A&P Practice Questions

Synovial joints are classified into six main categories based on A. Shape of articular surfaces B. Location C. Type of synovial fluid D. Size

A

The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is NOT sensitive to another stimulus is the: A. Absolute refractory period B. Repolorization C. Resting period D. Depolorization

A

The process of breaking triglycerides down into glycerol and fatty acids is known as: A. Lipolysis B. Fat utilization C. Gluconeogenesis D. Lipogenesis

A

Which of the following is NOT a major function of proteins in the cell membrane? A. Forming channels B. Anchoring cells to other structures C. Acting as receptors D. Forming the entire glycocalyx

D

Which of the following is NOT a normal function of muscle tissue? A. Producing movement B. Generating heat C. Maintaining posture D. Secreting hormones E. Stabilizing joints

D

Which of the following structures would aid in a cell in allowing more nutrients to be absorbed by the cell? A. Stereocilia B. Flagella C. Primary cilia D. Microvilli

D

What function do transitional epithelia have?

Stretching (bladder)

What is the average normal pH range of blood?

7.35-7.45

Atoms of oxygen have a total of 8 electrons. Are these atoms stable, why or why not? A. No, because the atoms have only 6 valence electrons, but need 8 for stability B. Yes, because oxygen is in the air we breathe and it doesn't hurt us C. Yes, because the octet rule says stable atoms have 8 electrons D. No, because only atoms with 2 valence electrons are stable

A

Crenation (shrinking) is likely to occur in blood cells immersed in A. Hypertonic solution B. Isotonic solution C. Blood plasma D. Hypotonic solution

A

Gluconeogenesis is the process in which: A. Glucose is formed from noncarbohydrate molecules B. Glycogen is formed C. Glucose is converted into carbon dioxide and water D. Glycogen is broken down to release glucose

A

Osteoblasts: A. Form new bone B. Form skeletal cartilage C. Maintain bone matrix D. Break down bone

A

What are menisci (articular discs)? A. Wedges of fibrocartilage that partially or completely divide the synovial cavity B. Tendon sheaths C. Small sacs containing synovial fluid D. Cavities lined with cartilage

A

What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right called? A. Sagittal B. Frontal C. Regional D. Transverse

A

What is the first stage of a healing bone fracture? A. Formation of a hematoma B. Bone remodeling C. Formation of a firbrocartilaginous callus D. Formation of body callus

A

What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn? A. Catastrophic fluid loss B. Loss of immune function C. Unbearable pain D. Infection

A

What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles? A. Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules B. Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron transmitter C. Tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads D. Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules

A

What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors? A. Motor end plate B. Part adjacent to another muscle cell C. End of the muscle fiber D. Any part of the sarcolemma

A

Which granulated leukocyte is most likely to be active during a bacterial infection? A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. Lymphocytes D. Monocytes

A

Which of the following are cartilaginous joints? A. Synchondroses B. Syndemoses C. Gomphoses D. Sutures

A

Which of the following correctly ranks the types of chemical bonds, in order, from strongest to weakest? A. Covalent, Ionic, Hydrogen B. Hydrogen, Ionic, Covalent C. Ionic, Hydrogen, Covalent D. Hydrogen, Covalent, Ionic

A

Which of the following does NOT describe enzymes? A. Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation B. Each enzyme is chemically specific C. Some enzymes are purely protein D. Some enzymes are protein plus a cofactor

A

Which of the following is a characteristic of the cell membrane? A. Semipermeable B. Impermeable C. Fully permeable D. Not permeable

A

Which of the following peripheral nervous system (PNS) neuroglia form the myelin sheaths around larger nerve fibers in the PNS? A. Schwann cells B. Satellite cells C. Oligodendrocytes D. Astrocytes

A

Which of the following would NOT lead to a bleeding disorder? A. Excess calcium in the diet B. Vitamin K deficiency C. Thromocytopenia D. Impaired liver function

A

With a patient that is administered an injection of erythropoietin (EPO) you would expect to see A. Increased hematocrit B. Decreased hematocrit C. Increased WBC count D. Decreased WBC count

A

What is membrane potential

A voltage or electrical charge across the plasma membrane

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. The cutaneous membrane is made of a simple columnar epithelium B. Mucous membranes line exits/entrances to the body C. Serous membranes line body cavities and organs D. The cutaneous membrane is a dry membrane exposed to air

A.

Redox reactions

Are characterized by one substance's gaining an electron while another substance looses an electron

A fracture in the shaft of the bone would be a break in the A. Epiphysis B. Diaphysis C. Articular cartilage D. Metaphysis

B

A patient has skin that is slightly blue in color. A likely treatment for this person might be: A. Increasing fluids through IV therapy B. Giving the patient supplemental oxygen by mask C. Exposing the patient to more sunlight D. Encouraging the patient to eat more orange colored vegetables

B

At the conclusion of glycolysis, most of glucose's chemical energy is found in the: A. NADH B. Pyruvic acid molecules C. ATP D. Acetyl CoA

B

Carbon atoms have four valence electrons. Are they likely to react with other atoms, and why or why not? A. Yes, but only with other stable atoms B. Yes, because they can become more stable by doing so C. No, because they do not have enough valence electrons D. No, because they have an even number of valence electrons so they are already stable

B

Cartilage grows in two ways, appositional and interstitial. What is appositional growth? A. Growth at the epiphyseal plate B. The secretion of new matrix against the external face of existing cartilage C. The lengthening of hyaline cartilage D. Along the edges only of existing osteons, making each osteon larger

B

Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membrane that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called: A: Ligaments B. Bursae C. Tendons D. Menisci

B

Hemostasis is important for: A. Red blood cell recycling B. Stoppage of bleeding C. White blood cell production D. Red blood cell production

B

Nerve impulses are sent to slow the heart's rate of contraction. The nerve fibers sending these signals will most likely belong to which division of the nervous system? A. Sympathetic division B. Parasympathetic division C. Somatic nervous system D. Sensory (afferent) division

B

Saltatory conduction is made possible by: A. Erratic transmission of nerve impulses B. The myelin sheath C. Diphasic impulses D. Large nerve fibers

B

The contractile, or functional, unit of muscle fiber is: A. The elastic filament B. The sarcomere C. The myofilament D. Troponin

B

The shape of the external ear is maintained by: A. Fibrocartilage B. Elastic cartilage C. Hyaline cartilage D. Adipose tissue

B

The sliding filament model of contraction involves: A. The Z discs sliding over the myofilaments B. Actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping C. Actin and Myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other D. The shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past

B

What is moving a limb away from the midline of a body along the frontal plane called? A. Extension B. Abduction C. Adduction D. Flexion

B

What is the function of serous fluid? A. It helps the stomach and other organs maintain neutral buoyancy within body cavities, even during fluctuations in atmospheric pressure, or when gasses, such as oxygen or methane, are present in varying ratios B. It enables organs, such as the heart and the stomach, to slide across cavity walls and each other without friction C. It prevents the organs from drying out when in contact with air D. It aids in the repair of damaged organs

B

What is the primary energy-transferring molecule in cells? A. DNA B. ATP C. RNA D. TACT

B

What part of the cell membrane is usually in contact with the interstitial fluid? A. Cholesterol B. Phosphate heads of phospholipids C. Hydrophobic molecules D. Fatty acid cells

B

When you bring any of your fingers in contact with your thumb, this movement is called? A. Dorsiflexion B. Opposition C. Flexion D. Supination E. Retraction

B

Which of the following is not a result of hydrogen bonds? A. Two strands of DNA are linked together taking a shape similar to a ladder B. Two hydrogen atoms join together to form a molecule of hydrogen gas C. An enzyme has a unique shape that allows it to bond only with specific molecules D. Some hair is straight, some wavy, and some very curly

B

Which of the following mechanisms produces the most ATP during cellular respiration? A. Substrate-level phosphorylation B. Oxidative phosphorylation C. Oxidation reactions D. Lactic acid production

B

___________ refers to reactions in which small molecules are used to build larger molecules A. Catabolism B. Anabolism C. Carboxylation D. Metabolism

B

Describe the human body in the anatomical position

Body erect with feet slightly apart and palms facing forward with thumbs pointing away from the body

A toxin released by a certain bacteria can block the release of neurotransmitters into a neuromuscular synapse. What would result in the muscle from such a block? A. The muscle would remain fixed at the length when the toxin contacted it B. The muscle would become permanently contracted C. The loss of ability to contract the muscle

C

An example of an interosseous fibrous joint is A. The clavicle and the scapula at the distal ends B. Between the vertebrae C. The radius and ulna along its length D. Between the humorous and the glenoid cavity

C

Approximately 80% of a muscle fiber's volume are the myofibrils. This characteristic reflects muscles ability to: A. Store oxygen molecules that can be used in aerobic respiration B. Generate and propagate action potential C. Produce movement through contractile force D. Produce relatively high amounts of ATP

C

Bones are constantly undergoing reabsorption (breaking bone down) for various reasons. Which of the following cells accomplishes this process? A. Stem Cell B. Osteoblast C. Osteoclast D. Osteocyte

C

Glucose can be obtained from: A. Lipogenesis B. Protein anabolism C. Glycogenolysis D. Triglyceride anabolism

C

How are endocrine and exocrine glands different from each other? A. Exocrine glands secrete hormones B. Exocrine glands have specific target organs for their secretions C. Endocrine glands have no ducts D. Exocrine glands are unicellular

C

The basic structural material of the body consists of A. Lipids B. Nucleic Acids C. Proteins D. Carbohydrates

C

The formation of hydrogen bonds requires atoms and what else? A. Water B. Oxygen C. Polar Covalent Bonds D. Ionic Bonds

C

The pH scale: A. Is linear B. Is based on the salinity of a solution C. Is based on the concentration of hydrogen atoms in a solution D. Ranges from 1-7

C

These cells in the CNS have cilia that move in order to circulate cerebrospinal fluid: A. Schwann cells B. Oligodendrocytes C. Ependymal cells D. Astrocytes

C

What is the primary function of cellular respiration? A. To oxidize glucose B. To metabolize nutrients C. To regenerate ATP and break down food molecules D. To produce proteins

C

What parts of atoms can interact (react) to form chemical bonds? A. The nucleus of each atom B. Protons C. Valence Electrons D. The Orbitals

C

Which ABO blood type is considered to be the universal recipient? A. B B. O C. AB D. A

C

Which movement decreases the angle between articulating bones A. Extension B. Supination C. Flexion D. Protraction

C

Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood? A. Megakaryocyte B. Polymorphonuclear cell C. Hemocytoblast D. Normoblast

C

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neurons? A. They conduct impulses B. They have extreme longevity C. They are mitotic D. They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate

C

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system and bone tissue? A. Support B. Storage of minerals C. Communication D. Houses the bone marrow which produces blood cells (hematopoiesis)

C

Which of the following is NOT produced through chemical bonding? A. Adipose (fat) tissue B. The heart C. Atoms D. Cells

C

Which of the following is a skin sensory receptor for touch? A. Free nerve ending B. Pacinian corpuscle C. Meissner's corpuscle D. Ruffini body

C

Which of the following is characteristic of cilia? A. They are used for cellular adhesion B. They move substances in many directions across a cell's surfaces C. They are whiplike, motile cellular extensions that occur in large numbers on the exposed surfaces of certain cells D. They are substantially longer than flagella, and are less common than flagella in humans

C

Which of the following is one difference between bursae and tendon sheaths? A. Bursae serve as cushioning fat pads between adjacent structures, while tendon sheaths reduce friction between adjacent structures B. Bursae contain a thin film of synovial fluid, while tendon sheaths lack synovial fluid altogether C. Bursae are flattened fibrous sacs wedged between adjacent structures, while tendon sheaths are elongated fibrous sacs that wrap around tendons D. Bursae are only found in synovial joints, while tendon sheaths are only found in fibrous joints

C

Which of the following is the main component of the cell membrane? A. Cholesterol B. Water C. Phospholipids D. Carbohydrates

C

Which of the following is true of axons? A. Neurons can have multiple axons but only one dendrite B. Axons use chemically gated ion channels to generate graded potentials C. A neuron can have only one axon, but the axon may have occasional branches along its length D. Smaller (thinner) axons are more likely to bear myelin sheaths than larger (thicker) axons

C

Which term describes the action of an endurance runner the night before the race as she "carbo-loads" when eating a large pasta dinner? A. Glycolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Glycogenesis D. Glycogenolysis

C

Which two factors below make rapid and substantial blood loss life threatening? A. Loss of clotting ability and loss of osmotic pressure B. Loss of immunity and loss of CO2 carrying capacity C. Loss of blood pressure and loss of oxygen carrying capacity D. Loss of immunity and loss of blood pressure

C

Which of the following is most directly required to initiate the coupling of myosin to actin? A. ATP B. ACh C. Ca+ D. Glucose

C. Ca+ binds to troponin, which removes tropomyosin from the myosin binding site on the actin

Prevention of osteoporosis includes adequate intake of which vitamins?

Calcium and vitamin D

Which four elements comprise approximately 96% of our body weight?

Carbon Oxygen Hydrogen Nitrogen

Earwax is made by

Ceremonious glands

Hypotonic Solutions

Concave with no liquid

A joint held together by fibrocartilage would be classified as _____ joint? A. Synovial B. Amphiarthrosis C. Fibrous D. Cartilaginous

D

A person who lacks agglutinogen A, but has agglutinogen B would have blood type A. A B. O C. AB D. B

D

Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to: A. Produce red blood cells B. Attach tendons C. Form the synovial membrane D. Provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints

D

As you start working out, you notice that your heart rate and breathing rate start to increase. Which division of your nervous system is generating this response? A. The afferent division of the nervous system B. The somatic nervous system C. The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system D. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

D

Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of: A. Circumduction B. Flexion C. Extension D. Hyperextension

D

Catabolism would be best described as a process that A. Elevates glucagon levels B. Builds up triglycerides during the post absorptive state C. Causes a decline in circulating ketone bodies D. Breaks down complex structures to simpler ones

D

Glycolysis is best defined as a catabolic reaction based upon the: A. Conversion of glucose into carbon dioxide and water B. Formation of sugar C. Conversion of pyretic acid into carbon dioxide and water D. Conversion of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid

D

Lipogenesis occurs when: A. There is a shortage of fatty acids B. Excess proteins are transported through the cell membrane C. Glucose levels drop slightly D. Cellular ATP and glucose levels are high

D

Meningitis can be caused by infection of the CNS by bacteria. Which cells would be most responsible for removing the infection? A. Satellite cells B. Oligodendrocytes C. Schwann cells D. Microglia

D

Myoglobin: A. Produces the end plate potential B. Breaks down glycogen C. Is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP D. Stores oxygen in muscle cells

D

Select the correct statement regarding chemical synapses: A. Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons terminals of cells B. The release of neurotransmitter molecule gives cells the property of being electrically coupled C. Cells with gap junctions use chemical synapses D. The synaptic cleft transmits a chemical signal to the post synaptic cell through diffusion of neurotransmitters across the cleft

D

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types: A. Mammary and ceremonious B. Sebaceous and merocrine C. Holocrine and mammary D. Eccrine and apocrine

D

The genetic information coded in DNA by the A. Arrangement of the histones B. Regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules C. 3-D structure of the double helix D. Sequence of the nucleotides

D

What is the classification of a solution with a pH of 8.3? A. Acidic Solution B. Buffered Solution C. Neutral Solution D. Alkaline Solution

D

What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue? A. It is composed of multiple cells working together B. The ability to respond to nervous stimulation C. Its cells' inability to reproduce by mitosis D. The ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy to move the body

D

What is the role of the serous membranes covering some organs? A. To provide a protective outer covering for the organ B. To serve as extra tissue for blood flow to the organ C. To provide a passage of nutrients for the organ tissues D. To prevent friction between the organ and body cavity wall

D

What is the weakest part of a developing, adolescent long bone? A. The diaphysis B. The medullary cavity C. The epiphyses D. The epiphyseal plate

D

When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum cause clumping (agglutination) of donor cells on a slide, the blood type is: A. AB B. A C. B D. O

D

Which leukocyte might you expect to find in higher quantities in a person experiencing allergies? A. Basophil B. Neutrophil C. Lymphocyte D. Eosinophil

D

Which of the following epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs? A. Simple cuboidal B. Simple columnar C. Pseudostratified columnar D. Simple squamous

D

Which of the following distinguishes hydrogen bonds from covalent bonds? A. Only hydrogen bonds can form within molecules B. Only covalent bonds can form between molecules C. Only ionic bonds can form within molecules D. Only hydrogen bonds can form between molecules

D- hydrogen bonds are not true bods

Which of the following is a site for muscle or ligament attachment? A. Sinus B. Foramen C. Fossa D. Groove E. Trochanter

E

Which tissue type consists of a sheet of cells that covers a body surface or lines a body cavity?

Epithelial tissue

All muscles contain striations. T/F

False

Tendons and ligaments are composed mainly of dense irregular connective tissue. T/F

False

The biggest risk factor for the development of skin cancer is exposure to UV radiation from sunlight. Exposure to UV light in tanning booth is safer. T/F

False

When an individual is exposed to extremely cold air the dermal blood vessels will dilate so that more blood will be brought closer to the outside surface of skin. T/F

False

Intercalated discs and striations are both characteristic of skeletal muscle. T/F

False- cardiac

The knee is proximal to the thigh T/F

False- distal

Hypertonic Solutions

Filled with liquid

Pathway of cellular respiration (complete oxidation of glucose)

Glycolysis, citric acid (Krebs) cycle, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation

What is the best location for obtaining a red bone marrow sample from a patient?

Hip bone

What describes the ANS

Motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands

Which muscle protein is a thick filament?

Myosin

What is the most common cell type in the epidermis

Keratinocytes

What is the difference between kinetic and potential energy?

Kinetic energy- in action Potential- stored

Transport, Mechanical, Chemical

Label: Chemical work, transport work and mechanical work

Which skin pigment is made in the skin as a natural defense against UV radiation?

Melanin

Isotonic solutions

Neutral

Why or why not is swimming recommended as an exercise to prevent osteoporosis?

Not recommended as it is not considered a weight-bearing exercise

Which blood type is generally called the universal donor?

O

A cell engulfing a relatively large particle will likely utilize

Phagocytosis

If a cell is non-selectively engulfing samples of extracellular fluid, for example to absorb nutrients, it will likely utilize

Pinocytosis

A red blood cell placed in pure water would

Swell and burst

The term metabolism is best defined as

The sum of all biochemical reactions in the body

What is the role of the hair follicle?

To anchor the hair shaft

A smooth muscle cell has a central nucleus but lacks striations. T/F

True

All lymphocytes are leukocytes, but not all leukocytes are lymphocytes. T/F

True

Axon diameter and degree of myelination determine nerve impulse conduction velocity. True/False

True

Blood is considered a type of connective tissue. T/F

True

Dividing cells must pass through the phases of mitosis in the following order: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. T/F

True

Glucose is an example of a monosaccharide. T/F

True

Glycogen, the storage form of glucose, is primarily stored in skeletal muscle and liver cells. T/F

True

In myelinated axons the voltage-regulated sodium channels are concentrated at the nodes of Ranvier. T/F

True

In the muscles of the limbs, the origin is usually the immobile muscle attachment. T/F

True

Leukopenia is an abnormally low number of leukocytes. T/F

True

Mature erythrocytes lack a nucleus. T/F

True

Reflexes are rapid, automatic responses to stimuli that will produce the same effect every time. T/F

True

The amount of movement permitted by a particular joint is the basis for the functional classification of that joint. T/F

True

The dermis contains blood vessels and nerve fibers, while the epidermis does not. T/F

True

The lower the pH, the higher the hydrogen ion concentration. T/F

True

The main role of the axial skeleton is to protect and support vital organs. T/F

True

The pH of body fluids must remain fairly constant for the body to maintain homeostasis. T/F

True

The shock absorbing pads between the vertebrae are formed of fibrocartilage. T/F

True

Bundles of neurons in the CNS are called tracts. T/F

True In PNS bundles called nerves

Which organ is the least likely to be damaged in an automobile accident?

Urinary bladder-transitional tissue

Mitochondrion

What is this organelle?

Synthesis of proteins (ribosomes)

What specific function occurs on the specific membranes indicated by A?

C

Which structure is a type of sweat gland?

Groups of cells that are similar in structure and perform a common or related function form a

tissue