases body heat
arteries
carry blood away from the heart; oxygenated except for pulmonary circulation and umbilical cessles of fetus
Activation of Complement
cascading chemical pathway that amplifies inflammation & causes cell lyses
Thromboembolytic disorder
clots form in unbroken veseels "thrombus"
agglutination
clumping
opsonization
coating by complement or antibodies to help phagocytosis
lymphatic collecting vessels
collect lymph fluid draining from lymphatic capillaries
Nephrons drain into the ?
collecting duct
lymphatic capillary
collects excess tissue fluids
lymphatic capillaries
collects fluid that leaks from blood capillaries into tissue fluid
multiple sclerosis
disease that destroys the myelin sheaths of the brain and spinal cord
myasthenia gravis
disease that impairs communication between nerves and skeletal muscles
several detrimental effects of hyperkalemia and hypokalemia
disrupt electrical conduction in the heart, lead to sudden death
lymph nodes
distinct bean-shaped structures that "filter" lymph fluid as it is moved toward the circulatory system
Functions of blood
distribution, regulation, & protection
to destroy bacteria before pathogens can reach intestine walls and generate many memory lymphocytes for long term immunity
does the appendix have a function
short term blood pressure regulation
done by CNS and hormones by making changes in cardiac output or peripheral resistance via changes in stroke volume, heart rate, and vessel diameter (increased CO and PR mean higher pressure)
fibrous pericardium
double-walled sac that surrounds the heart; the outermost layer; resposible for protection, anchors surrounding structures, prevents over-filling
lymphatic trunk
drains lymph from specific body areas
right lymphatic duct
drains right head and neck region
In order to prevent self-digestion of the pancreas, activation of pancreatic proteases occurs in the __________.
duodenum
The __________ is the first segment of the small intestine.
duodenum
The tube that leaves the stomach (and is the first part of the small intestine) is called the ________.
duodenum
contains openings for the bile and pancreatic ducts
duodenum
When does Systole happen
during contraction
females external genitalia
external sex organs
negative inotropic agents
factors that decrease or impair contractility
positive inotropic agents
factors that increase contractility
syncope
fainting
true or false; an ECG provides direct information about valve function.
false
true or false; autonomic regulation of heart rate is via two reflex centers found in the pons.
false
true or false; cardiac muscle has more mitochondria and depends less on a continual supply of oxygen than does skeletal muscle.
false
true or false; the papillary muscles contract after the other ventricular muscles so that they can take up the slack on the chordae tendineae before the full force of ventricular contractions sends blood against the AV valve flaps.
false
Clot formation
fast steps to stop bleeding, hemostasis
Symptoms of anemia
fatigue/paleness/short breath/chills
chyle
fatty lymph
Material flowing through the nephron is called _________ until it hits the minor calyx where it is then called urine.
filtrate
The prescence of proteins or blood in the urine usually indicates a problem with what?
filtration membrane
What is a porus membrane that allows free passage of water and solutes smaller that plasma protein?
filtration membrane
What are the 3 basic steps in the creation of urine?
filtration, absorption, and secretion
pathogens
harmful microorganisms
tricuspid valve
has 3 flexible cusps
bradycardia
heart rate slower that 60 beats/minute; may result from low body temperature, certain drugs, or parasympathetic nervous activation
What special job do the Baroreceptors in the aortic reflex have
help maintain adequate blood pressure in the systemic circuit
pericytes
help stabilize capillary walls & control permeability
deoxyhemoglobin
hemoglobin with out oxygen
Bleeding disorders
hemophilia: prevent normal clotting
Types of anemia
hemorrhagic, hemolytic, aplastic, pernicious, thalassemia, sickle-cell
Absorbed lipids are transported from intestinal epithelial cells to the lymphatic system in what form?
in the form of chylomicrons
Where are the juxtaglomerular cells located?
in the walls of the afferent arterioles
The dental formula for the permanent teeth indicates two ________ and two ________ in both upper and lower quarters of the mouth.
incisors; premolars
pericarditis
inflammation of the pericardium; roughens the serous membrane surfaces
urethritis
inflammation of the urethra accompanied by painful urination
Histamine
inflammatory chemical, attracts other WBCs
chemotaxis
inflammatory chemicals attract neutrophils to the injured areas
Which digestive process normally occurs only in the mouth?
ingestion
taking food into the digestive system
ingestion
thoracic duct
larger of the two lymphatic ducts receiving lymph from all but the right head and neck region
aorta
largest artery in the body; left ventricle ejects blood through this
lymphatic ducts
largest vessels; carry lymph fluid to subclavian veins
Q-T interval
lasts 0.38 seconds; period from the beginning of ventricular depolarization through ventricular repolarization
secures the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity
lingual frenulum
triglycerides are the most common in diet
lipids
leukocytosis, margination, diapedesis, and chemotaxis
list steps in phagocystosis mobilization
1. Classic Pathway 2. Alternative Pathway
list the steps in complement activation
1. chemotaxis and adherence of microbe 2. ingestion 3. phagosome 4. phagolysosome 5. digestion of microbe 6. residual body formed 7. discharge waste
list the steps in phagocytosis
P wave
lasts about 0.08 seconds & results from movement of the depolartixation wave from the SA node through the atria
bulk flow
leakage of plasma out of and back in a capillary based on balance of pressures
systemic circuit pump
left side of the heart
Secondary Hypertension
less common Due to identifiable disorders: kidney disease atherosclerosis endocrine disorders - hyperthyroidism and Cushing's syndrome
hyponaturemia
level of sodium in the blood is too low
IgA
levels greatly elevated during severe allergic responses
thymus gland
located in the inferior neck and extends into the superior thorax
cardioinhibitory center
located in the medulla oblongata, projects to parasympathetic neurons
cardioacceleratory center
located in the medulla oblongata, projects to sympathetic neurons
systemic circulation
long loop to all parts of the body & back to the heart
Responses generated in the CNS that travel to the gut via extrinsic nerves are called:
long reflexes.
hypotension
low blood pressure
Indirect mechanism for renal regulation of BP
low pressure causes the kidneys to secrete renin which causes angiotensin II production which in turn causes vasoconstriction and aldosterone release which causes sodium retention and therefore blood volume which raises BP
atrial natrieretic peptide
lowers BP in the short term through hormones released by the heart's atria that cause vasodilation; also a LT mechanism for lower BP by increasing urine output which decreases BV
lacteals
lymph capillaries of the villi of small intestine
macrophages
lymph sinus
tonsils
lymphoid organs; found around the entrance to the pharynx
Keeping the plasma proteins in the capillaries _____________________________________________________.
maintains the oncotic pressure of the glomerular space
neutrophils cling to capillary wall
margination
Antigens
markers on the rbcs surface.
Hematocrit
measures the percent of red blood cells in blood
chewing, mixing, churning, and segmentation of food
mechanical Digestion
plasma cells
medullary cords
cisterna chyli
merging of intestinal & lumbar lymphatic trunks
four types of acid base imbalances with cause, effects, and compensation for each
metabolic acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, respiratory alkalosis metabolic acidosis- (cause-increased acid load), (pathophysiology-excess of ketone bodies),(effects-depression of myocardial contractility, sympathetic overactivity, venoconstriction of peripheral veins, vasoconstriction of pulmonary arteries), (compensation-increased ventilation) Metabolic alkalosis-(cause-increase in bicarbonate in the blood), (pathophysiology-induced loss of hydrogen ions), (effects-decreased myocardial contractility, arrhythmias, decreased cerebral blood flow, confusion), (compensation-hypoventilation) Respiratory acidosis-(cause-asthma, COPD, acute pulmonary edema, severe obesity), (pathophysiology-increased production of carbon dioxide),(effects-depression in central nervous system),( compensation-HCO3- production from intracellular proteins) Respiratory alkalosis-(cause-anxiety,fever,pain),(pathophysiology-elevation in alveolar ventilation),(effects-tachycardia, atrial arrhythmias),(compensation-intracellular buffering response, slight decrease in HCO3-)
brain autoregulation
metabolic needs remain the same so blood flow is constant
capillaries
microscopic blood vessels; walls of thin tunica intima, one cell thick; size allows only a single RBC to pass at a time; function is to exchange gases, nutrients, wastes, hormones, etc.
Digestion of carbohydrates and proteins by brush border enzymes occurs within the ________ of the small intestine.
microvilli
also known as the brush border
microvilli
semen
milky white, sticky, mixture of sperm, testicular fluid, and accessory gland secretions
How is blood pressure expressed
mm Hg
Most fats are digested to:
monoglycerides and fatty acids.
The final product of carbohydrate digestion is __________.
monosaccharides
carbohydrates
monosaccharides
IgG
most abundant antibody found in the plasma
congenital heart defects
most common of all birth defects and include: Septal defects, Patent ductus arteriosus, co arctation of the aorta, & Tetralogy of Fallot
Neutrophils
most numerous WBCs, lobed nucleus, increase during acute infections, phagocytic (bacteria slayers) cytoplasm is lilac color
epicardium
most visceral layer of the heart and also an interal part of the heart wall
Erythroblastosis fetalis
mother/fetus
The innermost tissue layer of the alimentary canal is the __________.
mucosa
in direct contact with ingested food
mucosa
main site of nutrient absorption
mucosa
Which sequence below represents the correct layering of the wall of the GI tract, starting from the layer next to the lumen?
mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa
The lining of the alimentary canal is a ________.
mucous membrane
The myxovirus causes __________.
mumps
The digestive system in a cadaver is longer than in a living person because, in a cadaver, there is NO __________.
muscle tone
composed of longitudinal and circular layers of smooth muscle
muscularis
responsible for segmentation and peristalsis
muscularis externa
What 2 mechanisms are used by renal autoregulation?
myogenic mechanism and tubulogomerular feedback mechanism
(1)the classical pathway (2)alternative pathway
name 2 ways to start the complement path
helper t cell, cytotoxic t cell, supressor t cell, natural killer cell
name types of T lymphocytes
What kind of charge go the glycoproteins of the gel-like basement membrane give it?
negative charge
The basement membrane repels what?
negatively charged macromolecular anions
The basic functional unit of the kidney is the __________.
nephron, there are over 1 million per kidney
baroreceptors
nerve fibers located in the aortic arch and carotid arteries that are responsible for reflex control of the blood pressure
An important factor directly affecting the glomerular filtration rate is __________.
net filtration pressure, GFR is directly proportional to NFP.
margination
neutrophils attach to CAMs on the endothelial linings in the injured area
diapedesis
neutrophils squeeze through walls of capillaries into the tissues
Granulocytes are
neutrophils, eosinophils, & baseophils
natural killer cells
nonspecific lymphocytes
What is released by the sympathetic nerve fibers when blood pressure falls?
norepinephrine
made up of ribose or deoxyribose sugars and nitrogenous bases
nucleic acids
nucleic acids
nucleotides
sinusoidal capillaries
occurs in special locations-- liver, bone marrow & spleen; most permeable; ferwer tight junctions, large intracellular clefts & large lumens; usually fenestrated; allow large molecules & blood cells to pass between the blood & surrounding tissue
fenestrated capillaries
occurs in the kidney, endocrine glands & small intestine; function in absorption or filtrate formation; large pores increase permeability
angiogenesis
occurs when short-term autoregulation cannor meet tissue nutrient requirements
What do larger venules consist of?
one or two layers of smooth muscle cells
name and describe the buffer system that assists the respiratory system in preventing acidosis
phosphate buffer system
difference between acidosis and phsiological acidosis
physiological acidosis- PH imbalance in which the body has too much acid than base in it Acidosis-accumulation of acid and hydrogen ions that lead to decrease in ph below 7.35
MALT
protects the digestive and respiratory tracts from never-ending onslaughts of foreign matter entering mucosa-lined cavities
Pepsin enzymatically digests __________.
protein
What is the main organic molecule digested in the stomach?
proteins
built of long chains of amino acids
proteins
immunoglobulins
proteins that attach to antigen
spleen
provides a large, blood-filled site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response; cleanses the blood
lymphoid tissue
provides a proliferation site for lymphocytes and furnishes surveillance vantage point for lymphocytes and macrophages
pressure gradient
provides the driving force that keeps blood moving from higher to lower pressure areas
How is blood pressure controlled long term
renal regulation -Counteracts fluctuations in blood pressure by altering blood volume
long term blood pressure regulation
renal; done by the kidneys by changes in blood volume (increased volume means higher pressure)
What is released by the granular cells of the juxtglomerular complex when blood pressure is low?
renin
What is the body's main mechanism for increasing blood pressure
renin-angiotension-aldosterone mechanism
What mechanism regulates GFR directly?
renin-angiotension-aldosterone mechanism
renal mechanisms for regulating acid-base balance of the blood
secretion of H+ion, reabsorption of filtered HCO3-, production of new HCO3-
exudate
seeps from the capillaries and contains clotting factors and antibodies
MHC I
self antigen on all body cells are called ____
MHC II
self antigens on immune cells are called ______
interatrial septum
separates the two atria
interventricular septum
separates the two ventricles
protective outermost layer of the alimentary canal
serosa
same structure as the visceral peritoneum
serosa
pulmonary circuit
serves as gas exchange; served by the right ventricle; short-low pressure circulation
5th branch of abdominal aorta is?
the inferior mesenteric arteries
Monocytes
the largest leukocyte, large pale blue cytoplasm, u-shaped nuclei, phagocytes & activators, often in chronic infections
EXTRA CRED TERM hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
the leading cause of sudden death in young athletes, this condition, which is usually inherited, causes the cardiac muscle to enlarge, thickening the heart wall. The heart pumps strongly, but does not relax well during diastole when the heart is filling
small-diameter arterioles
the major derterminants of peripheral resistance
ovarian cycle and two stages
the montly series of events associated w/ the maturation of an egg 1) follicular phase: dominate follicle is selected and begins to secrete large amounts of estrogens day 1-14 2) luteal phase: period of corpus luteum activity day 14-28 (ovulation occurs midcycle)
What happens during Angiogenisis
the number of vessels to a region increases and existing vessels enlarge
What nervous system controls micturition?
the parasympathetic nervous system
osmotic pressure
the pressure needed to stop the movement of water across the membrane
afterload
the pressure that must be overcome for the ventricles to eject blood
chemotaxis
the process by which white blood cells are attracted to the site of an injury
cura of penis
the proximal end of corpora cavernosa
3rd branch of abdominal aorta is?
the renal arteries
The only stomach function that is essential to life is __________.
the secretion of intrinsic factor
During the intestinal phase of gastric regulation, __________.
the stomach is initially stimulated and later inhibited
2nd branch of abdominal aorta is?
the superior mesenteric arteries
P-Q interval
the time (about 0.16 seconds) from the beginning of atrial excitation to the beginning of ventricular excitation
stroke volume
the volume of blood by one ventricle with each beat
relationship between H+ and HCO3- in kidney tubules
they increase alkali reserve
opsonization
this process encourages phagocytosis
angina pectoris
thoracic pain caused by fleeting deficiency of blood delivery to the myocardium
the cell lysis, promotes phagocytosis, and enhances inflammation
three results of the complement pathway
Graves' disease
thyroid gland becomes hyperactive
Why do juxtaglomerular cells secrete renin?
to increase blood pressure
What is the main purpose of extrinsic controls?
to maintain systemic blood pressure
hypocalcemia
too little calcium in the bloodstream
hypercalcemia
too much calcium in the bloodstream
hyperkalemia
too much potassium in the bloodstream
What are 2 routes the reabsorbed substances follow during transepithelial processes?
transcellular and pareacellular
Tubular reabsorption is a _________________ ______________ that begins as soon as the filtrate enters the proximal tubules
transepithelial process
What is CO determined by
venous return Neural controls Hormonal controls
thymus
where does immunocompetent happen
Empties into the venous system at the junction of the internal jugular and right subclavian veins
where does the right lymphatic duct enter the blood
empties into venous system at junction of left subclavian and left jugular veins
where does the thoracic duct enter the blood
white pulp (consisting of splenic nodules and malpighian corpuscles) surround an artery, the white pulp is surrounded by the red pulp
where is white pulp
Leukocytes
white blood cells
Which of the following teeth are most commonly impacted?
wisdom teeth
b cell
within germinal center
macrophages
Toll-like receptors are found on __________.
how much water comes in the body and exits
Total intake 2500ml, output 2500ml
A weak gastroesophageal sphincter can result in heartburn.
True
Amino acid absorption is coupled to the active transport of sodium.
True
Bacteria that reside in the large intestine make vitamin K
True
Blood drained from the stomach is more alkaline (basic) than blood that serves the stomach.
True
Diarrhea results when food passes too quickly through the large intestine.
True
In addition to gastrin, ACh and histamine regulate the release of HCl from parietal cells.
True
Most digestion occurs in the small intestine.
True
Portal triads contain a branch of the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, and bile duct.
True
Someone on a fat-free diet would not efficiently absorb vitamin D from their diet.
True
The liver is able to regenerate even after 50% of its original mass is lost.
True
The order of the large intestines is: cecum, ascending colon, hepatic flexure, transverse colon, splenic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid colon.
True
The pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ.
True
The primary goal of digestive tract regulatory mechanisms is to optimize nutrient breakdown and absorption.
True
The pyloric sphincter regulates passage of chyme from the stomach into the duodenum.
True
Tooth enamel is the hardest substance in the body.
True
What are the three layers of arteries and veins
Tunica Externa Tunica Media Tunica Intima
What layer is often worn down due to hypertension
Tunica Intima
Thromboembolic Disorder
Undesirable clot formation: Thrombus, a clot that develops and persists in an unbroken blood vessel; Embolus, a free-floating thrombus that has come detached.
Hematopoietic Stem Cell
Undifferentiated precursor cells (prior to commitment to a specific blood pathway). Also known as hemocytoblast.
Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
Vitamin C
Resident bacteria in the large intestine synthesize this vitamin, which is necessary for the synthesis of some clotting proteins in the liver.
Vitamin K
Stroke Volume
Volume (ml) ejected per beat of the heart. b. SV = EDV - ESV
End Systolic Volume
Volume left in ventricle after SL valves closed.
Bloodflow
Volume of blood flowing through a vessel, an organ, or the entire circulation in a given period -Measured as ml/min -Equivalent to cardiac output (CO) for entire vascular system -relatively constant when at rest -varies widely through individual organs, based on needs
diapedesis
WBCs leaving the bloodstream
Plasma components
Water (90%), electrolytes, plasma proteins (8%),non-protein nitrogenous substances, organic nutrients, respiratory gases, and hormones.
After immunocompetency they go to lymphoid organs, they become "fully functional" after binding with their antigens.
What 2 processes occur as a lymphocyte becomes immunocompetent
interferon
What are antiviral proteins that also stimulate NK cells and macrophages?
How do Neural controls operate
Via reflex arcs which involve -Baroreceptors -vasomotor centers and vasomotor fibers -vascular smooth muscle
Cardioinhibitory center
Via vagus nerve (Parasympathetic): I) Ganglions lie within cardiac wall and post-ganglionic fibers innervate SA and AV nodes. II) Hyperpolarizes nodal cells and slows rate of depolarization.
What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
Where the initial portion of the DCT is in contact with afferent arteriole
helper T cells
Which T cell is responsible for stimulating B cells?
interferon
Which antimicrobial protein is produced by a virus-infected cell?
NK cells
Which cell does NOT have a direct role in phagocytosis?
helper T cell
Which cell of the immune system is absolutely required for an adaptive immune response?
dendritic cells
Which cells engulf antigens and present fragments of them on their own surfaces where they can be recognized by cells that will deal with them?
helper T cells
Which cells stimulate both arms of the immune response?
class II MHC proteins
Which class of MHC proteins presents exogenous antigens?
IgE
Which class of immunoglobulins sensitizes cells to allergens?
cytotoxic T lymphocytes
Which defense cells can specifically identify and directly kill disease cells?
inflammation
Which defense mechanism results in redness, heat, pain, and swelling?
delayed
Which hypersensitivity is caused by T lymphocytes?
cytotoxic T cells: activated by antigens bound to MHC I
Which is correctly matched?
Immediate hypersensitivity: allergic contact dermatitis
Which is mismatched?
spleen
Which lymphatic structure may also be a site of erythrocyte production in the fetus?
Spleen
Which lymphoid organ provides a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response and provides blood-cleansing functions?
thymus gland
Which lymphoid organ serves as the site where T lymphocytes become immunocompetent T cells?
CD8
Which major class of lymphocytes become cytotoxic T cells?
natural killer cells
Which nonspecific defense cells specialize in attacking cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
lymphocytes
Which of the following are considered the primary immune system cells?
lymphocytes
Which of the following are located in the spleen's white pulp?
bone marrow and thymus
Which of the following are primary lymphoid organs?
Complement
Which of the following are proteins which result in the formation of MAC?
lymph nodes
Which of the following are the principal lymphoid organs in the body?
white pulp of the spleen
Which of the following areas in a secondary lymphoid organ allows intimate contact between blood and the lymphocytes?
a one-way system of vessels beginning with blind-ended lymphatic capillaries
Which of the following best describes the arrangement of lymphatic vessels?
plasma cell
Which of the following cells makes and releases antibodies?
monocytes
Which of the following cells would NOT be found in a germinal center in a lymph node?
It occurs immediately after the body is challenged by foreign material
Which of the following does NOT describe the adaptive immune response?
Natural killer cells
Which of the following does not serve as an antigen-presenting cell?
transport of chyle
Which of the following features is NOT common to both lymphatic collecting ducts and veins?
NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Natural Killer (NK) cells? -NK cells recognize abnormal or cancer cells by a specific antigen on their cell membrane. - NK cells attack transplanted organs. -NK cells induce the target cell to undergo "apoptosis" (cell suicide). -NK cells attack infected or cancerous cells.
Lymph nodes produce lymph.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of lymph nodes?
delivery of nutrients to tissues
Which of the following is NOT a function of lymphatic vessels?
T cells
Which of the following is NOT a nonspecific internal defense against disease?
lymph nodes
Which of the following is NOT a part of the MALT?
blood vessels
Which of the following is NOT a part of the lymphatic system?
the spleen
Which of the following is NOT a part of the mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT)?
IFNs stimulate B cells to produce antibodies
Which of the following is NOT a property of interferons (IFNs)?
serve as a site of T cell maturation
Which of the following is NOT a role of the spleen?
fever
Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation?
complement cascade
Which of the following is NOT a surface barrier to pathogen influx?
B lymphocytes
Which of the following is NOT an innate defense mechanism of the body?
IFNs help the body combat viral infections
Which of the following is a role of interferons (IFNs)?
They filter lymph
Which of the following is a role of lymph nodes?
kupffer cells
Which of the following is a type of fixed macrophage? a. kupffer cells b. leukocytes c. T cells d. monocytes
Opsonization
Which of the following is an effect of complement activation?
helper T cells: directly target and kill cancer cells
Which of the following is mismatched?
Bone marrow
Which of the following is not a lymphoid tissue/organ?
thymus
Which of the following is the major lymphoid organ that "trains" T lymphocytes to become immunocompetent?
T cells
Which of the following is/are not a part of the innate immune defenses?
Tonsils
Which of the following is/are the simplest lymphoid organ(s)?
afferent vessel, subcapsular sinus, medullary sinuses, efferent vessel
Which of the following lists the correct order of lymph flow through the lymph node?
Thymus
Which of the following lymphoid tissues/organs does not contain reticular connective tissue?
It is best to perform a splenectomy if the spleen is damaged in a car accident.
Which of the following statements about the spleen is FALSE?
Veins have fewer internal valves than do lymphatic vessels
Which of the following statements is true regarding veins versus lymphatic collecting vessels?
release of leukocytosis-inducing factor
Which of the following steps is the first step in an inflammatory response?
lymphatics
Which of the following vessels transport fluid that leaks from the vascular system back into the blood?
complement proteins
Which of the innate defense mechanisms can lyse bacteria and mark cells for phagocytosis?
right arm
Which of these organs does not drain its lymph into the thoracic duct? -left leg - right leg - left arm - right arm
capillaries, vessels, trunks, ducts
Which sequence best describes the flow of lymph through the lymphatic system?
It maintains blood volume and, hence, pressure.
Which statement below describes the lymphatic system's role in relation to the cardiovascular system?
It occurs much more rapidly than a primary response
Which statement below is characteristic of a secondary humoral response?
They have fewer efferent vessels than afferent vessels.
Which statement is true about lymph nodes?
It drains the lymph from the entire left side of the body and the right abdomen and leg.
Which statement is true of the thoracic duct?
interferon
Which type of molecule is produced by virus-infected cells to communicate to noninfected cells the presence of a virus?
Leukocytes
White blood cells (WBCs) that make up < 1% of whole blood). The only components of blood that are complete cells (contains a nucleus).
chemotaxis
White blood cells migrate to the site of tissue damage
Hematuria
Whole red blood cells in urine due to kidney problem or tissue damage to vessels
to develop antibodies against various diseases
Why are children given vaccinations?
Because it provides a physical and chemical barrier to pathogens
Why is the skin called the "first line of defense"?
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)
Widespread clotting occurs in intact blood vessels and the residual blood becomes unable to clot.
T lymphocytes
Without __________ there is no adaptive immune response.
Which of the following minerals needed fro bacterial reproduction do both the liver and spleen sequester during a fever?
Zinc
CO =
^P/PR - Systemic
F =
^P/PR - more localized
T helper cells
_______ are lymphocytes that coordinate cellular and humoral immune responses.
Tonsils
________ are large lymphatic nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx.
T cytoxic cells
________ are lymphocytes that directly kill virus infected cells.
IgG
________ is the most abundant class of antibodies in plasma.
Antigens
__________ are substances that can trigger the adaptive defenses and provoke an immune response.
Self-toerance
__________ is the property of lymphocytes that prevents them from attacking the body's own cells.
Natural passive
___________ immunity protects a baby who is fed breast milk.
Chemotaxis
____________ is the final step of phagocyte mobilization.
Interatrial septum
Separates right and left atria.
gamma globulin
a class of plasma protein
PATHOGEN
disease causing micro-organisms
testicular arteries
-branches from abdominal aorta
mitral valve
AKA bicupsid valve; has 2 flaps
When does Diastole
During rest
Clot Retraction
Further stabilizes the clot.
True
Self-antigens are ignored by T cells.
radial pulse
Taken at the writst routinely use
chemotaxis
chemical homing for WBCs
t cell
deep cortex
leukocytosis
increase in WBC production
diastolic pressure
lowest level of arterial pressure
diastole
relaxation
How to take blood pressure
- Pressure released slowly and examiner listens for Kortkoff sounds with stethoscope
atrioventricular node
"AV node"; where the impulse pauses in the intrinisic conduction system
mean arterial pressure
"MAP"; pressure that propels the blood to the tissues: MAP = diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure
mycardial infarction
"MI" or "heartattack"; caused by prolonged coronary blockage
sinoatrial node
"SA node"; the "pacemaker" of the intrinsic conduction system. Characteristic rhythm called sinus rhythm.
veins
"capacitance vessels"; carry blood toward the heart; formed when venules converge; have thinner walls & larger lumens; blood pressure is lower
EXTRA CRED TERM commotio cordis
"concussion of the heart" situation in which a mild blow to the chest causes heart failure and sudden death because it occurs during a vulnerable interval (2ms) when the heart is repolarizing.
chordae tendinae
"heart strings"; anchor the cusps to the papillary muscle protruding from the ventricular wall
distributing arteries
"muscle"; distal to elastic arteries; deliver blood to body organs; have thick tunica media with more smooth muscle; active in vasoconstriction
valvular stenosis
"narrowing"; valve flaps become stiff & constrict the opening
tunica externa
"tunica adventitia"; collagen fibers protect & reinforce
False
( T or F ) Lymph is important in transporting carbohydrates.
False
( T or F ) Lymphatic capillaries are less permeable than systemic capillaries.
False
( T or F ) The right lymphatic drains 3/4 of the body.
False
(T or F) A lymph node contains fewer afferent lymphatic vessels than efferent.
False
(T or F) Bacteria only live inside other cells
Hematocrit
(packed cell volume, PCV) percentage of RBCs (including WBC & platelets) in centrifuged whole blood
RH marker
+ or -
A healthy adult male individual contains about ___ liters of blood.
- 5-6
____________ is an illustration of iron deficiency seen in individuals who have expanded their blood by increased activity.
- Athlete's anemia
Which of the following is considered a lymphocyte?
- B cell
Which leukocyte contains histamine in its granules?
- Basophils
Velocity of Blood Flow
- Changes as it travels through the systemic circulation
Venous Blood Pressure
- Changes little during cardiac cycle - Small pressure gradient - about 15 mm Hg - Low pressure due to cumulative effects of peripheral resistance
What are Blood Vessels
- Delivery system of dynamic structures - Begins and ends at the heart -Structures through which the blood is going to travel as a result of positive pressure from the heart -transport medium for important nutrients
Which of the following is a function of lymphocytes?
- Destruction of virus containing cells
Which of the following types of white blood cells kills parasitic worms; destroys antibody complexes; and inactivates some inflammatory chemicals of allergy?
- Eosinophil
true statement about fetal hemoglobin.
- Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin.
Which of the following has the most affinity for oxygen?
- Hemoglobin F.
Hypertension
- High blood pressure -Sustained elevated arterial pressure of 140/90 or higher -Often persistent in obese people -May be transient adaptations during fever, physical exertion, and emotional upset
Lumen
- Hollow - Center of a vessel where blood goes through
Capillary Beds
- Interwoven Networks of capillaries form the microcirculation between arterioles and venules -Consist of two types of vessels 1) Vascular Shunt 2) True Capillaries
Systemic Pressure
- Is highest in the aorta -Declines throughout the pathway -is 0 mm Hg in the right atrium
role of albumin?
- It acts as a carrier molecule. - It acts as a blood buffer. - It contributes to plasma osmotic pressure.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a mature erythrocyte?
- It has a biconcave disc shape.
whole blood
- It is slightly alkaline at room temperature. - It accounts for about 8% of the body weight. - It has a metallic taste.
characteristic of blood?
- Its temperature is slightly higher than the body's temperature. - Blood is thicker than water. - The color of blood varies from scarlet red to dark red.
Elastic (conducting) arteries
- Large thick-walled arteries with elastin in all three tunics - Ex: Aorta and its major branches - Large lumen offers low-resistance (greater diameter=lower resistance - Act as pressure reservoirs - expand and recoil as blood is ejected from the heart (provides some back flow)
factor in stimulating the production of erythropoietin by the kidneys?
- Living in a high altitude climate - Inflammation of lung tissue as in pneumonia - Excessive bleeding - Excessive destruction of RBCs
What do Neural controls of peripheral resistance do
- Maintain MAP by altering blood vessel diameter - Alter blood distribution in response to specific demands EX: if you are riding a bike the blood will be distributed to your quads rather than intestines
be found in circulating blood?
- Neutrophil - Electrolytes - Erythrocyte
Which of the following is a function of neutrophils?
- Phagocytize bacteria
platelets
- Platelets are essential for clotting process. - Platelets are fragments of a larger cell called megakaryocyte. - The formation of platelets is regulated by the hormone thrombopoietin. - Platelets contain serotonin, ADP, calcium and PDGF.
Which of the following is a function of fibrinogen?
- Polymerization
Which of the following is a protective function of blood?
- Preventing infection
Veins
- To the heart - Carry nutrient poor and deoxygenated blood toward the heart - Capacitance vessels = more ability to expand than arteries and store a lot more blood than arteries - Have valves
Which of the following is a function of erythrocytes?
- Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
correct sequence of hemostasis from start to end?
- Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation
Which property do white blood cells have in common?
- WBC are nucleated and have a protective function.
The buffy coat that appears after a sample of blood has been centrifuged contains
- WBCs.
What is present in vessels larger than 1 mm
- a subendothelial connective tissue basement membrane -Allows for anchoring
A major plasma protein that maintains the blood osmotic pressure is
- albumin.
The diagnostic feature of infectious mononucleosis is
- an increased number of atypical agranulocytes.
Granulocytes include
- basophils. - neutrophils. - PMN. - eosinophils.
-Angiotensin II
- causes vasoconstriction - made by kidney release of renin -part of the short-term hormonal response
Tight Junctions
- cell junctions prevent substances from getting between cells
Another term for reduced hemoglobin is
- deoxyhemoglobin.
The migration of white blood cells out of the capillary blood vessels is called:
- diapedesis.
Factor XIII is known as the
- fibrin stabilizing factor.
The final step in clot formation is
- fibrinogen → fibrin.
One molecule of hemoglobin can bind a maximum of _____ oxygen molecules.
- four
Which of the following plasma proteins are not produced by the liver?
- gamma globulin
The percentage of total volume used to determine the number of erythrocytes in a blood sample is referred to as the
- hematocrit.
Mature red blood cells in the circulating blood are filled with
- hemoglobin molecules.
Prefluorinated hydrocarbon chains can be used instead of
- hemoglobin.
contain iron?
- hemosiderin - transferrin - ferritin
prostatitis
- inflammatory disorder -due to bacterial infections (usually E Coli) -fever, chills, muscle and joint pain, frequency and urgency of urination, painful urination and back pain
Blood group O
- is a universal donor because they can give blood to all other groups.
Erythropoietin is made primarily by the
- kidneys.
Which of the following leukocytes is the largest?
- monocytes
The most numerous leukocyte is the
- neutrophil.
Which antibodies would be found in the serum of a person with AB blood?
- no antibodies to the AB antigens
When red blood cells transport respiratory gases
- oxygen binds to the heme portion while carbon dioxide binds to the globin portion.
A patient who lacks intrinsic factor would likely develop:
- pernicious anemia.
Which of the following substances is responsible for limiting a platelet plug to the immediate area of damage?
- prostacyclin
Erythropoiesis is best defined as:
- red blood cell production.
The terms biconcave and anucleated apply to
- red blood cells.
The process of actively metabolizing oxygen to produce bleach and hydrogen exhibited by polymorphs to kill bacteria is known as
- respiratory burst.
spermatogonium results in
- results in two daughter cells -type A, remains in basal lamina to maintain the pool of dividing germ cells -type B, pushed toward lumen, become PRIMARY SPERMATOCYTE
Intercelluar clefts
- small gaps between cells that allow the passage of fluids and small solutes
The RBC biconcave shape is maintained by a protein known as
- spectrin.
Aging red blood cells are fragmented and trapped in the:
- spleen.
Diapedesis refers to
- the escape of leukocytes from blood vessels into tissue spaces.
Pernicious anemia may result from
- the lack of vitamin B12 in diet or deficiency of intrinsic factor needed to absorb B12.
Renal dialysis patients usually suffer from anemia because
- their kidneys stop sending the chemical required to stimulate the red bone marrow to cause RBC to mature faster.
Preformed antibodies to the ABO blood group antigens first appear in a
- two-month-old baby.
All of the following would occur if hemoglobin was free in the plasma rather than being contained in the erythrocyte
- viscosity of blood would increase. - osmotic pressure of blood would increase. - hemoglobin would leak out of the blood stream.
prostate cancer
-1 in 6 men will develop -most die with it than from it
mammary lobes
-15-25 -radiate around and open the nipple -interlobular CT forms suspensory ligaments (provide natural support for the breast)
homologous chromosomes
-23 pairs of similar chromosomes in a diploid -one member of each pair is from the mother and father
What is the vasomotor center
-A cluster of sympathetic neurons in the medulla that oversee changes in the blood vessel diameter -Part of the cardiovascular center - along with the cardiac centers -a neural short term control of the blood pressure
Continuous Capillaries in skin and muscles
-Abundant in the skin and muscles -Tight junctions -Intercellular clefts
Norepiniphrine and Epinephrine
-Adrenal medulla hormones cause generalized vasoconstriction and -increase cardiac output -part of the short-term hormonal response
Arteries
-Away from the heart - Carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to the systemic circuit
Blood vessel diameter
-Blood vessel diameter -Frequent changes alter peripheral resistance - constricts and dilates -Varies inversely with the fourth power of vessels radius Ex if the radius is doubled, the resistances is 1/16 as much (to the 4th power decrease - exponential relationship between diameter and resistance)
3 Important sources of resistance
-Blood vessel diameter -Blood Viscosity - Relatively constant -Total blood vessel length - constant after we reach adult height
Muscular Pump
-Contraction of skeletal muscles "mile" blood toward the heart -Valves prevent backflow
Muscular (Distributing) Arteries and Arterioles
-Distal to elastic arteries - deliver blood to body organs -Have thick tunica media with more smooth muscle -Active in vasoconstriction
Fluid Movements: Bulk Flow
-Extremely important in determining relative fluid volumes in blood and interstitial space
Sinusoidal Capillaries
-Fewer tight junctions (promotes more exchange) -larger intercellular clefts -large lumens -Usually fenestrated -Allow large molecules and blood cells (particularly WBCs) to pass between the blood and surrounding tissue -Found in the liver, bone marrow, spleen
Blood Pressure (BP)
-Force per unit area exerted on the wall of a blood vessel by the blood -The pressure gradient provides the driving force that keeps blood moving from higher to lower pressure areas
Capillaries
-Functions: Exchange of Gasses, nutrients, wastes, hormones ect -Microscopic blood vessels -Thin walls of thin tunica intima, one cell thick -Pericytes help stabilize their walls and control permeability -Size allows only 1 RBC to pass at a time -simple squamous cells
What happens to the capillaries when you have high blood pressure
-High BP ruptures fragile, thin-walled capillaries
Hypotension
-Low blood pressure systolic pressure below 100 mm Hg -Often associated with long life and lack of cardiovascular illness
Tunica Externa
-Made of collagen fibers connective tissue -Protect and reinforce
Extrinsic Mechanisms
-Maintain Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) -Redistribute blood during exercise and thermoregulation -Nerves -Hormones
What does the vasomotor center do?
-Maintains vasomotor tone (moderate constriction of arterioles) -a neural short term control of the blood pressure
Fenestrated Capillaries Permeability
-Mid Permeability Fenestrated = Pores
Short term Mechanism - hormonal control
-Norepiniphrine (NE) and Epinephrine -Angiotensin II -Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP) -Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
Fenestrated Capillaries
-Some endothelial cells contain pores/fenestrations -More permeable than continuous capillaries -Function in absorption or filtrate formation (ie. - small intestines, endocrine glands, and kidneys)
Systemic Blood Pressure
-The Pumping action of the heart generates blood flow -Pressure results when flow is opposed by resistance -The steepest drop occurs in the arterioles
Total blood vessel length
-The longer the vessel, the greater the resistance encountered - constant after we reach adult height
What do veins consist of?
-Thin tunica media and thick tunica media -Consisting of collagen fibers and elastic networks *No mid Tunica media with smooth muscle
Continuous capillaries of the brain
-Tight Junctions are complete forming the blood brain barrier -Prevents the mixing of CSF with Plasma
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
-Vasopressin -Causes intense vasoconstriction in cases of extremely low BP
Difference between veins and arteries
-Veins have valves and larger lumens -Tunica media of arteries are thicker
Diastolic pressure in BP reading
-When sounds disappear -Because the artery is no longer constricted and blood is flowing freely -Normally 70-80 Hg
X vs Y chromosomes
-X chromosomes are are much larger -Y chromosomes are much larger Girls have (XX) Males have (XY)
mammography
-X-ray examination that detects breast cancer too small to feel
mons pubis
-a fatty, rounded area, overlying the pubic symphysis -after puberty grows hair
uterine or menstrual cycle
-a series of cyclic changes that the uterine endometrium goes through each moth as it responds changing ovarian hormones
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
-a severe inflammation, infection spreading into the peritoneal cavity from other parts of reproductive tract -sexually transmitted microorganisms, including gonorrhea -cause scaring of the uterine tubes and ovaries resulting in sterility -one of major causes of female infertility
seminiferous tubules
-actual 'sperm factories'
corpus luteum
-after ovulation ruptured follicle transformed into
papanicolaou (pap) smear
-aka a cervical smear test -cells are scraped away and examined - are to be discontinued w/ women who have had a hysterectomy, over 65, or not sexually active -gardasil- a vaccine protects against HPV induced cervical cancer
uterine tubes
-aka fallopian tubes or oviducts -receive ovulated oocyte and are the site where fertilization occurs
prepuce
-aka foreskin of penis around the glans
interstitial endocrine cells
-aka leydig cells -produce androgens (most important testosterone)
seminal glands
-aka seminal vesicles -posterior bladder surface accounts for 70% of semen volume
sustenocytes
-aka sertoli cells -bound by tight junctions seperate the seminiferous tubules into two compartments 1) basal compartment and (contains spermatoginia and early primary spermatocytes) 2) adluminal compartment (meiotically active cells and tubule lumen)
ductus deferens
-aka vas deferens -part of spermatic cord
sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
-aka venereal diseases (VDs) -infectious diseases spread through sexual contact
ectopic pregnancy
-an oocyte fertilized in the peritoneal cavity or distal portion of uterine tube and begins developing there. -naturally abort often with substantial bleeding
uterus
-anterior to the rectum and posterosuperior to the bladder -receives, retains, nourishes the a fertilized ovum -anteverted (in older women it turns retroverted) -body: major portion -fundus: the rounded region superior to entrence of uterine tubes -cervix: narrow neck, which projects into the vagina inferiorly
uterine arteries
-arise from internal iliacs then brake up to arcuate arteries in the myometrium from there they branch off into radial arteries in the endometrium, then straight arteries to stratum basalis then spiral (coiled) arteries in the stratum functionalis
spermatids
-baby cells of secondary spermatocytes -small round cells w/ large spherical nuclei
vagina
-birth canal -provides passage for birth and menstruation -female organ of copulation (receives penis and semen during intercourse) -3 layers: adventia, muscularis, mucosa -acidic (hostil to sperm)
mammary glands
-both sexes -normally function only in females -biological role is to produce milk to nourish baby -modified sweat glands that are part of the integumentary system
estrogen secondary sex characteristics
-breast development -increased deposition of subcutaneous fat especially in hips and breast -development of lighter and wider pelvis
prostate
-circles urethra, just inferior to bladder -durring ejaculation, squeezes to propel sperm into prostatic urethra -fluid activates sperm -1/3 semen volume -slightly acidic
female sexual response
-clitoris, vaginal mucosa, bulbus of vestibule and breast engorge with blood -orgasm: final phase -muscle tension increases, pulse rate and blood pressure rise, uterus contracts rhythmically -intense pleasure followed by relaxation -no refractory period -orgasm is nor required for conception -dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) associated w/ female libido
straight tubule
-conveys sperm into the rete testis
penis
-copulatory organ -delivers sperm into female reproductive tract
Syphilis
-corkscrew shaped bacterium treponema pallidum -usually transmitted sexually, can be transmitted from mother to baby. baby usually dies stillborn or shortly after birth. -2-3 weeks body wide infection red painless rash (chancrae) appears in site of bacterial infection - chancrae becomes crusty and heals within a few weeks -latent period only detected by a blood test -tertiary syphilis: gummas (destructive lesions) of CNS, blood vessels, bones and skin
tunica albuginea
-covers each ovary -cuboidal epithelial cells called germinal epithelium -a continuation of peritoneum
two muscles that help testes maintain their temperature
-dartros muscle (smooth muscle in superficial fascia, wrinkles the scrotal skin) -cremaster muscles (skeletal muscle, arise from internal oblique muscles, elevate testes )
primary spermatocyte
-destined to produce four sperm
female perineum
-dimand shaped regioon between pubic arch anteriorly, coccyx posteriorly and ischial tuberosities laterally -overlie the central tendon, into which most muscles supporting the pelvic floor insert
septum
-divides the scrotum, providing a compartment for each testis
testicular veins
-draining from testes arise from a network called pampiniform venous plexus
accessory reproductive organs
-ducts, glands and external genitalia
genital warts
-due to human papillomavirus (HPV) -second most common STI -linked to cervical cancer
zygote
-egg
spermatic cord
-encloses nerve fibers , blood vessels and lymphatics
glans penis
-enlarged tip of the penis
erection
-enlargement and stiffening of penis -not sexually aroused arterioles are constricted -sexual excitement triggers parasympathetic reflex, releases NO (nitric oxide, relaxing smooth dilating arterioles opening them up) -corpus cavernosa- main job to keep urethra open and keep penis from kinking during intercourse
ejaculatory duct
-enters the prostate where it empties into the urethra
climax/ orgasm
-entire ejaculatory event
sperm leaves the body through
-epididymis -ductus deferens -ejaculatory duct -urethra
estrogens
-equivalent to testosterone -generators of sexual activity -when they rise during puberty they 1. promote oogenesis and follicle growth in ovary 2. exert anabolic effects on female reproductive tract
lumpectomy
-excises only the cancerous lump
vulva
-external genitalia or pudendum -mons pubis, labia, clitoris, structures associated w/ vestibule
fourchette
-extreme posterior end of vestibule the labia minora come together to form this
male secondary sex characteristics
-features induced in nonreproductive organs by the male sex hormones (mainly testosterone) -develop at puberty -appearance of pubic, axillary and facial hair & deepening of voice from larynx thickening
ovaries
-female gonads -primary reproductive organs of a female 1) produce female gametes (ova) 2)produce female sex hormones (estrogens and progesterone)
turners syndrome
-females w/ a single X chromosome -never develop ovaries
What are 3 layers of the filtration membrane?
-fenestrated epithelium of glomerular capillaries -basement membrane -foot processes of podocytes
fimbriae
-finger like projections
cervical cancer
-frequent cervical inflammations, sexually transmitted infections (including genital warts) and multiple pregnancies
vesicular follicle
-fully mature aka antral or tertiary follicle -identified by central cavity called an antrum
meioses
-gamet formation of both sexes, nuclear division, most part occurs only in gonads
mucosa of vagina
-has transverse ridges that stimulate penis during intercourse -stratified squamous epithelium -dendritic cells: antigen presenting, may be a route for HIV from infected male to female
epididymis
-head contains efferent ductules and caps superior testis
genital herpes
-herpes simplex virus 2 -painful blister like lesions after being silent for ling periods of times -transmitted via secretions, or direct skin to skin contact -can cause malformations in a fetus
hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis
-hormonal relationship between the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland, and the gonads - to regulate production of hormone and gametes
benign prostatic hyperplasia
-hypertrophy of the prostate -affects nearly every elderly male -from hormone levels -disorts urethra, more forcefull urination, more postatic mass blocks opening enhancing risk of cystitis or kidney damage 1)microwaves or drugs to shrink prostate 2)small balloon to compress the prostatic tissue away from prostatic urethra 3)incinerating catheter containing a tiny needle to incinerate excess prostate tissue with burst of radiation
estradiol
-in certain neurons of the brain testosterone is converted o the female sex hormone to bring about stimulatory effects
dominant follicle
-in each cycle, one rescued follicle is selected -and continues meiosis I, producing 2 haploid cells (smaller cell is first polar body) (larger one is the secondary oocyte)
synapsis
-in prophase I an event not seen anywhere else -forms little groups of four chromatids called 'tetrads' -second unique event occurs 'crossovers' or chiasmata' for w/in each triad as free ends of one maternal and paternal chromosomes to exchange genetic material
ovarian follicles
-in the cortex of the ovary -each follicle consist of an immature egg: oocyte -encased by one layer of cells -> follicle cells -single layer is present -> granulosa cells
-oogonia
-in the fetal period the diploid stem cells of ovaries multiply rapidly by mitosis -gradually primordial follicles appear as the ooginia transforms into primary oocytes
dihydrotestosterone (DHT)
-in the prostate testosterone is converted before it can bind to the cell nucleus
intermediate part of urethra or membranous urethra
-in the urogenital diaphragm
erectile dysfunction
-inability to attain an erection -about 50% men over 40 have some degree -alcohol, physiological factors, certain drugs can cause temporary -chronic ED result of hormones, blood vessels, nervous system, -viagra
peritonitis
-inflammation of the peritoneum
Gonorrhea
-invades the mucosa of the reproductive and urinary tracts -the clap -urethritis
three regions of uterine tubes
-isthmus (suprolateral) -ampulla (curves around the ovary) -infundibudulum (an open funnel shape bearing ciliated, fingerlike projections called fimbriae)
chlamydia
-largely undiagnosed -most common STD -major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease -chlamydia trachomatitis: last about one week, urethritis, major cause or sterility in women
labia majora
-larger lips -homologue of male scrotum -they derive from same embryonic tissue
Continuous Capillaries permeability
-least permeable
bulbs of the vestibule
-lie along the vaginal orifice -during sexual stimulation engorge with blood -may help grip the penis and close the urethral orifice shut to prevent semen from traveling superiorly into the bladder
bulbo-urethro glands
-located inferior to prostate -produce thick clear mucus that drain into the spongy urethra and lubricate the glans penis when sexually excited -neutralizes traces of acidic urine and lubricates the urethra just prior to ejaculation
corpora cavernosa
-makes up most of the penis -bound by tunica albuginea
testosterone
-male driving force of libido (androgens DHEA more important than testosterone for female libido) -embryos it mesculinizes the brain -continues to shape the adult males brain
klinefelters syndrome
-males w/ single Y chromosome -sterel
gene
-master switch that initiates genetic sex of the off spring
meioses in other words
-meioses reduces diploid chromosomal number by half (2n to n) in gametes -meioses introduces genetic variation b/c each haploid daughter cells has only some of the genes of each parent
oogenesis
-meiosis, nuclear division in the ovaries that produces female sex cells (beginning of an egg)
supports of the uterus
-mesometrium -cardinal ligament -uterosaceral ligament -round ligament
corpus spongiosum
-midventral erectile body, surrounds urethra
lactiferous sinus
-milk accumulates during nursing
vasectomy
-minor operation -small incision is made into scrotum and then cuts through and ties off each ductus deferens
uterine wall
-perimetrium: outermost serious wall -myometrium: middle layer, smooth muscle. contracts during childvirth -endometrium: mucosal lining of uterine cavity: simple columnar epithelium, if fertilization occurs embryo burrows on the endometrium and resides there for rest of development, has many uterine glands that change in length as endometrial thickness changes during menstrual cycle
resolution
-period of muscular and physiological relaxation -follows orgasm
prostatic urethra
-portion surrounded by prostate
mitosis
-process by which most body cells divide
alveoli
-produce milk when a woman is lactating
ejaculation
-propulsion of semen from male duct system -under sympathetic control
inhibin
-protein hormone -released when sperm count is high -produced by sustenocytes -inhibits anterior pituitary release of FSH and hypothalamic release of GnRH
clitoris
-protruding structure composed of erectile tissue -glans of clitoris: exposed portion -prepuce of the clitoris: formed by junction of labia minora -body of clitoris: conveys a urethra
latent or refractory period
-ranging from minutes to hours -man is unable to achieve another orgasm -lengthens with age
greater vestibule glands
-release mucus into the vestibule to help keep it moist lubricated facilitating intercourse
orchiectomy
-removal of cancerous testes
radical mastectomy
-removal of the entire affected breast, plus underlying muscles, fascia and associated lymph nodes
simple mastectomy
-removes only the breast tissue -maybe some of axillary lymph nodes
circumcision
-removing the prepuce or foreskin shortly after birth
spiral (coiled) arteries
-repeatedly degenerate and regenerate, and it is their spasms that actually cause the functionalis layer to shed during menstruation
testicular fluid
-rich in androgens and metabolic acids -provides a transport medium for sperm in lumen -secreted by sustenocytes
areola
-ring of pigmented skin surounds a nipple -sebaceous glands make it bumpy
bulb of the penis
-root of penis
spongy urethra
-runs through the penis -opens to outside at external urethral orifice 75% of urethral length -urethral glands secrete lubricating mucus into lumen just before ejaculation
scrotum
-sac of skin and superficial fascia that hangs outside abdominopelvic cavity at root of penis
cervical glands
-secretes a mucus that fills the cervical canal -to block the spread to bacteria from vagina to uterus
accessory sex glands that, empty their secretions into ducts during ejaculation
-seminal glands -prostate -bulbo-urethral glands
SRY
-sex determining region of the Y chromosome
meiosis I
-sometimes called reduction division of meiosis (b/c reduces chromosome # 2n to n)
Testes or male gonads
-sperm producing -in the scrotum
spermiogenesis
-spermatid must undergo this process -it elongates, sheds its excess cytoplasmic baggage and forms a tail -resulting in a sperm
two layers of endometrium
-stratum functionalis or functional layer : undergoes cycle changes in response to blood levels of ovarian hormones and is shed during menstruation (every 28 days) - stratum basalis or basal layer (deeper layer), the new functionalis after menstruation
male perineum
-suspends scrotum, contains root of penis and the anus
urethra
-terminal portion of male duct system -transports urine and semen -three regions, prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, spongy urethra
Primary sex organs (gonads)
-testes in males -ovaries in females
autosomes
-the 44 chromosomes that are not sex chromosomes
sex chromosomes
-the determining factor of sex is the sex chromosomes that each gamete contains
amount of testosterone and sperm produced by the adult testes reflects
-three hormones that make up the HPG axis 1) GnRH, indirectly stimulates the testes via its effect of FSH and LH release 2) gonadotropins (FSH and LH) directly stimulate the testes 3) gonadal hormones (testosterone and inhibin), exert its negative feedback controls on the hypothalamus and anterior pituitary
blood testes barrier
-tight junctions between sustenocytes -prevents membrane antigens of differentiating sperm from escaping through the basal lamina into bloodstream where they would activate immune system
each testes is surrounded by two tunics
-tunica vaginalis (outer, two layered) -tunica albuginuea (deep layer, fibrous capsule )
when meiosis I ends each daughter cell has
-two copies of one member of each homologous pair (either the maternal or paternal) none of the other -a haploid chromosomal number (b/c still- united sister chromatids are considered a single chromosome) but twice the amount of DNA in each chromosome
labia minora
-two thin hair free skin folds - homologues of ventral penis
secondary spermatocytes
-undergoes meiosis I, forming two smaller haploid cells (secondary spermatocytes) -continue on in meiosis II
vaginal fornix
-upper end of vaginal canal loosely surounds the cervix of uterus, producing a vaginal recess
prolapse of the uterus
-uterus sinks inferiorly until tip of cervix protrudes thorough external vaginal opening -pelvic floor muscles anchoring the uterus stretch and tear -can happen in child birth
hymen
-vaginal orifice forms an incomplete partition called hymen -may bleed when stretches or ruptures
mammary lobules
-w/in lobules are smaller units contain granular alveoli
nondisjunction
-when meiosis distributes the sex chromosomes to the gametes improperly
pampiniform venous plexus
-wraps around part of the testicular artery, cools blood entering testes to keep it at homeostatic balance
trichomoniasis
-yellow green vaginal discharge w/ strong odor -most common curable STI
menarche
-young woman's first menstrual period
What are the 3 basic steps of vitamin D absorption?
1 the skin, 2 the liver, 3 the kidneys
Leukocytes make up
1% of total blood volume, buffy coat, & increase # bc of infection
3 structural types of capillaries
1) Continuous Capillaries 2) Fenestrated Capillaries 3) Sinusoidal Capillaries (Sinusoids)
2 ways kidneys act to regulate arterial blood pressure
1) Direct renal mechanism 2) Indirect renal (renin-agiotensin) mechanism
Arterial Blood Pressure reflects two factors of arteries close to the heart
1) Elasticity 2) Volume of blood forced into them at any time Blood pressure near the heart is pulsatile (due to the expansion and recoil capacities)
hormonal interactions during ovarian cycle
1) GnRH stimulates FSH and LH secretion 2) FHS and LH stimulate follicules to grow, mature and secrete sex hormones 3) negative feedback inhibits gonadotropin release (inhibin) 4) positive feedback stimulates gonadotropin release 5) LH surge triggers ovulation and formation of corpus luteum 6) negative feedback inhibits LH and FSH
2 Vein adaptations that ensure return of blood to the heart
1) Large-diameter lumens - offer little resistance 2) Valves prevent backflow of blood - most abundant in limbs
3 Factors Aiding Venous Return
1) Respiratory Pump 2) Muscular Pump 3) Vasoconstriction
development of an ovarian follicles
1) a primodial follicle become a primary follicle 2) a primary follicle becomes a secondary follicle 3) secondary follicle becomes a vesicular (antral) follicle
massive discharge of nerve impulses via sympathetic control resulting in
1) bladder muscle sphincter constricts, preventing semen or urine to enter back into bladder 2) reproductive ducts and accessory glands contract, emptying their contents into the urethra 3) semen in urethra triggers a spinal reflex somatic motor neurons. bulbospogiosius muscles of penis rapid contractions, propelling semen from urethra at speed up to 11 mph. rhythmic contractions are accompanied by intense pleasure, systemic changes like muscle contraction, rapid heart beat, elevated blood pressure.
estrogens include
1) estradiol 2) estrone 3) estriol
gonads produce
1) gametes (sex cells) 2) sex hormones (variety of steroid hormones)
hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis steps (7)
1) hypothalamus releases gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), targeting anterior pituitary cells releasing follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) 2) GnRH binds to pituitary gonadotropic cells, prompting secretion of FSH and LH 3) FSH stimulates spermatogenesis indirectly by stimulating the sustenocytes to release androgen binding protein (ABP) keeping testosterone high. thus FSH enhances testosterone 4) LH binds to interstitial endocrine cells prodding the secretion of testosterone (and small amounts of estrogens) rise in testosterone this is final trigger for spermatogenesis 5) testosterone entering blood, stimulates maturation of sex organs, development and maintenance of secondary sex characteristics, and libido. 6) rising levels of testosterone inhibit hypothalamic release of GnRH and act directly on anterior pituitary to inhibit gonadotropin release. 7) when sperm count is high, inhibin is released
meiosis 2 important tasks
1) it reduces the chromosomal number by half and 2) it introduces genetic variability
broad ligament 3 parts
1) mesosalpinx 2) mesovarium 3) mesometrium
females ligaments
1) ovarian ligament (anchors ovary to uterus) 2) suspensory ligament (anchors to pelvic wall) (blood vessels travel through to reach ovaries) 3) mesovarium (suspends it between) 4) broad ligament (tents over uterus and supports, uterine tubes, uterus and vagina ) 5) Round ligament 6) uterosaceral ligament
ovarian cycle
1) primordal cycle 2) primary follicles 3) secondary follicle 4) grafian follicle 5) ovulation 6) corpus luteum 7) corpus albicans
sustenocytes do...
1) provide nutrients and essential signals for to dividing cells 2) move cells along the lumen 3) secrete testicular fluid 4) phagocytize faulty spermatogenic cells and excess cytoplasm sloughed off as spermatids turn to sperm 5) produce chemical mediators (inhibin, and androgen binding protein) that help regulate spermatogenesis 6)
maturation of primordial follicle 2 stages
1)gonadotropini independent preantral phase (intrafollicular paracrines such as cytokins and growth factors control the oocyte) 2) antral phase (directed by FSH and LH)
semen contains several substances that play many roles
1)prostsglsndins, cause the viscosity of mucus guarding cervix to decrease and to stimulate reverse peristalsis in uterus, facilitating sperm movement 2) hormone relaxin and other enzymes enhance sperm motility 3) ATP provides energy 4) certain ingredients suppress the immune response in females reproductive tract 5) antibiotic chemicals destroy some bacteria 6) clotting factors coagulate it just after ejection. causing the sperm to stick to the walls of the vagina and prevents initially immobile sperm from draining out vagina. -fibrinolysin liquifies the sticky mass and sperm swim out to begin their journey -alkaline (7.2-8.0)
Phase 1 - Cardiac cycle
1. Atria is contracting (systole), pushing blood to ventricles. 2. Ventricles in diastole, filling up with blood. 3. AV valves open, SL valves closed. 4. P wave, followed by atrial contraction. 5. End diastolic volume: maximum volume in ventricles just before they contract.
Phase 2 - Cardiac cycle
1. Atria relaxes (diastole). 2. Isovolumetric phase: AV and SL valves are closed. 3. Ventricles begin to contract and build pressure inside the chamber, until SL valves open. 4. Ejection phase: blood pushed out through arteries. 5. QRS complex: peak of R wave is depolarization of ventricles. 6. Pressure begins to drop as blood leaves ventricles, until SL valves close. 7. T wave: ventricular repolarization begins.
What is the sequential draining of blood from the renal cortex?
1. Cortical radiate veins 2. Arcuate veins 3. Interlobar veins 4. Renal veins
Three major graphs representing the cardiac cycle.
1. ECG: electrical events 2. Pressure profile: pressures associated with volume changes in left atrium, ventricle and aorta. 3. Left ventricular volume: changes in volume (ml of blood) during cycle.
Three main types of arrhythmias
1. Ectopic focus 2. Heart block 3. Fibrillation
Three layers of the Heart Wall
1. Epicardium: most superficial layer; visceral layer of serous pericardium. 2. Myocardium: middle layer; mostly composed of cardiac muscle and forms the bulk of the wall; branched cardiac myocytes joined by desmosomes and muscle cell bundles (fascicles) are arranged in spiral and circular patterns; fibrous cardiac skeleton. 3. Endocardium: inner lining of heart and covers valves; made of simple-squamous endothelium.
Two types of cardiac myocytes
1. Fast myocytes: contractile cardiac muscle cells. 2. Slow myocytes: pacemaker cells.
Factors affecting Preload (stroke volume)
1. Frank-Starling law of the heart: high preload = high stroke volume, because the stretch will be met with bigger contractile force. 2. Venous return: ↑ VR = ↑ SV. 3. EDV: high filling time from low HR = ↑ EDV = ↑ preload
Factors affecting Contractility (stroke volume)
1. Increase contractility: sympathetic input, high extracellular calcium, hormones, drugs. = low ESV = high SV 2. Impair or decrease contractility: acidosis, calcium channel blockers, high extracellular K+. = ↑ ESV = low SV
Phase 3 - Cardiac cycle
1. Isovolumetric relaxation: ventricles in diastole. 2. AV and SL valves closed. 3. End systolic volume: volume left in ventricle after SL valves closed. 4. Phase 3 ends when pressure in ventricles becomes lower than in atria, and AV valves open. 5. Plateau after T wave: ventricular relaxation.
Action Potential of Fast Myocytes - 4 phases
1. Opening of fast voltage gated Na+ (fVGNa+) channels. 2. Depolarizes membrane up to +30mV: opens Ca2+ slow VG channels. 3. ECF Ca2+ rushes in, creating a plateau phase of contraction. 4. Na+ and Ca2+ channels begin to close, K+ channels open: repolarization phase.
Action potential of Slow Myocytes - 3 phases
1. Pacemaker potential: slow depolarization due to open "funny" channels (Na+) and closed K+ channels. 2. Depolarization: reaching threshold of -40mV opens Ca2+ channels, Ca2+ rush in. 3. Repolarization: Ca2+ channels close, potential drops and opens K+ channels - K+ rushes out.
Three phases of the cardiac cycle
1. Phase 1: ventricular filling 2. Phase 2: ventricular contraction 3. Phase 3: isovolumetric relaxation.
Three factors affecting Stroke Volume
1. Preload: degree of stretch on heart muscle (EDV) 2. Contractility: force of systole. 3. After load: back pressure exerted by arterial blood (ESV).
Four chambers of the heart
1. Right atrium 2. Left atrium 3. Right ventricle 4. Left ventricle
Three congenital heart defects
1. Septal defects: wall separating ventricles doesn't completely closes. 2. Patent ductus arteriosus: fetal blood vessel connecting pulmonary trunk to aorta remains open. 3. Coarctation of the aorta: narrow aorta.
Sequence of excitation of the pacemaker cells
1. Sinoatrial Node (SA) 2. Atriventricular node (AV) 3. Bundle of His 4. Purkinje fibers (subendocardial conducting network.
Differences between Cardiac Muscle and Skeletal Muscle. (5)
1. Some cardiac muscle cells are self-excitable (pacemakers). 2. The heart muscle contracts as a unit. 3. The influx of Ca from the extracellular fluid is what triggers the release of Ca from the SR, not the depolarization. Ca channels on the plasma membrane provide 10-20% of all Ca needed for contraction, from ECF. 4. Tetanic contractions cannot occur in cardiac muscle due to a longer refractory period that lasts almost as long as the contraction. 5. The heart relies exclusively on AEROBIC respiration.
Structural changes in the heart with AGE
1. Valves become stiff, specially Mitral (left ventricle): heart murmurs are more common in older adults. 2. Cardiac reserve declines: max HR declines and sympathetic input becomes less efficient. 3. Cardiac muscle scars: dead and dying cardiac myocytes replaced with fibrous tissue that is non-contractile. 4. Higher incidence of atherosclerosis.
changes in ovarian steroid hormone levels drive the events of the uterine cycle
1. days 1-5: menstrul phase (uterus sheds all but deepest part of endometrium) 2. days 6-14: proliferative (preovulatory) phase (endometrium rebuilds its self) 3. days 15-28: secretory (postovulatory) phase (endometrium prepares for embryo implant)
Steps of Clotting (hemostasis)
1. vascular spasm, 2. platelet plug formation, 3. coagulation (blood clotting)
true capillaries
10-100 exchange vessels per capillary; branch off the metarteriole or terminal arteriole
MAP in veins
15-0 mmHg; pressure changes little during the cardiac cycle; small pressure gradient
The primary dentition consists of _____ teeth.
20
The total number of deciduous (or milk) teeth is ________.
20
At rest about how much oxygen is used by the kidneys?
20-25%
Antibodies only develop after
2nd exposure
Albumins (60%) Globulins (35%) Fibrinogen (4%)
3 Plasma Proteins
Arrange the following structures to represent the sequence in which urine passes through them to the external environment: (1) ureter, (2) renal pelvis, (3) calyx, (4) urinary bladder, and (5) urethra.
3, 2, 1, 4, 5 The calyx is first and the urethra is last.
The permanent dentition consists of __________ teeth in a full set.
32
The walls of the alimentary canal share a common pattern from esophagus to anus. How many layers make up the wall?
4
ph range in blood
7.35-7.45
Normal adult stroke volume
70ml / beat
Normal adult heart rate
75 beats per minute (average)
milliequivalents per liter
79. mEq/L=( concentration of ion in [mg/L] the atomic weight of ion) number of electrical charges on one ion
MAP in arterioles
80-35 mmHg
1. right jugular trunk drains 2. right subclavian trunk drains 3. right bronchomediastinal trunk drains 4. right lumbar trunk drains 5. left jugular trunk drains 6. left subclavian trunk drains 7. left bronchomediastinal trunk drains 8. left lumbar trunk drains 9. intestinal trunk drains
9 lymphatic trunks
Primary/essential hypertension
90% of hypertensive conditions Due to several risk factors: -heredity -diet -obesity -age -stress -diabetes mellitus -smoking
Capillary Hydrostatic Pressure
= HPc = Capillary blood pressure - tends to force fluids through capillary walls -Is greater at the arterial end of a bed (35mm Hg) than at the at the venule end (17mm Hg)
Interstitial fluid Hydrostatic pressure
= HPif -Usually assumed to be 0 because of lymphatic vessels
Capillary Colloid Osmotic Pressure
= OPc -Created by nondiffusible plasma proteins, which draw water toward themselves ~ 26 mm Hg
Interstitail Fluid Osmotic Pressure
= OPif - Low (~1 mm Hg) due to low protein content
Which of the following best defines negative nitrogen balance? A) Protein breakdown exceeds protein synthesis. B) It is a condition usually caused by having a diet low in fish and meat. C) A negative nitrogen balance is normal and is a way of maintaining homeostasis. D) It occurs when amino acids are broken down by liver enzymes and carried to the bloodstream
A) Protein breakdown exceeds protein synthesis.
Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement? A) The amino acid pool is the body's total supply of amino acids in the body's proteins. B) Fats and carbohydrates are oxidized directly to produce cellular energy. C) Amino acids can be used to supply energy only after being converted to a carbohydrate intermediate. D) Excess carbohydrate and fat can be stored as such, whereas excess amino acids are oxidized for energy or converted to fat or glycogen for storage
A) The amino acid pool is the body's total supply of amino acids in the body's proteins.
Oxidation-reduction reactions are catalyzed by which of the following enzymes? A) dehydrogenases and oxidases B) kinases and phosphorylases C) phosphatases and kinases D) synthetases and lipases
A) dehydrogenases and oxidases
The term metabolic rate reflects the ________. A) energy the body needs to perform only its most essential activities B) loss of organic molecules in urine C) energy needed to make all organic molecules D) loss of energy to perspiration
A) energy the body needs to perform only its most essential activities
Which of the following nutrients yield the highest amount of energy per gram when metabolized? A) fats B) vitamins and minerals C) foods and beverages high in caffeine D) proteins
A) fats
Which of the following molecules are considered key molecules at metabolic crossroads? A) glucose-6-phosphate, pyruvic acid, acetyl CoA B) glucose-6-phosphate, lactic acid, acetyl CoA C) acetone, beta-hydroxybutyric acid, ATP D) ATP, pyruvic acid, lactic acid
A) glucose-6-phosphate, pyruvic acid, acetyl CoA
In gluconeogenesis, during the postabsorptive state, amino acids and ________ are converted to glucose. A) glycerol B) glycogen C) glyceraldehyde D) glucagon
A) glycerol
Storage of glucose in the form of glycogen. A) glycogenesis B) glycogenolysis C) glycolysis D) gluconeogenesis
A) glycogenesis
Glucose can be obtained from ________. A) glycogenolysis B) triglyceride anabolism C) protein anabolism D) lipogenesis
A) glycogenolysis
Which of the choices below describes the pathway of cellular respiration (the complete oxidation of glucose)? A) glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation B) gluconeogenesis, Krebs cycle, lipolysis C) lipolysis, glycogenolysis, beta oxidation D) glycogenesis, lipogenesis, electron transport chain
A) glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation
Cholesterol, though it is not an energy molecule, has importance in the body because it ________. A) is a stabilizing component of the plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones B) helps provide essential nutrients to the brain and lungs C) helps mobilize fats during periods of starvation D) enters the glycolytic pathway without being altered
A) is a stabilizing component of the plasma membranes and is the parent molecule of steroid hormones
Splitting of triglycerides into glycerol and fatty acids. A) lipolysis B) beta oxidation C) lipogenesis D) ketogenesis
A) lipolysis
Oxidative deamination takes place in the ________. A) liver B) muscles C) kidneys D) blood
A) liver
The primary reason elderly people should decrease their caloric intake is that ________. A) muscle mass and metabolism decline with age B) their appetite begins to diminish C) they have a higher metabolic rate and do not need large amounts of food D) they spend most of the day at rest, and their food will quickly turn to fat
A) muscle mass and metabolism decline with age
Which of the following mechanisms produces the most ATP during cellular respiration? A) oxidative phosphorylation B) substrate-level phosphorylation C) oxidation-reduction reactions D) oxidation reactions
A) oxidative phosphorylation
What process primes a molecule to change in a way that increases its activity, produces motion, or does work? A) phosphorylation B) beta oxidation C) cellular respiration D) glycolysis
A) phosphorylation
In the case of a person who consumes a normal, balanced diet, proteins are essential to the body for all of the following except ________. A) production of energy B) production of some hormones C) production of enzymes, clotting factors, and antibodies D) formation of functional molecules like hemoglobin and cytochromes
A) production of energy
Loss of heat in the form of infrared waves is termed ________. A) radiation B) convection C) conduction D) evaporation
A) radiation
Which of the following is a normal consequence of the activation of the heat-promoting center? A) release of epinephrine B) sympathetic sweat gland activation C) increase in ADH production D) vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels
A) release of epinephrine
Which of the following is not a function of LDLs? A) transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver B) regulate cholesterol synthesis in tissue cells C) make cholesterol available to tissue cells for membrane or hormone synthesis D) influence cholesterol synthesis in tissue cells
A) transport cholesterol from the peripheral tissues to the liver
When proteins undergo deamination, the waste substance found in the urine is mostly________. A) urea B) ammonia C) acetyl CoA D) ketone bodie
A) urea
Blood groups
A, B, AB, O, & RH factors
When the mitral valve closes, it prevents the backflow of blood from the A. left ventricle into the left atrium. B. right atrium into the right ventricle. C. left atrium into the left ventricle. D. left ventricle into the aorta. E. right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk.
A. left ventricle into the left atrium.
Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes... A. lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output B. A rise in blood pressure due to change in cardiac output C. no change in blood pressure, but a slower heart rate D. no change in blood pressure, but a change in respiration
A. lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output
The time of day most hazardous for heart attack is... A. morning B. noontime C. evening D. during sleep
A. morning
The inner lining of the fibrous pericardium is formed by the A. parietal layer of serous pericardium. B. endocardium. C. epicardium. D. myocardium. E. diaphragm. F. pericardial cavity.
A. parietal layer of serous pericardium.
Isovolumetric contraction... A. refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers. B. occurs while the AV valves are open C. occurs immediately after the aortic and pulmonary valves close D. occurs only in people with heart valve defects.
A. refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers.
During pulmonary circulation blood leaves the A. right ventricle and moves to the lungs. B. right atrium and goes directly to the left ventricle. C. left ventricle and moves to the lungs. D. right ventricle and goes directly to the aorta. E. right atrium and goes directly to the lungs
A. right ventricle and moves to the lungs.
To auscultate the aortic semilunar valve, you would place your stethescope in the ... A. second intercostal space to the right of the sternum B. second intercostal space to the left of the sternum C. 5th intercostal space, inferior to the left nipple D. 5th right intercostal space.
A. second intercostal space to the right of the sternum
Which of the following structures is continuous with the inner lining of blood vessels? A. the endocardium B. the epicardium C. the pericardial sac D. the pectinate muscles
A. the endocardium
The absolute refractory period refers to the time during which A. the muscle cell is NOT in a position to respond to a stimulus of any strength. B. the muscle cell is ready to respond to a threshold stimulus. C. a cardiac muscle cannot respond to any stimulus and lasts only 1 to 2 milliseconds. D. the muscle cell is ready to respond to any stimulus. E. a skeletal muscle cannot respond to any stimulus and lasts about 250 ms
A. the muscle cell is NOT in a position to respond to a stimulus of any strength.
Which of the following is not an age-related change affecting the heart? A. thinning of the valve flaps B. decline in cardiac reserve C. fibrosis of cardiac muscle D. atherosclerosis
A. thinning of the valve flaps
If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx was more rapid... A. threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase B. potassium channels compensate and no change in heart rate would occur C. heart rate would decrease, but blood pressure would rise due to the excess sodium present D. tetanic contraction would occur due to the short absolute refractory period of cardiac muscle
A. threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase
Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are open? A. ventricles are in diastole B. blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta C. AV valves are closed D. ventricles are in systole.
A. ventricles are in diastole
The trabeculae carneae are located in the A. ventricles. B. endocardium. C. epicardium. D. atrium.
A. ventricles.
The end diastolic volume is the A. volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of ventricular relaxation. B. volume of blood in the atria at the end of atrial relaxation. C. volume of blood in the atria at the end of atrial contraction. D. volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of ventricular contraction.
A. volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of ventricular relaxation.
Enteric neurons that are excitatory to smooth muscle release which of the following neurotransmitters?
ACh and substance P
What is one example of a vasoconstrictor chemical that is released by the macula densa cells in an effort to constrict the afferent arteriole?
ATP
Depolarization rate in the absence of SA Node input - AV Node depolarization rate
About 50 depolarizations per minute.
Albumin
Accounts for 60% of plasma protein, acts as a carrier for certain molecules through circulation, is an important blood buffer, and is the major blood protein that contributes to plasma osmotic pressure.
What do the 2 varieties of intercalated cells play a role in?
Acid-base balance of the blood
When CCK acts on the pancreas, which cells does it stimulate (to produce an enzyme-rich solution from the pancreas)?
Acinar cells
vaccination
Active artificially acquired immunity is a result of __________.
How do Larger molecules (ex protiens) diffuse through capillaries?
Actively transported in pinocytotic vesicles or caveolae
clustering and binding of pathogens together (sticking)
Agglutination
Peyer's patches
Aggregates of lymphoid nodules located in the wall of the ileum of the small intestine are __________.
Saliva does not:
Aid in the chemical digestion of proteins
Tubular reabsorption reclaims what?
All glucose and amino acids and 99% of water, salt, and other components
subclavian veins
All lymph is eventually returned to circulation via the __________.
sickle-cell anemia
All of the following are examples of autoimmune disorders, EXCEPT __________.
they only occur naturally
All of the following are functions of interferons, EXCEPT that __________.
zinc
All of the following are functions of interferons, EXCEPT that __________.
Cardiac Cycle
All the events - electrical and mechanical that result in blood flow through the heart from one heart beat to the next.
immediate hypersensitivity
Allergy
What is slow capillary flow good for
Allows adequate time for exchange between blood and tissues
What is the function of the Pericardium?
Allows fairly friction-free movement of the heart.
Fibrinogen
Also called fibrin, it is long, hair-like strands that glue platelets together to form a web that make the structural basis of a clot.
Micturition is __________.
Also called urination or voiding, micturition entails emptying the urinary bladder to eliminate metabolic nitrogenous wastes from the body.
Chronotropic factors
Alter intrinsic depolarization rate of the SA node.
Direct Renal Mechanism
Alters blood volume independently of hormones
Dietary Requirements of Erythropoiesis
Amino acids, lipids, carbohydrates, and iron.
Digestion of starch begins in the mouth because of what salivary enzyme?
Amylase
Classic Pathway
An Antibody is part of what pathway?
leukocytosis
An increase in the number of white blood cells that are in circulation
What is renal autoregulation?
An intrinsic control of regulation of glomerular filtration
Metabolic controls
An intrinsic mechanism of BP within vessels - pH - O2 - Co2 - K+ -Prostoglandins -Adenosine -Nitirc oxide -Endothelins
Myogenic Contol
An intrinsic mechanism of BP within vessels -Strech
Erythrocyte Disorders
Anemia and Polycythemia
Long-Term Autoregulation
Angiogenesis
left coronary arteries
Anterior intraventricular artery & circumflex artery
4 polypeptides (2 light and 2 heavy) 1 constant area and 1 variable area
Antibodies are always Y-shaped
Plasma cells
Antibodies are produced by _______.
IgE
Antibody that mediates some allergies
A "nonself" substance that can provoke an immune response is called a(n)
Antigen
IgD
Antigen receptor found on B cells
T helper cells
Antigens bound to MHC II activate:
What is the path of renal blood flow?
Aorta, renal artery, segmental artery, interlobar artery, arcuate artery, cortical radiate artery, afferent arteriole, glomerulus (capillaries), efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries or vasa recta, cordical radiate vein, arcuate vein, interlobar vein, segmental vein, renal vein, inferior vena cava
white pulp
Areas of lymphocytes suspended by reticular fibers in the spleen are known as __________.
Homeostatic response to an increase in blood pressure
Arterial BP increases ->Baroreceptors in carotid sinuses at aortic arch stimulated -> barorecptor impulses stimulate cardioinhibitory center and inhibit cardioacceleratory center -> decrease in sympathetic impulses to heart, decrease in HR, contractility and CO -> decrease in vasomotor impulses allows vasodilation causing decrease in R (resistance) = decrease in CO and R return blood pressure to homeostatic range
Homeostatic response to a decrease in blood pressure
Arterial blood pressure falls below normal range -> Baroreceptors in carotid sinuses and aortic arch are inhibited -> impulses from baroreceptors stimulate cardioacceleratory center (and inhibit cardioinhibitory center) and stimulate vasomotor center -> increase sympathetic impulses to heart cause increase in: HR, Contractility and CO -> vasomotor fibers stimulate vasoconstriction causing increase in R (resistance) -> increase in CO and R return blood pressure to homeostatic range
3 kinds of blood vessels
Arteries Capillaries Veins
Which of the following is correct? A) Most of the ATP are produced by substrate-level phosphorylation. B) Oxidation of FADH2 eventually yields four ATP via oxidative phosphorylation. C) Glycolysis relies on substrate-level oxidation for the four ATP produced in this pathway. D) Most ATP from cellular respiration are produced directly in the Krebs cycle
B) Oxidation of FADH2 eventually yields four ATP via oxidative phosphorylation.
Glycogen is formed in the liver during the ________. A) postabsorptive state B) absorptive state C) starvation period D) period when the metabolic rate is lowest
B) absorptive state
Conversion of fatty acids into acetyl groups. A) lipolysis B) beta oxidation C) lipogenesis D) ketogenesis
B) beta oxidation
As the body progresses from the absorptive to the postabsorptive state, only the ________ continues to burn glucose while every other organ in the body mostly switches to fatty acids. A) liver B) brain C) pancreas D) spleen
B) brain
Positive inotropic agents A. cause hemolysis of blood clots. B. increase the contractility of the heart. C. decrease the contractility of the heart. D. prevent blood clotting.
B. increase the contractility of the heart.
Where are the more elastic arteries located
Arteries closer to the heart
Where are the more muscular arteries located
Arteries closer to the target organs
What substances are absorbed from the stomach?
Aspirin and alcohol
Prothrombin Time
Assess the amount of time it takes blood to clot.
This type of disease results from the inability of the immune system to distinguish self-from nonself-antigens
Autoimmune disease
rheumatoid arthritis
Autoimmune disorder
Intrinsic Mechanisms
Autoregulation -Distribute blood flow to individual organs and tissues as needed -Metabolic Controls -Myogenic Controls
Helper T Cells
B cells are primarily activated by the activities of
plasma cell
B cells are recognize antigens, react with constimulation from T4 helpers to become _____ that secrete antibodies
Which vitamins are made by the bacteria in the large intestine?
B complex and K vitamins
Which of the following is NOT an innate defense mechanism of the body?
B lymphocytes
A) Glycolysis, OR B) Krebs cycle and electron transport chain? Involves the removal of hydrogen electrons and CO2 from the substrate molecule.
B) Krebs cycle and electron transport chain
A) Glycolysis, OR B) Krebs cycle and electron transport chain? Involves the use of oxygen to pick up excess hydrogen and electrons.
B) Krebs cycle and electron transport chain
A) Glycolysis, OR B) Krebs cycle and electron transport chain? Produces the most ATP.
B) Krebs cycle and electron transport chain
Glycolysis is best defined as a catabolic reaction based upon the ________. A) conversion of glucose into carbon dioxide and water B) conversion of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid C) conversion of pyruvic acid into carbon dioxide and water D) formation of sugar
B) conversion of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid
When ketone bodies are present in the blood and urine in large amounts, it usually indicates increased metabolism of ________. A) amino acids B) fatty acids C) glycogen D) lactic acid
B) fatty acids
The molecule that serves as the major source of readily available fuel for neurons and blood cells is ________. A) fat B) glucose C) acetyl CoA D) cellulose
B) glucose
Gluconeogenesis is the process in which ________. A) glycogen is broken down to release glucose B) glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate precursors C) glycogen is formed D) glucose is converted into carbon dioxide and water
B) glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate precursors
Breakdown of glycogen to release glucose? A) glycogenesis B) glycogenolysis C) glycolysis D) gluconeogenesis
B) glycogenolysis
Which of the following does not occur in the mitochondria? A) electron transport B) glycolysis C) Krebs cycle D) formation of malic acid from fumaric acid
B) glycolysis
Dietary fats are important because they ________. A) keep blood pressure normal B) help the body absorb fat-soluble vitamins C) contribute significantly to the health of the skin D) help prevent the common cold
B) help the body absorb fat-soluble vitamins
Anabolism includes reactions in which ________. A) carbohydrate utilization increases B) larger molecules or structures are built from smaller ones C) structural proteins are used as a potential energy source D) ketone bodies are formed
B) larger molecules or structures are built from smaller ones
Oxidation reduction reactions ________. A) utilize hydrogenases B) may involve the loss of hydrogen and electrons C) are rarely coupled together D) occur via the gain of hydrogen or the loss of oxygen
B) may involve the loss of hydrogen and electrons
What is the outcome of ketosis? A) water retention and edema B) metabolic acidosis C) metabolic alkalosis D) glycogen buildup E) glucogenesis
B) metabolic acidosis
The amount of ________ produced is probably the most important hormonal factor in determining BMR. A) norepinephrine B) thyroxine C) prolactin D) ADH
B) thyroxine
Choose the correct sequence of current flow through the heart wall. A. SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches B. SA node, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers C. Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, SA node D. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches E. AV node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches
B. SA node, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
Which statement about the extrinsic innervation of the heart is NOT true? A. Parasympathetic nerve stimulation reduces the heartbeat. B. Sympathetic impulses travel through the vagus nerve. C. Sympathetic nerve stimulation of the heart increases the rate and force of the heart. D. The vagus nerve is the tenth cranial nerve. E. The cardiac centers are located in the medulla oblongata of the brain stem.
B. Sympathetic impulses travel through the vagus nerve.
Which of the following factors gives the myocardium its high resistance to fatigue? A. the coronary circulation B. a very large number of mitochondrion in the cytoplasm C. the presence of intercalated discs D. gap junctions
B. a very large number of mitochondrion in the cytoplasm
The ability of some cardiac muscle cells to initiate their own depolarization and cause depolarization of the rest of the heart is called A. an action potential. B. automaticity. C. fibrillation. D. a functional syncytium. E. absolute refractory period
B. automaticity.
Attached to the AV valve flaps are the A. pectinate muscles. B. chordae tendineae. C. papillary muscles. D. trabeculae carneae.
B. chordae tendineae.
Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events? A. excitation of the SA node B. closure of the heart valves C. friction of blood against the chamber walls D. opening and closing of heart valves
B. closure of the heart valves
The inferior vena cava brings blood from the lower regions of the body and empties into the A. left atrium. B. right atrium. C. left ventricle. D. right ventricle. E. Aorta.
B. right atrium.
The endocardium is composed of A. stratified squamous epithelium. B. simple squamous epithelium. C. simple columnar epithelium. D. cardiac muscle cells. E. simple cuboidal epithelium
B. simple squamous epithelium.
The cardioacceleratory center fibers are part of the A. cranial peripheral nervous system. B. sympathetic nervous system. C. somatic peripheral nervous system. D. parasympathetic nervous system
B. sympathetic nervous system.
If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that... A. the heart would stop, the vagal nerves trigger the heart to contract B. the heart rate would increase about 25 beats per minute C. the AV node would become the pacemaker of the heart D. parasympathetic stimulation would increase, causing a decrease in heart rate
B. the heart rate would increase about 25 beats per minute
If the circumflex artery of the heart was blocked, the myocardium in the _________________ would be ischemic. A. the apex B. the left atrium and the posterior wall of the left ventricle C. the lateral aspects of the heart D. interventricular septum and the anterior wall of the ventricles
B. the left atrium and the posterior wall of the left ventricle
What part of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump? A. the left atrium B. the left ventricle C. the right atrium D. the right ventricle
B. the left ventricle
The tricuspid valve is closed when... A. the ventricle is in diastole B. the ventricle is systole C. the atrium is contracting D. the blood is moving from atrium to ventricle
B. the ventricle is systole
The _________ nerve carries parasympathetic fibers to the SA node. A. facial B. vagus C. hypoglossal D. accessory
B. vagus
ABO Blood Groups
Based on the absence or presence of type A or type B agglutinogens, the group includes A, B, AB, and O blood types.
What are the kidneys shaped like?
Beans
What happens to anything not reabsorbed during tubular reabsorption?
Becomes urine
The renal tubules are located were?
Begin in the cortex, pass through medulla, return to cortex
Q-T interval
Beginning of ventricular depolarization until end of ventricular repolarization.
Lymphatic capillary ➔ lymphatic vessels ➔ lymphatic trunks ➔ collecting ducts ➔ subclavian veins ➔ superior vena cava ➔ right atrium.
Beginning with the lymphatic capillary, trace the flow of lymph back to the blood stream.
Tricuspid valve
Between right atrium and right ventricle.
What happens when precapillary sphincters open
Blood flows through capillaries and metarteriole
What happens when the precapillary sphincters close
Blood flows through the metarteriole thoroughfare channel and bypasses true capillaries
Causes of Anemia
Blood loss (hemorrhagic anemia), insufficient RBC production (iron-deficiency anemia, pernicious anemia, renal anemia, aplastic anemia), too many RBC destroyed (thalassemias, sickle-cell anemia).
False
Blood plasma and lymph are identical except for their respective locations in the body.
Regulation of
Blood pressure, buffer pH, body temperature
Adult male 5 to 6 liters Adult female 4 to 5 liters
Blood volume (liters) males and females
c2
Both complement paths cause ____ to split
Relationship between pulse pressure and MAP and heart
Both decline with increasing distance to the heart
During the gastric phase of control, distention in the stomach will elicit a response using which of the following mechanisms?
Both nerves and hormones
What structure completely surrounds the glomerulus?
Bowman's capsule
What structure is continuous with its renal tubule?
Bowman's capsule
What does a nephron consist of?
Bowman's capsule and the renal tubule
obligatory water losses
Breath, cutaneous transpiration, sweat, feces, minimum urine output (400ml/day)
Dicrotic notch
Brief rise in pressure from back flow of blood in aorta against closed valve.
Papillary muscles
Bundles of muscles located in the ventricles which play a role in valve function.
EXTRA CRED TERM paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT)
Bursts of atrial contraction with little pause between them
How do sympathetic vasomotor fibers regulate renal blood flow?
By adjusting the diameter of renal arterioles and influence the formation of urine by the nephron
How does the contraction of vascular smooth muscles affect the glomerulus and glomerular blood pressure?
By reducing blood flow into the glomerulus and therefore preventing glomerular blood pressure from rising to damaging levels.
How does the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism work?
By responding to filtrate sodium chloride concentrations; when the concentration is high, the macula densa cells release vasoconstrictor chemicals that cause constriction of the afferent arteriole, reducing blood flow into the glomerulus.
Which of the following is not true of beta oxidation? A) It occurs in the mitochondrion. B) Every second carbon is reduced. C) It involves the anabolism of fats. D) Fatty acids are broken into acetic acid fragments
C) It involves the anabolism of fats.
Select the correct statement about proteins. A) Strict vegetarians need not worry about adequate protein intake, as most vegetables are almost perfect sources of amino acids. B) Proteins can be synthesized in the body if most of the amino acids are present. C) Proteins will be used by most cells for ATP synthesis if insufficient carbohydrates are ingested. D) Catabolic steroids (hormones) accelerate the rate of protein synthesis
C) Proteins will be used by most cells for ATP synthesis if insufficient carbohydrates are ingested.
Which of the choices below is not a source of glucose during the postabsorptive state? A) glycogenolysis in the liver B) lipolysis in adipose tissues and the liver C) absorption of glucose from the GI tract D) catabolism of cellular protein
C) absorption of glucose from the GI tract
In the liver, the amine group of glutamic acid is removed as ________ in the oxidative state. A) glyceraldehyde B) pyruvic acid C) ammonia D) oxaloacetic acid
C) ammonia
Catabolism would be best described as a process that ________. A) causes a decline in circulating ketone bodies B) builds up triglycerides during the postabsorptive state C) breaks down complex structures to simpler ones D) elevates glucagon levels
C) breaks down complex structures to simpler ones
Conditions that promote the oxidative deamination and energy use of amino acids include ________. A) adequate essential amino acids B) adequate fat calories to provide adequate ATP formation C) excessive amounts of protein in the diet D) ammonia combining with oxygen to form urea
C) excessive amounts of protein in the diet
Breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid. A) glycogenesis B) glycogenolysis C) glycolysis D) gluconeogenesis
C) glycolysis
Synthesis of lipids from glucose or amino acids. A) lipolysis B) beta oxidation C) lipogenesis D) ketogenesis
C) lipogenesis
It is important to ensure that your diet is adequately rich in vitamins because ________. A) vitamins provide protection against the common cold B) very few foods contain vitamins C) most vitamins are coenzymes needed to help the body utilize essential nutrients D) all vitamins are water soluble and pass out of the body too quickly to ensure utilization
C) most vitamins are coenzymes needed to help the body utilize essential nutrients
Which of the choices below is not a mechanism of heat production? A) vasoconstriction of cutaneous blood vessels B) shivering C) sweating D) enhanced thyroxine release
C) sweating
Many factors influence BMR. What is the most critical factor? A) the way an individual metabolizes fat B) the way skeletal muscles break down glycogen C) the ratio of surface area to volume (weight) of the body D) an individual's body weight
C) the ratio of surface area to volume (weight) of the body
Transamination is the process whereby the amine group of an amino acid is ________. A) transferred to acetyl CoA B) converted to urea C) transferred to a keto acid D) converted to ammonia
C) transferred to a keto acid
Identify the correct sequence of blood flow through the chambers of the heart. A. Lungs, right ventricle, left ventricle, right atrium, left atrium B. Left atrium, left ventricle, right ventricle, right atrium, and lungs C. Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle D. Right ventricle, left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right atrium E. Left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right ventricle, right atrium
C. Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle
All but which of the following statements about autorhythmic myocardial cells are correct? A. They have special ion channels in their sarcolemma. B. They do not maintain a stable resting membrane potential. C. They are the first myocardial cells to contract. D. They make up the intrinsic cardiac conduction system.
C. They are the first myocardial cells to contract.
An enlarged R wave on an ECG would indicate A. cardiac ischemia. B. a myocardial infarction. C. an enlarged ventricle. D. repolarization abnormalities.
C. an enlarged ventricle.
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to... A. accomodate a greater volume of blood B. expand the thoracic cage during diastole C. pump blood with greater pressure D. pump blood through a smaller valve
C. pump blood with greater pressure
Commotio cordis is heart failure due to a... A. mild electrical shock to the heart itself B. severe electrical shock to the body C. relatively mild blow to the chest that occurs during a vulnerable interval (2ms) when the heart is repolarizing D. loss of blood from an artery
C. relatively mild blow to the chest that occurs during a vulnerable interval (2ms) when the heart is repolarizing
If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells... A. it would be much longer before cardiac cells could respond to a second stimulation B. contractions would last as long as the refractory period C. tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the hearts pumping action. D it would be less than 1/2 ms
C. tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the hearts pumping action.
Cardiac Output is A. the number of times the heart beats in one minute. B. the number of impulses fired by the SA node in one minute. C. the amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle in one minute. D. the amount of blood filling each ventricle at the end of diastole. E. the amount of blood pumped out of the heart during every ventricular contraction.
C. the amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle in one minute.
Which of the following valves is most often faulty in the heart? A. the pulmonary semilunar valve B. the aortic semilunar valve C. the mitral or bicuspid valve D. the tricuspid valve
C. the mitral or bicuspid valve
The cardiac cycle includes all of the following events EXCEPT A. the changes in pressure gradients in all chambers of the heart. B. the closing and opening of the heart valves during each heart beat. C. the number of times the heart beats in one minute. D. the movement of impulse from the SA node to all regions of the heart wall. E. the changes in blood volume in all chambers of the heart
C. the number of times the heart beats in one minute.
Blood spurts back into the _____________ when the right atrium contracts A. pulmonary trunk B. pulmonary veins C. venae cavae D. aorta
C. venae cavae
Alternative Pathway
C3 is part of what pathway?
margination
CAMs on WBC adhering to CAMs of vessel
The presence of fat in the small intestine causes intestinal cells to release the hormone __________, which slows gastric emptying.
CCK
Which of the following GI hormones stimulates the gall bladder to contract?
CCK
increases the secretions of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice
CCK
Main factors influencing blood pressure
CO - Cardiac Output PR - Peripheral resistance Blood volume
Blood Pressure equation
CO x PR *CO depends on blood volume
What does blood pressure vary directly with
CO, PR and Blood Volume - Changes in one variable are quickly compensated for by changes in the other variables
process of bicarbonate reabsorption
CO2 combines with water witin tubule cell forming H2CO3-, H2CO3- is quickly split forming H+ and bicarbonate ion HCO3-, H+ is secreted into filtrate, for each H+ secreted a HCO3- enters the peritubular capillary blood either via symport with na or via antiport with cl-, secreted H+ combines with HCO3- inn the filtrate forming carbonic acid H2CO3, H2CO3 formed in the filtrate dissociates to release co2 and h2o, co2 diffuses into the tubule cell where it triggers further h+ secretion
Cytotoxic T cells
Cancer cells would be attacked by which of the following cells?
What are veins called?
Capacitance vessels (blood reservoirs) Contain up to 65% of the blood supply
Where is velocity of blood flow slowest?
Capillaries
2 kinds of Colloid Osmotic Pressures
Capillary Colloid Osmotic Pressure (POc) Interstitial Fluid Osmotic Pressure (OPif)
2 Kinds of Hydrostatic Pressure
Capillary Hydrostatic Pressure Interstitial fluid Hydrostatic Pressure
Which of the following major pancreatic proteases cleaves one peptide at a time?
Carboxypeptidase
Elevated or depressed S-T segment (abnormal)
Cardiac ischemia
What happens to HR and SV during stress
Cardioacceleratory center increases heart rate and stroke volume via sympathetic stimulation
Where are Barorreceptors located
Carotid sinuses Aortic Arch Walls of large arteries of the neck and thorax
Polar substances are absorbed by which of the following processes?
Carrier-mediated transport
Heart murmurs
Caused by turbulent flow: often indicate insufficient or incompetent valves that fail to close completely resulting in backflow and a swishing sound after normal heart sounds.
What does norepinephrine and epinephrine do to vascular smooth muscles?
Causes them to constrict
rupturing membranes of foreign cells
Cell Lysis
Blood components
Cellular and liquid components, consisting of formed elements and plasma.
T cells
Cellular immunity is attributed to the action of:
During which phase in the control of the digestive system would the sight and smell of food initiate reflexes to aid digestion?
Cephalic
General pathway of Homeostatic response
Change in BP in arteries Baroreceptors in carotid and aortic arch Brain's vasomotor center and sympathetic Heart - HR, contractility, CO Vessels - dilation or contraction
between blood capillaries & tissue except in CNS, bone, teeth, & bone. more permeable b/c of mini valves and anchor filaments. permeable to proteins, large particles in inflamed tissue and lipids. lacteals
Characteristics of lymphatic capillaries
like blood veins, 3 tunics, thinner walls, more internal valves, more anastomoses, travel with superficial veins and deep arteries can have vasa vasorum
Characteristics of lymphatic collecting vessels
Which of the following meals takes longer to digest?
Cheeseburger, fries, and chocolate milkshake
Prothrombin Activator
Chemical agent, once present, that helps blood clot to form within 10 to 15 seconds. Catalyzes the conversion of prothrombin into thrombin.
Neutrophils follow chemical trail
Chemotaxis
attracting macrophages and neutrophils
Chemotaxis
During the cephalic phase, long neural reflexes directly increase secretion of HCL and pepsinogen by stimulating which types of stomach cells?
Chief cells and parietal cells
__________ is NOT found in pancreatic secretions.
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
After puberty, the thymus begins to decrease in size.
Choose the true statement about the thymus.
A primary response results when naïve lymphocytes are activated, while a secondary response is a result of activating memory cells.
Choose the true statement regarding the primary versus the secondary immune response.
CD8
Class I MHC proteins are recognized by which of the following cell types (that are destined to become T cells)?
antigen-presenting cells
Class II MHC proteins are found on which of the following cell types?
margination
Clinging of phagocytic cells to the inner walls of the capillaries
What do the calyces do?
Collect urine that drain continuously from papillae and empty it into the renal pelvis
the thymus
Collections of lymphoid tissue (MALT) that guard mucosal surfaces include all the following, EXCEPT __________.
Peyer's patches
Collections of lymphoid tissues, called MALT, are strategically placed throughout the respiratory, digestive, and genitourinary systems. Which one of these is located at the end of the small intestine?
Proerythroblast
Committed (stem) cell.
where does Angiogenisis typically occur?
Common in the heart when a coronary vessel is occluded or throughout the body in people in high-altitude areas
Which of the following is NOT a surface barrier to pathogen influx?
Complement cascade
forming pores in the membranes of target cells
Complement proteins work by __________.
Red Bone Marrow
Composed primarily of a soft network of reticular connective tissue bordering on wide blood capillaries called blood sinusoids.
Subendocardial conducting network (Purkinje cells)
Conduct electrical impulse to ventricular myocytes.
Anastomoses
Connections between posterior and anterior interventricular arteries.
The term metabolism is best defined as ________. A) the length of time it takes to digest and absorb fats B) a measure of carbohydrate utilization, typically involving measurement of calories C) the number of calories it takes to keep from shivering on a cold day D) biochemical reactions involved in building cell molecules or breaking down molecules for energy
D) biochemical reactions involved in building cell molecules or breaking down molecules for energy
The primary function of cellular respiration is to ________. A) determine the amount of heat needed by the human body B) provide the body with adequate amounts of vitamins and minerals C) efficiently monitor the energy needs of the body D) break down food molecules and generate ATP
D) break down food molecules and generate ATP
Lipogenesis occurs when ________. A) there is a shortage of fatty acids B) glucose levels drop slightly C) excess proteins are transported through the cell membrane D) cellular ATP and glucose levels are high
D) cellular ATP and glucose levels are high
Prostaglandins play a role in ________. A) skeletal muscle contraction B) control of blood volume C) noninflammatory responses D) control of blood pressure
D) control of blood pressure
Which of the choices below is not a fate of carbohydrate taken into the body? A) ATP production B) lipogenesis C) amino acid synthesis D) conversion to a nucleic acid E) glycogenesis
D) conversion to a nucleic acid
Which of the following food groups are considered good sources of complete proteins? A) corn, cottonseed oil, soy oil, and wheat germ B) lima beans, kidney beans, nuts, and cereals C) egg yolk, fish roe, and grains D) eggs, milk, yogurt, meat, and fish
D) eggs, milk, yogurt, meat, and fish
Formation of glucose from proteins or fats. A) glycogenesis B) glycogenolysis C) glycolysis D) gluconeogenesis
D) gluconeogenesis
Which hormone directs essentially all the events of the absorptive state? A) growth hormone B) thyroid hormone C) epinephrine D) insulin
D) insulin
Formation of ketone bodies. A) lipolysis B) beta oxidation C) lipogenesis D) ketogenesis
D) ketogenesis
The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as ________. A) gluconeogenesis B) fat utilization C) lipogenesis D) lipolysis
D) lipolysis
Which of the following statements best describes complete protein? A) derived from meat and fish only B) meets all the minimum daily requirements for a healthy diet C) derived only from legumes and other plant material D) must meet all the body's amino acid requirements for maintenance and growth
D) must meet all the body's amino acid requirements for maintenance and growth
Which of the following is the most important function of the liver? A) carbohydrate and lipid metabolism B) synthesis of bile salts C) processing of drugs and hormones and activation of vitamin D D) protein metabolism
D) protein metabolism
When a person's hypothalamic thermostat is set to a higher level and the actual body temperature is below that level, the person may ________. A) pant B) exhibit vasodilation of skin vessels C) perspire heavily D) shiver
D) shiver
Which of the choices below is not a major route of heat exchange? A) radiation B) conduction/convection C) evaporation D) shivering
D) shivering
The most abundant dietary lipids are ________. A) cholesterol B) phospholipids C) fatty acids D) triglycerides
D) triglycerides
Heat-loss mechanisms do not include ________. A) reducing activity B) the evaporation of sweat C) behavior measures such as wearing light, loose clothing D) vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels
D) vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels
Damage to the __________ is referred to as a heart block. A. SA node B. AV valves C. AV bundle D. AV node
D. AV node
Which of the following ions has the greatest affect on the autorhythmic capabilities of the myocardium? A. K+ B. Cl- C. Na+ D. Ca2+
D. Ca2+
Which of the following vessels is most likely to supply the anterior left ventricular myocardium? A. Circumflex artery B. Posterior interventricular artery C. Marginal artery D. Left anterior descending artery E. Right coronary artery
D. Left anterior descending artery
Which of the following drains blood DIRECTLY from the myocardium? A. Coronary sinus B. SVC C. Right coronary artery D. Middle cardiac vein E. IV
D. Middle cardiac vein
select the correct statement about the heart valves A. the mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle B. the tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle C. aortic and pulmonary valves control the flow of blood into the heart. D. The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.
D. The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.
Which of the following statements is NOT true about the shape, position and location of the heart? A. The heart is located between the two lungs within the mediastinum. B. Approximately two-thirds of the heart is found to the left of the midline. C. The heart is shaped like a cone with the base facing the right shoulder. D. The heart is enclosed in a double-layered sac called the pleural membrane.
D. The heart is enclosed in a double-layered sac called the pleural membrane.
The pacemaker potential produced in autorhythmic cells is due to the presence of A. intercalated discs at cell junctions. B. desmosomes. C. many large mitochondria in the cytoplasm. D. a continuously depolarizing membrane that slowly reaches threshold
D. a continuously depolarizing membrane that slowly reaches threshold
The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is... A. ischemia B. pericarditis C. myocardial infarct D. angina pectoris
D. angina pectoris
The coronary arteries arise from the A. pulmonary trunk. B. superior vena cava. C. inferior vena cava. D. aorta. E. right atrium.
D. aorta.
The dicrotic notch observed on tracing of blood pressure recording is due to A. pulmonary semilunar valve closure. B. mitral valve closure. C. tricuspid valve closure. D. aortic semilunar valve closure.
D. aortic semilunar valve closure
The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates... A. ventricular repolarization B. ventricular depolarization C. atrial repolarization D. atrial depolarization
D. atrial depolarization
Norepinephrine acts on the heart by A. decreasing heart contractility B. causing a decrease in stroke volume C. blocking the action of calcium D. causing threshold to be reached more quickly
D. causing threshold to be reached more quickly
The vessels that carry oxygen to the myocardial cells are called A. pulmonary arteries. B. aortic arteries. C. coronary veins. D. coronary arteries. E. pulmonary veins
D. coronary arteries.
Which of the following is clinically significant as an ectopic pacemaker of the heart? A. drinking several cups of caffeinated coffee B. excessive smoking C. anxiety D. extrasystole contractions associated with angina pectoris
D. extrasystole contractions associated with angina pectoris
Autorhythmic cardiac cells are found in all the following location except the A. SA node. B. Purkinje cells. C. AV node. D. interatrial septum.
D. interatrial septum.
Which of the following structures lies on the outside surface of the heart and is an integral part of the cardiac wall? A. the fibrous pericardium B. The parietal layer of serous pericardium C. the pericardial sac D. the epicardium
D. the epicardium
The myocardium functions as a functional syncytium due to A. branching of myocardial cells. B. the presence of striations in the myocardium. C. the presence of desmosomes. D. the presence of gap junctions.
D. the presence of gap junctions.
During the spike of an action potential in a cardiac muscle cell A. Ca2+ moves out of the cell into the extracellular fluid. B. K+ channels open to let K+ move into the cell. C. both Na+ and Ca2+ move into the cell at the same time. D. there is a rapid influx of Na+ into the cell. E. Na+ moves out of the cell into the extracellular fluid.
D. there is a rapid influx of Na+ into the cell.
What would be the effect of stripping the small intestines of their villi?
Decreased surface area for absorption would cause weight loss to occur.
Which of the following processes occurs only in the large intestine?
Defecation
Arrhythmias
Defects in intrinsic conduction system of heart causing irregular rhythms.
Creating your own antibodies either by actually getting the illness or through a vaccine
Define active immunity
Which hypersensitivity is caused by T lymphocytes:
Delayed
False
Delayed hypersensitivity reactions are caused by the cross-linking of antibodies to mast cells or basophils.
Distribution function of blood
Delivers oxygen, transports metabolic waste products, and transports hormones.
Blood flow (tissue perfusion) is involved in
Delivery of O2 and nutrients Removal of wastes from tissue cells Gas exchange (lungs) Absorption of nutrients (digestive tract) Urine formation (kidneys) *precisely the right amount to provide for proper function
True
Dendritic cells are important antigen-presenting cells.
In general, stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system would __________ digestive activity.
Depress
Enters through afferent lymphatic vessels Afferent vessels contain valves that open toward the center of the node, directing lymph inward Within the node, lymph enters sinuses To subcapsular sinus, through trabecular sinuses and into the medullary sinuses, which extend through the medulla Medullary sinuses drain into efferent lymphatic vessels
Describe the flow thru a lymph node
Differential White Blood Cell Count
Determines the relative proportions of individual leukocyte types.
MAP equation
Diastolic Pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure
Cardiac Reserve
Difference between resting and maximal CO
Capillary exchange of Respiratory gases and Nutrients
Diffusion of 02 and nutrients from blood and tissues Diffusion of C02 and metabolic wastes from tissues to the blood
Leukotrienes cause
Dilation of the small blood vessels in an injured area
IgA
Dimeric antibody found in body secretions
How do Lipid-soluble molecules diffuse through capillaries?
Directly through the endothelial membranes
yes, The antibodies destroy the antigen (pathogen) which is then engulfed and digested by macrophages
Do antibodies destroy antigens?
Name the first part of the small intestine, which is only 8-11 inches long.
Duodenum
end diastolic volume
EDV; the amount of blood that collects in a ventricle during diastole
During a blood pressure drop what two things do not increase
ESV Parasympathetic activity
Diastolic Pressure
Lowest pressure in aorta recorded just before semi-lunar valve opens.
Which of the following is the cause of the "plateau" in cardiac muscle action potentials? A. Chloride ion outflux B. Sodium ion influx C. Potassium ion influx D. Calcium ion outflux E. Calcium ion influx
E. Calcium ion influx
The P-wave is a measure of A. atrial repolarization. B. ventricular depolarization. C. ventricular hyperpolarization. D. ventricular contraction. E. atrial depolarization.
E. atrial depolarization.
Guided by powerful signaling molecules, the human heart develops from A. ectoderm and endoderm. B. ectoderm. C. endoderm. D. blood cells. E. mesoderm.
E. mesoderm.
solute levels in the ECF and ICF
ECF are similar, ICF have lower sodium and chloride a) ECF-sodium is chief cation, chloride is major anion b) ICF-potassium is chief cation, phosphate is chief anion
stroke volume, sv
EDV - ESV , volume of blood pumped out by one ventricle during one beat
Where do the efferent arterioles feed into?
Either the peritubular capillaries or the vasa recta
Functional syncytium
Electrical coupling of cardiac cells to one another via gap junctions allowing them to contract as a unit.
nonelectrolytes and electrolytes
Electrolytes- inorganic salts, all acids, bases, some proteins, have greater osmotic power than nonelectrolytes Nonelectrolytes-glucose, lipids, creatinine, urea
Tunica Intima
Endothelium lines the lumen of all vessels = Simple squamous layer - For exchange (especially in capillaries)
What type of cells are granular cells?
Enlarged smooth muscle cells
Coronary Sinus
Enlarged vein on posterior aspect of heart that empties into right atrium and receives blood from three major tributaries: I) Great cardiac vein - in anterior interventricular sulcus II) Middle cardiac vein - in posterior interventricular sulcus III) Small cardiac vein - along heart's right inferior margin
Enlarged R wave (abnormal)
Enlarged ventricles.
Considered the third division of the ANS, this nervous system is unique to the digestive system.
Enteric
Hormones of the GI system are produced and secreted by which of the following cells?
Enteroendocrine
Erythropoiesis
Erythrocyte production process that takes about 15 days to complete the cycle.
tonsils
Except for the __________ and the spleen, the lymphoid organs are poorly developed at birth.
CSF
Excess tissue fluid in the brain drains into the __________.
Hyperkalemia on HR
Excessive blood K+: a. Normally high inside of cells so when ECF K+ rises, it prevents K+ from leaving cell. b. Alters electrical activity. c. Cells depolarize but have difficulty repolarizing. d. Can lead to heart blocks and cardiac arrest.
exchanges between IF and ICF
Exchanges between the interstitial fluid and intracellular fluid occur across plasma membranes, depending on permeability properties
What type of cell lies between the arteriole and tubular cells and are interconnected by gap junctions?
Extraglomerular mesangial cells
Nerves
Extrinsic Mechanism of BP from vessels -Sympathetic
Hormones
Extrinsic Mechanism of BP from vessels Epinephrine Norephinephrine Receptors Angiotensin II Antidiuretic (ADH) Atrial Natriuiretic Peptide (ANP)
What are neural and hormonal mechanisms?
Extrinsic controls of regulation of glomerular filtration
Anticoagulant
Factor that inhibits clotting.
Stenotic valve
Fails to open completely restricting blood flow through them producing a high-pitched sound or click when valve should be wide open
An adult has 20 teeth.
False
Bile enzymatically digests fats and related lipids.
False
Digested fats are absorbed into intestinal capillaries.
False
Protein digestion begins in the oral cavity under the action of salivary peptidase.
False
Saliva contains enzymes that break down proteins.
False
T or F: The nervous system does not regulate digestive activity.
False
The defecation reflex is mediated by a sympathetic spinal cord reflex.
False
The hepatopancreatic ampulla is composed of the pancreatic duct and the lesser hepatic duct.
False
The submucosa is in direct contact with food.
False
The vermiform appendix essentially has no purpose.
False
Heart rate increases with age. True or False?
False. HR is faster in the fetus (140-160 beats/min) and gradually declines throughout life.
Which of the following stimuli would inhibit salivation?
Fear
The endothelium of the glomerular capillaries is said to be what?
Fenestrated
What property allows solute rich but virtually protein free fluid to pass from the blood into the glomerular capsule?
Fenestration
Protein-Iron Complexes
Ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin.
False
Fever is one of the cardinal signs of inflammation.
How do filtrate and urine differ?
Filtrate contains everything in blood plasma except proteins. Urine contains unneeded substances like salts and metabolic waste
Polychromatic Erythroblast
First half of Phase II of red blood cell formation where hemoglobin is synthesized an iron accumulates.
Venous Sinuses
Flattened veins with extremely thin walls Ex: coronary sinus of heart and dural sinuses of brain
Which cells stimulate both arms of the immune response?
Helper T cells
Myeloid Stem Cell
Hematopoietic stem cell descendant
Stages of Erythropoiesis
Hematopoietic stem cell, pro erythroblast, basophilic erythroblast, polychromatic erythroblast, orthochromatic erythroblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte. (7 sequences).
oxyhemoglobin
Hemoglobin with oxygen
__________ circulation collects nutrient-rich blood from the GI tract and delivers it to the liver.
Hepatic portal
Direct mechanism for renal regulation of BP
High BP more urine output means less BV and lower BP and low BP means less urine output and more BV and higher BP
Systolic Pressure
Highest pressure recorded in aorta during ventricular systole.
Lymphatic collecting vessels have endothelial flap valves, but veins do not.
How are lymphatic collecting vessels different from veins?
The phagocytes recognize molecules on pathogens not normally found on body cells.
How do phagocytes recognize foreign cells or bacteria?
2 opposing forces that Direction and amount of fluid flow depends on
Hydrostatic pressure Colloid Osmotic Pressures
What is the chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood and across the filtration membrane?
Hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries
hydrostatic and osmotic pressures
Hydrostatic pressure-the pressure that fluid exerts on the walls of its container, higher than osmotic in capillary Osmotic pressure-prevent the flow of water across a semipermeable membrane via osmosis, less than hydrostatic in capillary
Triggers of EPO
Hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF) occurs when oxygen deficient enzymes are unable to carry out their normal functions, causing a drop normal blood oxygen.
Negative chronotropic factors on HR
I) Parasympathetic input: a. Dominant input at rest. b. Works through the vagus nerve, c. Acetylcholine = ↑ K+ channels = deeper hyperpolarization = decreased slope of pacemaker potential. d. Keeps HR at around 70 bpm (would be 100bpm without this input). II) Hypocalcemia: decreases heart activity. III) Low temperatures.
Positive chronotropic factors on HR
I) Sympathetic input: a. ↑ calcium channels = ↑ slope of pacemaker potential b. ↑ calcium channels in myocytes = ↑ contractility c. Hormones: norepinephrine, epinephrine, thyroxine. II) Hypercalcemia: a. High blood calcium: ↑ HR and contractility. III) High temperatures. IV) Exercise: increases venous return + sympathetic input.
True
If a person with type A blood is given a unit of type B blood, the type B RBCs are destroyed.
cellular immunity
If a virus attacks a cell, which type of immunity would be activated?
primarily in mucus and other body secretions that bathe & a dimer
IgA
is always bound to the B cell & act as an antigen receptor
IgD
involved in allergies & causes histamine to be released
IgE
Greastest amount in plasma & crosses the placenta
IgG
isotypes
IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE are
fix complement, first antibody to be released by plasma cells and acts as an antigen receptor, first released & pentamer
IgM
naturally acquired active
Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________ immunity.
False
Immunocompetence refers to the ability of the immune system to form antibodies and killing compounds.
ability to stimulate and proliferation of specific lymphocytes and antibody production
Immunogenicity
IgG
Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins are
False
In addition to cell lysis, complement activation may invoke neutralization, precipitation, and inflammation.
spleen
In addition to its lymphoid function, this organ holds a reservoir of platelets.
Where are capillaries in the body
In all tissues except for: Cartilage Epithelia Cornea Lens of the eye - that means these are good candidates for transplant since there is no blood flow thus no worries of rejection -but if you damage one of these it would take a long time to heal due to no blood flow
passive immunization
In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies. These antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease. This is an example of?
Deoxyhemoglobin
In body tissues, oxygen detaches from iron, hemoglobin resumes its former shape, and the released oxygen diffuses from the blood into the tissue fluid and tissue cells.
False
Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is released by helper T cells to stimulate bound T cells.
What arteries come off of the segmental arteries?
Interlobar arteries
During the defecation reflex, which anal sphincter relaxes involuntarily?
Internal
Left subclavian vein
Into which blood vessel will lymph flow if it starts at the red arrow?
B cells
In the list below, which type of cell is involved in adaptive immunity?
free radicals
In the respiratory burst, __________ are released, which have a potent cell-killing ability.
Are small molecules such as peptides, nucleotides, and many hormones that are not immunogenic on their own but can become immunogenic when attached to protein carriers. If a hapten links up with the body's protiens, the adaptive immune system may recognize the complex as foreign and mount a harmful attack.
Incomplete Antigens (Haptens)
Baroreceptor initiated reflexes
Increased blood pressure stimulates baroreceptors to increase input to the vasomotor center -Inhibits the vasomotor center, causing arteriole dilation and venodilation -Stimulates the cardioinhibitory center
percentages of water mass found in infants, women and men
Infants-73% Males-60% Females-50% Differences reflect females due to higher body fat and smaller amount of skeletal musle In old age-45%
The renal veins exit from the kidney and empty into what vessel?
Inferior Vena Cava
When a localized area exhibits increased capillary filtration, hypermia, and swelling it is an indication that
Inflammation is occuring
Which type of molecule is produced by virus infected cells to communicate to noninfected cells the presence of a virus?
Interferon
muscular dystrophy
Interferons can be used to treat all of the following, EXCEPT __________.
two main fluid compartments and subcompartments
Intracellular fluid ICF- (2/3 by volume, contained in cells), 40% water Extracellular fluid ECF-(consists of two major subdivisions 1. Plasma 20% water 2. Interstitial fluid 80% water)
What type of controls cannot handle low systemic blood pressure?
Intrinsic controls, or autoregulation
Iron Storage
Iron is stored in the hemoglobin (65%), liver, spleen, and bone marrow.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the liver?
It has three lobes.
The glomerulus is different from all other capillaries in the body in that ?
It is both fed and drained by arterioles
Which of the following statements about the mesentery is INCORRECT?
It is composed of a layer of serous membrane fused with a layer of mucus membrane.
Which statement below is characteristic of a secondary humoral response?
It occurs much more than a primary response.
What is the 3rd difference between cortical nephrons and juxtamedullary nephrons?
J - efferent arteriole supplies the vasa recta C - efferent arteriole supplies the peritubular capillaries
What is the 1st difference between cortical nephrons and juxtamedullary nephrons?
J - glomerulus closer to medulla C - glomerulus further away from medulla
What is the 2nd difference between cortical nephrons and juxtamedullary nephrons?
J - longer nephron loop C - shorter nephron loop
What type of nephrons have long loops?
Juxtamedullary nephrons
What do the Kidneys do to help keep homeostatic blood pressure
Kidneys filter blood out and change the volume of the blood
phagocytic
Kupffer
Which physiologic sphincter prevents reflux of gastric contents into the esophagus?
Lower esophageal (gastroesophageal)
Hypokalemia on HR
Lower than normal blood K+: a. Due to leak channels for K+ and larger gradient for K+ to move out of cell b. Cells hyperpolarize leading to arrhythmias and slower and weaker contractions.
LUB - DUB
LUB: closing of AV valves; 2nd intercostal space. DUB: SL valves close; 5th intercostal space. Both happen during phase 2 of cardiac cycle.
Unlike short- and medium-chain fatty acids, triglycerides (packaged as chylomicrons within the cell) enter what vessel after exiting the intestinal cell?
Lacteals
Which organ of the GI system absorbs water and electrolytes and contains bacteria that produce some vitamins?
Large intestine
lymph sinuses
Large lymph capillaries in a lymph node spanned by crisscrossing reticular fibers are known as __________.
IgM
Large, pentamer shaped antibody
Which ventricle has the heaviest workload?
Left ventricle: has to propel blood over a greater distance, and resistance is higher therefore has to generate greater pressure than the right ventricle.
When the concentration of ADH increases, __________.
Less urine is produced when the concentration of ADH increases.
neutrophils enter blood from bone marrow
Leukocytosis
dilation of the small blood vessels in an injured area
Leukotrienes cause __________.
produce RBC in fetus, break down old RBCs and store Fe , store platelets, surveillance of the immune system
List functions of the spleen
intestinal, jugular, bronchomediastinal, lumbar, subclavian
List lymphatic trunks
submandibular, cervical, axillary, inguinal
List places large clusters of lymph nodes are found
lymphatic are more permeable, lymphatic only move lymph toward the heart, detours through lymph glands
List the differences between lymphatic capillaries and systemic capillaries
The major digestive function of this organ is the production of bile.
Liver
Aortic semilunar valve
Located at opening of aorta, inside left ventricle.
Pulmonary semilunar valve
Located t opening of pulmonary trunk, inside right ventricle.
Will a neural response during the cephalic phase involve a short or long reflex?
Long
Renal regulation
Long-term regulation of BP -Baroreceptors quickly adapt to chronic high or low BP -Long-term mechanisms step in to control BP by altering blood volume
What is in the intercellular spaces between myocytes?
Loose connective tissue (endomysium) containing capillaries.
Diastolic pressure
Lowest level of atrial pressure "relaxation"
Toll-like receptors are found on
Macrophages
What types of cells act as chemoreceptors?
Macula densa cells
What 3 populations of cells help regulate the rate of filtration formation and systolic blood pressure?
Macula densa cells, granular cells, and extraglomerular mesangial cells
Renin-angiotensin mechanism
Main function is to increase blood pressure So after a Decrease in arterial blood pressure -> release of Renin -> Production of Angiotensin II (potent vasoconstrictor) -> Aldosterone secreation -> Renal reabsorption of Na+ and decrease in urine formation Angiotensin II also stimulates ADH release
Regulatory function of blood
Maintains body temperature; maintains normal pH levels; maintains adequate fluid volume in circulatory system.
Being fed by arterioles does what?
Maintains the high pressure in the glomerulus that is needed for filtration
During a meal, which type of motility propels the feces into the rectum for evacuation?
Mass movement
End diastolic volume
Maximum volume of blood in ventricles, just before they contract. Seen at the end of Phase 1 of cardiac cycle.
MAP definition
Mean Atrial Pressure -Pressure that propels the blood to the tissues
Serotonin and thromboxane A2
Messengers that enhance vascular spasm and platelet aggregation.
Vascular Shunt
Metarteriole - thoroughfare channel - Part of capillary bed - Directly connects the terminal ateriole and the postcapillary venule
perforins
Once activated, T8 killers inject ____ into the infected body cells
Venous circulation
Once collected, lymph is returned to:
IgG
Most abundant class of antibodies
Sinusoidal Capillaries (Sinusoids) Permeability
Most permeable (Porous) entire cells can even get in
Directional transport of blood oxygen
Moves from lungs to tissue cells.
Directional transport of carbon dioxide
Moves from tissues cells to the lungs.
Which histological layer of the digestive tract is composed primarily of epithelial tissue?
Mucosa
List the four layers (from innermost to outermost) of the gastrointestinal tract.
Mucosa, submucosae, muscularis externa, and serosa
Which of the following is a nonspecific barrier defense?
Mucous membranes
Difference between muscle mass of each ventricle.
Muscle mass of left ventricle much greater: it has to propel blood over a greater distance, and resistance is higher therefore has to generate greater pressure than the right ventricle.
Interferons can be used to treat all of the following, EXCEPT
Muscular dystrophy
What is the NFP equation
NFP = (HPc - HPif) - (OPc - OPif)
Show an equation for Net Filtration Pressure (NFP)
NFP = (outward pressures - inward pressures) outward pressures = hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries inward pressures = hydrostatic pressure in the capular space, colloid osmotic pressure in glomerular capillaries NFP = (HPgc) - (HPcs + OPgc)
Which cell does NOT have a direct role in phagocytosis?
NK cells
How is Na+ reabsorbed?
Na+ is reabsorbed by active transport using ATP. Most of the energy used for reabsorption is for Na+.
maintain fluid balance, defend the body against disease, and absorb liquids from the intestine and transport them to the blood.
Name 3 main functions of the lymphatic system
a) Lingual tonsils b) palatine tonsils c) pharyngeal tonsils d) tubal tonsils
Name 4 types of tonsils
IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE
Name 5 types of antibodies
skeletal muscle contractions, breathing and valves in the lymph vessel walls
Name Mechanisms for promoting lymph flow
1. site of lymphocyte proliferation 2. immune surveillance & response 3. cleanses the blood (ol RBCs) 4. store recycled RBC parts and platelets 5. fetal erythropoiesis
Name some functions of the spleen
Which nonspecific defense cells specialize in attacking cancer cells and virus-infected cells?
Natural killer cells
What are the blood processing units that carry out the processes that form urine?
Nephrons
During the cephalic phase of control, will nerves or hormones mediate the response in the stomach?
Nerves
NFP
Net Filtration Pressure -Comprises all the forces acting on a capillary bed
False
Neutrophils respond to infection by releasing antibody proteins into the blood.
Reticulocyte
Newly-formed erythrocyte that contains a reticulum (network) of clumped ribosomes.
Heart Rate
Number of heart beats per minute.
relationship between H+ HCO3- and CO2
O2 combines with hydrogen forming HCO3-
Name the third muscle layer unique to the stomach (and not elsewhere in the GI tract).
Oblique
Transfusion Reaction
Occurs when mismatched blood is infused, and the recipient's plasma agglutinogens attacks the donor's red blood cells.
When does Angiogenesis happen
Occurs when short-term autoregulation cannot meet tissue nutrient requirements
Which division of the autonomic nervous system causes production of large amounts of watery saliva containing enzymes?
PNS
What structure fits into the minor calyx of the kidney?
Papilla
Histamine is secreted by which cells in the stomach mucosa?
Paracrine
What cells in the gastric pits and glands produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric acid?
Parietal
What 2 layers make up the glomerular capsule?
Parietal layer and visceral layer
How do water-soluble solutes diffuse through capillaries?
Pass through clefts and fenestrations
Autologous Transfusion
Patient predonates his blood in case it is needed in the future.
Digestion of proteins in the stomach is caused by which enzyme?
Pepsin
__________ is the major means of propulsion in the digestive system.
Peristalsis
Protective collections of lymphocytes and macrophages are found in __________.
Peyer's patches
Specializations of the small intestine that increase its surface area for maximal absorption of nutrients include all the following except ________.
Peyer's patches
along the small intestine
Peyer's patches are located:
diapedesis
Phagocytes squeeze through the capillary endothelium.
innate internal defenses
Phagocytotic cells such as macrophages identify a variety of enemies by recognizing markers unique to pathogens. They would be classified as which type of defense system?
Basophilic Erythroblast
Phase I of red blood cell formation that produces ribosome synthesis.
False
Plasma cells are responsible for "remembering" and responding to a pathogen that has already invaded the body.
Respiratory Pump
Pressure changes created during breathing move blood toward the heart by squeezing abdominal veins as thoracic veins expand
hydrostatic pressure
Pressure exerted by a volume of fluid against a wall, membrane, or some other structure that encloses the fluid.
Systolic Pressure
Pressure exerted during ventricular contraction
Pulse
Pressure wave caused by the expansion and recoil of arteries
Protective function of blood
Prevents blood loss (initiates clot formation); prevents infection via antibodies, complement proteins, and white blood cells.
Vital signs
Pulse Blood pressure respiratory rate body temp
Why do renal pyramids appear striped?
Pyramids are formed almost entirely of parallel bundles of microscopic urine collecting tubules and capillaries
These molecules are secreted by leukocytes and macrophages and result in a fever
Pyrogens
fever
Pyrogens induce __________.
Spectrin
RBC protein that maintains the biconcave shape of an erythrocyte, allowing erythrocytes to twist, turn, and become cup-shaped as they travel through capillaries smaller than themselves.
Hemoglobin
RBC protein that makes red blood cells red, binds easily and reversibly with oxygen, and functions in the transport of oxygen; makes blood more viscious. About 65% of the body's iron supply is in hemoglobin.
rouleaux
RBCs form stacks due to their shape, sometimes this is called?
EXTRA CRED TERM Ventricular tachycardio (VT or VTac)
Rapid ventricular contractions that are not coordinated with atrial activity.
Right Atrium
Receives deoxygenated blood returning from the systemic circuit through the: a. superior vena cava: returns blood from body regions superior to the diaphragm. b. inferior vena cava: returns blood from body regions inferior to the diaphragm. c. coronary sinus: returns blood supplied to the myocardium.
Left Atrium
Receives oxygenated blood returning from the lungs through four pulmonary veins.
Erythrocytes
Red blood cells
Which of the following is the most common cause of peritonitis?
a burst appendix
Erythrocytes
Red blood cells that constitute 45% of the total volume of blood, a percentage known as hematocrit; have no nucleus; bound by a plasma membrane; lack a nucleus and essential organelles.
Results of EPO
Reduced numbers of red blood cells due to hemorrhage or excessive RBC destruction; insufficient hemoglobin per RBC (iron deficiency); reduced availability of oxygen (as might occur in high altitudes or during pneumonia).
Which of the following steps is the first step in an inflammatory response?
Release of leukocytosis-inducing factor
Platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
Released by platelets to stimulate smooth muscle cells and fibroblasts to divide and rebuild vessel walls.
Long-term mechanism for BP regulation
Renal regulation
Explain how direct stimulation of granular cells release renin.
Renal sympathetic nerves activate beta adrenergic receptors that cause the granular cells to release renin
What enzyme is secreted by granular cells (JG cells?)
Renin
Prolonged Q-T interval
Repolarization abnormality and increased risk of ventricular arrhythmias.
T Wave
Repolarization of ventricles (slower than depolarization)
False
Reticular connective tissue is found in all lymphoid organs and tissues.
Vomiting involves which of the following processes?
Reverse peristalsis
How does urine move through the body?
Rhythmic smooth muscle contractions that propel urine by peristalsis
right coronary arteries
Right marginal artery & Posterior interventricular artery
Whole Blood Transfusion
Routine medical procedure when blood loss is rapid and substantial.
Which of the following is not a structural modification of the small intestine to increase surface area?
Rugae
lysozyme
Saliva and lacrimal fluids contain this enzyme that destroys bacteria.
Orthochromatic Erythroblast
Second half of Phase II of red blood cell formation when cell cytoplasm changes from blue to pink, and the nucleus degenerates and is pinched off, causing the cell to collapse inward (biconcave shape).
Which of these hormones stimulates a bicarbonate-rich secretion from the pancreas?
Secretin
bone marrow
Self-reactive B cells are eliminated in the __________.
Interventricular septum
Separates left and right ventricle.
All of the following are examples of autoimmune disorders, EXCEPT
Sickle-cell anemia
The distal convoluted tubule is comprised of what type of epithelium?
Simple cuboidal epithelium
What type of epithelium does the renal tubule consist of?
Simple cuboidal epithelium
The proximal convoluted tubule is comprised of what type of epithelium?
Simple cuboidal epithelium with microvilli
What type of epithelium is the parietal layer of the glomerular capsule made of?
Simple squamous
What type of epithelium does both the parietal and visceral layers of Bowman's capsule consist of?
Simple squamous epithelium
The renal tubule and collecting duct consist of what type of epithelium?
Single layer of polar epithelial cells on a basement membrane
embryonic heart chambers
Sinus venous, atrium, ventricle, & bulbus cordis
Venules
Small Veins -Formed when capillary beds unite -very porous - allow fluids and WBCs into tissues
Vasa Vasorum
Small vessels that help to nourish the external layer of larger vessels Ex: Aorta
Auricles
Small wrinkled protruding appendages that increase storage volume of atria.
What type of muscle do the walls of the calyces, pelvis, and ureter contain?
Smooth muscle
Transcellular transport of water in the small intestine depends on the active transport of what ion?
Sodium
sources of water intake/output
Sources of water intake-water in beverages, moist foods, and metabolism Sources of water output-urine, skin, lungs, feces, sweat
Bone Marrow
Stem cells that will form B cells or NK cells are found only in the
Vascular Spasm
Step 1 of hemostasis causes vasoconstriction, chemicals release endothelial cells and platelets, and reflexes initiated by local pain receptors. Most effective in smaller blood vessels.
Platelet Plug Formation
Step 2 of hemostasis, platelets aggregate to form a plug to temporarily seal a break in the blood vessel wall.
Coagulation
Step 3 of hemostasis, also known as blood clotting, reinforces the platelet plug with fibrin threads that act as a :molecular glue" for the aggregated platelets. Blood is transformed from a liquid to a gel in a multi-step process that involves a series of substances called clotting factors or procoagulants.
Places to take pulse
Superficial temporal artery facial artery common carotid artery Brachial artery radial artery femoral artery popliteal artery Posterior tibial artery dorsalis pedis artery
What type of fibers is the renal plexus supplied by?
Sympathetic fibers
Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter at which of the following synapses?
Sympathetic postganglionic synapse
What controls the vasoconstriction and vasodiolation of the Tunica Media in the vessels
Sympathetic vasomotor nerve fibers
Two types of lymphocytes
T Cells: act against viruses B Cells: produce antibodies
Thymus
T cells achieve self-tolerance in the _______.
False
T cells represent a small portion of the lymphocytes in the circulatory system.
Lymphocytes that develop immunocompetence in the thymus are
T lymphocytes
Without _______ there is no adaptive immune response
T lymphocytes
False
T or F: The production of antibodies against an antigen is an example of nonspecific immunity.
Lymphocytes
T, B, & Natural Killers
False
T/F: Immunity from getting a vaccine is an example of active naturally acquired immunity.
True
T/F: Immunity to an infant via breast milk is an example of passive naturally acquired immunity.
True
T/F: Viruses only live inside other cells.
What part of the spinal cord do the kidneys extend from?
T12-L3
II
T4 helper cells look for MHC ____ & nonself antigens
I, Cytokines or proteins
T8 look for MHC ___ & nonself antigens on infected body cells. ____ cells costimulate T8s
innate external defenses
Tears and mucus membranes would be a part of which defense system?
Temperature regulation
Temp rises (Heat exposure, fever, vigorous exercise) - Hypothalamic signals reduce vasomotor stimulation of the skin vessels -Heat radiates from the skin
38C (100.4F)
Temp. of blood
The blood supply leading directly into the nephron is the __________.
The blood supply to the nephron is the afferent arteriole.
cytotoxic T
The cells directly responsible for cellular immunity are the ________ cells.
B
The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the ________ cells.
Plasma
The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells.
NK
The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the ________ cells.
Carbaminohemoglobin
The combining of carbon dioxide (20%) in the blood with hemoglobin, binding to amino acids rather than to the heme (red pigment) group.
pyrogens
These molecules are secreted by leukocytes and macrophages and result in a fever.
thymus
The first lymphoid organ to appear in development is (are) the:
the release of infammatory chemicals
The first step in inflammation is __________.
Opsonization - enhancing phagocytosis of antigens Chemotaxis - attracting macrophages and neutrophils Cell Lysis - rupturing membranes of foreign cells Agglutination - clustering and binding of pathogens together (sticking)
The following are the basic functions of complement:
Where do the ureter, renal blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves all join each kidney at?
The hilum
True
The immune system is highly adaptive because gene coding for antibodies displays somatic recombination.
maintain extracellular fluid balance, collect excess fluid from the interstitial space, defend the body against foreign cells and molecules
The lymphatic system functions to?
the tonsils
The lymphoid organ(s) located in the throat that defend(s) against invading bacteria coming in through the mouth and nose is (are) __________.
lymphocytes
The lymphoid tissue of the spleen ("white pulp") contains many __________.
reticular connective tissue
The lymphoid tissue's structural framework of is composed of __________.
gather and remove pathogens entering through the pharynx
The main role of the tonsils is to __________.
The major calyces are the __________.
The major calyces are the large branches of the renal pelvis.
Type O Blood
The most common blood type in North America; contains neither type A or type B agglutinogens.
Blood
The only liquid fluid in the human body; consists of a sticky, opaque fluid with a characteristic metallic taste; denser than water; slightly alkaline with a pH between 7.35 and 7.45; accounts for approximately 8% of body weight.
True
The polio vaccine is an example of active artificial immunity.
costimulation
The process that begins when a helper T cell binds to a class II MHC protein on a displaying cell is known as __________.
What tubules' lumen looks hazy under a microscope?
The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)
Fibrinolysis
The removal of unneeded clots when healing has occurred.
More than 90% of the blood entering the kidney perfuses what?
The renal cortex
Which process results in increased blood pressure in response to hormone release?
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism results in increased blood pressure in response to hormone release.
1. Antigen invades body. 2. Plasma cells produce large amounts of class IgE antibodies against allergen. 3. IgE antibodies attach to mast cells in body tissues. 4. More of same antigen invades body. 5. Antigen combines with IgE attached to mast cells (and basophils), triggering degranulation and the release of histamine. 6. Histamine causes blood cells to dilate and become leaky.
The stages of the allergic response.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the stomach?
The stomach chemically digests lipids.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the stomach?
The stomach releases enzymes to digest carbohydrates.
True
The thymus functions strictly in maturation of T cells.
Which structure is the muscular tube that delivers urine to the bladder?
The ureter is the muscular tube that delivers urine to the bladder.
5X thicker than H2O
The viscosity of blood
lymphocytes
The white pulp of the spleen is important because it contains?
Universal Recipient
Theorectically refers to type AB recipients because they can recieve blood transfusions from any of the ABO blood groups.
Universal Donor
Theoretically refers to type O donors because their blood contains neither type A or type B agglutinogens.
Rh Blood Groups
There are 52 Rh agglutinogens, each of which is called a Rh Factor; only C, D, and E antigens are fairly common.
thymus
There is a decrease in our ability to fight infection as we age. Which lymphoid organ may have a role in this decline?
Why do peritubular capillaries experience low pressure?
They arise from high pressure arterioles
How do White Blood Cells fit in capillaries when they are bigger than Red Blood Cells
They can change shape in order to fit
All of the following are functions of interferons, EXCEPT that_____
They only occur naturally
two events triggered when plasma osmolarity increases
Thirst and release of ADH
memory cell
This immune cell is able to respond quickly after any subsequent encounter with the same antigen.
appendix
This structure, attached to the cecum, is in an ideal location to destroy bacteria before they breach the intestinal wall.
autoimmune disease
This type of disease results from the inability of the immune system to distinguish self- from nonself-antigens.
Bleeding Disorder
Thrombocytopenia, causes spontaneous bleeding from small vessels all over the body; Hemophilia, a hereditary genetic condition with a deficiency of factor VIII (anti-hemophilic factor) that causes bleeding into the tissues from any tissue trauma.
Disorders of Hemostasis
Thromboembolic disorders, bleeding disorders, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
Cytotoxic T cells kill target cells
Through insertion of perforins into the target's membrane
After entering the renal pelvis, where does urine flow?
Through the ureter into the bladder to be stored
S-T segment
Time when ventricular myocytes are in plateau phase of action potential - depolarized.
inflammation
Tissue damage triggers this to start repair, dispose of debris & isolate the damage?
Active artificially acquired immunity is a result of
Vaccination
EXTRA CRED TERM mitral valve prolapse
Valve disorder affecting up to 1% of the population. most often seen in young women. appears to have genetic basis resulting in abnormal chordae tendinae or a malfunction of the pappillary muscles. one or more of the flaps of the mitral valve become incompetant and billow into the left atrium during ventricular systole allowing blood regurgitation. occasionally requires valve surgery
Incompetent valves (insufficient valves)
Valve does not close properly and blood back-flows causing heart to re-pump same blood over and over.
What are the vessels that branch off of efferent arterioles that play a role in forming concentrated urine called?
Vasa recta
What kind of vessel has valves
Veins
surround the splenic sinuses
Where is red pulp
1. big in infants, increases thru childhood, & atrophies at puberty 2. help T lymphocytes to become immunocompetent 3. hassal's corpuscles 4. no b cells 5. T lymphocyte maturation 6. blood thymus barrier 7. star epithelial cells
What are the 7 unique features of the thymus
antibodies and complement proteins
What can act as opsonins on bacteria, thus enhancing phagocytosis?
plasma B cells
What cells make antibodies?
intact skin and mucous membranes
What constitutes the body's first line of defense against disease?
Neutralization Opsonization Complement activation Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity
What do antibodies do? (4 actions)
disposes of worn out RBC and bloodborne pathogens
What happens in red pulp
formation of B cells and T cells (immune response)
What happens in white pulp
interferons
What innate internal defenses work by interfering with viral replication?
initial exposure to an allergen
What is a challenge
interstitial fluid
What is the composition of lymph most similar to?
Thymus
What is the most unique lymphatic organ
antigenic determinant
What is the name of the unique area (specific region) that a lymphocyte recognizes and binds to?
increase permeability
What is the role of the mini-valves in lymph capillaries?
co-stimulation
What is the second step of T cell activation?
lymph nodes
What is the smallest lymphatic organ
lymph nodes
What is/are the principal lymphoid organ(s) in the body?
lymphatic capillary
What lymphatic structure absorbs excess tissue fluid?
humoral immunity
What type of immunity can be transferred by bodily fluids from one person to another, thus conferring immunity to the recipient?
processed fragments of protein antigens displayed on surfaces of body cells
What types of antigen are recognized by T cells?
all nucleated cells
What types of cells display protein fragments produced by the cancer within them?
ADH secretion as a feedback mechanism and stimuli
When ADH levels are low, most water in collecting ducts isn't absorbed resulting in large quantities of dilute urine, when levels are high, filtered water is reabsorbed resulting in lower volume of concentration Stretch receptors of aorta, and receptors of hypothalamus
germinal centers
When B lymphocytes are dividing rapidly, the __________ of the lymphoid tissue enlarge(s).
How are veins formed
When Venules converge
inflammation is ocurring
When a localized area exhibits increased capillary filtration, hyperemia, and swelling, it is an indication that __________.
cytotoxic T
When an antigen is bound to a Class I MHC molecule, it can stimulate a ________ cell.
Oxyhemoglobin
When oxygen binds to iron, it assumes a three-dimensional shape and becomes ruby red.
distal portion of the small intestine
Where are Peyer's patches located?
in the medullary cords
Where are plasma cells found in a lymph node?
axillary, groin, neck, intestinal
Where are the lymph nodes concentrated
roof of pharynxs, sides of pharynx, back of tongue
Where are the tonsils located
cisterna chyli
Where does the thoracic duct begin
left side of stomach
Where if the spleen located
germinal centers of the cortex
Where in the lymph node do the B cells first encounter antigens presented by dendritic cells?
deep in the cortex
Where in the lymph node do the T cells first encounter antigens presented by dendritic cells?
natural killer cells
a small subgroup of lymphocytes that will attack cancerous cells
chemical buffers
a solution which can maintain almost constant ph value when dilute acids are added to it.
appendix
a tubular offshoot from the cecum
lymphoid tissue
a type of loose connective tissue called reticular connective tissue; dominates all lymphoid organs except thymus
list and describe several functions of potassium ions
a) ICF/ECF potassium ion concentration affects cell resting membrane potential b) ECF potassium decreases membrane potential
three ways hydrogen ions are regulated in order
a) bicarbonate buffer system b) phosphate buffer system c)protein buffer system
sources of most hydrogen ions
a) breakdown of phosphorus-containing proteins b) anerobic respiration of glucose c) fat metabolism
bicarbonate secretion
a) co2 diffuses to cell from blood to form carbonic acid via water and carbonic anhydrase b) carbonic acid dissociates to form HCO3 and H c) hco3 transported with na into duct lumen d) movemet of na and hco3 causes osmotic movemet of h2o into duct lumen
respiratory regulation of hydrogen in acidic and basic conditions
a) when breathing is increased, blood carbon dioxide level decreases and the blood becomes more base b) when breathing is decreased, blood carbon dioxide level increases and the blood becomes more acidic
Which coronary vessel is known as "the widow maker"?
a. Anterior interventricular artery, also known as Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery. b. Supplies blood to the anterior walls of both ventricles.
Systemic Cirtuit
a. Aorta and arteries transport oxygen-rich blood from the LEFT side of the heart to the rest of the body. b. Veins carry oxygen-poor blood to the RIGHT side of the heart.
P Wave (ECG)
a. Atrial depolarization initiated at the SA Node. b. Phase 1 of cardiac cycle
P-R interval
a. Beginning of atrial depolarization to beginning of ventricular depolarization. b. Lasts ~0.16 s: includes atrial depolarization and contraction and passage and spread of depolarization through rest of heart.
Bicuspid (mitral) valve
a. Between left atrium and left ventricle. b. Most prone to failure due to high pressures generated in left ventricle during contraction.
Extrinsic innervation of the heart
a. Cardiovascular center: located in medulla oblongata b. Cardioacceleratory center: sympathetic branch. c. Cardioinhibitory center: parasympathetic branch.
Cardiac Veins
a. Collect blood from the myocardium. b. Coronary sinus: enlarged vein on posterior aspect of heart that empties into right atrium and receives blood from three major tributaries: I) Great cardiac vein - in anterior interventricular sulcus II) Middle cardiac vein - in posterior interventricular sulcus III) Small cardiac vein - along heart's right inferior margin c. Anterior cardiac veins: empty directly in right atrium
Intercalated discs
a. Connection between cardiac myocytes. b. Contain: I) Desmosomes: anchor cells to one another. II) Gap junctions: allow sharing of electrical impulses.
Fibrous cardiac skeleton
a. Connective tissue fibers that form dense network. b. Provides additional support where great vessels enter and exit heart and around heart valves. c. Does not conduct electrical impulses - limits spread of action potentials to specific pathways.
Fast Myocytes
a. Contractile cardiac muscle cells. b. Bulk of the myocardium. c. AP similar to skeletal muscle cells, but have a plateau and a longer refractory period and rely on ECF Calcium to contract. d. Resting membrane potential (RMP): -90 mV. e. Depolarization potential: +30 mV. f. AP lasts 200ms = 1 contraction.
Semilunar (SL) valves
a. Cup-like valves at opening of large arteries leaving heart b. Closed while heart is in diastole (filling) c. Forced open when pressure in ventricles rises during systole. d. Pulmonary semilunar: at opening of pulmonary trunk e. Aortic semilunar: at opening of aorta
P Wave
a. Depolarization of the atria. b. ~0.1 s after this wave, the atria contracts.
QRS complex
a. Depolarization of ventricles and proceeds ventricular contraction. b. Repolarization of atria obscured by ventricular depolarization.
Pericardium
a. Double-walled sac that encloses the heart. b. Composed of Fibrous and Serous layers. c. Serous Layer: Parietal, Visceral and Cavity.
Electrical and Mechanical events in the heart.
a. Electrical events always occur before mechanical events b. Mechanical events include: heart sounds indicating valve function, and changing pressures and volumes.
Sinus rhythm
a. Established by the SA Node. b. About 75 depolarizations per minute.
Cardiac Tamponade
a. Excess fluid accumulating in the pericardial cavity that compresses the heart and limits its ability to pump blood. b. Treated by inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity and draining off excess fluid.
Atherosclerosis
a. Fatty build-up that changes and stiffens blood vessel walls b. Multiple factors contribute but diet most important. c. Can lead to hypertension and coronary artery occlusion.
Bundle of His (AV Bundle)
a. From AV node through the superior part of the interventricular septum. b. Only electrical connection between atria and ventricles (fibrous skeleton separates rest of area) c. Without input from AV node: depolarizes 30 times per minute. d. Divides into two branches: Right and Left bundle branches e. Continue toward apex of heart in interventricular septum.
Coronary circulation
a. Functional blood supply of the heart. b. Coronary arteries: left and right. c. Cardiac veins: coronary sinus and anterior cardiac veins.
Heart blood supply
a. Grooves on surface of heart carry blood vessels supplying the myocardium. b. Coronary sulcus, or atrioventricular groove: encircles the junction of the atria and ventricles. c. Anterior interventricular sulcus: contains the anterior interventricular artery and continues as posterior interventricular sulcus.
Factors affecting After load (stroke volume)
a. Hardening of the arteries, hypertension, and other conditions that increase the pressure the blood must overcome to leave he heart. b. ↑after load = lower SV
Valvular Stenosis
a. Hardening of valves: usually due to calcium deposits or scar tissue following endocarditis. b. Constricts the opening of valves. c. Stiffness compels heart to contract more forcibly than normal.
Myocardial Infarction (MI)
a. Heart attack: prolonged coronary blockage leading to myocardial cell death b. Dead myocardial cells replace by scar (connective) tissue.
Cardiac Myocytes
a. Heart muscle cells. b. Short, branched, and striated. c. Centrally-located nuclei and large amount of mitochondria. d. Relies exclusively on aerobic respiration. e. T-tubules fewer and wider; and sarcoplasmic reticulum not as large as skeletal muscle f. Sarcomere arrangement and contract via sliding-filament model. g. Attach to the fibrous skeleton allowing cardiac muscle to pull against it. h. Connected by intercalated discs.
Tachycardia
a. Increased HR > 100 beats/min b. Sustained tachycardia promotes fibrillation.
Pericarditis
a. Inflammation of the pericardium. b. Increases friction and produces creaking sound and pain deep to the sternum c. May lead to adhesions between visceral and parietal pericardium that impede movement of heart.
Intrinsic vs. Extrinsic innervation of the heart
a. Intrinsic conduction system: sets basic rhythm of heart. b. Extrinsic innervation: alter basic rhythm. Sympathetic and Parasympathetic inputs.
Atrioventricular Node (AV Node)
a. Located at inferior portion of right atrium at interatrial septum. b. Delays impulse by about 0.1 second: allows atria to depolarize and contract prior to contraction of ventricles. c. Once through AV node: rapidly travels through rest of intrinsic conducting system d. In the absence of SA node: AV Node spontaneously depolarizes at rate of 50 times per minute.
Atrioventricular (AV) valves
a. Located between atria and ventricles. b. Lie relaxed and open during diastole (filling period of heart) b. Edges of valve attached to chordae tendinae and papillary muscles - prevent evertion of valves and backflow of blood during ventricular contraction (systole) c. Tricuspid valve - between right atrium and right ventricle. d. Bicuspid (mitral) valve - between left atrium and left ventricle; most prone to failure due to high pressures generated in left ventricle during contraction.
Sinoatrial Node (SA Node)
a. Located in superior portion of right atrium next to entrance of superior vena cava b. Original pacemaker since cells spontaneously depolarize faster than other areas in the intrinsic conduction system c. Depolarization of SA node drives rates of depolarization of rest of heart through gap junctions. d. Depolarization spreads throughout atria via intermodal pathway to AV Node. e. Sinus rhythm: about 75 depolarizations per minute.
Total Heart Block (Arrhythmia)
a. No impulses get through and ventricles beat at their intrinsic rate = too slow to maintain adequate circulation. b. Requires artificial pacemakers to properly recouple atria and ventricles.
Slow Myocytes
a. Pacemaker cells: intrinsic cardiac conduction system. b. Spontaneously depolarize. c. Small patches of specialized cardiac myocytes that initiate and distribute electrical impulse throughout the heart but do not, themselves, contribute to contraction of heart. d. Unstable resting membrane potential, never fully "stop" depolarizing.
Pacemaker Potential
a. Pacemakers don't have a resting membrane potential. b. At end of an action potential, sVGK+ close and slow "funny" Na+ channels open: cell immediately depolarizes again.
Sympathetic nervous stimulation of the heart - celullar level
a. Post-ganglionic fibers release NorEpi → binds to β1 receptors on heart. b. Metabotropic signaling involving G protein → adenylate cyclase → ↑cAMP. c. ↑protein kinases that phosphorylate calcium channels → ↑Ca2+ d. ↑Ca2+ = ↑contractility
Extrasystole (Arrhythmia)
a. Premature contraction before SA node initiates next contraction. b. Because heart has longer time to fill before the next normal contraction - felt as "thud".
Pulmonary Circuit
a. Pulmonary arteries transport oxygen-poor blood from the RIGHT side of the heart to the lungs for oxygenation and removal of waste carbon dioxide. b. Pulmonary veins carry oxygen rich blood to the LEFT side of the heart.
Right side of the heart
a. Receives oxygen-poor blood from systemic circuit. b. Sends oxygen-poor blood into pulmonary circuit to be oxygenated.
Left side of the heart
a. Receives oxygen-rich blood from pulmonary circuit. b. Sends oxygen-rich blood into systemic circuit to feed the body.
Coronary Arteries
a. Right and left: Arise from the base of the aorta. b. Pulsatile delivery of blood to myocardium: compression during ventricular contraction dramatically reduces flow.
Right and left ventricles
a. Right ventricle: occupies most of anterior surface of heart; receives blood from right atrium; sends out blood through pulmonary trunk. b. Left ventricle: covers posterior and inferior surfaces; receives blood from left atrium; sends out blood through aorta.
Left coronary artery
a. Runs toward the left side of the heart and divides into two major branches: I) anterior interventricular artery: also known as Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery and "the widow maker"; supplies blood to the anterior walls of both ventricles II) Circumflex artery: supplies the left atrium and posterior walls of the left ventricle
Fossa Ovalis
a. Shallow depression where the foramen ovale existed in the fetus. b. Located in Right Atrium.
Bradycardia
a. Slow HR < 60 beats/min b Desirable consequence of endurance training: heart hypertrophies and SV increases allowing lower HR for same CO (reduces workload on heart). c. In poorly conditioned people, persistent bradycardia results in inadequate CO and blood circulation d. Warning sign of brain edema after head trauma.
Partial Heart Block (Arrhythmia)
a. Some impulses reach ventricles but results in unusual ECG. b. 2nd degree block = 2 P waves for every QRS complex c. Requires artificial pacemakers to properly recouple atria and ventricles.
Systole vs. Diastole
a. Systole = contraction period of heart - monitored by increases in pressure and ejection of blood. b. Diastole = relaxation period of heart - associated with filling of the chambers of the heart.
Serous Pericardium
a. Thin serous (fluid-secreting) membrane. b. Parietal layer: lines the inner surface of the fibrous pericardium. c. Visceral layer: covers the surface of the heart and also forms the outer layer of the wall of the heart (epicardium). d. Pericardial cavity: slit-like fluid filled space; allows fairly friction-free movement of the heart.
Angina Pectoris
a. Thoracic pain caused by transient deficiency in blood delivery to the myocardium b. Stress-induced spasms of the coronary arteries, increased physical demands on the heart. c. Myocardial cells are weakened by temporal reduction in oxygen but do not die.
Fibrous Pericardium
a. Tough dense (irregular) connective tissue b. Anchors heart to surrounding structures and prevents overfilling of heart with blood.
Junctional Rhythm (Arrhythmia)
a. Type of Ectopic Focus. b. When SA node not functioning and AV node takes over: 40-60 beats per minute c. P wave is absent and rhythm slower than SA node but still adequate to maintain circulation.
Fibrillation (Arrhythmia)
a. Uncoordinated atrial and/or ventricular contractions arising from uncoordinated electrical activity. b. Rapid and irregular contractions: myocardium is "quivering", not functioning as singe contractile unit. c. Ventricular fibrillation - life threatening as heart cannot pump blood out. d. Electrical jolt - "defibrillator" used to hopefully "reset" myocytes and allow SA node to take over pacing.
QRS Complex (ECG)
a. Ventricular depolarization + atrial repolarization. b. Phase 2 (isovolumetric stage) of cardiac cycle.
T Wave (ECG)
a. Ventricular repolarization. b. Phase 3 of cardiac cycle.
Cardiac Output
a. Volume pumped out by each ventricle per minute. b. CO = SV x HR c. Given in L/min
Ectopic Focus (Arrhythmia)
a. When an area other than the SA node becomes the pacemaker. b. Can appear even when SA node is functioning: small region of heart becomes superexitable. c. Causes can be too much caffeine or nicotine (causes an area to generate impulses more quickly than SA node)
Heart Block (Arrhythmia)
a. When extended delay or damage occurs to AV nodes, AV bundle or bundle branches. b. Only area for passage of electrical impulse from atria to ventricles c. Total block: no impulses get through and ventricles beat at their intrinsic rate = too slow to maintain adequate circulation. d. Partial block: some impulses reach ventricles but results in unusual ECG. e. 2nd degree block = 2 P waves for every QRS complex f. Requires artificial pacemakers to properly recouple atria and ventricles.
Right coronary artery
a. With branches, supplies right atrium and ventricle. b. Gives rise to: I) Right marginal artery: supplies the myocardium of the lateral right side of the heart. II) Posterior interventricular artery: runs to the apex and supplies the posterior ventricular walls.
Location of the heart
a. Within the mediastinum of the thoracic cavity. b. Extends from the level of the second rib to the fifth intercostal space.
end systolic volume
amt of blood remaining in ventricle. after contaction
Electrocardiogram (ECG)
a.Graphical record of overall heart electrical activity (not a single action potential) obtained from surface electrodes (attached to the skin) b. Has 3 distinguishable waves: P wave; QRS complex, T wave.
heart murmurs
abnormal heart sounds; most often indicate heart valve problems
tachycardia
abnormally fast heart rate (more than 100 beat per minute) that may result from elevated body temperature, stress, certain drugs, or heart disease
A function of the large intestine is to:
absorb water
passage of digested materials from the lumen of the GI tract into the blood or lymph
absorption
Many of the early food allergies seen in infants are caused by __________.
absorption of whole proteins
continuous capillaries
abundant in the skin & muscles; tight junctions connect endothelial cells; intercellular clefts allow the passage of fluids and small solutes; form the blood-brain barrier in the brain; least permeable & most common capillary
weak acid
acid that dissociates incompletely, releasing some hydrogen atoms in a solution
Vein characteristics
act as blood reservoirs holding 60-65% of blood volume at any time; have all 3 tunics; D = .1mm-2.5 cm
Give examples of paracrines
adenosine, prostaglandin E, angiotension II
Accessory organs of the digestive system include all the following except ________.
adrenal gland
musclar pump
aid venous return; contraction of skeletal muscles "milk" blood toward the heart & valves prevent backflow
respiratory pump
aid venous return; pressure changes created during breathing move blood toward the beart by squeezing abdominal veins as thoracic veins expand
influence of aldosterone on potassium ion concentration
aldosterone stimulates potassium ion secretion by principal cells
Ammonia is extremely ________________
alkalitic
componenets of each chemical buffer system
all three are the first line of defense against shift...
gap junctions
allows ions to pass; electrically couple adjacent cells
Proteins are digested into _______.
amino acids
proteins
amino acids
helper T cells
attack and lyse cells that are not "self"
autoregulation
automatic adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirement at any given point in time-- two types: metabolic & myogenic
What type of cells are the juxtaglomerular cells?
baroreceptors
neural regulation of blood pressure
baroreceptors stretch and send message to medulla which slows HR and dilates arteries or baroreceptor inactivity sends message to medulla which speeds HR and constricts arteries
innate
barrier and chemical defenses
What forms a physical barrier that blocks all but the smallest proteins while still permitting most other solutes to pass?
basement membrane
lymph node
bean-shaped structure surrounded by a dense fibrous capsule with fibrous strands that divide it into compartments
Why is the hydrostatic pressure of the capsular space higher than hydrostatic pressure surrounding most capillaries?
because filtrate is confined to a small space with a narrow outlet
why ECF(NA+) remain stable
because of immediate adjustments of water volume
lymphatic capillaries
begin as blind-ended tubes that weave between tissue cells and blood capillaries in loose connective tissues; the smallest vessels
The primary secretion of the large intestine is __________, which functions in protection and lubrication.
bicarbonate and potassium
functions of each of the chemical buffer when exposed to a strong acid and strong base
bicarbonate system- converts strong acids to a weak acid, and a strong base to a weak base Phosphate system-converts strong acid to weak acid, strong base to a weak base Protein system-most powerful chemical buffer, releases hydrogens when ph rises, accepts hydrogens when ph falls
three major chemical buffers in the body
bicarbonate, phosphate, protein buffer systems
emulsifies fats for digestion
bile
What substances from different organs would mix together at the hepatopancreatic ampulla?
bile and pancreatic enzymes
memory B cells
bind to antigen-presenting cells to begin the process of co-stimulation
RBCs have
bioconcave disc, no nucleus, no organelles, 120 day life span, filled w/ hemoglobin
cystitis
bladder infection
functions of calcium
blood coagulation, promotes neuromuscular excitation-contraction coupling, activation of enzymes, synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins, release of neurotransmitters from synaptic vesicles
right atrium veins
blood enters the atrium via three veins: Superior vena cava Inferior vena cava Coronary SInus
location of most sodium ions
blood, body fluids, and extracellular fluids, contribute to maintenance of concentration and charge differences across cell membranes
tissue perfusion
blow flow through tissues for nutrient delivery, gas exchange, absorption and filtration
able to stretch and hold large amounts of food
body
location of most calcium in the body
bone and teeth
Which enzymes are responsible for the final chemical breakdown of carbohydrates, amino acids, and nucleic acids?
brush border enzymes
How do inward pressures work?
by inhibiting filtrate formation by opposing hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries
How is excess fluid returned to the blood
by the lymphatic system
Leukemia
cancer of WBCs, uncontrolled growth of leukocytes, death caused by overwhelming infections
cytotoxic T cells
capable of mounting a rapid attack against the same antigen in secondary immune responses
fibroblast-like cell that produces the reticular fiber stroma
captures antigens and brings them back to lymph nodes
most is ingested in the form of starch
carbohydrates
The _______ guards the entry of food into the stomach.
cardiac sphincter
What is resting Heart Rate maintained by
cardio-inhibitory center via the parasympathetic vagus nerves
edema
caused by anything that increases flow of fluids out of the bloodstream or hinders their return, increased BP, capillary permeability, blood vessel blockage, CHF, hypertension, high blood volume
edema
caused by excess blood flow to the injured area; helps to dilute harmful substances and brings in excess oxygen
T wave
caused by ventricular repolarization & typically lasts 0.16 seconds
thymus
causes T cells to become immunocompetent
What does the Direct Renal Mechanism do when there is increased BP or blood volume
causes the kidneys to eliminate more urine - thus reducing BP
immunoglobulin
cell adhesion molecule on WBCs
CAMs
cell adhesion molecule on vessel epithelial cells
presented, t4 helper cells
cells must be ____ to antigens by _______
cell, MHC, T
cellular or ____ mediated immunity involves ____ & ____ lymphocytes
calcified connective tissue around the bottom of the tooth
cementum
Some aspects of the __________ phase of gastric secretion may be considered conditioned reflexes.
cephalic
The phases of gastric secretion from first to last are __________.
cephalic phase, gastric phase, intestinal phase
What do barorecpetors sense
changes in pressure -a neural short term control of the blood pressure
specificity, versatility, memory, tolerance
characteristics of specific immunity
leukocytosis
characterized by high numbers of neutrophils
bases
chemical compound that combines with an acid to form a salt and water
enzymatic degradation of foodstuffs into simpler molecules
chemical digestion
cytokines, Interleukins
chemical hormone-like messengers between WBCs
what do chemoreceptors sense
chemicals -a neural short term control of the blood pressure
perforins
chemicals injected by Natural Killer cells
leukocytosis
chemicals released from injured tissues stimulate rapid proliferation and release of cells
pyrogens
chemicals that reset body temperature
produces an inactive enzyme
chief
Which of the following cells produce pepsinogen?
chief cells
regulation of anions
chloride is the major anion with sodium in the ECF, 99% chloride is reabsorbed under normal PH conditions, when acidosis occurs fewer chloride ions are reabsorbed, other anions have transported maximums and excesses are excreted in urine
major anions in the body and their locations
chloride, located in all body fluids
The function of a third, obliquely-oriented layer of smooth muscle in the muscularis externa of the stomach is to ________.
churn, mix, and pummel the food contents to reduce them to small fragments
macrophages
clings to fiber and goes thru phagocytosis
SKIN FOLD TEST
clinical test of body fat. skin fold in the back of the arm or below the scapula is measured with a caliper. A fold = > 1 inch indicates excess fat
Platelets
clot formation, small fragments of megakaryocytes, thrombopoietin regulates formation
storng acids
completely dissociates in a solution releasing all hydrogen atoms in a solution
strong bases
completely dissociates in water
QRS
complex that results from ventricular depolartization & proceeds ventricular contraction; average duration is 0.08 seconds
myocardium
composed mainly of cardiac muscle & forms the bulk of the heart; fibrous skeleton of the heart
AIDS
condition in which T helper cells are destroyed by a virus
circulatory shock
condition in which blood vessels are inadequately filled and blood cannot circulate
right & left bundle branches
conduct the impulses through the intraventricular septum
AV bundle
connects the atria to the ventricles in the intrinisic conduction system
______ can result if food passes too slowly through the large intestine.
constipation
vestibule
contains external openings of urethra and vagina
saliva and tears
contains the antibacterial enzyme called lysozyme
systole
contraction
what is Stroke Volume controlled by
controlled by venous return (EDV) End Diastolic Volume
helper T cells
coordinate humoral and cellular immune responses
progesterone is secreted via
corpus luteum
acid mantle
covers the skin and limits bacterial growth
PICA
craving and eating something substances not normally considered nutrients, such as clay cornstarch or dirt
Velocity of Blood Flow is inversely related to
cross sectional area
exposed and covered in enamel
crown
What types of cells are the distal convoluted tubules (DCT) made of ?
cuboidal
rheumatoid arthritis
disease that destroys the linings of joints
negative chrontropic factors
decrease heart rate
serous pericardium
deep to the fibrous pericardium; slippery, thin, 2-layer serous membrane
elimination of indigestible solids
defecation
arrythmias
defects in the intrinisc conduction system causing irregular heart rhythms
adaptive
defenses we gain through life experiences and exposure to antigens
hypokalemia
deficiency of potassium in the bloodstream
Purkinje fibers
depolarize the contractile cells of both ventricles
macrophages
derived from circulating monocytes
EXTRA CRED TERM cardiac catheteriztion
diagnostic procedure involving passage of a fine catheter through a blood vessel into the heart, blood samples are drawn, allowing oxygen content, blood flow, and pressures within the heart to be measured. Findings help to detect valve problems, heart deformaties, and other heart malfunctions
pulse pressure
difference between systolic & diastolic pressure
Pulse pressure
difference between systolic and diastolic pressure systolic - diastolic = pulse pressure
capillary exchange - 4 methods
diffusion (lipide soluble), intercellular clefts (water soluble between endothelial cells), fenestrations (water soluble through endothelial holes), vesicular transport (large molecules through vesicles)
varicose veins
dilated, twisted veins that bulge beneath the skin; risk factors include pregnancy, obesity, heredity
vascular shunt
directly connects the terminal arteriole and postcapillary venule
ventricles
discharging chambers of the heart
ECG
electrocardiography; composite of all the action potentials generated by nodal & contracile cells at a given time
what do post capillary venules consist of?
endothelium and a few pericytes
tunica intima
endothelium that lines the lumen of all vessels; innermost layer
What is released by the adrenal medulla when blood pressure falls?
epinephrine
What is produced by the kidneys that targets the red bone marrow for red blood cell production?
erythroproeitin
The tube that connects the oral cavity to the stomach is called the ________.
esophagus
influence of estrogens, progesterone, and glucocorticoids on sodium balance
estrogens-enchance NaCl reabsorption by renal tubules, may cause water retention during menstrual cycles, are responsible for edema during pregnancy Progesterone-decreases sodium reabsorption, acts as diuretic, promoting sodium and water loss Glucocorticoids-enhance reabsorption of sodium, promote edema
hypotonic hydration
excessive H20 enters the ECF, ECF osmotic pressure falls, H20 moves into cells by osmosis, cells swell
dehydration
excessive loss of H2O from ECF, ECF osmotic pressure rises, 3 cells lose H2O to ECF by osmosis, cells shrink
blood pressure
force per unit exerted on the wall of a blood vessel by the blood; expressed in mm Hg
incompetent valve
forces the heart to pump the same blood over & over because the valve does not close properly & blood backflows
venules
formed when capillary beds unite; very porous-- allow fluids & WBCs into tissues
IgE
found in body secretions such as milk, saliva, and sweat
(1)redness (2)swelling (3)heat (4)pain
four cardinal signs of inflammation
coronary circulation
functional blood supply of the heart; shortest circulation in the body; provided by right & left coronary arteries
a body system whereas each part or organ of the system is not connected together. The organs are scattered across the body.
functional system
a functional system is a body system whereas each part or organ of the system is not connected together. The organs are scattered across the body. An organ system is a body system of organs that is connected together from start to finish.
functional system vs organ system
Bile is stored and concentrated in the __________.
gallbladder
Which of the following is considered to be an accessory organ of the digestive system?
gallbladder
These specialized parts of the stomach secrete hydrochloric acid and a protein-digesting enzyme.
gastric glands
stimulated by distension of the stomach and low acidity
gastric phase
Which of the following intestinal hormones is NOT an enterogastrone?
gastrin
Which regulatory chemical stimulates gastric gland activity and motility?
gastrin
endocardium
glistening white sheet of endothelium (squamous epithelium) resting on a thin connective tissue layer; lines the heart chambers & covers the fibrous skeleton of the valves
What produces a cell and protein free filtrate?
glomerular filtration
What are 3 process of urine formation and the adjustment of blood composition?
glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion
In carbohydrate metabolism, sucrose is digested to:
glucose and fructose.
Two types of white blood cells
granulocytes & agranulocytes
The mesentery attached to the lateral surface of the stomach is called the ________
greater omentum
tonsils
guard the throat by "inviting" bacteria into the lymphatic system and then destroying them
influence of plasma potassium ion concentration
high K+ content of ECF favors entry to it into principal cells and then prompts them to secrete K+, low K+ or accelerated K+ loss depresses its secretion by the collecting ducts
hypertension
high blood pressure
hypernaturemia
high concentration of sodium in blood
chronic hypotension
hint of poor nutrition & warning sirgn for Addison's disease or hypothyroidism
lymph node
houses lymphatic cells and filters lymph
two renal mechanisms that generate new bicarbonate ions
hydrogen ion excretion, ammonium ion excretion
describe the relationship between potassium ions and hydrogen ions
hydrogen ions shift in and out of cells, which lead to corresponding shifts in potassium in the opposite direction
What forces dominate at the arterial end of a capillary bed?
hydrostatic forces dominate
How does glomerular filtration work?
hydrostatic pressure forces fluids and solutes through a membrane
What is the chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood?
hydrostatic pressure of glomerular capillaries
effects of hyper and hypocalcemia
hypercalcemia-inhibits neurons and muscle cells, may cause heart arrhythmias Hypocalcemia-increases excitability, causes muscle tetany
how hypo and hyperventilation affect oxygen levels
hyperventilation raises co2 levels in blood, hypoventilation decreases oxygen tht enters the alveoli of lungs
The_________ is the last segment of the small intestine.
ileum
contains the valve that connects to the large intestines
ileum
White blood cells involved in...
immunity
active natural
immunity gained from being exposed to the pathogen and developing the illness
passive artificial
immunity gained from injections of clonal antibodies to fight off a current pathogen invasion
passive natural
immunity gained from transport of antibodies across the placental membrane or through the mother's milk
active artificial
immunity gained through injections of dead or attenuated strains of the disease-causing agents
natural killer (NK) cells continually patrol the body "on the lookout" for pathogens or diseased host cells.
immunological surveillance
If a BUN level is too high, what is that indicative of?
impending kidney failure or dehydration
thymus
important in early years of life by training T lymphocytes to become immunocompetent
acute hypotension
important sign of circulatory shock
Where are the interlobular arteries located?
in the cortex
positive chrontropic factors
increase heart rate
ANP feedback system in regulating blood volume and pressure
increase in blood pressure/ increase in stretch receptor in atria->releases ANP-> targets JG apparatus of kidney, hypothalamus, posterior pituitary, adrenal cortex A) when targeting JG apparatus-> decreases sodium and water reabsorption->results in renin release->decrease in angiotensin 2->vasodilation->results in decreased BP B) hypothalamus/posterior pituitary->results in decreased ADH release->inhibits collecting ducts of kidneys->decreases sodium and water reabsorption->results in decreased blood volume-> decreased BP c) adrenal cortex->decreases aldosterone release->inhibits collecting ducts of kidneys->decreases sodium and water reabsorption->results in decreased blood volume->decreased BP
An increase in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) will ______________ urine output which will _______________ blood volume and blood pressure.
increase; reduce
Halitosis is caused by __________.
increased activity of anaerobic bacterial activity at the back of the tongue
hyperemia
increased blood flow due to vasodilation of blood vessels entering the injured area
exercise hyperemia
increased blood volume during exercise because of low oxygen and high waste levels
describe the events that baroreceptors trigger when blood volume increases and decreases
increased blood volume- sympathetic impulses to the kidneys decline, afferent arterioles dilute, glomerular filtration rate rises, sodium and water output increases Decreased blood volume- blood pressure decreases, opposite of sympathetic impules imply
myogenic autoregulation
increased stretch of arterioles trigger vasoconstriction which decreases blood volume and decreased stretch causes vasodilation
how changes in alveolar ventilatioin affect ph of the blood
increased ventilation increases gas exchange thereby changing the ph
antidiuretic hormone
increases BP in the short term by decreasing urine output which increases BV; also in the short term by vasoconstriction; produced in the hypothalamus and distributed via pituitary
naturally actively acquired humoral immunity
infection; contact with pathogen
orchitis
inflammation of testes
EXTRA CRED TERM myocarditis
inflammation of the cardiac muscle layer of the heart. sometimes follows an untreated streptococcal infection in children. may weaken the heart and impair its ability to act as a pump
EXTRA CRED TERM endocarditis
inflammation of the endocardium. usually confined to the endocardium of the heart valves. often results from bacterial infection in the bloodstream, but may result from fungal infection or an autoimmune response. Drug addicts may develop from contaminated needles
FAMILIAL HYPERCHOLESTEROLEMIA
inherited condition in which the LDL receptors are absent or abnormal. Uptake of cholesterol by tissue is blocked, total concentration of cholesterol in blood is enormously elevated. (680 mg/ 100 ml blood) Affected pts develop atherosclerosis at an early age, heart attacks in 30's, most die by 60 from coronary artery disease. treatment- dietary changes, exercise, cholesterol reducing drugs.
artificially passively acquired humoral immunity
injection of immune serum (gamma globulin)
medulla
inner lymph tissue where fibers filter
anastomoses
interconnection of blood vessels
capillary beds
interwoven networks of capillaries form the microcirulcation between arterioles and venules
In the ________ of gastric secretion, chyme is moved into the duodenum.
intestinal phase
stimulated by partially digested proteins and fats
intestinal phase
receives fatty lymph (chyme) from stomach, intestines, & other digestive organs.
intestinal trunk drains
Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the digestive system?
intestines
Bacterial flora in the large intestine do NOT produce __________.
intrinsic factor
Pernicious anemia is caused by lack of:
intrinsic factor.
Trabeculae
invaginations of capsule
tonsils
invite infection to promote immunity
mast cells
invoke inflammation when IgE cross-links to them
Which of the following is a condition that affects the large intestine that is NOT explained by anatomical or biochemical abnormalities?
irritable bowel syndrome
thrist mechanism as a feedback system
is a negative feedback mechanism, when thirst increases, it stimulates you to drink then decreases thus making it a negative feedback mechanism
Peyer's patches
isolated clusters of lymph follicles located mostly in the wall of the appendix
What happens to the velocity of blood flow when it gets to the veins
it increases again
coronary sinus
joined together with the cardiac veins to form this which has three large tributaries: Great, middle, & small cardiac veins
intercalated discs
junctions between cells; anchor cardiac cells
angiotensin II
kidney hormone that increases BP in the short term by vasoconstriction
target organs of calcium hormones
kidneys, small intestine, and osteoclasts, stimulates calcium absorption and retention, promotes bone reabsorption, elevates blood calcium concentration
lymph noes
large collections of bean-shaped structures in the inguinal, axillary, and cervical regions
This GI tract organ acts like a drying oven. It absorbs water from its contents, and consolidates and propels the unusable components of food toward elimination from the body.
large intestine
Factors that help maintain blood pressure in veins
large lumens, venous valves, respiratory pumps, muscular pumps, venous smooth muscle
conducting arteries
large thick-walled arterires with elastin in all three tunics; offer low resistance; act as pressure reservoirs-- expand & recoil as blood is ejected from the heart
Lymphocytes
large, dark-purple, circular nuclei, thin blue cytoplasm
periperal resistance
oppostion of flow; measure of the amount of friction blood encounters
peripheral resistance
oppostion of flow; measure of the amount of friction blood encounters
What type of cells are the macula densa cells?
osmoreceptors
cortex
outer area of lymph tissue under the capsular space
Red blood cells transport
oxygen
This accessory organ of the digestive system makes digestive enzymes that act upon all of the major food types.
pancreas
makes hormones
pancreatic islet
produces lysozyme
paneth
hormone that stimulates an increase of ca2+ in the blood
parathyroid hormone
makes intrinsic factor
parietal
Which of the following cells produce HCl?
parietal cells
The _______ is the serous membrane that lines the body wall.
parietal peritoneum
large salivary gland lying near the ear
parotid gland
The protein-digesting enzyme that works in the stomach is ________.
pepsin
forms the support of the gomphosis
periodontal ligament
Which of the following conditions is directly associated with an increased risk for heart disease and stroke?
periodontitis
The major means of propelling food through the digestive tract is ___________.
peristalsis
The propulsive function that occurs in the esophagus is called __________.
peristalsis
Motility in the stomach includes:
peristalsis and receptive relaxation.
adherence
phagocyte sticks to microbe
neutrophils
phagocytes; will migrate to the site of an infection within a few hours
produces antibodies
phagocytic cell
Hollow muscular organs, like the stomach, that act as reservoirs exhibit __________.
plasticity
deep permanent folds of the mucosa and submucosa
plicae circulares
The circular folds found in the small intestine that increase surface area for absorption are called:
plicae circulares.
The visceral layer of Bowman's capsule is made of ?
podocytes
differentiate between regulation of sodium ion balance and potassium ion balance in renal tubules
potassium ion concentration in ECF are low, not as closely regulated as sodium, potassium ion excretion increases as ECF concentrations rise, aldosterone secreted, PH rises, potassium retention occurs when PH falls
venous blood pressure
pressure changes little during the cardiac cycle; small pressure gradient
What is the colloid osmotic pressure in glomerular capillaries?
pressure exerted by the proteins in the blood
systolic pressure
pressure exerted during ventricular contraction
pulse
pressure wave caused by the expansion & recoil of arteries
The pancreas secretes __________.
procarboxypeptidase
The pancreas secretes:
procarboxypeptidase
The digestive function of the liver is to ________.
produce bile
plasma cells
produce immunoglobulins
stomach mucosa
produces HCl and enzymes that kill bacteria
captures antigens and brings them back to lymph nodes
produces antibodies
Leukopoiesis
production of WBCs, all blood cells form hemocytoblasts, directed by chemical messages
What is the major digestive function of the pancreas?
production of digestive enzymes
What role of the stomach is essential to life?
production of intrinsic factor
congestive heart failure
progressive condition where the cardiac output is so low that blood circulation is inadequate to meet tissue needs
clonal expansion of immune cells
proliferation
What special job do the Baroreceptors in the Carotid sinus have
protects blood supply to the brai
vital signs
pulse & blood pressure, along with respiratory rate and body temperature
radial pulse
pulse of the radial artery (felt in the wrist)
The portion of the stomach closest to the duodenum is called the ________.
pyloric region
located at the inferior end and controls stomach emptying
pyloric sphincter
adrenal medulla hormone
raises BP in the short term through hormones of the adrenal medulla which release epi and norepi which cause vasoconstriction and increased CO
capillary blood pressure
ranges from 15-35 mm Hg; low pressure is desired so as not to burst capillaries
MAP in capillaries
ranges from 35-15 mmHg; low pressure is desired so as not to burst capillaries
Basophils
rarest wbcs, large purplish-black granules, contain histamine
Ability to react with activated lymphocytes and the antibodies released in response to them
reactivity
atria
receiving chamber of the heart
Erythropoiesis
red blood cell production
Eosinophils
red-staining, bilobed nuclei, digest parasitic worms, in allergies
arterial blood pressure
reflects two factors of the arterioles close to the heart: elasticity & volume of blood forcced into them at any time
precapillary sphincters
regulate blood flow into true capillaries; composed of smooth muscle
Respiratory burst
release of free radicals into phagolysosome
The glomerular (Bowman's) capsule and glomerulus make up the __________.
renal corpuscle
What is a variable network of autonomic nerve fibers and ganglia that provides the nerve supply of the kidney and it's ureter?
renal plexus
The _______ circulation includes all of the arteries that serve the digestive organs.
splanchnic
immunity- ability to ward off pathogens; avoid illness
resistance to disease
hypovolemic shock
results ffrom large-scale blood loss
vascular shock
results from extreme vasodilation and decreased peripheral resistance
cardiogenic shock
results when an inefficient heart cannot sustain adequate circulation
collect lymph from thoracic viscera & thoracic wall
right & left bronchomediastinal trunks drains
drain lymph from head & neck
right & left jugular trunks drains
lower limbs, pelvic organs, & from some of the anterior abdominal wall.
right & left lumbar trunks drains
drain inferior neck & superior thoracic wall
right & left subclavian trunks drains
pulmonary circuit pump
right side of the heart
pulmonary trunk
right ventricle pumps blood into this
embedded in the jawbone
root
folds of mucosal layer
rugae
lymphatic collecting vessels
same three tunics as veins; the second-smallest lymph vessels
plasma cells
secrete antibodies
inhibits gastric gland secretions and stimulates the release of bicarbonate-rich pancreatic juice
secretin
KWASHIORKOR
severe protein and calorie deficiency which is particularly devastating in children, resulting in retardation and failure to grow. A consequence of malnutrition or starvation. it is characterized by a bloated abdomen because the level of plasma proteins in adequate to keep fluids in the bloodstream. Skin lesions and infections are likely.
pulmonary circulation
short loop that runs from the heart to the lungs and back to the heart
Intrinsic reflexes, where a stimulus in one part of the GI tract produces an effect in another part of the GI tract, are known as:
short reflexes.
What type of epithelium does the collecting duct have?
simple cuboidal epithelium
EXTRA CRED TERM asystole
situation in which the heart fails to contract
Most digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs in the:
small intestine
Most water is absorbed in the __________.
small intestine
The GI organ that is the major site of nutrient absorption is the ________.
small intestine
The major site for nutrient absorption is the __________.
small intestine
Which organ of the digestive tract is the body's major digestive organ?
small intestine
Which part of the digestive system is the major location for absorption of the end products of digestion?
small intestine
Chyme exiting the stomach enters the:
small intestine.
Most digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs in the:
small intestine.
The major site of digestion and absorption in the GI tract is the:
small intestine.
mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT)
small lymphoid tissues found in digestive and respiratory tracts
The diameter of the efferent arteriole is _____________ than that of the afferent arteriole that feeds them.
smaller
arterioles
smallest arteries; lead to cpaillary beds; control flow into capillary beds via vasodilation and vasoconstriction
tunica media
smooth muscle and sheets of elastin; middle layer
electrolyte that plays a major role in regulating water balance in the body
sodium
electrocytes considered most important for the body
sodium, all cells depend on sodium and potassium to bring nutrients inside the cell and remove waste. Sodium is found in higher concentrations outside of cells In our bodies
spleen
soft, blood-rich organ about the size of a fist (largest lymphoid organ)
placenta
source of progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy
Hematopoietic
stem cells that give rise to all blood cells
Platelet plug formation
stick to exposed fibers, swell become spiked and sticky, release chemical messengers
respiratory tract
sticky mucous membrane lined with cilia
Erythropoietin
stimulates erythropoiesis & is produced by kidneys
This GI tract organ stores food temporarily, and continues the mechanical and chemical breakdown of food.
stomach
salivary gland below the tongue
sublingual gland
smaller salivary gland located under the jaw
submandibular gland
areolar connective tissue with many elastic fibers
submucosa
moderately dense connective tissue that has a rich supply of blood, lymphatic vessels, and nerve fibers
submucosa
interferon
substance released by a virus infected cell to warn neighbors
brush border enzymes that act on disaccharides
sucrase, lactase, and maltase
muscular (distributing) arteries
supply muscles and organs; have thick tunica media to regulate blood flow; active in vasoconstriction; D=.3 mm to 1 cm
dendritic cells
surrounding the germinal center
complement
system of proteins that lyses cell membranes
orthostatic hypotension
temporary low BP & dizziness when suddenly rising from a sitting or reclining position
Elevated creatinine levels mean what for the body?
that muscles are breaking down, kidney dysfunction
S-T segment
the action potential of the ventricular myocytes are in their plateau phases; the entire ventricular myocardium is depolarized
The increased concentration of HCO3- in blood draining from the stomach is called __________.
the alkaline tide
alkaline reserve and the organ that performs it
the amount of base in the blood(primarily bicarbonate) available for neutralization of fixed acids, liver
cardiac output
the amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle in 1 minute
insensible water loss
the amount of fluid on a daily basis from the lungs, skin, respiratory tract, and water excreted in the fece
relationship between calcium ions and phosphate ions
the amount of phosphate in the blood affects the level of calcium in the blood, phosphorus and calcium work together to build strong teeth and bones.
net filtration pressure
the balance of pressures between blood and interstitial fluid that determines whether their volumes remain steady or change
1st branch of abdominal aorta is?
the celiac trunk
contractility
the contactile strength achieved at a given muscle length. rises when there is more Ca2+
preload
the degree to which cadiac muscle cells are stretched just before they contract. Controls stroke volume.
The short reflexes in the digestive system are stimulated by __________.
the enteric nerve plexuses
absolute refractory period
the excitable period when sodium channels are still open or activated
What lies between the blood and the interior of the glomerular capsule?
the filtration membrane
4th branch of abdominal aorta is?
the gonadal arteries (testicular arteries for males, ovarian arteries for females)
Low blood pressure causes which cells of the juxtoglomerular complex to release a hormone that affects blood pressure?
the granular cells
hilus
the indented region on the concave side of the node leading into the efferent vessels
true or false; anastomoses among coronary arterial branches provide collateral routes for blood delivery to the heart muscle.
true
true or false; as pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is required to open the aortic valve.
true
true or false; congestive heart failure means that the pumping efficiency of the heart is depressed so that there is inadequate delivery of blood to body tissues
true
true or false; the left side of the heart pumps the same volume of blood as the right
true
true or false; the myocardium receives its blood supply from the coronary arteries.
true
true or false; tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue
true
All of the following are necessary for fat digestion and absorption, except:
trypsin
digests proteins in the small intestines
trypsin
What is the process of selectively moving substances from the filtrate back into the blood?
tubular reabsorption
what is the process of selectively moving substances from the blood into the filtrate?
tubular secretion
A & B marker
type AB
No marker
type O
A marker
type a
B marker
type b
Material that is collected in the minor calyx is called ________ after it has been filtered through the nephron.
urine
females accessory ducts
uterine tubes, uterus, and vagina
artificially actively acquired humoral immunity
vaccine; dead or attenuated pathogens
veins of the veins
vasa vasorum
What does the myogenic mechanism work off of?
vascular smooth muscle
Vascular spasm
vasoconstriction of damaged blood vessel caused by injury or pain
Explain how stimulation of granular cells by input from activated macula densa cells release renin.
vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles by the SNS reduces GFR, which slows filtrate, reducing the concentration of sodium chloride. macula densa cells sense the low NaCl levels and then signal the granular cells to release renin
Vasoconstriction
vasoconstriction of veins under sympathetic control
heart autoregulationn
ventricular contraction compresses coronary vessels, preventing flow
afferent lymphatic vessels
vessels leading into lymph node
efferent lymphatic vessels
vessels leaving the lymph node
fingerlike projections of the mucosa
villi
The serous membrane that covers the external surface of most digestive organs is called the __________.
visceral peritoneum
difference between volatile and metabolic acids
volatile acid-acid produced by carbon dioxide, metabolic acid-doesn't exist
blood flow
volume of blood flowing through a vessel, on organ, or the entire circulation in a given period
metabolic water
water created inside a living organism through their metabolism by oxidizing energy-containing substances in their food
peyer's patches
what are concentrate nodules of the small intestine
thoracic duct right lymphatic duct
what are the 2 lymphatic ducts
increases the permeability of the capillaries to white blood cells and some proteins, to allow them to engage pathogens in the infected tissues.
what does histamine do in inflammation
The right side of the head Right side of the heart Lungs Right side of the thorax and Right upper limbs
what does the right lymphatic duct drain
Drains everything else that r.lymphatic duct doesn't
what does the thoracic duct drain
trabeculae
what increases the surface area in a lymph node
mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue; comprises all lymphoid cells present as either solitary or aggregated nodules like epithelia, lamina propria and submucosa of the GI tract, respiratory tract and genitourinary tract
what is MALT
(specific immune response) In all three pathways, C3-convertase cleaves and activates component C3, creating C3a and C3b, and causing a cascade of further cleavage and activation events. C3b binds to the surface of pathogens, leading to greater internalization by phagocytic cells by opsonization.
what is complement activation
reticular fibers, fibers forming a soft internal skeleton for other tissues
what is recticular connective tissue
tonsils
what lymphatic organ is the simplest
each lymph node has fewer efferent than afferent vessels, so the lymph flow stagnates somewhat within the node; this is desirable because it allows time for the generation of an immune response and for the macrophages to remove debris from the lymph before it reenters the blood vascular system
what slows the flow down in the lymph node
metabolic autoregulation
when BVs have low oxygen, increased CO2 and high wastes - BVs vasodilate to increase blood volume
how aldosterone regulates sodium as a feedback system, list four triggers for aldosterone secretion
when aldosterone levels are high all remaining na is actively reasbsorbed, water follows sodium if tubule permeability has been increased with ADH, renin-angiotensin mechanism triggers the release of aldosterone, renin catalyzes the production of angiotensin 2 which prompts aldosterone release, adrenal cortical cells are directly stimulated to release aldosterone by elevated K+ levels in ECF, aldosterone brings about its effects(diminished urine output and increased blood volume) slowly
How are Korotkoff sounds made
when pulsitile blood flows through the compressed artery
