A&P Lecture Final Review

lipid-soluble hormones

(steroid and thyroid hormones) Act on intracellular receptors that directly activate genes Can enter cell

Calculate the stroke volume if the end diastolic volume (EDV) is 135 mL/beat and the end systolic volume (ESV) is 60 mL/beat. [Physiological factors that determine cardiac output.] 60 mL/beat 75 mL/beat 205 mL/beat 8100 mL/beat

75 mL/ beat The SV is calculated by subtracting the ESV from the EDV. You are comparing the volume of the ventricle at its fullest to its emptiest.

Calculate the stroke volume if the end diastolic volume (EDV) is 135 mL/beat and the end systolic volume (ESV) is 60 mL/beat.

75 mL/beat

At what rate does the sinoatrial (SA) node depolarize? 30 times per minute 40 times per minute 50 times per minute 75 times per minute

75 times per minute *The sinoatrial node typically depolarizes spontaneously about 75 times per minute, although this can vary in different individuals. This rate is directly modulated by the autonomic nervous system.*

Calculate the cardiac output if heart rate (HR) is 90 beats per minute, stroke volume (SV) is 110 ml/beatml/beat, end diastolic volume (EDV) is 140 mlml, and end systolic volume (ESV) is 30 mlml.

9.9 L/min

Calculate the cardiac output if heart rate (HR) is 90 beats per minute, stroke volume (SV) is 110 ml/beat, end diastolic volume (EDV) is 140 ml, and end systolic volume (ESV) is 30 ml.

9.9 L/min - Cardiac output is the product of heart rate times stroke volume.

Refer again to the entire focus figure.Using the same client, Mr. Orange, with the same pressures, what is the client's NFP at the venous end, NFPv?

= (22 + 1) - (26 + 0) = -3 mm

Concluson/Synthesis: Net Filtration Pressure at the Venous End (NFPv) in an Example of a Hypertensive Client Refer again to the entire focus figure. Using the same client, Mr. Orange, with the same pressures, what is the client's NFP at the venous end, NFPv?

=(22 + 1) - (26 + 0) = -3 mm

Determine which ECG shows a normal sinus rhythm. A B C D

A All waves are clearly present in this ECG of a normal sinus rhythm.

interfering with the normal transmission of nerve impulses to the posterior pituitary

A blow to the head may cause diabetes insipidus by ______.

Which flow tube length had the greatest flow rate? -20 mm -30 mm -40 mm -10 mm -All flow tube lengths had the same flow rate.

10 mm

Which of the following changes would produce the greatest change in total peripheral resistance?

10% change in vessel diameter

Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?

140/90

What hormone also aids the stress response by promoting water retention and acting as a vasoconstrictor?

ADH (vasopressin)

Diabetes insipidus

ADH deficiency due to damage to hypothalamus or posterior pituitary Must keep well hydrated

___ ______ electrical link(s) between atria and ventricles

AV bundle

Which of these structures conduct(s) action potentials the slowest?

AV node

Which part of the intrinsic conduction system delays the impulse briefly before it moves on to the ventricles?

AV node

___ _____ delay(s) occurs here while atria contract

AV node

Which of these structures conduct(s) action potentials the slowest? A) Bundle branches B) AV bundle C) AV node D) Purkinje fibers

AV node - Action potentials slow down as they pass through the AV node. This gives the atria time to finish contracting before the ventricles are depolarized.

Which of the following structures collects the depolarization wave from the atria to pass it onto the ventricles? atrioventricular bundle bundle branches SA node AV node

AV node The AV node receives the depolarizing wave from the atria and delays and coordinates that distribution to the ventricles.

small intestine

Absorption of nutrients primarily occurs in the __________.

secretin

An increase in HCl (hydrochloric acid) arriving in the duodenum would stimulate which hormone that would help to counteract the effects of HCl?

Which of the following is likely to occur over time in a patient with arteriosclerosis?

An increase in pulse pressure due to increased resistance to blood flow

prevent inflammation caused by malabsorption of gluten protein

An individual diagnosed with celiac disease would be prescribed a gluten-free diet in order to __________.

The firefighter's hemoglobin saturation will be about one oxygen per hemoglobin, and he will require an external air tank.

A firefighter breathes in air normally as he enters a building following an explosion and fire. He has a meter that predicts the PO2 will approximate 15 mm Hg in his tissue fluids as he actively moves about the room. Select the best statement.

respiratory muscles

A homeostatic control mechanism controls respiration. What acts as the effector(s) in this system?

Taking in glucose and converting it to glycogen.

A liver cell responds to insulin by

breathing rate

A patient with a restrictive lung disease such as tuberculosis is likely to see an increase in his or her __________.

It will decrease the release of intrinsic factor which is required for the absorption of B12.

A person has a procedure done that reduces the size do the stomach. How would this affect their B12 levels? Explain

Select the correct partial path. This path is part of the complete blood flow pathway. You should be able to trace flow starting in any location.

Blood moves from the aorta, through smaller systemic arteries, and into systemic capillaries. From there it moves through systemic veins, into the right atrium, and through the tricuspid valve.

Drag and drop the correct terms on the left to complete the sentences. Words may be used once or not at all.

Blood pressure is the force per unit area exerted on a blood vessel wall by the blood, and it fluctuates with the alternating contraction and relaxation of the ventricles. Systolic pressure is the pressure in the arteries at the peak of ventricular contraction, while Diastolic pressure is the pressure in the arteries during ventricular relaxation. Pulse pressure is calculated as systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure, and indicates the additional pressure in the artery when ventricles are contracting. Pulse is the count of surges of pressure in an artery that occur with each contraction and relaxation of the left ventricle.

Liver cells, as well as most other cells of the body.

Body cells that respond to insulin include

Thyroid gland

Butterfly-shaped gland in anterior neck on the trachea, just inferior to larynx, that consists of isthmus, follicles, colloid, and parafollicular cells

Which of the following statements most accurately defines what is happening during the second phase of ventricular systole of the cardiac cycle? A) All four valves of the heart are closed. B) Pressure in the ventricles is rising, but not enough to open the semilunar valves. C) Blood is being ejected from the ventricles through open semilunar valves. D) Due to the pressure generated by the contracting ventricles, the second sound of the heart can be heard.

C) Blood is being ejected from the ventricles through open semilunar valves.

In the non-exercising heart, which event of the cardiac cycle lasts the longest? A) ventricular systole B) atrial systole C) atrial diastole D) ventricular diastole

C) atrial diastole

Adding a chemical that reduces Na+ transport near the sinoatrial (SA) node would have what effect on the heart's intrinsic conducting system? A. The SA node would depolarize more quickly, increasing the heart rate. B. There will be no change. C. The SA node would depolarize less quickly, reducing the heart rate. D. The SA node would depolarize more quickly, decreasing the heart rate. E. The SA node would depolarize less quickly, increasing the heart rate.

C.

Blood enters the left and right coronary arteries directly from which vessel or chamber? A. circumflex artery B. pulmonary trunk C. aorta D. left ventricle

C.

Contraction of the atria results from which wave of depolarization on the ECG tracing? A. QRS complex B. T wave C. P wave

C.

The P wave on an electrocardiogram represents __________. A. atrial repolarization B. ventricular repolarization C. atrial depolarization D. ventricular depolarization

C.

What structures connect the individual heart muscle cells? A. trabaculae carneae B. anastomoses C. intercalated discs D. chordae tendineae

C.

Which of the following would increase cardiac output? A. parasympathetic stimulation B. high blood pressure C. epinephrine D. decreased calcium during contraction

C.

Which of these muscles is particularly associated with anchoring the right and left atrioventricular valves? A. pectinate muscles B. myocardium C. papillary muscles D. trabeculae carneae

C.

he first heart sound (the "lub" of the "lub-dup") is caused by __________. A. closure of the semilunar valves B. ventricular contraction C. closure of the atrioventricular valves D. atrial contraction

C.

carbaminohemoglobin

CO2loading in tissues-20% of CO2in blood binds to Hb, producing

ACTH

Can cause small increases of aldosterone during periods of increased stress

the muscularis layer of the intestine

Cancer treatments such as chemotherapy target rapidly dividing, cancerous cells, but can also destroy noncancerous cells with a rapid rate of mitosis. Which small intestinal features are LEAST likely to be damaged by chemotherapy?

Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise?

Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood.

Which of the following adrenal gland homeostatic imbalances is characterized by persistent elevated blood glucose levels, dramatic losses in muscle and bone protein, and water and salt retention, leading to hypertension and edema?

Cushing's syndrome

phosphodiesterase

Cyclic AMP is degraded by __________. adenylate cyclase G proteins protein kinase AMP phosphodiesterase

Action potentials generated by the autorhythmic cells spread to the contractile cells through what structures in the membrane? A. tight junctions B. intercalated discs C. desmosomes D. gap junctions

D.

At what point in the cardiac cycle is pressure in the ventricles the highest (around 120 mm Hg in the left ventricle)? A. mid-to-late diastole (atrial contraction) B. early diastole (isovolumetric relaxation) C. mid-to-late diastole (ventricular filling) D. Ventricular systole

D.

At what rate does the sinoatrial (SA) node depolarize? A. 30 times per minute B. 40 times per minute C. 50 times per minute D. 75 times per minute

D.

Consider the following characteristics of the cells found in muscle tissue. Which feature is shared by both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle? A. intercalated discs B. triads C. branched cells D. striations

D.

Repolarization of an autorhythmic cell is due to the opening of which channels? A. chemically gated calcium channels B. Chemically gated potassium channels C. voltage-gated sodium channels D. voltage-gated potassium channels

D.

The __________ valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle. A. mitral B. pulmonary semilunar C. aortic semilunar D. tricuspid

D.

When threshold is reached at the SA node (an autorhythmic cell), what channels open causing further depolarization of the membrane? A. potassium B. slow calcium C. fast sodium D. fast calcium

D.

Which of the following increases stroke volume? A. severe blood loss B. decrease in end diastolic volume (EDV) C. decrease in preload D. exercise

D.

Which of the following would cause a DECREASE in cardiac output (CO)? A. suddenly standing up from a supine position B. heightened use of skeletal muscle C. an increase in adrenal medulla output (epinephrine) D. decreasing thyroid function (thyroxine)

D.

Why are gap junctions a vital part of the intercellular connection of cardiac muscles? A. Gap junctions allow calcium to enter the cell, triggering calcium release from the SR. B. Gap junctions contract when stimulated, strengthening the force of cardiac cell contraction. C. Gap junctions form strong intercellular connections. D. Gap junctions allow action potentials to spread to connected cells.

D.

These activities change heart rate by changing the balance of parasympathetic and sympathetic stimulation of the heart. Sort each of the activities according to whether it decreases or increases heart rate.

Decrease- Lying Down,Digesting Increase- Standing Up, Fright or Anger, Exercise - The balance between parasympathetic and sympathetic stimulation to the heart controls heart rate. Increased parasympathetic activity decreases heart rate, and sympathetic activity increases heart rate.

Causes of hypoxia:

Decreased RBC numbers due to hemorrhage or increased destruction Insufficient hemoglobin per RBC (example: iron deficiency) Reduced availability of O2(example: high altitudes or lung problems such as pneumonia)

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism

Decreased blood pressure stimulates special cells in kidneys These cells release renin into blood Renin cleaves off part of plasma protein, angiotensinogen, that triggers enzyme cascade, resulting in conversion to angiotensin II -Angiotensin II is a potent stimulator of aldosterone release

Oxygen diffuses out from the blood into tissue during internal respiration

Describe the difference between pulmonary ventilation, external respiration and internal respiration.

Emphysema happens when the tiny sacs in your lungs (called alveoli) are damaged. Chronic bronchitis is when the tubes that carry air to your lungs (bronchial tubes) get inflamed. Smoking is the most common cause of those conditions (and COPD). Asthma gets better.

Describe the differences between emphysema, bronchitis, and asthma.

Which event does not happen during ventricular diastole? A) The second sound of the heart is heard. B) Atrioventricular valves close because of the contracting ventricles. C) Blood flows from the atria into the ventricles. D) Blood is pushed into the ventricles by the contracting atria.

B) Atrioventricular valves close because of the contracting ventricles.

Calculate the stroke volume if the end diastolic volume (EDV) is 135 mL and the end systolic volume (ESV) is 60 mL. A. 60 mL B. 75 mL C. 205 mL D. 8100 mL

B.

In order to cause cardiac muscle contraction, the contractile cells must also depolarize. What causes the depolarization of the contractile cells? A. an unstable resting membrane potential in the contractile cells B. the flow of positive ions from adjacent cells C. the flow of negative ions from adjacent cells

B.

One of the changes that occurs in the pacemaker potential (unstable resting membrane potential) in the SA node (an autorhythmic cell) is a decreased efflux of what ion? A. calcium B. potassium C. sodium

B.

The right atrioventricular valve prevents backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the __________. A. left atrium B. right atrium C. pulmonary trunk D. left ventricle

B.

The right side of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump. A. True B. False

B.

What separates the parietal and visceral pericardium? A. epicardium B. pericardial cavity C. fibrous pericardium D. myocardium

B.

Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the depolarization wave received by the atria from the sinoatrial (SA) node? A. S-T segment B. P wave C. T wave D. QRS complex

B.

It causes a decrease in the amount of a gas in the blood (called carbon dioxide, or CO2). This decrease may make you feel lightheaded, have a rapid heartbeat, and be short of breath. It also can lead to numbness or tingling in your hands or feet, anxiety, fainting, and sore chest muscles.

Describe the effects of hyperventilation.

expiration is a passive process. As the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, the lungs and thoracic tissues recoil, and the volume of the lungs decreases. This causes the pressure within the lungs to increase above that of the atmosphere, causing air to leave the lungs.

Describe the process of expiration? Is it an active or passive process? Explain the changes in pressure involved.

the process of taking air into the lungs. It is the active phase of ventilation because it is the result of muscle contraction. During inspiration, the diaphragm contracts and the thoracic cavity increases in volume. This decreases the intraalveolar pressure so that air flows into the lungs.

Describe the process of inspiration? Is it an active or passive process? Explain the changes in pressure involved.

The volume of a given amount of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure when temperature is held constant (Boyle's law). Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure, equal volumes of all gases contain the same number of molecules (Avogadro's law).

Describe the relationship between volume and pressure.

Which statement regarding cardiac muscle structure is accurate? A. Cardiac muscle cells are independent of one another both structurally and functionally. B. Myofibrils of cardiac muscle tissue vary in diameter and branch extensively. C. Cardiac cells possess few mitochondria. D. Cardiac cells are long, cylindrical, and multinucleate.

B.

How can baroreceptors help maintain blood pressure homeostasis when blood pressure increases?

Baroreceptors can inhibit sympathetic activity and stimulate parasympathetic activity.

What Caused the Murmur? So why is Mr. G's mitral regurgitation causing a systolic murmur? Remember, a murmur is caused by abnormal turbulent blood flow.

Because his mitral valve leaks, when the ventricles contract, they push blood back up through it into the left atrium.

Identify the valve found between the left atrium and left ventricle.

Bicuspid (mitral) valve

liver

Bilirubin is released into the bloodstream as old or damaged red blood cells are broken down by macrophages. Which organ is responsible for removing bilirubin from the blood stream?

Target cell activation

Blood levels of hormone Relative number of receptors on/in cell Affinity (strength) of binding between receptor and hormone

Less calcium will be excreted in the urine by the kidneys.

If a person's parathyroids are responding properly to a drop in blood calcium, which of the following should result?

the intrapleural pressure would not decrease normally during inhalation

If the compliance of the thoracic wall is decreased, ______.

lungs will collapse

If the transpulmonary pressure equals zero, what will happen to the lung?

True

If your core temperature becomes colder, it is more difficult for oxygen to dissociate from hemoglobin at any PO2.

type II alveolar cells

In children with infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS), the walls of the alveoli cling to each other and make them difficult to inflate. It is common in babies born prematurely. What cells in these infants are NOT fully developed and are NOT doing their job?

Removing the small intestine greatly reduces the absorption of nutrients. This causes weight loss because fewer calories are absorbed. There will also be a lack of vitamins absorbed.

In gastric by-pass surgery a large segment of the small intestine is removed. How does this affect absorption of nutrients?

intrapleural pressure is equal to intrapulmonary pressure

In pneumothorax, the lung collapses because ______.

acinar cells

In response to a steak dinner, certain secretions are needed to aid digestion. What cells in the pancreas would provide these secretions?

glucoamylase

In the small intestine, which of the following enzymes breaks down oligosaccharides?

in the form of chylomicrons

In what form do fats first enter the bloodstream?

mitochondrion

In what organelle would you find acetyl CoA formation, the citric acid cycle, and the electron transport chain?

small intestine

In what portion of the gastrointestinal tract does most salt and water absorption occur?

Plasma concentration of K+

Increased K+ directly influences zona glomerulosa cells to release aldosterone -Increased K+ directly stimulates aldosterone release; low levels inhibit it

Epinephrine

Increased dilation of bronchioles and heart rate

Cortisol

Increased metabolic effects from the liver

Aldosterone

Increased sodium and water absorption

Maintains blood pressure

Increases adrenergic receptors in blood vessels

Nervous system

Initiates responses rapidly Short-duration responses Acts via action potentials and neurotransmitters Acts at specific locations determined by axon pathways Neurotransmitters act over very short distances

endocrine system

Initiates responses slowly Long-duration responses Acts via hormones released into the blood Acts at diffuse locations- targets can be anywhere blood reaches Hormones act over long distances

phrenic nerve

Inspiratory neurons send information to the diaphragm via what nerve?

GH (growth hormone)

Insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) are intermediary hormones stimulated by which of the following hormones? thyroid hormones oxytocin GH (growth hormone) prolactin (PRL)

the molecular weight of the gas

Internal and external respiration depends on several factors. Which of the following is NOT an important factor in gas exchange?

Which of the following is true of blood vessel length?

It increases as we approach puberty.

How does inflating a blood pressure cuff affect brachial artery blood flow?

It restricts local circulation.

Describe the plot of pressure versus flow rate.

It was linear, and the flow rate increased with increased pressure.

The gum is passed back to the pharynx and triggers the involuntary swallowing reflex.

Joey accidentally swallows his gum. Describe the process involved.

TSH will increase.

Krista's treatment will likely involve destroying or surgically removing her thyroid gland. What effect will this have on her level of TSH?

Identify the most muscular chamber.

Left ventricle

What heart chamber pushes blood through the aortic semilunar valve?

Left ventricle

If a person's parathyroids are responding properly to a drop in blood calcium, which of the following should result?

Less calcium is placed in the urine by the kidneys. The kidneys would be encouraged by PTH to retain more calcium, which would result is less calcium in the urine

Which of the statements describes the proper way to measure a radial pulse?

Lightly press the tips of your index and middle finger over the lateral wrist, in line with the patient's thumb

Body cells that respond to insulin include

Liver cells, as well as most other cells of the body.

What cells in the body respond to glucagon by breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose?

Liver cells.

Paracrines

Locally acting chemicals that affect cells other than those that secrete them

Compute the MAP of a person with a BP of 120/90. Drag and drop the correct numbers to complete the calculation.

MAP = 90 + 1/3 (30) = 100 mmHg

Which of the following is the correct mean arterial pressure (MAP) when the blood pressure is 130/85?

MAP = DP + 1/3 (SP - DP) MAP = 85 + 1/3 (130 - 85) MAP = 100

The medulla oblongata is the primary respiratory control center. Its main function is to send signals to the muscles that control respiration to cause breathing to occur. There are two regions in the medulla that control respiration: The ventral respiratory group stimulates expiratory movements.

Describe the respiratory control centers in the brain.

Low-density lipoproteins contain proteins called B-100 proteins, while HDL particles contain mostly A-I and A-II proteins. The type of protein is significant because it determines the function of the lipoprotein particle. Low-density lipoproteins and high-density lipoproteins both transport cholesterol in the blood, but the main functional difference between the two is they deliver cholesterol to different parts of your body. Low-density lipoproteins -- the primary carriers of cholesterol -- bring cholesterol to cells throughout your body and can cause cholesterol to buildup within your arteries. This buildup can eventually lead to arterial blockage and an increased risk for heart disease and stroke. High-density lipoproteins, on the other hand, can benefit your health because these particles carry cholesterol away from your heart and other organs and deliver it back to your liver, where it is passed from your body.

Describe the structure and function of VLDLs, LDLs, and HDLs.

CO2 is much more soluble in blood than O2.

Despite the fact that the partial pressure difference is so much smaller for CO2, why is there as much CO2 exchanged between the alveoli and blood as there is O2 ?

epinephrine

During an allergic reaction, which of the following would aid respiration?

the diaphragm and rib muscles contract.

During inhalation,

visceral pleura of the same lung

During pleurisy, the inflamed parietal pleura of one lung rubs against the inflamed ______.

intestinal phase

During which phase in the control of the digestive system would bicarbonate and bile be stimulated?

oxytocin and ADH

Each composed of nine amino acids Almost identical but differ in two amino acids

Factors that influence insulin release

Elevated blood glucose levels: primary stimulus Rising blood levels of amino acids and fatty acids Release of acetylcholine by parasympathetic nerve fibers Hormones glucagon, epinephrine, growth hormone, thyroxine, glucocorticoids Somatostatin and sympathetic nervous system inhibit insulin release

All of the listed responses are correct.

Emphysema can result in an ______. increased level of carbaminohemoglobin increased level of deoxyhemoglobin increased likelihood of the skin of Caucasians developing a slightly blue coloration

_________ ________ ______ is the volume of blood in one ventricle before contraction

End diastolic volume (EDV)

_______ _______ _______ is the volume of blood in one ventricle after contraction

End systolic volume (ESV)

Name the inner lining of the heart.

Endocardium

VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide)

Enteric interneurons that are inhibitory to smooth muscle use which of the following neurotransmitters?

Gastrointestinal tract

Enteroendocrine cells secrete these hormones: Gastrin stimulates release of HCl Ghrelin from stomach stimulates food intake Secretin stimulates liver and pancreas Cholecystokinin (CCK) activates pancreas, gallbladder, and hepatopancreatic sphincter Incretins enhance insulin release and inhibit glucagon

proteins

Enzymatic breakdown of which of the following compounds doesn't begin until it reaches the stomach?

Hyposecretion

Epinephrine and norepinephrine are not essential to life; therefore there are no problems associated with hyposecretion

bone marrow

Erythropoietin (EPO) stimulates the developmental process shown here. What part of the body does erythropoietin (EPO) target to increase erythropoiesis?

Absence of any of the enzymes would have the same effect—decrease or block the production of G and H.

Examine the reaction below, and then answer the question. A+B⟶Enzyme1C+D⟶Enzyme2E+F⟶Enzyme3G+HA+B⟶Enzyme1C+D⟶Enzyme2E+F⟶Enzyme3G+H Absence of which enzyme would cause the greatest reduction in the production of G and H?

The normal amount of disaccharide would be produced, but fewer monosaccharides would be produced.

Examine this reaction: starch⟶amylasedisaccharides⟶disaccharidasemonosaccharidesstarch⟶amylasedisaccharides⟶disaccharidasemonosaccharides If there is the normal amount of amylase present but less disaccharidase than usual, which of the following would most likely happen?

Inside the air sacs, oxygen moves across paper-thin walls to tiny blood vessels called capillaries and into your blood. A protein called haemoglobin in the red blood cells then carries the oxygen around your body.

Explain how oxygen is transported in the blood.

During exercise, there is a large increase in systolic pressure, but very little change in diastolic pressure? Choose the response that best explains this.

Systolic pressure results from the action of ventricles, which eject blood more forcefully during exercise. Diastolic pressure is primarily due to factors that would not change during exercise.

cAMP in the cytoplasm

The amplification of the signal from a water-soluble hormone is achieved through an increase in _______. cAMP in the cytoplasm Water-soluble hormone in the blood Adenylate cyclase in the plasma membrane Plasma membrane receptors Phosphodiesterase in the cytoplasm

homeostasis.

The body's tendency to maintain relatively constant internal conditions is called

fats

The breakdown products of which of the following are absorbed into lacteals?

mitochondria; aerobic

The citric acid cycle occurs in the __________ of cells and is an __________ process.

Match these prefixes and roots to their meanings.

The prefix atri- means atrium. The prefix ventriculo- means ventricle of the heart. The prefix cardi- means heart or heart action. The prefix electro- means electricity.

Which of the following represents a correct statement about pressures at the arteriolar side of the capillary bed?

The pressures directed into the blood at the arteriolar end are OPc and HPif.

What is the functional significance of the walls of large arteries having an abundant supply of elastic fibers?

They can recoil to propel blood forward in the arterial system.

Corticosteroids

This area of adrenal gland produces over 24 different hormones collectively called

pancreatic lipases

This group of enzymes digests the majority of ingested fat.

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide Mr. G's online file also has the results of his recent blood tests. The only thing that looks abnormal is something called ANP − atrial natriuretic peptide. It is elevated. Why would this hormone be elevated in Mr. G, and what is it doing to him?

This hormone comes from the overstretched atrium and makes Mr. G lose more Na+ and water in his urine, lowering blood volume and reducing the load on the atrium.

When released in large quantities, thyroxine, a thyroid gland hormone, causes a sustained increase in heart rate. True False

True

Cyclic AMP and PIP1-calcium

Two main second-messenger systems:

increased blood pressure (greater than 130/85 mmHg) high blood sugar levels (insulin resistance) excess fat around the waist. high triglyceride levels. low levels of good cholesterol, or HDL.

What are the five factors seen in metabolic syndrome.

adipose cells, thymus, cells in walls of small intestine, stomach, kidney, and heart

What are the tissues and organs that produce hormones

ventral respiratory group (VRG)

What area in the brain sets the respiratory rhythm?

Liver cells.

What cells in the body respond to glucagon by breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose?

Consuming proteins or fats first slows the emptying of the stomach. Drinking less while eating will decrease the fluidity of the chyme and this will also slow down the emptying of the stomach.

What could you do at meal times to slow the emptying of the stomach? Think in terms of types of foods and fluids consumed.

H+ (hydrogen ions)

What directly stimulates the central chemoreceptors, thus increasing respiration?

plasmin

What enzyme removes unneeded clots after healing has occurred?

pernicious anemia

What erythrocyte production disorder results from an autoimmune disease associated with insufficient vitamin B12 absorption (step 6)?

Upon reaching the final protein, the electron is bonded to an oxygen molecule to create water. Without oxygen, there would be nowhere for the electrons to go after being pumped through the electron transport chain, and aerobic cellular respiration would be impossible.

What happens in the electron transport chain if 02 is not available? What is the purpose of O2?

gluconeogenesis

What happens when glucose is NOT immediately available for glycolysis?

Complete proteins have all the essential amino acids our bodies need. Animal-based protein like meat, poultry, fish, eggs, milk, and cheese are considered complete proteins. Quinoa and soy are plant-based complete proteins.

What is a complete protein and what are dietary sources for complete proteins?

ones that cannot be synthesized by the body and, therefore, must be supplied from foods. These nutrients are essential for normal body function and for growth. The body utilizes protein for the maintenance and repair of tissues for growth and energy.

What is an essential nutrient?

C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + ATP energy

What is the correct general equation for cellular respiration?

Glycolysis is a linear metabolic pathway of enzyme-catalyzed reactions that convert glucose into two molecules of pyruvate in the presence of oxygen or into two molecules of lactate in the absence of oxygen.

What is the end product of glycolysis if oxygen is not available?

(1) lowering surface tension at the air-liquid interface and thus preventing alveolar collapse at end-expiration, (2) interacting with and subsequent killing of pathogens or preventing their dissemination, and (3) modulating immune responses.

What is the function of surfactant?

The function of ATP synthase is to synthesize ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi) in the F1 sector. This is possible due to energy derived from a gradient of protons which cross the inner mitochondrial membrane from the intermembrane space into the matrix through the Fo portion of the enzyme.

What is the function of the ATP synthase?

Larynx, also called voice box, a hollow, tubular structure connected to the top of the windpipe (trachea); air passes through the larynx on its way to the lungs. The larynx also produces vocal sounds and prevents the passage of food and other foreign particles into the lower respiratory tracts.

What is the function of the larynx? What features associated with the larynx assist with these functions? Explain how.

The nasal cavity functions to allow air to enter the respiratory system upon respiration. Structures within the cavity regulate the flow of air and particles it contains. The olfactory region of the nasal cavity regulates the sense of smell.

What is the function of the nose and nasal cavity? Which structures/features help the nasal cavity carry out these functions?

control secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

What is the function of the ventral hypothalamic neurons? control secretion of oxytocin control secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) control secretion of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) control secretion of thyroid hormones

they remove various infectious or allergic particles from the respiratory surfaces and represent the first line of defense against airborne pathogens.

What is the function of type I, type II and alveolar macrophages?

activation of genes, which increases protein synthesis in the cell

What is the mechanism of action of lipid-soluble hormones? activation of genes, which increases protein synthesis in the cell increasing protein kinases phosphorylation of intracellular proteins

as bicarbonate ions in the plasma

What is the most common method of carbon dioxide transport?

negative feedback

What is the most important regulatory factor controlling the circulating levels of thyroid hormone? negative feedback thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) a circadian rhythm of release

to regenerate ATP

What is the primary function of the overall reactions of cellular respiration?

Mechanical breakdown of the food breaks it down into smaller pieces. Chemical breakdown breaks bonds in molecules and breaks the molecules down into the monomers that make up the food molecules.

What is the purpose of mechanical and chemical breakdown of food? How do these differ? How does each affect the absorption of nutrients?

This process pumps protons (H+) into the intermembrane space. The gradient created (high concentration of protons in the intermembrane space and low concentration in the matrix) causes protons to flow through ATP synthetase in the inner membrane resulting in production of ATP.

What is the purpose of the H+ gradient in the intermembrane space?

The pore connect adjacent alveoli and equalize intra-alveolar pressure. They also permit the spread of infection.

What is the purpose of the alveolar pores?

an exchange of ions that takes place in our red blood cells in order to ensure that no build up of electric change takes place during gas exchange. Within our tissues, the cells produce a bunch of carbon dioxide molecules that are ultimately expelled by the cell and travel to the blood plasma.

What is the purpose of the chloride shift?

neutrophils: produce antibodies

Which of the following leukocyte is not correctly matched with its function? basophils: inflammation lymphocytes: immune response against viral infections monocytes: develop into macrophage neutrophils: produce antibodies

both glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

Which of the following pathways acts as a source for the electrons carried by the NADH and FADH2 molecules shown in this figure?

gamma globulins: lipid transport

Which of the following plasma proteins is improperly matched with its function?

external respiration: CO2 diffuses into the blood stream

Which of the following processes is NOT properly matched with its description?

glycolysis

Which of the following processes takes place in the cytosol of a eukaryotic cell?

Mr. Orange has hypertension (HTN) and other vessel disorders, and his brachial blood pressure is ~160/100. Assume his HPc is ~44 mm and other pressures are unaffected. What is his NFPa?

NFPa = (44 + 1) - (0 + 26) = +19 mm

Review the entire Focus Figure 19.1 again. During your review, consider what would happen if one pressure were atypical. Read through Focus Figure 19.1. Mr. Orange has hypertension (HTN) and other vessel disorders, and his brachial blood pressure is ~160/100. Assume his HPc is ~44 mm and other pressures are unaffected. What is his NFPa?

NFPa = (44 + 1) - (0 + 26) = +19 mm

pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal, and pineal

Name the 5 endocrine glands

the nasal cavity, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, and most bronchioles.

Name the portions of the respiratory system that are associated with the conducting zone.

the nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, and most of the bronchial tree.

Name the portions of the respiratory system that are associated with the respiratory zone.

Skeleton

Osteoblasts in bone secrete osteocalcin Prods pancreas to secrete more insulin; restricts fat storage; improves glucose handling; reduces body fat Activated by insulin Low levels of osteocalcin are present in type 2 diabetes: perhaps increasing levels may be new treatment

steriods

Synthesized from cholesterol Gonadal and adrenocortical hormones

Systole and Diastole Mr. G has mitral regurgitation. How has this caused a systolic murmur? First of all, let's sort out what is happening during systole and diastole.

Systole: AV valves are closed, semilunar valves are open, ventricles are contacting, blood is flowing through semilunar valves, blood is leaving the heart diastole: AV valves are open, blood is flowing through the AV valves, ventricles are relaxed, semilunar valves are closed, blood is entering the heart.

Drag and drop the correct terms on the left to complete the sentences. Words may be used once or not at all.

Systolic pressure is the pressure in the arteries at the peak of ventricular contraction, while diastolic pressure is the pressure in the arteries during ventricular relaxation. MAP can be calculated as diastolic pressure plus one-third the pulse pressure because the ventricles spend more time in diastole. Blood pressure is the force per unit area exerted on a blood vessel wall by the blood, and it fluctuates with the alternating contraction and relaxation of the ventricles. Pulse pressure is the calculated as systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure and indicates the additional pressure in the artery when ventricles are contracting.

Which is the correct order of events for hormones activating Gs proteins?

activation of G protein, binding of GTP, activation of adenylate cyclase, conversion of ATP to cAMP

What is the mechanism of action of lipid-soluble hormones?

activation of genes, which increases protein synthesis in the cell

After a lipid-soluble hormone is bound to its intracellular receptor, what does the hormone complex do?

acts as a transcription factor and binds to DNA, activating a gene

Which of the following hormones is stimulated by stress?

adrenocorticotropic hormone

What hormone, indicated by letter B, is released by the anterior pituitary to target the adrenal cortex when we are under stress?

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary modulates the release of aldosterone. The term tropic refers to a hormone that acts on another endocrine gland.

Thyroid Hormone (TH)

affects virtually every cell in body Enters target cell and binds to intracellular receptors within nucleus -Triggers transcription of various metabolic genes

amino acid-base hormones

amino acid derivatives, peptides, and proteins

A decrease in blood pressure at the arterial baroreceptors would result in which of the following?

an increase in heart contractility Sympathetic nervous system activity would be increased because of the low blood pressure. Sympathetic fibers go to the ventricles of the heart and increase their contractility. An increase in contractility would increase stroke volume which would lead to an increase in cardiac output and blood pressure.

Stimulation of the adrenal medulla would result in which of the following?

an increase in heart rate and contractility Epinephrine and norepinephrine are released from the adrenal medulla and act as part of the sympathetic nervous system, increasing heart rate and contractility. Epinephrine and norepinephrine have other effects that would also increase blood pressure.

What gland secretes growth hormone?

anterior pituitary

Conclusion: Blood Flow through the Heart Select the correct partial path. This path is part of the complete blood flow pathway. You should be able to trace flow starting in any location.

aorta to smaller systemic arteries to systemic capillaries to systemic veins to right atrium through the tricuspid valve

Erythrocytes

are small-diameter (7.5 μm) cells that contribute to gas transport •Cell has biconcave disc shape, is anucleate, and essentially has no organelles •Filled with hemoglobin (Hb) for gas transport •RBC diameters are larger than some capillaries •Contain plasma membrane protein spectrin and other proteins -Spectrin provides flexibility to change shape

The P wave on an electrocardiogram represents __________. ventricular depolarization atrial depolarization ventricular repolarization atrial repolarization

atrial depolarization The P wave reflects the depolarization of the atria.

Which of the following hormones would most likely induce a lowering of blood pressure? -angiotensin II -antidiuretic hormone (ADH) -atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) -epinephrine and norepinephrine

atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) ANP causes the kidneys to excrete more water and sodium, reducing blood volume and thus blood pressure.

Damage to the ________ causes heart block. sinoatrial (SA) node atrioventricular (AV) bundle atrioventricular (AV) node atrioventricular (AV) valves

atrioventricular node

Hemoglobin

binds reversibly with oxygen •Normal values: Males 13-18g/100ml; Females: 12-16 g/100ml •Hemoglobin consists of red heme pigment bound to the protein globin -Globin is composed of four polypeptide chains Two alpha and two beta chains -A heme pigment is bonded to each globin chain Gives blood red color Each heme's central iron atom binds one O2

During the period of ventricular filling ________. pressure in the heart is at its peak blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open atrioventricular (AV) valves into the ventricles the atria remain in diastole the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves are ope

blood flows mostly passively through the atria and the open atrioventricular valves into the ventricles

During the ejection period, _______.

blood is pumped into the aorta and the pulmonary trunk

In the capillaries, hydrostatic pressure (HP) is exerted by __________.

blood pressure

What causes the abnormal swishing or whooshing sound that is heard as blood regurgitates back into an atrium from its associated ventricle? aortic recoil semilunar valve closure blood turbulence pulmonary trunk expansion

blood turbulence

Blood pressure would INCREASE as a result of a DECREASE in __________.

blood vessel diameter

Which of the following has the greatest effect on peripheral resistance?

blood vessel diameter

Which of the following has the greatest effect on blood flow?

blood vessel radius

In this activity, which of the following were kept constant?

blood vessel radius and blood vessel length

In this experiment, _______.

blood vessel radius will be kept constant and blood vessel length will be varied

______ ______ convey(s) the impulse down the interventricular septum

bundle branches

Which of these glands is responsible for regulating minerals in the body but is also part of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?

c. The adrenal glands have a medulla that contains postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. Its cortex helps regulates mineral levels in the body, along with other functions.

The amplification of the signal from a water-soluble hormone is achieved through an increase in _______.

cAMP in the cytoplasm

What hormone is released by the cells pictured in letter D?

calcitonin These humorally-stimulated cells respond to increasing levels of calcium in the blood and secrete calcitonin to counteract it.

lipid-soluble steroid hormones and thyroid hormone

can diffuse into target sells and bind with intracellular receptors

What vessels sustain a drop in pressure from approximately 35 mm Hg to around 17 mm Hg?

capillaries

Which type of blood vessel typically LACKS one or more of the three tunics?

capillaries

Which type of blood vessels typically are regulated by sphincters?

capillaries

The net hydrostatic pressure (HP) is the hydrostatic pressure in the __________ minus hydrostatic pressure in the __________.

capillary; interstitial fluid

Congenital hypothyroidism

caused by poor development of thyroid gland. -Pituitary problems or maternal medications may sometimes rarely affect baby's ability to make TH -May be asymptomatic or present with weak cry, poor feeding, constipation or prolonged jaundice -TH replacement is crucial and is usually lifelong

PTH

causes Ca2+ concentrations to rise, and stimulus is removed

inositol triphosphate (IP3)

causes Ca2+ release from intracellular storage sites

humoral stimuli

changing blood levels of ions and nutrients directly stimulate secretion of hormones

What keeps intracellular receptors from binding to DNA before a hormone binds to the receptor?

chaperone proteins (chaperonins)

Autocrines

chemicals that exert effects on same cells that secrete them

The beginning of the QRS complex of the electrocardiogram (ECG) immediately precedes which of the following events?

closing of the atrioventricular valves

The first heart sound (the "lub" of the "lub-dup") is caused by __________. closure of the semilunar valves ventricular contraction closure of the atrioventricular valves atrial contraction

closure of the atrioventricular valves The first heart sound (the "lub" of the "lub-dup") is generated by the closure of the atrioventricular valves.

posterior pituitary

composed of neural tissue that secretes neurohormones

A foramen ovale ________. is a shallow depression in the interventricular septum connects the two atria in the fetal heart is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the fetus

connects the two atria in the fetal heart

An increase in sympathetic stimulation of the heart would increase stroke volume by increasing __________.

contractility

An increase in sympathetic stimulation of the heart would increase stroke volume by increasing __________.

contractility - Increased sympathetic activity increases heart contractility. This causes cardiac fibers to contract more forcefully at all levels of preload. Regardless of end diastolic volume, this mechanism increases stroke volume by reducing end systolic volume

The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the ________. fossa ovalis coronary sinus coronary arteries coronary veins

coronary arteries

Which of the following hormones has intracellular receptors?

cortisol

Regulates tissue growth and development

critical for normal skeletal and nervous system development and reproductive capabilities

Which of the following would cause vasodilation of arterioles?

decreased activity of the sympathetic nervous system A decrease in the activity of the sympathetic nervous system would result in decreased activity of vasomotor fibers, resulting in vasodilation.

increased

decreased flow rate

In response to stress, which of the following changes would happen?

decreased insulin secretion

How would a decrease in blood volume affect both stroke volume and cardiac output?

decreased stroke volume and no change in cardiac output

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

decreases blood Na+concentration, therefore blood pressure and blood volume

Which of the following is the correct equation for the calculation of mean arterial pressure (MAP)?

diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure

Tricuspid Stenosis Mr. V has also had a recent echocardiogram and blood work. With tricuspid stenosis, what changes do you expect to see in the echocardiogram report?

dilated right atrium because blood is not flowing down into the right ventricle fast enough

During exercise, we might expect blood vessels in the skeletal muscle to be somewhat _______________ and the blood vessels in the digestive organs to be somewhat ____________.

dilated, constricted

Blood flow is _______.

directly proportional to the pressure gradient

The flow rate of a liquid is _______.

directly proportional to the pressure gradient

Which of the following increases stroke volume? severe blood loss decrease in preload exercise decrease in end diastolic volume (EDV)

exercise Exercise increases venous return, which would in turn increase the amount of blood in the presystolic ventricle (preload).

When threshold is reached at the SA node (an autorhythmic cell), what channels open causing further depolarization of the membrane?

fast calcium

sympathetic nervous system

fibers stimulate adrenal medulla to secrete catecholamines

When the radius of the flow tube is decreased, the _______.

fluid flow rate decreases

colloid

fluid of follicle lumen containing thyroglobulin plus iodine and is precursor to thyroid hormone

Hematopoiesis

formation of all blood cells

Monoiodotyrosine (MIT)

formed if only one iodine attaches

Diiodotyrosine (DIT)

formed if two iodines attach

How many oxygen molecules can be transported by one hemoglobin molecule?

four

T3 (triiodothyronine)

from that has two tyrosines with three bound iodine atoms Must be converted to T4 at tissue level

In Baby A, the atrial septal defect did not close at birth. Blood is flowing through her defect in what direction? Choose the best answer.

from the left atrium into the right atrium The right side of the heart is sending blood to the lungs. The lungs are low pressure, so the right side of the heart is also low pressure. The left side is high pressure.

Which of the following plasma proteins is improperly matched with its function?

gamma globulins: lipid transport

Action potentials generated by the autorhythmic cells spread to the contractile cells through what structures in the membrane?

gap junctions

Hypersecretion of what hormone can produce the effects of gigantism in the individual in the center of this image?

growth hormone (GH)

Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________. cells are larger than skeletal muscle cells has more nuclei per cell lacks striations has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium

has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium

Increasing blood vessel length _______.

has the same effect as decreasing blood vessel radius and increases resistance to flow

Arteries that are closer to the heart _______.

have more elastic tissue and must be able to withstand pressure changes

Which of the following are symptom(s) of pheochromocytoma?

heart palpitations

What variable(s) can the cardiovascular system alter to maintain blood pressure?

heart rate, stroke volume and resistance

What causes heart sounds? heart valve closure blood flowing from the atria into the ventricles pressure of blood in the ventricles opening of heart valves

heart valve closure Heart sounds are caused by heart valve closure.

lipidemia

high levels of fatty acids in blood

follicles

hollow sphere of epithelial follicular cells that produce glycoprotein thyroglobulin

The body's tendency to maintain relatively constant internal conditions is called

homeostasis.

Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?

hormone production

Erythropoietin (EPO)

hormone that stimulates formation of RBCs Always small amount of EPO in blood to maintain basal rate Released by kidneys (some from liver) in response to hypoxia -At low O2levels, oxygen-sensitive enzymes in kidney cells cannot degrade hypoxia-inducible factor (HIF) -HIF can accumulate, which triggers synthesis of EPO

degrading enzyme, kidneys, or liver

hormones can be removed from blood by?

hypothalamic-pituitary-target endocrine organ feedback loop

hormones from final target organs inhibit release of anterior pituitary hormones

hormonal stimuli

hormones stimulate other endocrine organs to release their hormones

polyuria

huge urine output -Glucose acts as osmotic diuretic

Aldosteronism

hypersecretion usually due to adrenal tumors Results in two major problems: 1.Hypertension and edema due to excessive Na+ 2.Excretion of K+, leading to abnormal nonresponsive neurons and muscle

What area of the brain is designated by letter A?

hypothalamus

Where is thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) made?

hypothalamus The hypothalamus regulates the release of several other hormones by producing releasing and inhibitory hormones, including TRH.

releasing and inhibiting hormones

hypothalamus secretes __________________ to anterior pituitary to regulate hormone secretion

Where are the vasa vasorum located?

in the tunica externa of large blood vessels

Formed elements in the blood _______.

include platelets and whole cells that slide past one another

An increase in venous return will _______.

increase EDV and therefore, increase stroke volume

Which of the following result(s) in an increase in fluid flow rate?

increase in pressure and increase in radius diameter

An increased preload is equivalent to, or causes, a(n) _______.

increased EDV

If blood pressure is increased at the arterial baroreceptors, what would happen with the activity level of the parasympathetic nervous system (PNS) and sympathetic nervous system (SNS)?

increased PNS activity and decreased SNS activity

How would an increase in the sympathetic nervous system increase stroke volume?

increased contractility

Increase in stroke volume is a result of _______.

increased contractility of the heart, increased EDV and increased preload

By what mechanism would an increase in venous return increase stroke volume?

increased end diastolic volume

Which of the following would increase cardiac output to the greatest extent?

increased heart rate and increased stroke volume

negative feedback systems

increased hormone effects on target organs can inhibit further hormone release

Polycythemia results in _______.

increased resistance to flow

Effects of thyroid hormone

increases basal metabolic rate and heat production -Referred to as calorigenic effect

In this activity, we changed the pressure delivered by the left beaker. This is analogous to _______.

increasing the force of contraction of the heart

renin

initiates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism

What structures connect the individual heart muscle cells? trabaculae carneae anastomoses intercalated discs chordae tendineae

intercalated *Intercalated discs connect the heart muscle cells. They include desmosomes (anchoring junctions) and gap junctions (communicating junctions).*

A blow to the head may cause diabetes insipidus by ______.

interfering with the normal transmission of ADH to the posterior pituitary via the axons of hypothalamic neurons

_______ _________ link(s) between the SA node and AV node

internodal pathways

anterior lobe

is granular tissue derived from an outpocketing of oral mucosa (Ruthke's pouch)

ketonuria

ketone bodies in urine

Other than the brain and heart, what organ would hypertension affect the most?

kidney

Which factor is most responsible for regulating long-term blood pressure?

kidneys altering blood volume The kidneys regulate long-term blood pressure via the direct renal mechanism that controls the amount of water from the blood that leaves in urine, or by the indirect renal mechanism that involves the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism.

The free-flowing blood located in the middle of a blood vessel is called _______.

laminar flow

Blood within the pulmonary veins returns to the ________. right atrium left ventricle left atrium right ventricle

left atrium

Which heart chamber receives blood from the pulmonary veins?

left atrium

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood from the lungs? left ventricle left atrium right ventricle right atrium

left atrium

Which chamber pumps oxygenated blood out the aorta to the systemic circuit?

left ventricle

The overlap length of cardiac muscle in the healthy heart is _______.

less than optimum for maximum tension production

Which of the following would NOT be a characteristic of normal blood?

less viscous than water

The __________ valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle. pulmonary semilunar tricuspid mitral aortic semilunar

tricuspid

Which valve is located between the right atrium and ventricle? pulmonary semilunar valve bicuspid valve mitral valve tricuspid valve

tricuspid valve

Right-Sided Anatomical Features

tricuspid valve, inferior vena cava, pulomary semilunar valve, right ventricle, pulomary artery, pumonary trunk, lung capillary bed.

Conclusion: Valves in Blood Flow through the Heart

tricuspid valve, pulmonary semilunar valve, aortic semilunar valve, mitral (bicuspid) valve

The heart is actually (one, two, or three) pumps?

two pumps

The heart is actually (one, two, or three) pumps?

two pumps The right side of the heart pumps to/from the lungs (pulmonary circuit) and the left side of the heart pumps to/from the rest of the body (the systemic circuit).

Growth factor hormones, such as insulin, bind to which type of receptor?

tyrosine kinase receptors

primary capillary pelxus hypophyseal portal veins Secondary capillary plexus

vascularly connected to hypothalamus via hypophyseal portal system consisting of:

How does the body decrease the blood vessel radius?

vasoconstriction

Laminar flow of the blood is achieved through _______.

vasodilation

Reabsorption of fluid into the capillary takes place at the arterial end or venous end of the capillary?

venous

Reabsorption of fluid into the capillary takes place at the arterial end or venous end of the capillary?

venous It is because the hydrostatic pressure of blood (which favors filtration out of the capillary) is lowest in the venous end of the capillary.

What is happening during the "pause" phase when the heart is resting (relaxing)? Atria are contracting. Ventricles are filling. Valves are closing. Ventricles are contracting.

ventricles are filling

Which of the events below does NOT occur when the semilunar valves are open? Blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta. Ventricles are in diastole. AV valves are closed. Ventricles are in systole.

ventricles are in diastole

What does the QRS complex represent in the ECG wave tracing?

ventricular depolarization

Triangular gland

located partially behind stomach Has both exocrine and endocrine cells -Acinar cells (exocrine) produce enzyme-rich juice for digestion -Pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans) contain endocrine cells Alpha () cells produce glucagon (hyperglycemic hormone) Beta () cells produce insulin (hypoglycemic hormone)

hormones

long-distance chemical signals; travel in blood or lymph

Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.

look at question above; neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil, lymphocyte, monocyte

Oxygen-Rich Blood Returning to the Heart

lung capillaries, pulonary veins, left atrium, miral/bicuspid valve, left ventricle, aortic/semilunar valve

Which type of leukocyte is responsible for antibody production?

lymphocytes

hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract

maintains neural connection to hypothalamus via? Arises from neurons in paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei in hypothalamus Runs through infundibulum

T4 (thyroxine)

major form that consists of two tyrosine molecules with four bound iodine atoms

Albumin

makes up 60% of plasma proteins -Functions as carrier of other molecules, as blood buffer, and contributes to plasma osmotic pressure

Isthmus

median mass connection two lateral lobes

synergism

more than one hormone produces the same effects on a target cell, causing amplification

HYperprolactinemia

most frequent abnormality of anterior pituitary tumors Clinical signs include inappropriate lactation, lack of menses, infertility in females, and impotence in males

Aldosterone

most potent mineralocorticoid Stimulates Na+reabsorption by kidneys -Results in increased blood volume and blood pressure Stimulates K+elimination by kidneys

target cells

must have specific receptors to which hormone binds

autocrines and paracrines

name two local chemical messengers; not considered part of endocrine system

neural stimuli

nerve fibers stimulate hormone release

adrenal medulla

nervous tissue that is part of sympathetic nervous system

Which net pressure draws fluid into the capillary?

net osmotic pressure

Identify the leukocytes in the figure in order.

neutrophil, eosinophil, basophil, lymphocyte, monocyte

When a person has an acute bacterial infection, such as bacterial meningitis or appendicitis, which type of leukocyte increases in number?

neutrophils

When viewing a dissected heart, it is easy to visually discern the right and left ventricles by ________. tracing out where the auricles connect finding the papillary muscles locating the base noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls

noticing the thickness of the ventricle walls

An increase in venous return _______.

occurs during exercise

permissiveness

one hormone cannot exert its effects without another hormone being present

antagonism

one or more hormones opposes the action of another hormone

Which of these muscles is particularly associated with anchoring the right and left atrioventricular valves? myocardium trabeculae carneae papillary muscles pectinate muscles

papillary muscles

Which of the following glands increases blood calcium levels?

parathyroid

Hematocrit

percent of blood volume that is RBCs -Normal values: •Males: 47% ± 5% •Females: 42% ± 5%

Which of the following is correctly matched?

pernicious anemia: results from a vitamin B12 deficiency

Cyclic AMP is degraded by __________.

phosphodiesterase

Which intracellular substance degrades cAMP, thus inactivating the response to a hormone?

phosphodiesterase

Which of the following enzymes are important in the deactivation of cAMP and termination of signaling?

phosphodiesterase

Water-soluble hormones affect target cells by binding to __________.

plasma membrane receptors

What "clot buster" enzyme removes unneeded clots after healing has occurred during fibrinolysis?

plasmin

Suppose that an individual injects himself with erythropoietin in order to raise his level of endurance, an act that is usually illegal in competitive sports. Which of the following could result?

polycythemia

neurohypophysis

posterior lobe, along with infundibulum makes up the?

One of the changes that occurs in the pacemaker potential (unstable resting membrane potential) in the SA node (an autorhythmic cell) is a decreased efflux of what ion?

potassium

In this activity, which variable will be changed?

pressure

Erythropoiesis

process of formation of RBCs that takes about 15 days-Stages of transformations 1. Hematopoietic stem cell: transforms into myeloid stem cell 2.Myeloid stem cell: transforms into proerythroblast 3.Proerythroblast: divides many times, transforming into basophilic erythroblasts 4.Basophilic erythroblasts: synthesize many ribosomes, which stain blue 5.Polychromatic erythroblasts: synthesize large amounts of red-hued hemoglobin; cell now shows both pink and blue areas 6.Orthochromatic erythroblasts: contain mostly hemoglobin, so appear just pink; eject most organelles; nucleus degrades, causing concave shape 7.Reticulocytes: still contain small amount of ribosomes 8. Mature erythrocyte: in 2 days, ribosomes degrade,transforming into mature RBC

supraoptic neurons

produce antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Parafollicular cells

produce hormone calcitonin

paraventricular neurons

produce oxytocin

Hypercalcemia could cause ______. increased osteoclast activity prolonged T wave hypersecretion of parathyroid hormone All of the listed responses are correct.

prolonged T wave The T wave on an ECG tracing represents ventricular repolarization. Repolarization requires the net efflux of K+ ions. Recall that changes in normal ion concentrations, like Ca2+, in the plasma can affect the ability of other ions to move in and out of the cell.

The colloid osmotic pressure in the capillary is caused by __________.

proteins in the blood

activated tyrosine kinases

provide docking sites for relay proteins that trigger cell responses

In which of the following blood vessels would you expect to find the LEAST amount of carbon dioxide?

pulmonary vein The pulmonary vein carries blood from the lungs that is rich in oxygen and poor in carbon dioxide.

Which of these vessels returns blood to the left atrium of the heart? pulmonary veins pulmonary trunk superior vena cava coronary sinus

pulmonary veins

Repolarization of an autorhythmic cell is due to the opening of which channels?

voltage-gated potassium channels

What type of hormones bind to receptors located on the cell membrane?

water-soluble hormones, such as insulin and epinephrine

The atrioventricular (AV) valves are closed ________. while the atria are contracting when the ventricles are in diastole when the ventricles are in systole by the movement of blood from atria to ventricles

when the ventricles are in systole

Which of the following adrenergic receptors increase cAMP levels?

β receptors

Which of the following does NOT deliver deoxygenated blood to the heart? coronary sinus superior vena cava inferior vena cava pulmonary veins

pulmonary veins *The pulmonary veins deliver oxygenated blood to the left atrium.*

Conclusion: Blood Flow through the Heart oxygen right

pulmonary veins, aorta, left ventricle, left atrium

Phosphodiesterase

rapidly degrades cAMP

When the flow tube radius increased, _______.

resistance decreased and pump rate increased to maintain pressure

In an ischemic heart, the affected cardiac muscle cells are likely to have an altered ______. number of Z discs number of desmosomes number of slow Ca+2 channels resting membrane potential

resting membrane potential *Ischemia is cell and tissue damage that result from a lack of proper blood and oxygen delivery. The damaged tissue is normally replaced by scar tissue that lacks the normal cell structure of the original tissue. So "scarred" cardiac muscle would lack the pumps and channels that are necessary to establish resting membrane potential.*

The right atrioventricular valve prevents backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the __________. left ventricle pulmonary trunk right atrium left atrium

right atrium

Which chamber receives blood from the superior and inferior vena cavae?

right atrium

Assume that blood is flowing from the coronary sinus to the lung capillaries. Place the anatomical labels in order of flow in the target boxes. Not all labels are used.

right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulomonary semilunar valve, pulmonary trunk, pulmonary arteries

Which heart chamber pumps unoxygenated blood out the pulmonary trunk?

right ventricle

pinealocytes

secrete melatonin, derived from serotonin

pituitary

secretes at least eight major hormones

Placenta

secretes estrogens, progesterone, and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Arrange these elements of the intrinsic conduction system in the order that a depolarizing impulse travels during a normal heartbeat.

see picture

Arrange these images of the phases during the cardiac cycle in order starting with atrial contraction. Rank the phases of the cardiac cycle from first to last. Do not overlap any phases.

see picture

Assume that blood is flowing from the coronary sinus to the lung capillaries. Place the anatomical labels in order of flow in the target boxes. Not all labels are used.

see picture

Drag and drop the correct identification label to the box with a leader line. Answers may be used once or not at all.

see picture

Drag and drop the terms to arrange them, from left to right, in order of blood flow of oxygen-rich blood into the heart.

see picture

Drag and drop valve names to their correct location in the image.

see picture

Place the appropriate valve position for the atrioventricular valves (AV) and semilunar valves for each phase of the cardiac cycle on the left side of the heart. ​Identify the valves' positions by dragging the appropriate labels to their respective targets.

see picture

Predict the changes in heart rate, stroke volume, and cardiac output for each of the following conditions by filling out the table below. Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.

see picture

Sort the terms into the appropriate category of either oxygen-poor or oxygen-rich.

see picture

The tiles below are pieces of a normal ECG tracing representing a little less than two heartbeats at a resting rate of 80 bpmbpm. Arrange the tiles in their correct order. Drag and drop the images in the correct order of an ECG tracing.

see picture

These activities change heart rate by changing the balance of parasympathetic and sympathetic stimulation of the heart. Sort each of the activities according to whether it decreases or increases heart rate. Drag the appropriate items to their respective bins.

see picture

Which of the following graphs depict the cardiac cycle of an individual with chronic hypertension in which blood pressure is 140/90?

see picture

​Identify the phases of the cardiac cycle by dragging the appropriate labels to their respective targets.

see picture

Erythropoietin

signals production of red blood cells

Specifically, what part of the intrinsic conduction system stimulates the atrioventricular (AV) node to conduct impulses to the atrioventricular bundle? bundle branches subendocardial conducting network (Purkinje fibers) sinoatrial (SA) node interventricular septum

sinoatrial (SA) node *The sinoatrial node, by spontaneously depolarizing faster than the atrioventricular node, initiates heart contraction.*

qrs complex

sinoatrial node atrioventricular node

Which type of blood vessel is the most permeable?

sinusoid capillaries

Which of the following factors does NOT influence heart rate? gender skin color age body temperature

skin color

pineal gland

small gland hanging from roof of third ventricle

Effects of Environmental Pollutants

•Exposure to pesticides, industrial chemicals, arsenic, dioxin, and soil and water pollutants disrupts hormone function •Sex hormones, thyroid hormone, glucocorticoids are all vulnerable to effects of pollutants •Interference with glucocorticoids may help explain high cancer rates in certain areas

The flow rate in this activity _______.

stayed constant, because pump rate decreased as the stroke volume increased

Which of the following tools are most commonly used to measure blood pressure indirectly?

stethoscope, sphygmomanometer

hypothalamic hormones

stimulate release of most anterior pituitary hormones

Growth hormone-releasing hormone(GHRH)

stimulates GH release Triggered by low blood GH or glucose, or high amino acid levels

declining blood Ca2+ concentration

stimulates parathyroid glands to secrete PTH (parathyroid hormone)

Hemostasis is important for __________.

stoppage of bleeding

Which of the following stayed constant throughout this activity?

stroke volume

Which variable was altered in this activity?

stroke volume

Conclusion: Blood Flow through the Heart oxygen poor

superior vena cava, right atrium, right venticle, pulmonary arteries

When blood vessel length increases, _______.

surface area increases

Which of the following occurs in situations where more than one hormone produces the same effects at the target cell and their combined effects are amplified?

synergism

One is faster than the other.

Which of the following represents a difference between extrinsic and intrinsic blood clotting pathways? One is faster than the other. One involves calcium ions, while the other does not .One leads to the formation of prothrombin activator and the other does not. One can be triggered by tissue damage, while the other cannot.

Which of the following best describes gluconeogenesis?

synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources

Medullary chromaffin cells

synthesize catecholamines epinephrine (80%) and norepinephrine (20%)

B-negative female pregnant with an AB-positive baby

Which of the following scenarios could result in HDN (hemolytic disease of the newborn)? AB-negative female pregnant with an AB-negative baby B-negative female pregnant with an AB-positive baby A-positive female pregnant with a B-positive baby O-positive female pregnant with a B-positive baby

Up-regulation

target cells from more receptors in response to low hormone levels

Adrenal cortex

three layers of glandular tissue that synthesize and secrete several different hormones

Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched? -leukocytes - white blood cells -erythrocytes - red blood cells -thrombocytes - plasma proteins -All of the above are matched correctly

thrombocytes - plasma proteins

The left side of the heart pumps blood _______.

through the aortic valve

Which hormone's receptor is always bound to DNA, even when the receptor is empty?

thyroid hormone

half-life

time required for level of hormone in blood level to decrease by half

target cells

tissues with receptors for a specific hormone

Which of the following describes why the body might need to increase vessel length?

to accommodate weight gain and height changes

What is the main function of the pulmonary circuit?

to oxygenate the blood

When blood glucose levels are high

The pancreas releases insulin.

Anterior pituitary

(adenohypophysis) consists of glandular tissue

water-soluble hormones

(all amino acid-based hormones except thyroid hormone) Act on plasma membrane receptors Act via G protein second messengers Cannot enter cell

Growth hormone-inhibiting hormone (GHIH)

(somatostatin) inhibits release Triggered by increase in GH and IGF levels

Adipose tissue

-Adipose cells release: Leptin: appetite control; stimulates increased energy expenditure Resistin: insulin antagonist Adiponectin: enhances sensitivity to insulin

Three features make for efficient gas transport:

-Biconcave shape offers huge surface area relative to volume for gas exchange -Hemoglobin makes up 97% of cell volume (not counting water) -RBCs have no mitochondria ATP production is anaerobic, so they do not consume O2they transport

Anemia

-Blood has abnormally low O2-carrying capacity that is too low to support normal metabolism -Sign of problem rather than disease itself -Symptoms: fatigue, pallor, dyspnea, and chills -Three groups based on cause Blood loss Not enough RBCs produced Too many RBCs being destroyed

Skin

-Cholecalciferol, precursor of vitamin D -Calcitriol: active form of vitamin D that helps absorb calcium from intestine -Also modulates immunity, decreases inflammation, and may act as anticancer agent

Transport functions include:

-Delivering O2 and nutrients to body cells -Transporting metabolic wastes to lungs and kidneys for elimination -Transporting hormones from endocrine organs to target organs

Hypersecretion—Cushing's syndrome/disease

-Depresses cartilage/bone formation and immune system; inhibits inflammation; disrupts neural, cardiovascular, and gastrointestinal function -Causes: tumor on pituitary, lungs, pancreas, kidney, or adrenal cortex; overuse of corticosteroids -Cushingoid signs: "moon" face and "buffalo hump" -Treatment: removal of tumor, discontinuation of drugs

Hyperinsulinism

-Excessive insulin secretion -Causes hypoglycemia: low blood glucose levels -Symptoms: anxiety, nervousness, disorientation, unconsciousness, even death -Treatment: sugar ingestion

Glucagon

-Extremely potent hyperglycemic agent Triggered by decreased blood glucose levels, rising amino acid levels, or sympathetic nervous system -Raises blood glucose levels by targeting liver to: Break down glycogen into glucose -Glycogenolysis Synthesize glucose from lactic acid and other noncarbohydrates -Gluconeogenesis Release glucose into blood

Glucocorticoids

-Influence metabolism of most cells and help us resist stressors -Keep blood glucose levels relatively constant -Maintain blood pressure by increasing action of vasoconstrictors

Testes produce testosterone

-Initiates maturation of male reproductive organs -Causes appearance of male secondary sexual characteristics and sex drive -Necessary for normal sperm production -Maintains reproductive organs in functional state

Thymus

-Large in infants and children; shrinks with age -Thymulin, thymopoietins, and thymosins may be involved in normal development of T lymphocytes in immune response Classified as hormones but act as paracrines

Hypersecretion

-Leads to symptoms of uncontrolled sympathetic nervous system, such as: Hyperglycemia, increased metabolic rate, rapid heartbeat, palpitations, hypertension, intense nervousness, and sweating -Can be due to pheochromocytoma, tumor of medullary chromaffin cells

Regulation functions include:

-Maintaining body temperature by absorbing and distributing heat -Maintaining normal pH using buffers; alkaline reserve of bicarbonate ions -Maintaining adequate fluid volume in circulatory system

Type of connective tissue

-Matrix is nonliving fluid called plasma -Cells are living blood cells called formed elements Cells are suspended in plasma Formed elements -Erythrocytes (red blood cells, or RBCs) -Leukocytes (white blood cells, or WBCs) -Platelets

Adrenogenital syndrome (masculinization)

-Not noticeable in adult males Already masculinized with testosterone, so no effect -Females and prepubertal males Boys: reproductive organs mature; secondary sex characteristics emerge early Females: beard, masculine pattern of body hair; clitoris resembles small penis

Protection functions include:

-Preventing blood loss Plasma proteins and platelets in blood initiate clot formation -Preventing infection Agents of immunity are carried in blood -Antibodies -Complement proteins -White blood cells

insulin

-Secreted when blood glucose levels increase -Synthesized as proinsulin that is then modified -Insulin lowers blood glucose levels in three ways: Enhances membrane transport of glucose into fat and muscle cells Inhibits breakdown of glycogen to glucose Inhibits conversion of amino acids or fats to glucose -Not needed for glucose uptake in liver, kidney, or brain -Plays a role in neuronal development, learning, and memory -Binding to tyrosine kinase enzyme receptor triggers cell to increase glucose uptake -Insulin also triggers cells to Catalyze oxidation of glucose for ATP production: first priority Polymerize glucose to form glycogen Convert glucose to fat (particularly in adipose tissue)

Hematopoietic stem cells (hemocytoblasts)

-Stem cell that gives rise to all formed elements -Hormones and growth factors push cell toward specific pathway of blood cell development -Committed cells cannot change •New blood cells enter blood sinusoids

Hyposecretion—Addison's disease

-Usually involves deficits in both glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids -Decrease in plasma glucose and Na+levels -Weight loss, severe dehydration, and hypotension are common -Treatment: corticosteroid replacement therapy -Early sign is characteristic bronzing of skin due to high levels of ACTH which triggers melanin production in melanocytes

Effects of catecholamines:

-Vasoconstriction -Increased heart rate -Increased blood glucose levels -Blood diverted to brain, heart, and skeletal muscle

Gonadocorticoids (adrenal sex hormone)

-Weak androgens (male sex hormones) converted to testosterone in tissue cells, some to estrogens Example: androstenedione and dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) -May contribute to: Onset of puberty and appearance of secondary sex characteristics Sex drive in women Source of estrogens in postmenopausal women

Three layers of cortical cells produce the different corticosteroids

-Zona glomerulosa—Mineralocorticoids -Zona fasciculata—Glucocorticoids -Zona reticularis—Gonadocorticoids

Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?

-adenoid- parts that are : -thyroid -adrenal -pituitary

functions of blood

-transport -regulation -protection

Which viscosity had the fastest flow rate? -8 -2 -6 -4 -1

1

High blood glucose

1. Blood glucose becomes high 2. pancreas releases insulin 3.insulin binds to receptors on target cells 4. cells take in glucose 5. blood glucose returns to normal

Match the cardiac components in the left column to the blanks near their functions on the right.

1. Bundle branches: Convey(s) the impulse down the interventricular septum 2. Internodal pathways: Link(s) between the SA node and AV node 3. Purkinje fibers: Convey(s) the impulse throughout the ventricular walls 4. AV node: Delay(s) occurs here while atria contract 5. SA node: Set(s) the pace for the entire heart 6. AV bundle : Electrical link(s) between atria and ventricles

Match the term in the left column to the blanks near their definition on the right.

1. End systolic volume (ESV): the volume of blood in one ventricle after contraction 2. End diastolic volume (EDV): the volume of blood in one ventricle before contraction 3. Cardiac output (CO): the volume of blood per minute pumped out by one ventricle 4. Stroke volume (SV): the volume of blood per heart beat pumped out by one ventricle 5. Heart rate (HR): the number of heart beats per minute 6. Venous return (VR): the volume of blood per minute flowing into one atrium

The graph below illustrates the stages of the cardiac cycle and the major pressure, volume, and auscultation events that occur. Match the correct letter with the cardiac cycle event.

1. First heart sound occurs: Arrow B 2. Pulmonic valve opens: Arrow C 3. Second heart sound occurs: Arrow E 4. Atrial systole: Arrow A 5. Ventricular filling begins as cycle starts over: Arrow D 6. Ventricular ejection occurs: Arrow C

Part A - Diabetes

1. In type 2 diabetes, target cells do not respond normally to insulin. 2. In type 1diabetes, no insulin is produced. 3. In both type 1 and type 2diabetes, glucose levels remain higher than normal.

Focus your attention on the section called Net filtration pressure at the arteriolar end of a capillary at the upper right corner of Focus Figure 19.1. Note that for an NFP at any point there are four pressures to be considered. Pay attention to which forces are larger and which are smaller. Note that the white arrow represents the net filtration pressure, the result of four different forces.

1. The "pushing" pressure of this fluid is usually very weak: HPif0 mm 2. The "pulling" pressure of this fluid is usually due to large albumens and globulins: OPc~26 mm 3. The "pulling" pressure of this fluid resulting from nondiffusible solutes is very low: OPif~1 mm 4. The "pushing" pressure of this fluid is high and results from blood pressure: BPc~35 mm

Focus your attention on the section called Net filtration pressure occurs at the arteriolar end of a capillary on page 2 of Focus Figure 19.1. Note that for an NFP at any point there are four pressures to be considered. Pay attention to which forces are larger and which are smaller. Note that the white arrow represents the net filtration pressure, the result of four different forces.Drag and drop the terms to the two appropriate blanks describing pressures for each sentence.

1. The "pushing" pressure of this fluid is usually very weak: HPifHPif The "pushing" pressure of this fluid is usually very weak: H P i fH P i f 0 mm The "pushing" pressure of this fluid is usually very weak: H P i fH P i f 2. The "pulling" pressure of this fluid is usually due to large albumens and globulins: OPcOPc The "pulling" pressure of this fluid is usually due to large albumens and globulins: O P cO P c ~26 mm The "pulling" pressure of this fluid is usually due to large albumens and globulins: O P cO P c 3. The "pulling" pressure of this fluid resulting from nondiffusible solutes is very low: OPifOPif The "pulling" pressure of this fluid resulting from nondiffusible solutes is very low: O P i fO P i f ~1 mm The "pulling" pressure of this fluid resulting from nondiffusible solutes is very low: O P i fO P i f 4. The "pushing" pressure of this fluid is high and results from blood pressure: BPc The "pushing" pressure of this fluid is high and results from blood pressure: \rm BP_c\rm BP_c ~35 mm The "pushing" pressure of this fluid is high and results from blood pressure: \rm BP_c\rm BP_c ~35 mm returned

Drag and drop the terms at the left to match the appropriate descriptions at the right. Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences.​

1. The maximum pressure in the aorta during the cardiac cycle: Systolic pressure 2. Instrument used to measure blood pressure: Sphygmomanometer 3. Sounds that are produced when the heart valves close: Heart sounds 4. The minimum pressure in the aorta during the cardiac cycle: Diastolic pressure 5. Series of events that occur in the heart during one heartbeat: Cardiac cycle 6. Instrument used for hearing heart sounds: Stethoscope 7. Sounds of turbulent blood flow heard while measuring blood pressure: Korotkoff sounds 8. Cyclic expansion and contraction of the arteries: Pulse

Drag and drop the terms to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right. Not all labels are used.

1. The structure that prevents backflow of blood into the left atrium is the mitral (bicuspid) valve. 2. The vessel that carries oxygen-rich blood to tissues is the aorta. 3. The capillaries receiving blood flow from the left side of the heart are the systemic capillaries. 4. The structure that is located anatomically between the aorta and the left ventricle is the aortic semilunar valve.

Oxygen-Rich Blood and the Left Side of the Heart

1. The structure that prevents backflow of blood into the left atrium is the mitral (bicuspid) valve. 2. The vessel that carries oxygen-rich blood to tissues is the aorta. 3. The capillaries receiving blood flow from the left side of the heart are the systemic capillaries. 4. The structure that is located anatomically between the aorta and the left ventricle is the aortic semilunar valve.

Blood Entering the Right Atrium

1. The superior vena cava carries oxygen-poor venous blood from above the diaphragm from areas of the upper body and extremities into the right atrium. 2. The coronary sinus carries oxygen-poor venous blood of the coronary circulation into the right atrium. 3. The inferior vena cava carries oxygen-poor venous blood from below the diaphragm from the areas of the lower body and extremities into the right atrium.

Drag and drop the correct item name to complete each sentence. Terms may be used more than once or not at all.

1. The superior vena cava carries oxygen-poor venous blood from above the diaphragm from areas of the upper body and extremities into the right atrium. 2. The coronary sinus carries oxygen-poor venous blood of the coronary circulation into the right atrium. 3. The inferior vena cava carries oxygen-poor venous blood from below the diaphragm from the areas of the lower body and extremities into the right atrium.

Drag and drop the correct item name to complete each sentence.Terms may be used more than once or not at all.

1. The superior vena cava carries oxygen-poor venous blood from above the diaphragm from areas of the upper body and extremities into the right atrium. 2. The coronary sinus carries oxygen-poor venous blood of the coronary circulation into the right atrium. 3. The inferior vena cava carries oxygen-poor venous blood from below the diaphragm from the areas of the lower body and extremities into the right atrium.

Events of Second Messenger Cyclic AMP Signaling Mechanism

1. Water-soluble hormone binds receptor 2. receptor activates G protein 3. G protein activates cyclase 4. Adenylate cyclase generates cAMP 5. cAMP activates protein kinases

There are various techniques to manually calculate the heart rate based on the ECG readout. However, there are certain standard features that one should note, such as that the paper/monitor travels at the speed of 25 mm/sec and the gird is made up of little squares of 1 mm × mm, each representing 0.04 sec. The distance between the R wave of one cycle to another R wave is composed of 20 small squares on an ECG strip. What is the heart rate in bpm?

25mm/1 sec = 20mm/x x = 20/25 = 0.8 sec (1 beat/0.8 sec) x (60 sec/1min) = 60 beats/0.8 min = 75 bpm 75 bpm

What is the typical range for viscosity of the blood?

3 to 5

Compute the pulse pressure of a person with a BP of 120/90. Drag and drop the correct numbers to complete the calculation.

30 = 120 - 90

Which of the following would reflect the typical net hydrostatic pressure (HP) at the arterial end of the capillary?

34 mm Hg

Which of the following would reflect the typical net hydrostatic pressure (HP) at the arterial end of the capillary? -1 mm Hg -34 mm Hg -12 mm Hg

34 mm Hg

Which right flow tube radius resulted in the fastest flow rate?

5.0 mm

Which right flow tube radius resulted in the fastest flow rate? -All sizes had the same flow rate. -3.0 mm -5.0 mm -1.0 mm

5.0 mm

Assume you have a U-tube with a semipermeable capillary membrane made of simple squamous epithelium separating the solutions on either side. Blood will be on the left side of the tube, and watery extracellular fluid (ECF) will be on the right side of the tube. Predict what will occur to the water levels by hydrostatic pressure, the pressure of watery fluid pushing on a boundary.

A pump pushing down on the left arm of the U-tube containing blood will increase ECF fluid levels on the right side.

Examine the left side of page 1 of Focus Figure 19.1.Assume you have a U-tube with a semipermeable capillary membrane made of simple squamous epithelium separating the solutions on either side. Blood will be on the left side of the tube, and watery extracellular fluid (ECF) will be on the right side of the tube. Predict what will occur to the levels of fluids by hydrostatic pressure, the pressure of watery fluid pushing on a boundary.

A pump pushing down on the left arm of the U-tube containing blood will increase ECF fluid levels on the right side.

What is the ligamentum arteriosum?

A remnant of the ductus arteriosus

The order of impulse conduction in the heart, from beginning to end, is __________. A. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers B. SA node, bundle branches, AV node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers C. SA node, bundle of His, AV node, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers D. SA node, bundle branches, bundle of His, AV node, and Purkinje fibers

A.

What does the ECG wave tracing represent? A. electrical activity in the heart B. contraction of the heart

A.

What does the QRS complex represent in the ECG wave tracing? A. ventricular depolarization B. ventricular repolarization C. atrial depolarization D. atrial repolarization

A.

Which of the following does NOT deliver deoxygenated blood to the heart? A. pulmonary veins B. coronary sinus C. superior vena cava D. inferior vena cava

A.

Which of the following structures collects the depolarization wave from the atria to pass it onto the ventricles? A. AV node B. SA node C. atrioventricular bundle D. bundle branches

A.

Which of the following terms is correctly matched to its description? A. quiescent period: total heart relaxation between heartbeats B. diastole: contraction period C. stroke volume: amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle in one minute D. systole: relaxed period

A.

Which of these vessels returns blood to the left atrium of the heart? A. pulmonary veins B. pulmonary trunk C. superior vena cava D. coronary sinus

A.

Which part of the conduction system initiates the depolarizing impulse, which spreads throughout the heart? A. SA node B. AV node C. Purkinje fibers D. AV bundle (bundle of His)

A.

Which part of the intrinsic conduction system delays the impulse briefly before it moves on to the ventricles? A. AV node B. Purkinje fibers C. AV bundle (bundle of His) D. SA node E. bundle branches

A.

hyposecretion of GH in adulthood

Acromegaly may be caused by all EXCEPT which of the following?

insufficient level of enzymes that convert androgens into estrogens

Adrenocortical androgens are normally converted in females into estrogens. However, in adrenogenital syndrome, females develop a beard and a masculine pattern of body hair distribution; this occurs due to _____

acts as a transcription factor and binds to DNA, activating a gene

After a lipid-soluble hormone is bound to its intracellular receptor, what does the hormone complex do? acts as a transcription factor and binds to DNA, activating a gene phosphorylates a protein directly alters protein synthesis at the ribosome activates a protein kinase

it returns to the heart, and is then pumped to body cells.

After blood becomes oxygenated,

Which of the following is INCORRECTLY matched with the corresponding equipment used in this experiment? -left beaker - blood flowing from the heart -flow tube between the beakers - an artery

All of the above are matched correctly.

Cardiac output is _______. -equal to heart rate times (EDV minus ESV) -equal to blood flow and equal to heart rate times stroke volume -equal to heart rate times stroke volume -equal to blood flow -All of the above.

All of the above.

sympathetic activation

All of the following conditions would stimulate the pancreas to release insulin EXCEPT one. Which one?

anterior pituitary hormones

All six hormones are peptide hormones All but GH activate target cells via cAMP second-messenger system All but two tropic hormones (tropins) that regulate secretion of other hormones

Adrencorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)

Also called corticotropin as it is secreted by corticotropic cells Stimulates adrenal cortex to release corticosteroids

Growth hormone (GH)

Also called somatotropin as it is produced by somatotropic cells Has direct actions on metabolism and indirect growth-promoting actions

Hormone action on target cells

Alter plasma membrane permeability and/or membrane potential by opening or closing ion channels Stimulate synthesis of enzymes or other proteins Activate or deactivate enzymes Induce secretory activity Stimulate mitosis

second-messenger systems

Amino acid-based hormones, except thyroid hormone, exert effects through

A man enters the hospital complaining of chest pain. His history includes smoking, a stressful job, a diet heavy in saturated fats, lack of exercise, and high blood pressure. Although he is not suffering from a heart attack, his doctor explains to him that a heart attack is quite possible. What did the chest pain indicate? Why is this man a prime candidate for further complications? Angina pectoris. If the coronary arteries are occluded (atherosclerosis), the heart muscle could be deprived of oxygen, resulting in a heart attack. Myocardial infarction. If the coronary arteries are occluded (atherosclerosis), the heart muscle could be deprived of oxygen, resulting in a heart attack. Angina pectoris. If the coronary arteries are occluded (atherosclerosis), the heart muscle could be deprived of calcium, resulting in a heart attack.

Angina pectoris. If the coronary arteries are occluded (atherosclerosis), the heart muscle could be deprived of oxygen, resulting in a heart attack.

decreased pCO2 and increased pH

As a result of hyperventilation, what will happen to the partial pressures of CO2 (pCO2) and pH?

Lipid breakdown in the liver will increase Increased blood glucose levels Increased blood levels of amino acids Decrease in immune system function

As the adrenal gland releases glucocorticoids, which of the following effects may be observed?

Which of the following describes the graph of flow versus viscosity?

As viscosity increased, the flow rate decreased and the graph was curved.

A woman's blood pressure at rest is 125/75. After 30 minutes of exercise, her blood pressure is 190/80. Choose the response that correctly calculates her pulse pressure and mean arterial pressure (MAP) at rest and after exercise.

At rest: PP = SP - DP = 125 - 75 = 50 MAP = DP + 1/3(PP) = 75 + 1/3(50) = 91.7 After exercise: PP = SP - DP = 190 - 80 = 110 MAP = DP + 1/3(PP) = 80 + 1/3(110) = 116.7 Pulse pressure at rest = 50, MAP at rest = 91.7. Pulse pressure after exercise = 110, MAP after exercise = 116.7.

During which of the following cardiac cycle stages do the atria contract to force a small amount of additional blood into the relaxed ventricles?

Atrial systole

Match these vocabulary terms to their meanings.

Atrioventricular valves control blood flow into the ventricles. The structure dividing the two atria of the heart is called the interatrial septum. Tachycardia is a faster than normal heart rate. A test that records the electrical activity of the heart is a(n) electrocardiogram.

Identify the ear like flaps that are attached to the top chambers of the heart.

Auricle

Graves disease

Autoimmune disease: body makes abnormal antibodies directed against thyroid follicular cells -Antibodies mimic TSH, stimulating TH release -Symptoms include elevated metabolic rate, sweating, rapid and irregular heartbeats, nervousness, and weight loss despite adequate food Exophthalmos may result: eyes protrude as tissue behind eyes becomes edematous and fibrous -Treatments include surgical removal of thyroid or radioactive iodine to destroy active thyroid cells

Determine which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) tracings is missing P waves but is otherwise regular. A B C D

B B illustrates a QRS complex and a T wave, but it is missing the P wave.

Which of the following is NOT a difference between cardiac and skeletal muscle? Cardiac muscle does not use the sliding filament mechanism for contraction; skeletal muscle does. The plasma membranes of cardiac muscle cells interlock, but skeletal muscle fibers are independent. Cardiac muscle cells quickly die in the absence of oxygen; skeletal muscle cells are better able to adapt to oxygen deficiency. Cardiac muscle cells contain more mitochondria than do skeletal muscle cells.

Cardiac muscle does not use the sliding filament mechanism for contraction; skeletal muscle does. *Both skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle are striated, and both utilize the sliding filament mechanism for contraction.*

______ ________ is the volume of blood per minute pumped out by one ventricle

Cardiac output (CO)

Match the terms in the left column to the blanks near their definition on the right.

Cardiac output: the volume of blood pumped out by one ventricle each minute. Total peripheral resistance: the amount of friction blood encounters during flow through blood vessels. Blood viscosity: the friction red blood cells encounter when moving past each other. Blood pressure: the force of the blood against the vessel wall.

IGF stimulates

Cellular uptake of nutrients used to synthesize DNA and proteins needed for cell division Formation of collagen and deposition of bone matrix

Donate type B blood to a recipient with type O blood.

Choose the incompatible transfusion. Donate type B blood to a recipient with type AB blood .Donate type A blood to a recipient with type AB blood. Donate type O blood to a recipient with type AB blood. Donate type B blood to a recipient with type O blood.

What fibrous structure functions to anchor the atrioventricular valves in a closed position?

Chordae tendineae

indigestible fiber, enteric bacteria, and water

Chyme entering the large intestine normally consists of __________.

Which of the following can be heard with a stethoscope most easily?

Closing of atrioventricular valves

A carrot is bitten off using the incisors. The chicken is torn off using the cuspids. Carrots are usually ground for a long period of time using the molars. The carrot is ground to a fine pulp before swallowed whereas the chicken is swallowed as larger pieces.

Compare the process of biting off, chewing and swallowing either a carrot or piece of meat from a chicken leg. Which teeth are used? How long is each chewed for? What is the size of the pieces swallowed?

Glucocorticoid hormones

Cortisol (hydrocortisone); only glucocorticoid in significant amounts in humans Cortisone Corticosterone

Actions of adrenal cortex

Cortisol causes increase in blood levels of glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids Prime metabolic effect is gluconeogenesis, formation of glucose from fats and proteins -Encourages cells to use fatty acids for fuel so glucose is "saved" for brain Other function is to enhance vasoconstriction -Causes rise in blood pressure to quickly distribute nutrients to cells Excessive levels of glucocorticoids: -Depress cartilage and bone formation -Inhibit inflammation by decreasing release of inflammatory chemicals -Depress immune system -Disrupt normal cardiovascular, neural, and gastrointestinal functions Glucocorticoid drugs can control symptoms of many inflammatory diseases (arthritis, allergies) but can also cause undesirable effects

Regulation of secretion

Cortisol is released in response to ACTH -ACTH released in response to corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) -CRH released in response to low cortisol levels -Increased cortisol levels inhibit ACTH and CRH through negative feedback Cortisol secretion cycles are governed by patterns of eating and activity Acute stress (infection, physical or emotional trauma) interrupts cortisol rhythm CNS can override cortisol inhibition of ACTH and CRH, leading to more cortisol secretion

Choose which condition has all of the following symptoms: hypertension, hyperglycemia, and a "moon face."

Cushing's disease

a measure of the net status of protein metabolism. It does not provide information on the size of protein stores or nutritional status. if someone is taking in less nitrogen than they are excreting they are said to be in 'negative nitrogen balance'. A negative nitrogen balance is associated with malnourishment and/or overtraining i.e. catabolic processes are overriding anabolic ones. Conversely, a positive value is often found during periods of adequate and particularly over nutrition as well as when resistance training acts as a stimuli for nitrogen/protein accrual.

Explain positive and negative nitrogen balance and give example of who might be in each.

Carbon dioxide molecules are transported in the blood from body tissues to the lungs by one of three methods: dissolution directly into the blood, binding to hemoglobin, or carried as a bicarbonate ion. Several properties of carbon dioxide in the blood affect its transport. First, carbon dioxide is more soluble in blood than oxygen. About 5 to 7 percent of all carbon dioxide is dissolved in the plasma. Second, carbon dioxide can bind to plasma proteins or can enter red blood cells and bind to hemoglobin. This form transports about 10 percent of the carbon dioxide. When carbon dioxide binds to hemoglobin, a molecule called carbaminohemoglobin is formed.

Explain the difference between the effects/transport of carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide.

Oxygenated blood travels from the lungs through the pulmonary veins and into the left side of the heart, which pumps the blood to the rest of the body (see Function of the Heart). Oxygen-deficient, carbon dioxide-rich blood returns to the right side of the heart through two large veins, the superior vena cava and the inferior vena cava. Then the blood is pumped through the pulmonary artery to the lungs, where it picks up oxygen and releases carbon dioxide.

Explain the process of internal and external gas exchange for both oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Rapid shallow breathing is a common respiratory pattern in patients who fail a trial of weaning from mechanical ventilation,64 and this can be quantitated in terms of the frequency-to-tidal volume ratio (f/VT). The higher the f/VT, the more pronounced the rapid, shallow breathing and the greater the likelihood of unsuccessful weaning.

Explain why rapid shallow breathing can result in reduced alveolar ventilation.

The role of the chordae tendineae is to open the AV valves at the appropriate time. True False

FALSE

Oxygenated blood flows through the right side of the heart

False

Steroid hormones are synthesized from amino acids.

False

The base of the heart is located at the bottom of the heart.

False

The moderator band is found on both the right and left side of the heart.

False

The right side of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump. True False

False *The right side of the heart pumps oxygen-poor blood to the lungs to be re-oxygenated. For this reason, the right side of the heart is considered the pulmonary circuit pump. The left side of the heart pumps blood to the body, and is therefore considered the systemic circuit pump.*

ketones (ketone bodies)

Fatty acid metabolism results in formation of

Direct actions on metabolism

Glucose-sparing actions decrease rate of cellular glucose uptake and metabolism (anti-insulin effects) Triggers liver to break down glycogen into glucose Increases blood levels of fatty acids for use as fuel and encourages cellular protein synthesis

In blood with a PO2PO2 of 30 mm Hg, the average saturation of all hemoglobin proteins is 60%.

Focus your attention on the graph shown, from the left side of the Focus Figure. The percent ofO2O2saturation of hemoglobin is plotted (on the y-axis) againstPO2PO2(mm Hg) (on the x-axis). Use this graph to complete Parts A-C below. On this graph, the y-axis (the vertical edge) tells you how muchO2O2is bound to hemoglobin (Hb). At 100%, each Hb molecule has four bound oxygen molecules. The x-axis (the horizontal edge) tells you the relative amount (partial pressure) ofO2O2dissolved in the fluid surrounding the Hb. If moreO2O2is present, moreO2O2is bound. However, because of Hb's properties (O2O2binding strength changes with saturation), this is an S-shaped curve, not a straight line. Which of the following represents a correct statement about data presented in the graph?

RNA

For protein synthesis to occur all _________________ must be present.

Parathyroid gland

Four to eight tiny yellow-brown glands embedded in posterior aspect of thyroid •Contain oxyphil cells (function not clear) and parathyroid cells that secrete parathyroid hormone (PTH), or parathormone •PTH is most important hormone in Ca2+ homeostasis -Secreted in response to low blood levels of Ca2+ -Inhibited by rising levels of Ca2+ •Target organs are skeleton, kidneys, and intestine Functions to: -Stimulate osteoclasts to digest bone matrix and release Ca2+ to blood -Enhances reabsorption of Ca2+ and secretion of phosphate (PO43-) by kidneys -Promotes activation of vitamin D by kidneys, which leads to increased absorption of Ca2+ by intestinal mucosa

Alveoli

From which structures do oxygen molecules move from the lungs to the blood?

regulation of secretion

GH release or inhibition chiefly regulated by hypothalamic hormones on somatotropic cells

Indirect actions on growth

GH triggers liver, skeletal muscle, and bone to produce insulin-like growth factors (IGFs) GH stimulates most cells to enlarge and divide, but major targets are bone and skeletal muscle

endocrine gland stimuli and nervous system modulation

Hormone release is triggered by?

tyrosine kinase receptors

Growth factor hormones, such as insulin, bind to which type of receptor? intracellular receptors tyrosine kinase receptors G proteins

Tropins

Growth hormone (GH) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

chief

HCl secretions convert pepsinogen to the active hormone pepsin. What cells in the gastric pits produce pepsinogen?

pancreas, gonads, and placenta

Have some exocrine and endocrine functions. Name them.

_________ ___________ is the number of heart beats per minute

Heart rate (HR)

Understanding and proper pronunciation of the cardiac terminology is essential for proper communication. One should be able to talk and explain these terms such that the patient will understand without feeling overwhelmed. Match the terms with the correct description.

Heart sound made during ventricular ejection. Lubb Slower-than-normal heart rate. Bradycardia Sound of a turbulent blood flow. Korotkoff sound Atrial depolarization seen on an ECG. P wave Ventricular depolarization seen on an ECG. QRS complex Ventricular repolarization seen on an ECG. T wave One-third of the pulse pressure plus the diastolic pressure. Mean arterial pressure The event that happens immediately following the P wave but is not shown due to the amplitude of the QRS wave. Atrial systole Faster than normal heart rate. Tachycardia

What is a hematocrit?

Hematocrit is the percentage of erythrocytes in a whole blood sample.

is a protein that can bind four molecules of oxygen.

Hemoglobin

Cyclic AMP signaling mechanism

Hormone binds to receptor Receptor activates a G protein G protein activates or inhibits effector enzyme adenylate cyclase Adenylate cyclase then converts ATP to cAMP cAMP activates protein kinases that phosphorylate other proteins Phosphorylated proteins are then either activated or inactivated

PIP2-calcium signaling mechanism

Hormone-activated G protein activates a different effector enzyme: phospholipase C Activated phospholipase C splits membrane protein, PIP2, into two second messengers: Diacylglycerol (DAG) Inositol trisphosphate (IP3) Calcium ions act as another second messenger Ca2+ alters enzyme activity and channels, or binds to regulatory protein calmodulin Calcium-bound calmodulin activates enzymes that amplify cellular response

How do endocrine hormones reach their target cells?

Hormones are transported through the blood stream to target cells.

by being incorporated into micelles

How are vitamins A, D, E, and K absorbed by the body?

Hormones are transported through the bloodstream to target cells

How do endocrine hormones reach their target cells? Hormones are produced by endocrine cells that are adjacent to target cells. Hormones are released at synapses adjacent to target cells. Ducts transport hormones directly to target cells. Hormones travel through the lymphatic system to target cells. Hormones are transported through the bloodstream to target cells.

There are four layers throughout the alimentary canal: mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and serosa. In the stomach there is a third layer of muscle, the oblique layer. The small intestine has folds in the mucosa and submucosa (plicae circularis, intestinal folds) and additional layers in the mucosa (intestinal villi).

How do the 4 layers of the alimentary canal differ between the esophagus, stomach, the length of the small intestine, and the large intestine? What purpose do these differences serve?

Deciduous teeth fall out and act as place holders for permanent teeth; there are 2 incisors, 1 cuspid, and 2 bicuspids. The secondary teeth do not come out, there are, 2 incisors, 1 cuspid, 2 bicuspids, and 3 molars.

How do the deciduous and secondary teeth differ? What is the purpose of having a deciduous set of teeth?

Electrons in the electron transport chain allow respiratory enzymes to pump hydrogen ions into the intermembrane space, creating an electrochemical gradient.

How does the electron transport chain participate in generating ATP?

Pepsinogen is released in the inactive form and is then activated by HCl into the active form. The alkaline mucus secreted coats the surface of the stomach and keeps the enzymes from acting on and breaking down the stomach cells.

How does the stomach keep from digesting itself?

Carbon dioxide molecules are transported in the blood from body tissues to the lungs by one of three methods: dissolution directly into the blood, binding to hemoglobin, or carried as a bicarbonate ion. ... Second, carbon dioxide can bind to plasma proteins or can enter red blood cells and bind to hemoglobin.

How is carbon dioxide transported in the blood? Include the chemical reactions.

Both processes depend on the stored energy in an electrochemical gradient.

How is the chemiosmotic process shown in the figure similar to secondary active transport (cotransport) of solutes (discussed in Chapter 3)?

four

How many oxygen molecules can be transported by one hemoglobin molecule?

The partial pressure of O2 would decrease, and the partial pressure of CO2 would increase.

How would the partial pressures of O2 and CO2change in an exercising muscle

The parietal cells of the stomach are targeted. The decrease in HCl acid would decrease the amount of pepsinogen that would be activated.

Hydrogen ion pump inhibitors are common medications to treat conditions associated with the overproduction of stomach acid. What cells do these medications target? How would these medications affect the digestion of proteins?

All of the listed responses are correct

Hypocalcemia could be caused by the ______. apoptosis of parathyroid cells failure of osteoclasts to respond to PTH (parathyroid hormone/parathormone) malfunction of the parathormone receptors in kidney tubule cells

myxedema

Hyposecretion of the thyroid hormone in adults -Symptoms include low metabolic rate, thick and/or dry skin, puffy eyes, feeling chilled, constipation, edema, mental sluggishness, lethargy -If due to lack of iodine, a goiter may develop Lack of iodine decreases TH levels, which triggers increased TSH secretion, triggering thyroid to synthesize more and more unusable thyroglobulin Thyroid enlarges

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Hypothalamus contains osmoreceptors that monitor solute concentrations If concentration too high, posterior pituitary triggered to secrete Targets kidney tubules to reabsorb more water to inhibit or prevent urine formation Release also triggered by pain, low blood pressure, and drugs Inhibited by alcohol High concentrations cause vasoconstriction

infundubulum

Hypothalamus is connected to pituitary gland via stalk called?

Which second messenger causes the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum?

IP3

left

If a person aspirates a pea which lung would it most likely be found it and why?

glycogen molecules

If a person consumes excess carbohydrates and sugars, those excess sugars can go through an anabolic process that produces __________.

Mean arterial pressure is important to understand, as this is the pressure that actually assures proper blood delivery to the organs and tissues. It is not a mere average of systolic and diastolic pressures. Recall that the heart is in diastole much longer than it is in systole. What is the MAP for a blood pressure of 120/60?

MAP = DP + 1/3(SP - DP) MAP = 60 + 1/3(120 - 60) MAP = 80

Posterior lobe

Maintains neural connection to hypothalamus Secretes two neurohormones (oxytocin and ADH)

The main difference between glycolysis and gluconeogenesis is in their basic function: one depletes existing glucose, while other replenishes it from both organic (carbon-containing) and inorganic (carbon-free) molecules. This makes glycolysis a catabolic process of metabolism, while gluconeogenesis is anabolic

Make sure you know the difference between glycolysis, glycogenesis, glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis.

Estrogen

Maturation of reproductive organs Appearance of secondary sexual characteristics With progesterone, causes breast development and cyclic changes in uterine mucosa

Vitamins and minerals are considered essential nutrients—because acting in concert, they perform hundreds of roles in the body. They help shore up bones, heal wounds, and bolster your immune system. They also convert food into energy, and repair cellular damage.

Most vitamins function as ___________.

A positive, A negative, O positive, and O negative.

Mr. Watkins's blood type was determined to be A positive. Which of the following types of blood can he receive?

Which statement regarding cardiac muscle structure is accurate?

Myofibrils of cardiac muscle tissue vary in diameter and branch extensively.

Baby A was scheduled for surgery to repair her atrial septal defect. The operation went well, and she is recovering nicely. Her mother wants to know whether she will need transfusions, since her blood pressure was so low before the surgery.Will she need transfusions to maintain her systemic volume?

No. Now that the shunt has been repaired, her blood is not being diverted from the systemic circuit into the pulmonary circuit, and her blood pressure should return to normal.

sympathetic postganglionic fibers

Norepinephrine is the neurotransmitter released by which fibers?

oxyhemoglobin

O2 loading in lungs Produces

deoxyhemoglobin

O2 unloading in tissues Produces

Contraction of the atria results from which wave of depolarization on the ECG tracing?

P wave

Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the depolarization wave received by the atria from the sinoatrial (SA) node? QRS complex T wave P wave S-T segment

P wave

ventricular depolarization

P wave

Adrenal gland

Paired, pyramid-shaped organs atop kidneys -Also referred to as suprarenal glands •Structurally and functionally it is two glands in one

phosphodiesterase

Part complete Which intracellular substance degrades cAMP, thus inactivating the response to a hormone? adenylate cyclase phosphodiesterase protein kinase C phospholipase C

Arteriosclerosis decreases the elasticity of arterial walls and increases arterial resistance to blood flow. Suppose there are two patients. Patient A has a resting blood pressure of 115/70. Patient B has a resting blood pressure of 140/100. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pulse pressure and MAP of these two patients?

Patient A has a higher pulse pressure, while Patient B has a higher MAP.

Name the ridged bundles of muscle found projecting inside the right atrium.

Pectinate muscles

secretion of norepinephrine

Pheochromocytoma produces symptoms of uncontrolled sympathetic nervous system activity. Which of the following is common to both adrenal chromaffin cells and adrenergic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system?

What is the role of activated protein kinases?

Phosphorylate proteins.

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the role of platelets in hemostatic reactions?

Platelets release the only chemical factors that can initiate coagulation.

Recall from the video the procedure to auscultate (listen to) heart sounds. Which of the following is NOT part of auscultating normal first and second heart sounds? -Disinfect the earpieces and diaphragm of the stethoscope. -Position the earpieces so they are angled backward in the ears. -Place the diaphragm of the stethoscope over the apex of the heart. -Listen carefully for lub - dup.

Position the earpieces so they are angled backward in the ears.

Focus your attention on the section called Net reabsorption occurs at the venous end of a capillary on page 2 of Focus Figure 19.1. Note that for an NFP at any point there are four pressures to be considered. Blood pressure falls ~50% as it passes through the capillary bed.Sort the types of pressures into the appropriate bins. Each bin describes the pressure at the venous end of the capillary bed.

Pressure decreases: HPc NFPv Pressure remains the same:

endocrine glands

Produce nonhormonal substances (sweat/saliva) Have ducts to carry secretion to membrane surface Produce hormones Lack ducts

What is the function of the coronary circulation?

Provide a blood supply to the heart

Identfiy the valve located at the exit of the right ventricle.

Pulmonary semilunar valve

Which statement best describes blood flow through the pulmonary veins?

Pulmonary veins carry oxygen-rich blood from lung capillaries to the heart.

Based on the information in the video, rank these blood vessels from predicted weakest pulse on the left to strongest pulse on the right.

Pulse strength gets weaker in arterial blood vessels as you move away from the heart. Pulse strength is highest in large arteries and decreases with decreasing size of vessels carrying blood away from the heart. After capillary exchange, pulse strength decreases with increasing size of venous vessels.

_____ ______ convey(s) the impulse throughout the ventricular walls

Purkinje fibers

Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the time during which the ventricles are in systole? QRS complex Q-T interval P wave T wave

Q-T internal The Q-T interval is the period from the beginning of ventricular depolarization through ventricular repolarization, during which the ventricles are in systole.

an active process; a passive process

Quiet inspiration is __________, and quiet expiration is __________.

During which portion of the electrocardiogram do the atrioventricular valves close, correlating with the first heart sound ("lub")? T wave P wave P-R interval R-S waves

R-S waves *When the ventricles enter systole, the atrioventricular valves close. This valve closure is associated with the first heart sound, the "lub."*

are characterized by one substance's gaining an electron while another substance loses an electron

Redox reactions __________.

Mineralocorticoids

Regulate electrolyte concentrations (primarily Na+ and K+) in ECF Importance of Na+: affects ECF volume, blood volume, blood pressure, and levels of other ions (K+, H+, HCO3-and Cl-) Importance of K+: sets resting membrane potential of cells -Effects of aldosterone are short lived -Stimulates synthesis and activation of Na+-K+ ATPase transport pumps Pump exchanges Na+for K

Factors that regulate aldosterone secretion:

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism Plasma concentration of K+ ACTH Atrial natriuretic peptide

Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)

Retention of fluid, headache, disorientation Fluid restriction; blood sodium level monitoring

Which chamber of the heart exits into the pulmonary trunk?

Right ventricle

Which part of the conduction system initiates the depolarizing impulse, which spreads throughout the heart?

SA node

Which part of the intrinsic conduction system normally initiates the depolarizing impulse that causes a heartbeat?

SA node

__ _____ set(s) the pace for the entire heart

SA node

Which part of the intrinsic conduction system normally initiates the depolarizing impulse that causes a heartbeat?

SA node - Like the rest of the intrinsic conduction system, the SA node contains pacemaker cells that spontaneously depolarize. The cells within the SA node, however, depolarize faster than the other cells within the system. This causes action potentials to initiate in the SA node rather than in any of the other structures.

Arrange the elements of the intrinsic conduction system in the order that a depolarizing impulse travels during a normal heartbeat.

SA node --> internodal pathways --> AV node --> AV bundle --> bundle branches --> purkinje fibers

The order of impulse conduction in the heart, from beginning to end, is __________. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers SA node, bundle of His, AV node, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers SA node, bundle branches, bundle of His, AV node, and Purkinje fibers SA node, bundle branches, AV node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers

SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers The impulses of the heart originate at the SA node (pacemaker). The impulse is then transmitted to the AV node (atrioventricular node), where the impulse slows down to allow the atria to completely contract and thereby fill the adjacent ventricles. The AV node then transmits the impulse to the bundle of His, which branches into left and right bundle branches. The bundle branches give rise to the Purkinje fibers, which transmit the impulse to the ventricle walls and stimulate ventricular contraction

Salivary amylase breaks down complex starches into smaller units in the mouth.

Salivary amylase is a digestive enzyme not featured in the Concept Map. Which of the following describes its function? breaks down complex starches into smaller units, and where in the body does this occur?

fear

Salivation is controlled almost entirely by the nervous system. Which of the following stimuli would inhibit salivation?

Gonadotropins (FSH and LH)

Secreted by gonadotropic cells of anterior pituitary FSH stimulates production of gametes (egg or sperm) LH promotes production of gonadal hormones Both absent from blood in prepubertal boys and girls

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

Secreted by heart in response to high blood pressure Blocks renin and aldosterone secretion to decrease blood pressure

Prolactin

Secreted by prolactin cells of anterior pituitary Stimulates milk production in females Regulation primarily controlled by prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH), which is dopamine PIH prevents release of PRL until needed, with decreased levels leading to lactation Increased estrogen levels stimulate PRL Blood levels rise toward end of pregnancy Suckling stimulates PRL release and promotes continued milk production

glycolysis → acetyl CoA → citric acid cycle → electron transport chain

Select the correct sequence of steps as energy is extracted from glucose during cellular respiration.

Before Baby A was born, she was not sending much blood to her lungs. Instead, the blood passed through the septal defect into the left atrium, which sent it to the left ventricle and to her body. But why didn't the baby die if no blood was going through her lungs?

She was getting her oxygen from the placenta, not from breathing.

The echocardiogram revealed an atrial septal defect as well as confirming the enlarged right ventricle and pulmonary trunk. Baby A's systemic blood pressure is also decreased.What is the most likely explanation?

Since blood is moving from her systemic circuit into her pulmonary circuit, the pulmonary circuit is distended and the systemic circuit is low on blood.

Corticotropin-releasing hormone

Stimulates the anterior pituitary to release ACTH

________ _________ is the volume of blood per heart beat pumped out by one ventricle

Stroke volume (SV)

oxytocin

Strong stimulant of uterine contractions released during childbirth Also acts as hormonal trigger for milk ejection Both are positive feedback mechanisms Acts as neurotransmitter in brain

high thyroid hormone, high TSH

Suppose Krista's hyperthyroidism was a result of a tumor that causes the anterior pituitary gland to become overactive. Which of the following would Krista's lab reports likely show?

Transport and regulation

T4 and T3 transported by thyroxine-binding globulins (TBGs) Both bind to target receptors, but T3 is 10 times more active than T4 Peripheral tissues have enzyme needed to convert T4 to T3 -Enzyme removes one iodine TH release is regulated by negative feedback Falling TH levels stimulate release of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) -Rising TH levels provide negative feedback inhibition on TSH -TSH can also be inhibited by GHIH, dopamine, and increased levels of cortisol and iodide Hypothalamic thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) can overcome negative feedback during pregnancy or exposure to cold, especially in infants

A liver cell responds to insulin by

Taking in glucose and converting it to glycogen.

Down-regulation

Target cells lose receptors in response to high hormone levels Desensitizes the target cells to prevent them from overreacting to persistently high levels of hormone

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

Targets the adrenal gland to release glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

Drag and drop the terms at the left to match the appropriate descriptions at the right.

The Cardiac cycle consists of one complete heartbeat. Diastole is the relaxation phase of a heart chamber. Systole is the contraction phase of a heart chamber. Auscultation is listening to internal sounds of the body. Korotkoff's sounds are heard when turbulent flow occurs in an artery as a blood pressure cuff is released. The First heart sound is caused by the closure of the AV valves. The Second heart sound is caused as the semilunar valves close at the beginning of ventricular diastole. An unusual heart sound is called a Murmur.

PO2 of ~80 mm Hg

The PO2PO2 in the lungs at a high altitude is

PO2 of ~100 mm Hg

The PO2PO2 in the lungs at sea level is

All of the above.

The human GI tract is home to a complex ecosystem of microbial cells, which comprise the gut microbiota. Which of the following is true of the microbiota? Generally, the highest concentration of GI tract microbes is found in the colon. Metabolism by the gut microbiota results in small amounts of vitamins and short-chain fatty acids which can be absorbed and utilized by cells of the body. Normally, beneficial bacteria vastly outnumber harmful bacteria in the microbiota. All of the above.

The Left-sided Problem Now that you have reviewed normal blood flow, why does a patient with left-sided heart failure have a low systolic blood pressure?

The left side of the heart pumps blood into the body, so when it fails, less blood will be pumped into the arteries.

Breathing Problems Mr. G talks in short bursts with frequent breaths. He tells you he used to feel breathless when he was walking, but now he has been having more and more trouble breathing even when he is lying down at night. When you listened to his lungs you heard fluid in them. Could this be due to his heart failure, or is it another problem?

The left side of the heart receives blood from the lungs and pumps it out to the body, so if it fails, blood will remain in the lungs.

When blood glucose levels are low

The pancreas releases glucagon, which eventually causes blood glucose levels to increase.

facilitated diffusion

The movement of H+ through the ATP synthase is best described as an example of __________.

You have figured out how pulmonary arteriole vasoconstriction could lead to high vascular resistance and therefore high blood pressure in the pulmonary circuit. This high resistance is going to make it harder for the heart to push blood through the vessels, overworking the heart and leading to heart failure. Which side of the heart is most likely to be overworked?

The right side because it has the job of pumping blood through the constricted pulmonary vessels.

Which statement is correct regarding the ventricles? The left ventricle empties into the pulmonary circuit. The left ventricle has a thinner wall than the right ventricle. The right ventricle empties into the pulmonary trunk. The right ventricle forms a complete circle in cross section.

The right ventricle empties into the pulmonary trunk

~90% O2 saturation

The saturation of hemoglobin at the lungs at an altitude representing PO2 ~60 mm Hg is closest to

~95% O2 saturation

The saturation of hemoglobin in the lungs at high altitude of PO2 ~80 mm Hg is

~98% O2O2 saturation

The saturation of hemoglobin in the lungs at sea level is___________ at P O 2 ~100 mm Hg.

bicarbonate- and potassium-rich mucus

The secretion in the large intestine consists of which of the following?

Which description most accurately describes the functions of the superior and inferior venae cavae?

The superior vena cava primarily drains oxygen-poor blood from the body above the diaphragm, while the inferior vena cava drains oxygen-poor blood from areas below the diaphragm.

The second patient You take Mr. V into the second exam room while the doctor talks to Mr. G. You can tell right away that Mr. V is breathing better than Mr. G because he does not have to stop talking to take a breath. He complains that he is having trouble with walking − his legs feel heavy. And he has gained 6 pounds in a week, even though he has been sticking to the diet the doctor gave him. "My pants aren't any tighter," he says, "but my socks and shoes sure are! I've had to switch to these sandals. I'm too old for my feet to be growing. I don't get why Mr. G isn't having the same problem, since we're both rheumies − rheumatic fever guys." When you examine Mr. V he has pitting edema of both ankles and feet. They were slightly swollen on his last visit, but not this badly. His jugular veins are distended. Mr. V's chart says he has been diagnosed with tricuspid stenosis (narrowed tricuspid valve) secondary to rheumatic fever. His blood pressure is the same as it was the last time he came in, and so is his heart rate. His lungs sound normal, but you hear a diastolic murmur when you listen to his heart. Why would tricuspid stenosis cause a diastolic murmur?

The tricuspid valve is partly blocked, so when blood is flowing through it, there will be a noise of turbulent blood flow. Blood flows through the tricuspid during diastole, so that is when you hear the murmur.

What heart problem would be experienced by an individual whose ECG is seen at C? The atria are not pumping blood. The heart would pump with too much pressure (hypertension). The heart is not pumping any blood at all. The ventricles are not reaching systole in every cardiac cycle.

The ventricles are not reaching systole in every cardiac cycle This condition is known as a second-degree heart block. Some signals from the AV node are not being conducted to the ventricles.

Examine the left side of page 1 of Focus Figure 19.1. Assume you have a U-tube with a semipermeable membrane (boundary) separating the solutions on either side. Predict what will occur to the water level if large, nondiffusible solutes are added only to the left arm of the tube.

The water level on the left side of the U-tube will rise.

Examine the lower left of Focus Figure 19.1. Assume you have a U-tube with a semipermeable membrane separating the solutions on either side. Predict what will occur to the water level if large, nondiffusible solutes are added only to the left arm of the tube.

The water level on the left side of the U-tube will rise.

With regard to the previous question in Part C above, how did the woman's pulse pressure and MAP change after exercise?

The woman's pulse pressure more than doubled after exercise.

residual volume

This lung volume CANNOT be directly measured using a spirometer.

hydrolysis

This type of chemical reaction typically occurs as nutrients are digested in the body.

Seven steps involved in synthesis of TH

Thyroglobulin is synthesized and discharged into follicle lumen Iodide is trapped; iodide ions are actively taken into cell and released into lumen Iodide oxidized; electrons are removed, converting it to iodine Iodine is attached to tyrosine; mediated by peroxidase enzymes Iodinated tyrosines link together to form T3 and T4 Colloid is endocytosed by follicular cells -vesicle is then combined with a lysosome Lysosomal enzymes cleave T3 and T4 from thyroglobulin -hormones are secreted into blood stream -mostly T4 secreted, but T3 is also secreted -T4 must be converted to T3 at tissue level

synthesis

Thyroid gland stores hormone extracellularly in follicle lumen until triggered by TSH to release

Melatonin may affect:

Timing of sexual maturation and puberty Day/night cycles Physiological processes that show rhythmic variations (body temperature, sleep, appetite) Production of antioxidant and detoxification molecules in cells

Name the irregular ridges of muscle lining the ventricles.

Trabeculae carneae

Identify the right atrioventricular valve

Tricuspid valve

Regulation of ACTH release

Triggered by hypothalamic corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) in daily rhythm Interna and external factors that alter release of CRH include fever, hypoglycemia, and stressors

Regulation of gonadotropin release

Triggered by the gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) during and after puberty Suppressed by gonadal hormones (feedback)

Glycolysis: Sugars, glycerol from fats, and some types of amino acids can enter cellular respiration during glycolysis.

Triglycerides are broken down into glycerol and fatty acids. Glycerol enters cellular respiration in what phase? Fatty acids undergo beta oxidation and enters cellular respiration as ____________ in which phase?

Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

Tropic hormone that is also called thyrotropin as it is produced by thyrotropic cells Stimulates normal development and secretory activity of thyroid Release triggered by thyrotropin-releasing hormone from hypothalamus Inhibited by rising blood levels of thyroid hormones that act on both pituitary and hypothalamus

Blood on the right never mixes with blood on the left, once the heart is fully developed.

True

The first branch off the arch of the aorta is the brachiocephalic artery in both the sheep and the human.

True

Tissues damaged by myocardial infarction are replaced by connective tissue. True False

True

intrinsic factor

Which of the following is produced in the stomach and contributes directly to the absorption of vitamin B12?

a decrease in TSH levels

Under normal conditions, increased levels of thyroid hormone in the blood will cause ______ a decrease in TSH levels an increase in TSH levels no change in TSH levels an increase in thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)

5000 milliliters per minute

Using the spirographic data shown, what is the minute ventilation of an average adult male at rest breathing at a rate of 10 breaths per minute?

In her notes, the doctor has written "possible cor pulmonale." When you look this up, you find that it is a kind of heart failure caused by "pulmonary hypertension, resulting from reflex vasoconstriction of pulmonary arterioles due to low oxygen levels and high CO2CO2 levels in the lungs." This can occur in both acute and chronic respiratory diseases.How would arteriole vasoconstriction cause pulmonary hypertension?

Vasoconstriction increases peripheral resistance (also called vascular resistance).

During exercise, cardiac output may increase by more than 170% to meet the body's increased O2 demands. This increase in cardiac output increases blood pressure. But the accompanying increase in arterial pressure is relatively small—only about 40%. What limits this increase in blood pressure so that it doesn't reach dangerously high levels during exercise?

Vasodilation causes arterial diameter to increase in the exercising skeletal muscle.

________ ______ is the volume of blood per minute flowing into one atrium

Venous return (VR)

Choose the statement below that best explains why the pulse pressure changes for a person with arteriosclerosis.

Ventricles must exert enough force to overcome the increased resistance to circulation caused by the changes in blood vessels.

During which of the following stages of the cardiac cycle do the ventricles passively fill?

Ventricular diastole

plasma membrane receptors

Water-soluble hormones affect target cells by binding to __________. cytoplasmic receptors protein kinases adenylate cyclase cAMP plasma membrane receptors

perturbations were presented individually (either pitch or loudness shift stimuli) or simultaneously (pitch combined with loudness shift stimuli) to subjects sustaining a vowel to test the hypothesis that the mechanisms for these two response types are independent. For simultaneous perturbations, pitch and loudness both changed in the same direction or in opposite directions. Results showed that subjects responded with voice F0F0 or amplitude responses that opposed the direction of the respective pitch- or loudness shift stimuli. Thus, depending on the stimulus direction, both responses could either change in the same direction or in the opposite direction to each other

What affects the pitch and loudness of the voice?

The lung response to acute altitude exposure is mainly hyperventilation which, together with elevated heart rate, aims at achieving an adequate supply of oxygen to the tissues. At rest, ventilation increases by firstly increasing the tidal volume, at least up to 3500 m.

What are the affects of high altitude on the respiratory system? How can you acclimate to higher altitudes?

The fat-soluble vitamins, A, D, E, and K, are stored in the body for long periods of time and generally pose a greater risk for toxicity than water-soluble vitamins when consumed in excess. Eating a normal, well-balanced diet will not lead to toxicity in otherwise healthy individuals.

What are the differences between water soluble and fat soluble vitamins? Which are more likely to cause toxicity?

The role of NADH and FADH2 is to donate electrons to the electron transport chain. They both donate electrons by providing an hydrogen molecule to the oxygen molecule to create water during the electron transport chain. NADH is a product of both the glycolysis and Kreb cycles. FADH2 is only produced in Krebs cycle. Hydrogen molecules are necessary to the synthesis of ATP. ATP synthase molecules uses hydrogen molecules to create ATP from ADP. The process of creating ATP from ADP is called "oxidative phosphorlyation".

What is the role of NADH and FADH2?

to enter the citric acid cycle

What is the role of acetyl CoA in the process of cellular respiration?

phosphorylate proteins

What is the role of activated protein kinases? Convert ATP to cAMP by phosphorylation. Phosphorylate proteins. Activate adenylate cyclase. Phosphorylate ADP to ATP. Degrade cAMP to AMP.

Oxygen atoms act as electron acceptors in the electron transport chain.

What is the role of oxygen gas (O2O2) in aerobic cellular respiration?

It is a sign that her thyroid gland is overactive.

What is the significance of the slight swelling (called a goiter) in Krista's neck?

cells of the body

What is the target of thyroid hormones?

chaperone proteins (chaperonins)

What keeps intracellular receptors from binding to DNA before a hormone binds to the receptor? Receptors can't enter the nucleus until the hormone is bound to it. chaperone proteins (chaperonins) transcription factors

Lungs that are blocked or can't expand the way they should (atelectasis) Pus in your pleural cavity (empyema) A sudden drop in blood flow (shock) A dangerous reaction to infection (sepsis

What problems arise from pleurisy?

thrombin

What protein involved in coagulation provides the activation for the final step in clotting?

electrons passing from transfer molecules to oxygen

What serves as the direct energy source for the proton pumps in oxidative phosphorylation?

sensory input from receptors in joints, neural input from the motor cortex, and other factors

What stimulates increased respiration at the beginning of exercise?

epiglottis

What structure prevents food and liquids from entering the trachea?

reduced availability of oxygen

What triggers erythropoietin (EPO) release that leads to the production of new red blood cells?

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

What tropic hormone stimulates cortisol from the adrenal gland? luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) growth hormone (GH) thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

water-soluble hormones, such as insulin and epinephrine

What type of hormones bind to receptors located on the cell membrane? lipid-soluble hormones, such as thyroid hormones and cortisol water-soluble hormones, such as insulin and epinephrine

humoral

What type of stimulation controls parathyroid release?

Vitamin K and B12. Both of these are vitamins produced by bacteria in the large intestine.

What vitamins may a person be deficient in if they take broad spectrum antibiotics?

The pancreas releases insulin.

When blood glucose levels are high

The pancreas releases glucagon, which eventually causes blood glucose levels to increase.

When blood glucose levels are low

diverticula

When the diet lacks fiber and the volume of residues in the colon is small, the colon narrows and its contractions become more powerful, increasing the pressure on its walls. This promotes formation of __________

brush border

Where are the enzymes for digestion of disaccharides and small polypeptides located?

Fatty acids can be converted into acetyl CoA, and glycerol can enter glycolysis.

Where in the metabolic pathway can fats be utilized as an energy source?

hypothalamus

Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, synthesized? kidney hypothalamus anterior pituitary posterior pituitary

adjacent to the trachea in the neck

Where is the thyroid gland located?

AB

Which ABO blood type is considered to be the universal recipient?

enteropeptidase

Which chemical activates the transformation of trypsinogen to trypsin?

amylases

Which enzyme(s) is/are responsible for the chemical breakdown of carbohydrates?

alveoli

Which of the following is/are part(s) of the respiratory zone structures?

There are two kinds of respiratory chemoreceptors: arterial chemoreceptors, which monitor and respond to changes in the partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the arterial blood, and central chemoreceptors in the brain, which respond to changes in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in their immediate environment.

Which gas in acts on the central chemoreceptors and in the primary driver for breathing?

thyroid hormone

Which hormone's receptor is always bound to DNA, even when the receptor is empty? thyroid hormone cortisol insulin

activation of G protein, binding of GTP, activation of adenylate cyclase, conversion of ATP to cAMP

Which is the correct order of events for hormones activating Gs proteins? activation of a G protein, tyrosine kinase receptor, phosphorylation of intracellular proteins activation of G protein, binding of GTP, activation of adenylate cyclase, conversion of ATP to cAMP activation of G protein, binding of GTP, activation of phospholipase C, activation of DAG and IP3

inspiratory reserve volume

Which lung volume tends to be the largest in healthy male and female adults?

diaphragm and external intercostals

Which muscles, when contracted, would increase the volume of air in the thoracic cavity?

beta cells

Which of the cell types would secrete their product if the blood glucose level was rising, as during digestion of a meal?

secretin

Which of the following GI hormones promotes a pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate ions?

β receptors

Which of the following adrenergic receptors increase cAMP levels? α2 receptors α1 receptors β receptors

protease: lipid digestion

Which of the following are NOT correctly matched?

rising CO2 levels

Which of the following arterial blood levels is the most powerful respiratory stimulant?

slow, deep breathing

Which of the following behaviors would most likely result in an increased alveolar ventilation rate as compared to that of normal breathing?

Chloride rushes into RBCs to counterbalance the outflow of bicarbonate.

Which of the following best describes the chloride shift as seen in the figure?

The pressure of gas in your lungs is inversely proportional to the volume in your lungs.

Which of the following descriptions accurately describes Boyle's law?

protein digestion

Which of the following digestive processes could be affected by a patient's taking a large amount of antacids?

The enteric nervous system is under conscious control.

Which of the following does NOT correctly describe basic regulation of digestive activity?

hyperventilating

Which of the following does NOT stimulate erythrocyte production? erythropoietin a drop in blood oxygen levels testosterone hyperventilating

pepsin

Which of the following enzymes is important for breaking down protein?

pancreatic lipase

Which of the following enzymes is important for the digestion of fat?

propulsion: physical breakdown of ingested food in the GI tract

Which of the following functions is NOT correctly matched with its description?

larynx

Which of the following helps to protect against tracheal obstruction.

cortisol

Which of the following hormones has intracellular receptors? cortisol epinephrine insulin

oxytocin

Which of the following hormones is regulated by a neuroendocrine ("letdown") reflex? antidiuretic hormone (ADH) cortisol oxytocin

being stressed or frightened

Which of the following inhibits salivation?

CCK (cholecystokinin)

Which of the following intestinal hormones stimulates the release of bile from the gall bladder?

Platelets release the only chemical factors that can initiate coagulation

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the role of platelets in hemostatic reactions? Platelets do not stick to intact endothelial cells .Platelets release the only chemical factors that can initiate coagulation. Platelets release chemicals that attract and bind other platelets. Platelets adhere to exposed collagen fibers.

the production of smooth, laminar airflow as air passes by the nasal conchae

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of breathing through the nose?

The stomach releases enzymes that digest carbohydrates.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the stomach?

vitamin B

Which of the following is NOT a fat-soluble vitamin?

Saliva contains enzymes that begin the chemical breakdown of proteins.

Which of the following is NOT a function of saliva?

synthesis of intrinsic factor

Which of the following is NOT a function of the large intestine?

oxidative phosphorylation: net loss of ATP

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

thyroid-stimulating hormone

Which of the following is NOT secreted by the thyroid? calcitonin thyroid-stimulating hormone triiodothyronine thyroxine

cellulose

Which of the following is a source of dietary fiber and promotes timely movement through the colon?

pharynx

Which of the following is an organ shared by the respiratory system and the digestive system?

hormone production

Which of the following is not a function of blood?

partial pressure of oxygen in the air

Which of the following is not a physical factor that influences pulmonary ventilation?

Diacylglycerol (DAG)

activated protein kinases

Type O blood can safely be given to recipients with type B blood.

Which of the following statements is true? A person with type AB blood produces both anti-A and anti-B antibodies (agglutinins). A person with type O blood produces both type A and type B antigens (agglutinogens). Type A blood can safely be given to recipients with type B blood. Type O blood can safely be given to recipients with type B blood.

costal cartilages

Which of the following structures would be the LEAST vulnerable to damage caused by oxygen toxicity?

prolonged fasting

Which of the following triggers the release of glucagon?

excess calcium in the diet

Which of the following would NOT lead to a bleeding disorder? thrombocytopenia vitamin K deficiency excess calcium in the diet impaired liver function

a drop in blood pH

Which of the following would induce the loss of oxygen from the hemoglobin and the blood?

a decrease in the release of calcium from bones

Which of the following would result from hypoparathyroidism?

alveolar macrophages

Which of these cells would be most effective in the disposal of inspired microorganisms that may enter the alveoli?

A would release less TRH.

Which of these would be an effect of an excess of thyroid hormones?

Normal BMI

Which of these would not be a risk factor for metabolic syndrome?

fibrinogen

Which plasma constituent is the main contributor to clotting?

intrapleural pressure

Which pressure is the result of the natural tendency of the lungs to decrease their size (because of elasticity) and the opposing tendency of the thoracic wall to pull outward and enlarge the lungs?

pulmonary stretch receptors

Which receptors inhibit inspiration during hyperinflation of the lungs?

IP3

Which second messenger causes the release of calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum? cAMP DAG tyrosine kinase IP3

This process splits glucose in half and produces 2 ATPs for each glucose.

Which statement describes glycolysis?

This process produces some ATP and carbon dioxide in the mitochondrion.

Which statement describes the citric acid cycle?

This process uses energy captured from electrons flowing to oxygen to produce most of the ATPs in cellular respiration.

Which statement describes the electron transport chain?

During external respiration, equilibrium is reached for O2 when the partial pressure for O2 in the pulmonary capillaries and the alveoli are the same.

Which statement is correct?

In the blood, oxygen is bound to hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells.

Which statement is correct?

oxidative phosphorylation

Which step in the metabolism of nutrients provides a cell with the greatest gain in ATP?

glycolysis

Which step of cellular metabolism breaks down a glucose molecule to produce two pyruvic acid molecules?

incisors

Which teeth in the permanent dentition are best suited for cutting or nipping off pieces of food?

eosinophil

Which type of leukocyte provides protection against parasitic worms?

carbohydrates

Which type of nutrient functions primarily as an energy source for cells?

tidal volume (TV) and inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

Which volumes are combined to provide the inspiratory capacity?

O2 would diffuse into the cells, and CO2 would diffuse into the systemic capillaries.

Which way would O2 and CO2 diffuse during internal respiration?

Brunner's glands secrete alkaline mucous this mucous neutralizes the acidic chyme.

Why are Brunner's glands primarily located in the duodenum?

Cells have an abundance of proteins so if proteolytic enzymes would digest the cell if they were active inside the cell

Why are proteolytic enzymes released as zymogens (inactive forms)?

The site and smell of food triggers the cephalic phase of secretion and digestion.

Why does seeing or smelling food make your stomach grumble?

Alcohol is absorbed directly from the stomach. To slow down the absorption you can consume food with the alcohol.

Why is the effect of alcohol felt so soon after consuming it? What could you do slow down the absorption of alcohol?

PRBCs contain hemoglobin, so they are able to carry oxygen to the tissues.

Why was Mr. Watkins given PRBCs in addition to normal saline solution? What problem does the infusion of PRBCs address that the saline solution could not?

He is dehydrated from the flu. (If your patient is severely ill and not drinking enough fluids, especially if he has a fever, the ratio of cells to fluid will be shifted.)

Your patient has a hematocrit of 56%. You recall from your anatomy and physiology class that high hematocrits are often a sign of blood doping by athletes. However, your patient is an elderly man suffering from the flu. What is most likely accounting for his elevated hematocrit?

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)

Your patient has been admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe head injury. As you monitor his urine output, you find that it has fallen sharply. Lab tests indicate that his serum osmolality is lower than normal (i.e., his plasma is too dilute). What should you suspect?

"Your relative may have Type II diabetes. People with that condition can make insulin, but their cells don't respond to it properly. Your pancreas doesn't manufacture insulin."

Your patient has been diagnosed with Type I diabetes mellitus, and you are explaining how to administer insulin. Your patient states, "I don't want to do this. My brother-in-law has diabetes, and he just takes a pill and watches what he eats." What is your best response?

Anemia

Your patient has had a total gastrectomy (removal of the stomach). Which of these potential problems are you MOST concerned about?

CO2; alveoli

_______ has a greater partial pressure in the pulmonary capillaries than in the alveoli, so it diffuses into the _______.

Hypothalamus

________ is a neuroendocrine organ

sickle-cell anemia

_________ is caused by a genetic mutation that results in the production of abnormal hemoglobin. Under low-oxygen conditions, the abnormal beta chains link together and form stiff rods that alter the shape of the RBCs.

LDLs

__________ are considered "bad" cholesterol; high blood levels are correlated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease.

Which of the following triggers the release of glucagon?

a decrease in blood glucose levels

cGMP (cyclic guanosine monophosphate)

a second messenger for selected hormones

insulin receptor

a tyrosine kinase enzyme that auto phosphorylates upon insulin binding

Drag each label to the appropriate location on the diagram of a homeostasis pathway.

a. negative feedback b. endocrine cell c. hormone d. blood vessel

Regulating blood sugar

a. pancreas releases insulin b. body cells take up more glucose c. liver takes up glucose and stores it as glycogen d. blood glucose decreases to normal e. pancreas releases glucagon f. liver breaks down glycogen and releases glucose to the blood g. blood glucose increases to normal

Hyperparathyroidism

due to parathyroid gland tumor -Calcium leaches from bones, causing them to soften and deform -Elevated Ca2+ depresses nervous system and contributes to formation of kidney stones -Osteitis fibrosa cystica: severe form resulting in easily fractured bones following gland trauma or removal can cause hypocalcemia -Results in tetany, respiratory paralysis, and death

What does the ECG wave tracing represent?

electrical activity in the heart

The volume in the pump when the pump piston is all the way down represents the _______.

end systolic volume

humoral, neural, or hormonal stimuli

endocrine glands are stimulated to synthesize and release hormones in response to one of three stimuli

Receptor-hormone complex

enters nucleus and binds to specific region of DNA

Which of the following leukocyte is NOT correctly matched with its function?

eosinophil: bacterial macrophage

Which of the following hormones is a part of the rapid response (rather than the prolonged response) to stress?

epinephrine

Which of the following would increase cardiac output? epinephrine decreased calcium during contraction high blood pressure parasympathetic stimulation

epinephrine Sympathetic stimulation leads to the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, both of which increase heart rate and increase contractility, which increases stroke volume. Increasing heart rate and stroke volume increases cardiac output.

Which of the following would increase heart rate?

epinephrine and norepinephrine

polyphagia

excessive hunger and food consumption -Cells cannot take up glucose and are "starving"

polydipsia

excessive thirst -from water loss due to polyuria

If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, ________. tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action it would be much longer before cardiac cells could respond to a second stimulation contractions would last as long as the refractory period pacemaker cells would cease to spontaneously depolarize

tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart's pumping action

Afterload is the pressure threshold that must be exceeded to open _______.

the aortic semilunar valve and the pulmonary semilunar valve

If a person jumps quickly out of bed, which of the following is most likely to decrease in order to maintain blood pressure homeostasis?

the diameter of blood vessels If blood pressure drops, baroreceptors will quickly activate the vasomotor center, which will constrict, and thus decrease, the diameter of the blood vessels.

In order to cause cardiac muscle contraction, the contractile cells must also depolarize. What causes the depolarization of the contractile cells?

the flow of positive ions from adjacent cells

In the cardiovascular system, the pressure gradient is provided by _______.

the force of contraction of the heart and peripheral resistance in the blood vessels

What allows a cell to respond to a hormone?

the presence of a specific hormone receptor

Endocrine Function throughout Life

•Most endocrine organs operate well until old age •GH levels decline with age: accounts for muscle atrophy with age TH declines with age, contributing to lower basal metabolic rates •PTH levels remain fairly constant with age, but lack of estrogen in older women makes them more vulnerable to bone-demineralizing effects of PTH •Glucose tolerance deteriorates with age •Ovaries undergo significant changes with age and become unresponsive to gonadotropins; problems associated with estrogen deficiency occur •Testosterone also diminishes with age, but effect is not usually seen until very old age

calcitonin

•Produced by parafollicular (C) cells in response to high Ca2+ levels •Antagonist to parathyroid hormone (PTH) •No known physiological role in humans at normal physiological levels, but at higher-than-normal doses: -Inhibits osteoclast activity and prevents release of Ca2+ from bone matrix -Stimulates Ca2+ uptake and incorporation into bone matrix