ACE practice test

According to the glycemic index (GI), which of the following foods is considered a low-GI food? A. Dried fruit B. Shredded Wheat® cereal C. All Bran® cereal D. Blueberries

C. All Bran® cereal Why? This answer is correct, as All Bran® is a low-GI food (GI <55). ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness professionals, page 179

Randy is a client you have been working with for several months. During that time, he has reached a level of conditioning that allows him to perform 40 continuous minutes of cardiorespiratory exercise at an intensity of 75% MHR. During his annual check-up earlier this week, Randy's physician prescribed beta-blocker medication to help control mild hypertension, and gave him a written release to continue exercise as tolerated. Based on this information, how should Randy monitor his exercise intensity now that he is taking this new medication? A. % Heart-rate reserve (HRR) B. Metabolic equivalents (METs) C. Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) D. HR at the first ventilatory threshold (VT1)

C. Ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) Why? This response is correct as RPE is the recommended method for monitoring exercise intensity in individuals taking beta blockers, Due to the fact that it is based on perceived exertion, it is not negatively impacted by medications such as beta blockers. RPE has been validated against a variety of physiological intensity measures, including heart rate, % VO2R, and metabolic markers, and has been found to be a valid tool for monitoring intensity. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 132-134

Which response would be MOST appropriate for a client who arrives at a personal-training session wearing flip-flops and loose clothing? A. Go forward with the training session as scheduled B. Allow the client to train without shoes C. Tell the client that the training session will have to be rescheduled D. Allow the client to go through lost and found clothing

C. Tell the client that the training session will have to be rescheduled Why? This response is correct. Personal trainers should provide and maintain a safe exercise environment. This includes the wearing of proper clothing and shoes by all clients. Failure to stop a client from exercising in improper shoes may be deemed an endorsement of a bad practice, or worse, lead to injury, which exposes the personal trainer to negligence. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 659

After several months of sticking to his exercise program, a client informs you that he is pleased with his progress and would like to enhance his rate of building muscle mass by incorporating creatine supplementation into his current program. Which of the following responses to this client's inquiry about creatine is the MOST appropriate? A. "While some research shows that creatine may enhance muscular performance, it would be best for you to discuss supplementation with your physician prior to taking it." B. "Taking creatine supplements is a good strategy as long as you follow the dosage instructions carefully and monitor yourself for any unwanted symptoms." C. "Try taking 3 grams of creatine per day for approximately one month. If you experience any gastrointestinal discomfort, decrease the dose and contact your physician." D. "Inform your physician that I support your desire to start a creatine supplementation program and let me know if he or she advises any precautions or limitations for you."

A. "While some research shows that creatine may enhance muscular performance, it would be best for you to discuss supplementation with your physician prior to taking it." Why? It is the position of ACE that it is outside the defined scope of practice of a fitness professional to recommend, prescribe, or supply nutritional supplements to clients. If a client wants to take supplements, a fitness professional should work in conjunction with a qualified registered dietitian or medical doctor to provide safe and effective nutrition education and recommendations. This response is the most appropriate because it encourages the client to discuss supplementation with a medical professional prior to taking the substance. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 9-10 & Appendix C

Which of the following provides the BEST assessment of muscular strength? A. Push-up test B. 1 RM bench-press test C. Curl-up test D. Bodyweight squat test

A. 1 RM bench-press test Why? The 1 RM bench-press test is an assessment of maximum strength of the upper body for this pushing motion. This is the only assessment of maximum strength listed, so it is the best response. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 240-248

Which of the following provides the BEST assessment of acceleration and speed? A. 40-yard dash B. VO2max test C. Submaximal talk test for VT1 D. Standing long jump test

A. 40-yard dash Why? The 40-yard dash is designed to assess acceleration and speed. Assessments of speed and acceleration require maximal effort and swift limb movement, thus to perform well and avoid injury it is imperative that the client warms up adequately. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 255-256

Cindy's first attempt at the incline bench press exercise appears shaky and uncoordinated. After the set, Cindy comments that she had a hard time feeling her chest muscles working and that it was challenging to move her arms in a controlled manner. Which stage of learning BEST correlates with Cindy's performance? A. Cognitive B. Associative C. Autonomous D. Modeling

A. Cognitive Why? This response is correct, as within the cognitive stage of learning clients make many errors and have highly variable performances. They know they are doing something wrong, but they do not know how to improve their performance. At this stage, clients seem terribly uncoordinated and consistently perform exercises incorrectly. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 62

Larry is a client with whom you have been working for the past three months. During that time, he has cancelled or failed to show up for approximately 20% of scheduled workout sessions with you. Recently, Larry's work commitments have increased and he informs you that he will not be exercising until his work load decreases. In which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavioral change would Larry CURRENTLY be categorized? A. Contemplation B. Preparation C. Action D. Maintenance

A. Contemplation Why? Larry has relapsed to being physically inactive due to his work commitments, and has regressed to this stage of change. Individuals in the contemplation stage weigh the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification and are often ambivalent about changing. Individuals can remain in this stage for months or years, alternating between approaching readiness to make an effort at change and distancing themselves from it. Larry will have to decide to initiate a new exercise program before he can move back to the preparation stage and eventually to the action and maintenance stages. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 71-72

A new client expresses her concerns about the fitness testing that is advertised in the personal training brochure from the facility where you train. She claims that the thought of being weighed and having her body composition assessed makes her uncomfortable. Which of the following statements is the BEST course of action at this time? A. Explain that these assessments are only options, and are not required. Then have her complete a health-history form and only conduct assessments that facilitate program design, such as posture and basic movement. B. Help her understand that data from body-composition and other fitness assessments provide the foundation for exercise programming and are the basis for quantifying progress toward goals. C. Inform her that body-composition and other fitness assessments are prerequisites to beginning a new and effective exercise program. D. Acknowledge her concerns, design a program without using the assessments, and explore the need for referral for her unrealistic fear of weight.

A. Explain that these assessments are only options, and are not required. Then have her complete a health-history form and only conduct assessments that facilitate program design, such as posture and basic movement. Why? This response is correct, as some clients may be very uncomfortable with the testing and evaluation process, and in these cases, it can be counterproductive to the success of an exercise program. Fitness professionals should always require the assessment of health-risk factors. In addition, most programs can benefit from some basic assessments of static posture and movement, such as those utilized in the stability-mobility and movement phases of the ACE IFT® Model. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 122-129 & 135

19 of 60 Which of the following exercises would be MOST appropriate to include in a client's initial exercise program if he has postural issues due to a lack of range of motion (ROM) in hip extension? A. Half-kneeling triplanar stretch B. Supine bent-knee marches C. Lying hamstrings stretch D. Hip-hinge

A. Half-kneeling triplanar stretch Why? A lack of ROM in hip extension is generally due to tight hip flexors. The half-kneeling triplanar stretch of the hip flexors improves mobility in all three planes without compromising lumbar stability. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 284-285

Ryan is a busy, young executive who works 60 hours per week. He has hired you to develop a realistic exercise program that will fit his hectic schedule and to help him adopt sensible eating habits to help facilitate weight loss. He has recorded a three-day food record at your request and the most notable trend is his choice of lunch entree. Ryan eats lunch at a local pizzeria at least four days per week and always orders the same thing—a mini pizza topped with several types of meat and vegetables, and a large iced tea. After an Internet search, you discover the following nutrition information about Ryan's favorite mini pizza: Calories: 940 Calories from fat: 378 Total fat: 42 g Saturated fat: 18 g Trans fat: 2 g Cholesterol: 175 mg Sodium: 2,145 mg Carbohydrate: 108 g Fiber: 8 g Sugars: 17 g Protein: 33 g Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding the saturated and trans fat content of this pizza? A. It has a high content of both saturated fat and trans fat. B. Saturated fat and trans fat content are within the recommended ranges. C. It is high in trans fat, but saturated fat content is in line with the daily recommended percentages. D. It is high in saturated fat, but trans fat content is in line with the daily recommended percentages.

A. It has a high content of both saturated fat and trans fat. Why? The 2010 USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans state that total fat intake should range between 20 and 35% of daily calories, with most fats coming from polyunsaturated and monounsaturated sources. In addition, no more than 10% of calories should come from saturated fats, and products containing trans fatty acids should be limited or avoided altogether. This food item contains 40% of its total calories from fat (378 kcal from fat / 940 total cal = 0.402 x 100% = 40.2%), with 17% of those calories coming from saturated fat (18 g saturated fat x 9 cal/g = 162 cal from saturated fat / 940 total cal = 0.172 x 100% = 17.2%). While this client could eat healthfully enough the rest of the day to keep his total saturated fat intake to 10% of total caloric intake or below, this pizza is high in saturated fat and contains a substantial amount of total calories, setting him up for a diet that will most likely be high in saturated fat intake. This pizza also contains 2 gram of trans fat, which should be limited, or preferably, avoided altogether. Therefore, this pizza has a high content of both saturated fat and trans fat. ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 168 & 184

Postural screening conducted with a new client reveals that he has an exaggerated posterior curve in his thoracic spine and protracted shoulders, with the backs of his hands facing forward. What are this client's postural deviations? A. Kyphosis posture with internal rotation of the arms B. Flat-back posture with internal rotation of the arms C. Sway-back posture with external rotation of the arms D. Kyphosis posture with external rotation of the arms

A. Kyphosis posture with internal rotation of the arms Why? Kyphosis posture is characterized by increased flexion of the thoracic spine with protracted shoulders and often a forward-tilted head. Additionally, the backs of this client's hands are facing forward, indicating that he has internally—or medially—rotated humerus. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 151-152 &158-160

A 58-year-old client you have been working with for several months tells you that she just completed a bone mineral density (BMD) scan and was diagnosed with osteopenia. Her physician has given her a medical release to exercise as tolerated to improve bone density and general fitness. Her exercise program currently consists of swimming (30 minutes; 3 days per week), walking (30 minutes; 2 days per week), and resistance training (2 sets of 12-15 repetitions performed 2 days per week for all major muscle groups). Which program modification would be MOST important to implement at this time? A. Modify resistance training to include two sets of each exercise with a weight that fatigues the muscles in approximately eight repetitions B. Replace all swimming sessions with walking and gradually introduce running 4-5 days per week C. Modify resistance training to include three sets of each exercise using resistance that will fatigue the muscles in approximately 12-16 repetitions D. Replace one swimming session with a third walking session and introduce pool running intervals

A. Modify resistance training to include two sets of each exercise with a weight that fatigues the muscles in approximately eight repetitions Why? This response is correct, as resistance training can create stress on the bone that will cause bone density to be preserved and possibly enhanced. To facilitate optimal bone changes, a higher load is recommended that will fatigue the muscles in approximately eight repetitions. This will stimulate the greatest response in terms of bone density changes. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 537-539

Once a client is proficient at performing jumps in place and single linear jumps, which of the following plyometric drills would provide the MOST appropriate intensity progression? A. Multiple linear jumps B. Hops and bounds C. Multidirectional jumps D. Depth jumps

A. Multiple linear jumps Why? This response is correct, as intensity of plyometric drills increases according to the following progression: jumping in place — single linear jumps — multiple linear jumps — multidirectional jumps — hops and bounds —depth jumps. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 362

Which of the following produces a stretch reflex when stimulated? A. Muscle spindles B. Meissner's corpuscles C. Golgi tendon organs D. Pacinian corpuscles

A. Muscle spindles Why? This response is correct, as the stretch reflex is associated with the activation of the muscle spindle. When a muscle is stretched quickly, the muscle spindles in the stretched muscle are activated and initiate a reflex arc that causes the stretched muscle to produce a sudden contraction. ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 24-25

A small-group training participant who enjoys the camaraderie of the group environment finds herself feeling as though she cannot keep up with the conditioning level of the other participants. What is the BEST recommendation for the trainer to make for this client? A. Offer her the opportunity to switch to another small-group training class that is a better match for her level of conditioning B. Offer to train the client two additional times during the week in one-on-one sessions to increase her conditioning level to match that of the current small group class C. Encourage the client to keep up with the current small-group class to push herself and improve her level of conditioning D. Suggest that she drop out of the small-group training class and work one-on-one with the trainer until her fitness improves to the level of the group

A. Offer her the opportunity to switch to another small-group training class that is a better match for her level of conditioning Why? This is the BEST recommendation to make so that she can continue to participate in small-group training, which she enjoys, but at a more reasonable level of conditioning. Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 689-691

What is the MOST appropriate method for correcting a client's form during an exercise in which the client demonstrates an undesirable forward-head posture? A. Putting your hand where the client's head should be and instructing her to glide her head back to touch your hand B. Gently pushing the client's head into the correct position and holding it there throughout the exercise C. Briefly massaging the client's upper back and neck to relax the muscles responsible for the deviation D. Explaining that if she cannot position her head in the proper alignment you can give her a different exercise

A. Putting your hand where the client's head should be and instructing her to glide her head back to touch your hand Why? This is the MOST appropriate response of the options available. An effective method for correcting a client's exercise performance is to place your hand in the desired position and ask the client to move the body segment that is out of alignment to touch it. If the client has a forward-head posture, put your hand where her head would be with good alignment and instruct her to glide her head back to touch your hand. These techniques encourage the person to actively and safely assume the correct position. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 55-57

Six months have passed since you started training Claire. She has consistently attended all her scheduled workout sessions and shown significant improvement in cardiorespiratory fitness, muscular strength and endurance, and flexibility. However, her body composition remains similar to her initial assessment values. Upon questioning Claire about her nutrition habits, she responds, "I have been trying to use the USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans you gave me, but I find myself binging on my favorite snacks every night. If you could just write out a diet telling me exactly what to eat and when, I know I could stick to it." Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate response to address Claire's nutritional concerns? A. Refer Claire to a registered dietitian. B. Ask Claire to record a three-day food diary. C. Assist Claire in navigating the USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans website. D. Tell Claire to buy fruit and stop purchasing her favorite snack foods.

A. Refer Claire to a registered dietitian. Why? This response is correct because by referring Claire to a registered dietitian, you would be connecting her with an allied health professional who can help her with specific meal plans and address her binging. If you are not a registered dietitian or healthcare professional, you should avoid making specific diet recommendations and refer clients to a registered dietitian or physician when they require or desire specific meal planning. ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 174

You are checking equipment in preparation for your next client to arrive for her training session and notice that an exercise bike is not functioning properly and may pose a danger to your client and other gym members. What is the BEST plan of action to take concerning this piece of equipment? A. Remove the exercise bike from the gym floor B. Put a 'Do Not Use' sign on the exercise bike C. Unplug the exercise bike until it can be repaired D. Leave the exercise bike as is and use the bike next to it

A. Remove the exercise bike from the gym floor Why? This response is correct and is the best course of action to take because it eliminates any possible dangers. Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 658-659

The initial assessment with a new client reveals that her waist circumference is 35 inches and her hip circumference is 34 inches. Which of the following statements about these measurements is MOST accurate? A. She is at risk for health problems due to excess abdominal fat. B. She has an average risk for developing obesity-related health problems. C. She is considered low-risk for developing heart disease due to her relatively small hip circumference. D. She must undergo more assessments to evaluate her health risk.

A. She is at risk for health problems due to excess abdominal fat. Why? Upper-body or abdominal obesity is known to increase health risk. This client's waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) equates to 1.029 (35 inches divided by 34 inches), which places her in the category of "at risk" for health problems. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 210

A new member of your health club has been cleared by her physician to begin an exercise program after recently celebrating her 65th birthday. Which of the following exercise parameters is MOST appropriate for her initial program? A. Strength training utilizing low resistance and high repetitions B. Moderate to vigorous aerobic activity 5-7 days per week for 30-60 minutes C. Strength training with free weights to maximize neurological adaptations D. Functional training emphasizing dynamic balance exercises

A. Strength training utilizing low resistance and high repetitions Why? This response is an appropriate program design and initial intensity level for a new client and it addresses the loss of muscle mass and bone density as one ages. To promote strength gains and increases in bone density, a program with more resistance and fewer repetitions is required. However, because this individual is more than 50 years old, the ACSM recommends he begin his program with low resistance and high repetitions. This is the recommendation for older individuals due in part to the fact that as people age their blood pressures tend to rise. Low resistance and high repetitions is the recommendation for resistance training for hypertensive clients as well. After several months of training, a more intense program may be appropriate. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 375-376

When teaching a client a new exercise, you should first describe the correct technique, then demonstrate the proper movement, and, lastly, allow the client to perform the exercise. What type of teaching approach is this? A. Tell-show-do method B. Operant conditioning C. Shaping D. Observational learning

A. Tell-show-do method Why? This response is correct, as the "tell—show—do" method is an effective and systematic approach to teaching a skill is by explanation, demonstration, and execution. By utilizing this teaching method, the trainer provides auditory, visual, and kinesthetic learning experiences, which combine to stimulate all learning pathways. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 56-57

A new client requests to train only at local beaches, parks, and trails. What is the FIRST precaution to take when training clients outdoors in public places? A. The trainer should check with the city or property manager to make sure that the areas of interest for training have been identified as "legal." B. The trainer should first survey each outdoor area prior to training sessions with the client to plan the workout and ensure safety. C. The trainer and client need to be mindful of their surroundings, as they will be training in public places and others will be present. D. The trainer needs to remind the client to dress appropriately for the weather conditions and for training in public places.

A. The trainer should check with the city or property manager to make sure that the areas of interest for training have been identified as "legal." Why? This response is correct, as it is the responsibility of the fitness professional to be familiar with local laws, as in some jurisdictions it is illegal to train clients on public beaches, parks, and/or trails. Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 658

What are the three sites to measure when conducting a body-composition assessment using the Jackson and Pollock three-site skinfold equation for women? A. Triceps, thigh, suprailium B. Chest, thigh, suprailium C. Triceps, abdominal, thigh D. Thigh, abdominals, suprailium

A. Triceps, thigh, suprailium Why? This response is correct, as the Jackson and Pollock three-site skinfold measurement sites for women are the triceps, thigh, and suprailium. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 201

Your new client, Sarah, is a strong believer in the practice of vitamin supplementation. After reviewing her three-day food diary, which includes her supplement schedule, you determine that Sarah is taking megadoses of vitamins B6, B12, and niacin. Which of the following statements would be MOST appropriate when addressing Sarah regarding her supplementation practice? A. "After looking at your food diary, I realized that you are taking megadoses of certain vitamins. I advise you to stop taking supplements immediately and improve your diet by eating more whole grains, fruits, and vegetables." B. "Your food diary revealed that you are taking an amount of vitamins that could potentially lead to health problems. I encourage you to adopt the principles of the USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans and discuss your supplementation habits with your physician." C. "I realize that you feel strongly about taking your vitamin supplements, but as we have discussed before, you really shouldn't need to take any supplements if you're eating a well-balanced diet." D. "Unfortunately, we are going to have to postpone our training sessions until you discuss your vitamin supplementation practices with your physician."

B. "Your food diary revealed that you are taking an amount of vitamins that could potentially lead to health problems. I encourage you to adopt the principles of the USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans and discuss your supplementation habits with your physician." Why? Sarah has strong beliefs about her vitamin supplement program and steps should be taken to avoid upsetting her when providing information about vitamin supplementation. The personal trainer should encourage Sarah to get her nutrients from foods and discuss her supplementation plan in detail with her physician, since megadoses of some vitamins and minerals can lead to toxicity. ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 162-163 ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 14

A client has progressed from performing eight squat repetitions with 300 pounds to performing 12 repetitions with that same weight. Using a double-progressive training protocol, what would be the MOST appropriate weight to progress him to during his next workout where he performs weighted squats? A. 305 lb B. 315 lb C. 335 lb D. 350 lb

B. 315 lb Why? This response is correct because 315 lb is a 5% increase from 300 lb. The double-progressive protocol has two steps for increasing total load during resistance training. First, the client increases repetitions until he or she can perform the maximum number of repetitions in the range (e.g., 12 repetitions is the maximum number in the eight-to-12 range). Once the client reaches the high end of the repetition range, the resistance is increased by 5% and the client performs as many repetitions as possible with the new load. Once the client performs the high end of the repetition range with this new resistance, the resistance is progressed another 5%. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 341

Which of the following recommendations for fluid intake is CORRECT for a client who primarily exercises outside during hot weather? A. 2-4 fluid ounces of a sports drink every 10-15 minutes B. 7-10 fluid ounces of water every 10-20 minutes C. 32 fluid ounces of water within 30 minutes prior to, and following, exercise D. 2 ounces of fluid for every 1 ounce of weight lost during exercise

B. 7-10 fluid ounces of water every 10-20 minutes Why? This response is correct, as the guideline for fluid replenishment while exercising in a hot environment is to drink at least 7-10 ounces every 10-20 minutes during exercise. Additionally, clients working in hot environments should drink 17-20 ounces of water two hours prior to exercise and 16-24 ounces after exercise for every pound lost. ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 226

Mary is a healthy, 43-year-old female with no prior exercise experience. Which initial cardiorespiratory exercise program would be MOST appropriate for her? A. Aim to complete 30-minute sessions 4-5 days per week of moderate-intensity exercise with intervals of varying length and frequency performed above the talk test threshold B. Begin with continuous exercise as tolerated below the talk test threshold and work up to 30 continuous minutes performed 5 days per week C. Perform daily cardiorespiratory exercise for up to 60 minutes per day using a variety of modes to prevent boredom D. Exercise every other day for a minimum of 45 minutes per session using a variety of modes to prevent boredom

B. Begin with continuous exercise as tolerated below the talk test threshold and work up to 30 continuous minutes performed 5 days per week Why? This response is correct because it allows for this currently sedentary client to begin exercising at his current fitness level with a goal to work toward 30 continuous minutes. The exercise intensity of "below the talk test threshold" is also appropriate for this client, as she must develop initial aerobic-base fitness before progressing to longer sessions or intervals. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 398-399 & 422-424

Your client has consistently performed 10 to 20 exercises per session, two to three times per week for six months. He is ready to be challenged with a more advanced resistance-training program. You decide to introduce a program wherein he performs 10 repetitions to muscular fatigue and then immediately performs three to five more repetitions of the same exercise at a slighter lighter weight to complete the set without assistance. What is this advanced training technique called? A. Periodization training B. Breakdown training C. Assisted training D. Circuit training

B. Breakdown training Why? This response is correct, as breakdown training is an advanced training method used to enhance muscle hypertrophy extending each exercise set with a few post-fatigue repetitions that the client completes without manual assistance from the trainer. This approach requires the exerciser to train to muscle fatigue then immediately reduce the resistance by 10 to 20% and perform as many additional repetitions as possible (typically three to five repetitions) to attain a deeper level of muscle fatigue. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 357-358

A regular client says that he feels "good" and is "ready to exercise" during the warm-up portion of a training session. While performing a dumbbell shoulder press exercise with the same weight that he used during a training session three days prior, he groans in pain and drops the dumbbell, injuring his foot. Upon asking him what is wrong he shares that he hurt his shoulder yesterday and has been in pain ever since. Following the incident the client decides to file a claim against the trainer. This scenario is BEST defined as what type of negligence? A. Gross negligence B. Contributory negligence C. Comparative negligence D. Compounding negligence

B. Contributory negligence Why? This answer is correct, because the client knew of his injury from the previous day, yet chose to withhold this information from the personal trainer, resulting in him causing pain in his shoulder and dropping the dumbbell. At the start of the session, the client should have alerted the trainer about his injured shoulder so that the trainer could adapt the training session for the day. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 651-652

Your client with type 2 diabetes just received a six-month progress report from his physician. According to his physician, he has experienced many positive health changes due to his exercise program and diet modifications. Which of the following is the MOST likely positive adaptation due to his lifestyle changes? A. Increased insulin resistance B. Decreased insulin resistance C. Increased protein in the urine D. Decreased HDL cholesterol

B. Decreased insulin resistance Why? This response is correct, as by losing weight through diet and exercise individuals with type 2 diabetes may be able to decrease their cellular resistance to insulin, thereby potentially reducing the amount of oral insulin medication needed. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 527-528

You are trying to implement forward lunges into a client's program, but he is having difficulty performing the exercise correctly. Which exercise would be MOST appropriate to include in his exercise program to help him eventually progress to a forward lunge? A. Side lunge B. Half-kneeling lunge rise C. Reverse lunge D. Lunge matrix

B. Half-kneeling lunge rise Why? This response is correct, as the objective of a half-kneeling lunge rise is to teach the mechanics of the rising portion of a lunge exercise. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 310-313

What is a diabetic client MOST likely to experience if he or she takes too much insulin prior to an exercise session? A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Ketosis D. Hyperlipidemia

B. Hypoglycemia Why? Insulin causes glucose to move from the circulatory system into the working cells. Exercise has an insulin-like effect, resulting in increased glucose uptake by the cells as well. Therefore, if a client takes too much insulin prior to exercise, the client would have two factors (insulin and exercise) that would be facilitating increased glucose uptake by the cells. This will cause a drop in blood glucose, potentially leading to low blood glucose, or hypoglycemia. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 616-618

Your client has hit a plateau in her workouts. Upon further review of her exercise records, you notice that she has been averaging only two workouts per week over the last four weeks. What would be the MOST appropriate course of action to help address her workout plateau? A. Suspect "burnout" and tell her to take a week off from training B. Increase the frequency of training to three times per week C. Tell her that exercise should be a priority and that she must attend more training sessions D. Lower her intensity level by 10% to increase compliance

B. Increase the frequency of training to three times per week Why? This is the best recommendation, as it will bring her up to the minimum recommended frequency for weekly physical activity. This should help her to see new gains in fitness. In any situations where a personal trainer is adding another day or extra time to a client's workout schedule, he or she should confirm with the client that the additional training volume fits in with the rest of that client's commitments. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 53 & 90-91

Which of the following flexibility assessment results would indicate TIGHTNESS in the infraspinatus and teres minor? A. Limited mobility during shoulder extension B. Limited ROM during internal shoulder rotation C. Limited mobility during shoulder flexion D. Limited ROM during external shoulder rotation

B. Limited ROM during internal shoulder rotation Why? This response is correct, as limitations in internal shoulder rotation are generally due to tightness in the external rotators, which must lengthen to allow movement in the opposite direction. The infraspinatus and teres minor are primary external shoulder rotators; if they are tight, they will limit internal shoulder rotation. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 184

You are working with a new client who has been diagnosed as having borderline hypertension and has a physician's release for exercise. In addition to designing an appropriate exercise program for her, you ask her to complete a three-day food record. Which of the following journal entries would be MOST important to address given her elevated blood pressure? A. Breakfast: oatmeal, ½ grapefruit, banana, and 1 cup coffee (12 oz) B. Lunch: roast beef and cheddar cheese sandwich, chips, and 16 oz regular soda C. Snack: apple, cheese slices, and unsweetened iced tea D. Dinner: lentil soup, side salad, grilled fish with mango salsa, and 1 glass red wine

B. Lunch: roast beef and cheddar cheese sandwich, chips, and 16 oz regular soda Why? This response is correct, as the DASH eating plan was developed to help people with hypertension reduce their blood pressure, which is based on a diet that is low in fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, red meat, sodium, and sweets. This meal has a sandwich that has red meat and is high in fat, chips that are most likely high in fat and sodium, and a regular soda that would be high in sugar. This is the food journal entry that would be most important to address given this client's diagnosis of borderline hypertension. It would also be the journal entry to address with most clients looking to lose weight and improve health. ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 186-187

What is the PRIMARY goal of a resistance-training program consisting of three sets of 12 to 16 repetitions for all major muscle groups? A. Power B. Muscular endurance C. Hypertrophy D. Muscular strength

B. Muscular endurance Why? Typically, resistance-training programs consisting of two to three sets of 12 to 16 repetitions are implemented to promote muscular endurance. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 338

A personal trainer appropriately progresses a client's workout to include barbell squats to increase the intensity of her leg workouts. The trainer spots her correctly as she completes the first two sets with ease. During the third set, the trainer is distracted by a fellow trainer who enters the weight room. During this distraction, the client loses balance momentarily, and has to drop the weight behind her. She immediately complains of back spasms. In this situation, for which act is the trainer MOST liable? A. Negligence due to an act of commission B. Negligence resulting from an act of omission C. An act of gross negligence D. An act of limited liability

B. Negligence resulting from an act of omission Why? This is the correct answer, as the trainer failed to spot a client during the barbell squat. Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 649

Julie has just completed an exercise confidence survey as part of her initial consultation. She indicated that she has low confidence in her ability to stick with an exercise program after a long, tiring day at work. Which of the following strategies would be the BEST option for enhancing Julie's adherence to her exercise program? A. Recommend that she perform an extended warm-up prior to her exercise sessions following work. B. Suggest scheduling her workout sessions before work or during her lunch hour. C. Request that she take a mid-day nap so she is more refreshed for her evening workouts. D. Offer her a reward of a T-shirt, water bottle, and workout towel after completing 10 consecutive sessions with you

B. Suggest scheduling her workout sessions before work or during her lunch hour. Why? This response is correct, as the requirements of Julie's job are factors that most likely cannot be changed. Since Julie often feels exhausted after work, the best option would be to have her complete her workouts earlier in the day before the physical and mental feelings of tiredness set in. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 35-36

A new client tells you that he has been jogging 3-4 days per week for the past six weeks following a program from a popular health magazine. He has worked his way up to jogging 30 continuous minutes at an intensity of 70% of his predicted maximal HR, which he calculated by subtracting his age from 220. As you design a new program for him, what method for monitoring cardiorespiratory exercise intensity should be used to provide the MOST individualized training program? A. %HRR using 220 - Age to calculate predicted maximal HR B. Programming above/below HR at VT1 determined via the submaximal talk test for VT1 C. %MHR using 206.9 - (0.67 x Age) to calculate predicted maximal HR D. %VO2R using predicted VO2max from the 1.5-mile run test

B. Programming above/below HR at VT1 determined via the submaximal talk test for VT1 Why? This response is correct because it involves programming at an actual metabolic marker that is unique to this client. By using the submaximal talk test to determine his heart rate at the first ventilatory threshold (VT1), the trainer is finding out the HR where this individual moves from moderate- to vigorous-intensity exercise. Nothing is predicted, as HR at VT1 is measured through a reliable field test. Once a personal trainer measures a client's HR at VT1, the trainer can utilize this information to design effect aerobic-efficiency-phase training for clients using zones 1 and 2 according to the ACE IFTTM Model. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 221-224 & 420-421

Which of the following is OUTSIDE the scope of practice of an ACE-certified Personal Trainer? A. Performing functional movement and cardiorespiratory fitness assessments B. Recommending an alternative therapy in place of a conventional therapy C. Adjusting the exercise program to improve motivation and adherence D. Educating a client about the role exercise can play in a disease management plan

B. Recommending an alternative therapy in place of a conventional therapy Why? This response is correct as it is outside the scope of practice of a personal trainer to diagnose a medical condition or recommend a method of treatment to a client. If a personal trainer identifies conditions that warrant medical evaluation and potential treatment, the personal trainer should explain what he or she has found and recommend that the client seek evaluation from an appropriate allied healthcare professional. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 8-10

Postural screening performed with a new client reveals that he has a posterior pelvic tilt and a decreased anterior curvature of the lower back. Based on this information, which muscles should be of PRIMARY focus in this client's flexibility program? A. Erector spinae and hip flexors B. Rectus abdominis and hamstrings C. Hip abductors and quadratus lumborum D. Rectus abdominis, internal obliques, and pectorals

B. Rectus abdominis and hamstrings Why? These two muscle groups work together to create a force couple to tilt the pelvis posteriorly. When they are tight, or shortened in length, the rectus abdominis will pull up on the front of the pelvis, while the hamstrings will pull down on the back of the pelvis. This would keep the pelvis in a position of posterior tilt during standing posture. Therefore, this answer is correct. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 158-160

Which of the following actions is within a personal trainer's scope of practice? A. Informing your client that he has hypertension based on elevated blood pressure readings on two occasions B. Reviewing a client's food journal to identify high-fat choices and providing education about lower-fat options C. Endorsing the positive effects of creatine supplementation to a client who is ready for an advanced muscle-building program D. Listening to a client tell you about his impending divorce and providing advice about how he can best handle the situation

B. Reviewing a client's food journal to identify high-fat choices and providing education about lower-fat options Why? Personal trainers are qualified to design, implement, and progress exercise programs for apparently healthy clientele, as well as clientele who have special needs with a physician's referral and recommendations for exercise. This includes helping clients develop more healthful behaviors that will facilitate exercise program effectiveness. This can include helping clients gain a better understanding of the USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans, so they can make better dietary choices. Personal trainers cannot prescribe diets, tell clients what to eat, what to purchase, or how to cook their foods. However, the USDA Dietary Guidelines provide a wealth of public information that is often misunderstood. By helping clients gain a better understanding of this information, personal trainers can help clients understand where they are making higher-fat choices and feel empowered to make better choices when purchasing and preparing foods. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 9-10 & 17

You have just completed McGill's torso muscular endurance test battery with a client. Which of the following results from this battery of assessments should be of PRIMARY focus when designing this client's exercise program, as it is indicative of a muscle imbalance that can lead to back pain? A. Flexion:Extension ratio = 0.83 (100 seconds:120 seconds) B. Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio = 1.09 (85 seconds:78 seconds) C. Right-side bridge:Extension ratio = 0.71 (85 seconds:120 seconds) D. Left-side bridge:Extension ratio = 0.65 (78 seconds:120 seconds)

B. Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio = 1.09 (85 seconds:78 seconds) Why? This response is correct. The Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio should be no greater than + 0.05 from a balanced score of 1.0. This puts acceptable values between 0.95 and 1.05 for this ratio. The client described in this example has a Right-side bridge:Left-side bridge ratio of 1.09, which is outside the acceptable range and indicates a right:left muscle imbalance that could lead to back pain. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 187-192

Postural screening conducted with a new client reveals that he has an exaggerated posterior curve in his thoracic spine and forward, rounded shoulders, with the backs of his hands facing forward. Which of the following sets of muscles and muscle groups should be the PRIMARY focus of a flexibility program designed to address this client's postural deviations? A. Shoulder abductors and rhomboids B. Shoulder adductors and serratus anterior C. Latissimus dorsi and hip flexors D. Trapezius and rhomboids

B. Shoulder adductors and serratus anterior Why? This answer is correct, as kyphosis posture is associated with tight shoulder adductors (pectoralis major) and tight scapular abductors (serratus anterior) which pull the scapular into protraction. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 162

When performing a seated row exercise, you notice the client's shoulders rising up toward his ears during each repetition. What is MOST likely causing this movement error? A. Inhibited upper trapezius being overpowered by the middle and lower trapezius B. Tight upper trapezius overpowering weakness in the middle and lower trapezius C. Lengthened and relatively weak upper trapezius paired with a strong latissimus dorsi D. Strong upper trapezius compensating for a lengthened and weak pectoralis major

B. Tight upper trapezius overpowering weakness in the middle and lower trapezius Why? When the upper trapezius is tight and the middle and lower trapezius are weak, the scapulae elevate during scapular retraction movements that are seen during exercises such as the seated row. This occurs because the tight upper trapezius keep the scapulae high, pulling his shoulders up toward his ears with each repetition, while the weak scapular depressors (middle and lower trapezius) are not strong enough to overcome the tightness in the upper trapezius. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 160-162

Which of the following documents may be presented in a lawsuit to release a fitness professional from liability related to a client's injury? A. Informed consent B. Waiver C. Health-risk appraisal D. Signed agreement

B. Waiver Why? This response is correct, as a waiver is used to release the personal trainer from liability for injuries resulting from an exercise program as it denotes the client's voluntary abandonment of the right to file suit. While this is the correct response, it is important for personal trainers to understand that waivers can be overruled in a court of law. The best method for avoiding a lawsuit is to always act in a professional, safe, and effective manner within the scope of practice. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 122-123

Your client has lost 10 pounds of body fat in 60 days. What was the daily average caloric deficit required for this client to lose weight at this rate? A. 350 kcal per day B. 425 kcal per day C. 583 kcal per day D. 700 kcal per day

C. 583 kcal per day Why? This answer is correct, as a caloric deficit of 583 kcal per day would result in a total caloric deficit of 35,000 kcal (583 kcal x 60 days = 35,000 kcal), which equates to a weight loss of 10 pounds (35,000 kcal / 3,500 kcal/lb = 10 lb), given that one pound of body fat holds 3,500 kcal of energy. 10 lb x 3,500 kcal per lb = a total caloric deficit of 35,000 kcal 35,000 kcal / 60 days = a daily caloric deficit of 583 kcal ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 174.

Which of the following statements represents the MOST effective feedback for helping a client correctly complete his first set of the bench press exercise using a barbell? A. "You are doing well, now just do five more repetitions." B. "You're not doing it right. Try to do it just like I showed you." C. "Great job of keeping your posture, now try widening your hand position slightly and you'll have better control of the bar." D. "Keep your back flat, butt down, feet on the floor, and remember to breathe."

C. "Great job of keeping your posture, now try widening your hand position slightly and you'll have better control of the bar." Why? Research indicates that corrective feedback should do three things: - provide reinforcement for what was done well - correct errors - motivate clients to continue practicing and improving This answer is correct because it has these aspects. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 57

Which of the following is a SMART goal? A. "I will lose 30 pounds in 3 months by decreasing portion sizes and completing 1 hour of exercise, 5 days per week." B. "I will run a 10k in under 50 minutes by training and competing with my sister." C. "I will lose 10 pounds for my brother's wedding in 3 months by running 3 days per week for 30-45 minutes and doing circuit training 2 days per week for 60 minutes." D. "I will become a regular exerciser by completing 2 personal-training sessions per week."

C. "I will lose 10 pounds for my brother's wedding in 3 months by running 3 days per week for 30-45 minutes and doing circuit training 2 days per week for 60 minutes." Why? This is the correct response. This goal is specific (10-lb weight loss through running and circuit training, each with specific details), measurable (weight), attainable (10 lb in three months is less than 1 lb per week), relevant (it is for her brother's wedding), and time-bound (three months). ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 50-51

Client: 47-year-old male Physician clearance: Yes Medical/health concerns: Smokes 25+ cigarettes per day Blood pressure: 136/87 mmHg Family history: Father had a heart attack at age 63 Past activity level: Wrestled and threw shot put in high school Current activity level: Walks dog at a leisurely pace, 20 minutes a day Main fitness goals: To improve strength and stamina and feel more fit Given the information above, what is the client's "total score" for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease using the ACSM risk factor thresholds? A. +1 B. +2 C. +3 D. +4

C. +3 Why? This response is correct, as this client has 3 positive risk factors according to the ACSM risk factor thresholds. His positive risk factors are his age (47 years old), being a current smoker, and being sedentary. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 120-121

A client you are working with weighs 200 lb (91 kg) and has a primary focus on increasing muscular strength and hypertrophy through resistance training 5-6 days per week. He is unsure of how much protein he should be consuming to maximize results and asks you for help. According to the protein guidelines for strength-trained athletes from the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, Dietitians of Canada, and American College of Sports Medicine, what range for daily protein intake would be MOST appropriate for this client? A. Up to 52 grams B. 73 to 91 grams C. 146 to 155 grams D. 200 grams or more

C. 146 to 155 grams Why? A daily intake of 146 to 155 grams equates to 1.6 to 1.7 grams per kilogram of body weight (91 kg x 1.6 g/kg = 145.6 g; 91 kg x 1.7 g/kg = 154.7 g). This meets the Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics, Dietitians of Canada, and American College of Sports Medicine protein guidelines of up to 1.2 to 1.7 g/kg body weight for strength-and endurance trained athletes. ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 179

A new client wants to lose weight and body fat, and agrees to have his body composition assessed during the initial session. He currently weighs 220 lb (100 kg) with 25% body fat (BF%). He wants to decrease his body-fat level to 15%. If he maintains his current lean body weight (LBW), what will his new weight be when he reaches his goal of 15% body fat? A. 165 lb B. 187 lb C. 194 lb D. 200 lb

C. 194 lb Why? This response is correct. To calculate goal weight for this client, perform the following calculations: DBW = LBW ÷ (1 - DBF%) Step 1: 100% - Fat % = Lean body % 100% - 25% = 75% Step 2: Body weight x Lean body % = LBW 220 lb x 0.75 = 165 lb Step 3: 100% - Desired fat % = Desired lean % 100% - 15% = 85% Step 4: LBW ÷ Desired lean % = DBW 165 lb ÷ 0.85 = 194 lb ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 206

A client wants to quickly lose the 20 pounds (9.1 kg) he has gained during the past 10 years. Which of the following timeframes would be MOST appropriate for him to safely achieve his weight-loss goal? A. 4 to 6 weeks B. 7 to 9 weeks C. 3 to 5 months D. 6 to 8 months

C. 3 to 5 months Why? According to most experts, a sensible diet-exercise approach to weight reduction tends to produce a rate of weight loss of approximately 1 to 2 pounds per week. This equates to a 10- to 20-week timeframe for the client to safely achieve his weight loss goal, with 3 to 5 months being the only answer that falls within this timeframe. ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 174

Henry is a healthy, 29-year-old male with no prior exercise experience. After an initial muscle-conditioning program that focused first on stability and mobility, followed by movement training with 1-2 sets of 15 repetitions of light- to moderate-intensity exercises for all major movements, Henry is ready to progress to a program that will help him work toward his goal of increasing muscle mass. Which intensity range is MOST appropriate for causing muscular fatigue in an appropriate number of repetitions to facilitate muscle hypertrophy? A. 50 to 60% 1 RM B. 60 to 70% 1 RM C. 70 to 80% 1 RM D. 80 to 90% 1 RM

C. 70 to 80% 1 RM Why? This answer is correct because eight to 12 repetitions corresponds with 70 to 80% of maximum resistance (1 RM) and is a sound training recommendation for safe and productive muscular hypertrophy. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 355-356

During the initial interview, a new client claims, "I want to lose 15 lb. (6.8 kg) in the next month for my high school reunion." Which of the following responses would be MOST appropriate? A. Ask her to tell you about her exercise experience and activities she enjoys so you can design a program to help her achieve her goals. B. Educate her that this goal is unrealistic, but that she can safely lose up to 2 lb (0.9 kg) per week according to the guidelines for sustained weight loss. C. Acknowledge her enthusiasm and help her develop more realistic goals and a series of achievable steps to work toward them. D. Explain that she will have to be diligent with her exercise program and should fast one day per week to boost metabolism to reach her goal.

C. Acknowledge her enthusiasm and help her develop more realistic goals and a series of achievable steps to work toward them. Why? Personal trainers should always structure appropriate exercise expectations at the beginning of the client-trainer relationship. Unrealistic expectations lead to failure to reach goals. This is a common theme with people who have a history of unsuccessful attempts at weight loss. By helping her develop more realistic goals, the trainer will be helping her set a foundation for success. Then, by using a series of achievable steps to work toward goals, the trainer can help her have a series of successes that will facilitate adherence and eventually help her achieve her larger goals. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 50-54

After three months of training, your client has achieved rapid weight loss and is now borderline underweight. She exhibits an intense fear of gaining weight and appears increasingly concerned with her appearance. Which of the following disorders is MOST likely to be associated with this type of behavior? A. Bulimia nervosa B. Binge eating disorder C. Anorexia nervosa D. Muscle dysmorphia

C. Anorexia nervosa Why? This response is correct as anorexia nervosa is associated with excessive concern with weight and appearance and overly rapid or severe weight loss with an intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat. ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 190

Which of the following changes to a client's stance position would INCREASE the challenge during a balance exercise? A. Moving from a single-leg stance to a split-stance on two feet B. Transitioning from a staggered stance to a hip-width stance C. Bringing the feet from a hip-width stance to a narrow stance D. Placing the feet next to one another in a parallel position from a tandem stance

C. Bringing the feet from a hip-width stance to a narrow stance Why? This response is correct. Moving the feet from a hip-width stance to a narrow stance would decrease the base of support, thereby increasing the balance challenge. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 298-301

Ryan is a busy, young executive who works 60 hours per week. He has hired you to develop a realistic exercise program that will fit his hectic schedule and to help him adopt sensible eating habits to help facilitate weight loss. He has recorded a three-day food record at your request and the most notable trend is his choice of lunch entree. Ryan eats lunch at a local pizzeria at least four days per week and always orders the same thing—a mini pizza topped with several types of meat and vegetables, and a large iced tea. After an Internet search, you discover the following nutrition information about Ryan's favorite mini pizza: Calories: 940 Calories from fat: 378 Total fat: 42 g Saturated fat: 18 g Trans fat: 2 g Cholesterol: 175 mg Sodium: 2,145 mg Carbohydrate: 108 g Fiber: 8 g Sugars: 17 g Protein: 33 g Which of the following nutrients contributes the GREATEST amount of calories to the total calories found in this food item? A. Fat B. Protein C. Carbohydrates D. Sodium

C. Carbohydrates Why? To solve this problem, you must know the caloric values for 1 gram of each type of nutrient: 1 g protein = 4 kcal; 1 g carbohydrate = 4 kcal; 1 g fat = 9 kcal. Next, determine the number of calories each nutrient contributes to the total caloric content of the food by multiplying the number of grams of each nutrient by its associated caloric value: Fat: 42 g x 9 kcal/g = 378 kcal Protein: 33 g x 4 kcal/g = 132 kcal Carbohydrates: 108 g x 4 kcal/g = 432 kcal These calculations show that carbohydrates contribute the most calories of all the nutrients in this food item. ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 172-173

Which of the following is MOST important to the development of a good client-trainer relationship? A. Agreeing on a clear behavioral contract B. Keep a flexible and accommodating schedule C. Development of trust between client and trainer D. Persistent expression of optimism to motivate the client

C. Development of trust between client and trainer Why? This is the best response, as developing trust is a critical component of rapport, which is the foundation of a successful client-trainer relationship. If a client cannot trust his or her personal trainer, that client will be likely to phase out of personal-training sessions or decide not to sign on for additional sessions. This can prevent the client from reaching his or her goals, and may leave the client with a negative outlook on personal training in general. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 43-46

After working with a local celebrity for nine months, he expresses to you how pleased he is with the results of his exercise program and the weight he has lost. Because of his celebrity status in your community, you would like to use his testimonial in your advertising. Prior to using his testimonial, what should you do first? A. Have a personal conversation with him and ask him if he approves B. Let him know that any business you receive due to his likeness will result in complimentary training sessions for him C. Discuss with him your ideas and, if he approves, request that he sign an agreement stating that he grants you permission D. Assure him that you will only make superficial, non-personal statements about him in the ad

C. Discuss with him your ideas and, if he approves, request that he sign an agreement stating that he grants you permission Why? In compliance with the ACE Code of Ethics, all ACE-certified Personal Trainers must maintain the confidentiality of all client information. This implies a confidential relationship between the fitness professional and the client in which there is an agreement by each party not to divulge personal or business information acquired through the relationship. If a client agrees to let a fitness professional use his or her name and likeness in promotional materials, there must be a written agreement that states both parties are aware of, and agree with, the promotion. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 685

You begin working with a new client who prefers to train outdoors. She wants to begin running, so you locate a local trail where you are legally able to train with her. What is the BEST precaution to take when venturing out on this new trail with her for the first time? A. Visit the trail and then have the client start with a 25-minute moderate-intensity run B. Require the client to complete a two-week treadmill program prior to transitioning to an outdoor environment. C. Encourage the client to walk the trail the first time to learn the terrain and begin building fitness for running D. Recommend that the client use the Internet to become familiar with the trail prior to the next session, as the run will be fairly strenuous.

C. Encourage the client to walk the trail the first time to learn the terrain and begin building fitness for running Why? This is the best response as the client is looking to begin a running program, so walking would provide an entry point that could be transitioned into a running program. Also, walking the course together on the first outing will allow you and the client to learn the trail. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 658

During a bend and lift screen (anterior view), you notice a client's knees moving inward. Based on this assessment, which muscles are MOST likely weak? A. Iliopsoas and erector spinae B. Hip adductors and pectineus C. Gluteus medius and maximus D. Rectus abdominis and hamstrings

C. Gluteus medius and maximus Why? This answer is correct given that the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus are primary abductors of the hip and as such they can prevent hip adduction. When the knees move inward during the bend and lift screen, it is generally because the hips are adducting, which moves the distal ends of the femur (knees) inward. Strengthening the hip abductors (gluteus medius and maximus) would make them better prepared to resist hip adduction during squatting motions. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 168-169

When performing initial cardiorespiratory fitness assessments with a client who is taking a beta blocker, which of the following medication-related effects SHOULD be expected? A. Decreased exercise heart rate and increased resting heart rate B. Increased exercise heart rate and increased resting heart rate C. Increased exercise heart rate and decreased resting heart rate D. Decreased exercise heart rate and decreased resting heart rate

D. Decreased exercise heart rate and decreased resting heart rate Why? Generally, beta-adrenergic blocking agents, or beta blockers, cause both a decreased exercise heart rate and a decreased resting heart rate. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 132-134

What type of contraction is performed by the latissimus dorsi during the downward (lowering) phase of the pull-up exercise? A. Isometric B. Isokinetic C. Concentric D. Eccentric

D. Eccentric Why? This response is correct as the latissimus dorsi contract eccentrically to control the body as it is lowered during the downward phase of a pull-up. This eccentric contraction controls the rate of motion, slowing the downward movement against the pull of gravity. ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 109 & 113-114

You are working with a client who tells you that she has her greatest success with commitments when there is a reward for her to earn upon program completion. As such, you work together to create a behavioral contract with built-in rewards to enhance her program adherence. Which of the following sentences represents the MOST effective goal statement for the client's contract? A. "I will eat less fat to create a negative caloric balance so I can lose weight and feel better." B. "I agree to lose weight so I can purchase a new dress in a smaller size." C. "I will lose 15 pounds in one month so I can schedule a tropical vacation." D. "I will lose 1 to 2 pounds per week for the next two months so I can buy a new outfit."

D. "I will lose 1 to 2 pounds per week for the next two months so I can buy a new outfit." Why? Behavioral contracting systematically arranges rewards for completing certain tasks so that the probability of the desired response is increased. The two primary parts of a behavioral contract involve specifying the behavior to be achieved and stating specific reinforcements that will reward the desired behavior. The terms should be explicitly stated so that the expectations are clearly understood. This response is the best option for the goal statement of a behavioral contract because it is specific, realistic, and defines a reward. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 58-60

Progressing to a three-zone cardiorespiratory training program with intensities performed below VT1, from VT1 to just below VT2, and at VT2 and above would be warranted for which of the following clients? A. 44-year-old male cyclist who rides 4 days per week and participates in occasional century (100-mile) riding events B. 37-year-old female rock climber who climbs 3-5 days per week and takes several vacations per year to climb advanced routes C. 29-year-old male volleyball player who practices 3 or more days per week and competes in weekend beach volleyball tournaments D. 53-year-old female runner who runs 4-6 days per week and wants to qualify for the Boston Marathon

D. 53-year-old female runner who runs 4-6 days per week and wants to qualify for the Boston Marathon Why? This response is correct, as the client has competitive goals that require a high level of cardiorespiratory training and performance. As such, this client would benefit from a three-zone training plan, as is featured in the anaerobic-endurance phase (phase 3) of the cardiorespiratory training component of the ACE IFT® Model. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 422 & 428-432

The "talk test" would be LEAST appropriate for which of the following clients? A. Regular participant in step, group strength, and indoor cycling classes B. Regular participant in boot camp and sports-conditioning classes C. Middle-aged, sedentary office worker D. A marathon runner trying to qualify for the Boston Marathon

D. A marathon runner trying to qualify for the Boston Marathon Why? This response is correct because this marathon runner has a performance goal that would be best met with a periodized program that has specific training time spent below VT1, from VT1 to below VT2, and VT2 and above; or Zones 1, 2, and 3 respectively. The Submaximal Talk Test could be administered to help this runner find his or her training heart rate (HR) at VT1, and the VT2 Threshold Test could be used to help this runner find his or her HR at VT2. Once these HRs are known, the personal trainer could build out a periodized training program to help the client increase running speed and stamina to build toward the Boston Marathon goal. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 224-226 & 428-434

Preston is a weightlifter who exercises multiple times per week at the facility where you work. You notice that in his regular standing position, he exhibits a posture in which his shoulders are rounded forward and the backs of his hands face forward when he is standing in a relaxed manner. What is the MOST likely cause of this postural deviation? A. Consistently performing a workout that emphasizes tightening of the scapular retractors without appropriate stretching of those muscles B. Overworking the deltoids and rectus abdominis muscles without incorporating dynamic range-of-motion exercises for those muscle groups C. An over-reliance on exercises performed for the posterior trunk muscles combined with neglecting stretches for the anterior trunk muscles D. An exercise program that focuses mainly on building the pectorals and latissimus dorsi without proper stretching of those muscles

D. An exercise program that focuses mainly on building the pectorals and latissimus dorsi without proper stretching of those muscles Why? This response is correct, as a standing posture with shoulders that are rounded forward and hands that face backward instead of toward each other is indicative of shortened pectorals and latissimus dorsi, as well as overstretched and potentially weakened scapular retractors and shoulder external rotators that passively allow the shoulders to fall forward into internal rotation. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 151 & 162

Which of the following would be WITHIN the scope of practice for personal trainers? A. Providing basic soft-tissue work to loosen a client's tight upper-back muscles prior to exercise B. Continuing the therapeutic exercise and treatment manipulations from a client's physical therapy into her post-orthopedic rehabilitation exercise sessions C. Telling a client that he is diagnosed as obese based upon the skinfold measurements you obtained from fat percentage assessments. D. Explaining foods and meal-preparation methods that a client can select at home and at restaurants to decrease saturated fat intake

D. Explaining foods and meal-preparation methods that a client can select at home and at restaurants to decrease saturated fat intake Why? It is within the scope of practice for personal trainers to provide education to clients regarding healthful dietary behaviors. The USDA developed the Dietary Guidelines for Americans to provide health professionals with resources they could use to help the public understand healthful eating and adopt more healthful eating habits. On the other hand, it is outside the scope of practice for personal trainers to tell clients exactly what to eat by designing diets or recommending supplements. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 9 & 17

When designing an INITIAL exercise program for a client who has postural instability and hip mobility issues, which exercise should be included because it improves core stability and hip mobility and stability? A. Prisoner rotations B. Cat-camel C. Forearm plank D. Glute bridge

D. Glute bridge Why? This response is correct as the glute bridge is an exercise in which the client first engages his or her core to stabilize the lumbar spine, and then activates the gluteal muscles to extend the hips and lift the torso until it is in line with the thighs, holding for one or two seconds at the end range of motion before lowering and repeating the movement. This exercise improves core stability through the engagement of core musculature to stabilize the spine, and it improves hip mobility and stability during the "bridging" movement caused by the gluteal muscles contracting to extend the hips and lift the torso. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 286

A client has achieved his initial goal of running a 10K (6.2 miles) in 50 minutes but would like to improve his time. His program consists of 30-50 minute runs, three to four times per week. What modification would be MOST effective in helping this client achieve his new goal? A. Incorporate a strength-training program to increase quadriceps strength B. Increase the duration of two runs per week to 60 minutes C. Substitute two days per week of cross-training with cycling D. Incorporate a running interval-training program

D. Incorporate a running interval-training program Why? This is the best response, as interval training is effective in increasing speed, lactate threshold, and overall aerobic power. This type of training should be reserved for clients in the higher cardiorespiratory fitness classifications and should be limited to a frequency of approximately two workouts per week. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 395

At your request, a client visits his physician regarding recurrent leg pain. The physician diagnoses him with sciatica and instructs him to complete physical therapy for his problem. Which muscle is MOST commonly involved with sciatica due to its location relative to the sciatic nerve? A. Pectineus B. Popliteus C. Pubococcygeus D. Piriformis

D. Piriformis Why? Tightness or spasm in the deep lateral rotators of the hip, particularly the piriformis, can lead to hip and leg pain, since the sciatic nerve often passes through or just inferior to the piriformis and can become irritated by a spasm in the piriformis. ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 45

Which of the following stages of the client-trainer relationship involves the building of mutual trust and emotional affinity that begins at the initial meeting? A. Action B. Planning C. Investigation D. Rapport

D. Rapport Why? The rapport stage is the foundation for the entire relationship between the personal trainer and client. Rapport means a relationship of mutual trust, harmony, or emotional affinity. Establishing it entails building a certain level of comfort or shared understanding into a relationship. The rapport stage begins with the first client-trainer interactions. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 43

As you are assessing a new client's static posture from the posterior view, you observe that the medial borders and inferior angle of his scapulae protrude away from the posterior surface of his back. This postural deviation is commonly referred to as "scapular winging." Which of the following muscles should be of PRIMARY focus in his resistance-training program, as it is most likely weak and contributing to this postural deviation? A. Pectoralis minor B. Levator scapulae C. Trapezius D. Serratus anterior

D. Serratus anterior Why? Weakness in the serratus anterior can result in an inability of these scapular muscles to hold the medial border of the scapula in place against the ribs. This is known as scapular "winging" and results in instability in the scapulothoracic joint that can lead to instability and injury in the shoulder girdle and/or shoulder joint. Personal trainers who see scapular winging should help the clients strengthen the serratus anterior, as well as the rhomboids, which are also often weak with scapular winging. In addition, trainers should help clients learn how to "pack" their scapulae by retracting and depressing the scapulae. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 160-162

Which of the following assessments would be MOST appropriate for gathering baseline data to help improve the cardiorespiratory exercise program design for a new client who currently runs recreationally for 20 to 35 minutes, three to four days per week? A. 1.5-mile run test B. VT2 Threshold Test C. Rockport fitness walking test D. Submaximal talk test for VT1

D. Submaximal talk test for VT1 Why? This is the correct response, as the objective of the test is to measure the HR response at VT1 for an individual client by progressively increasing exercise intensity and achieving steady state at each state, as well as to identify the HR where the ability to talk continuously becomes comprised in order to determine his/her unique metabolic marker. Since this client is a recreational runner, his/her cardiorespiratory training program should be focused on exercise intensities that are below and above VT1. Once this client's HR at VT1 is determined, it can be used to design workouts that incorporate steady state training below VT1, with intervals performed above VT1. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 221-226

A client who you have been working with two days a week for six months is looking for a change in his routine. His motivation is lacking during training sessions and he is starting to complain that the cost of his training sessions is too much. What is the BEST recommendation to help boost this client's motivation and adherence? A. Suggest that the client take a week off because he appears to be overtrained B. Suggest that the client is ready to train on his own C. Suggest that the client add a third training session per week to boost motivation D. Suggest that the client try your small-group training sessions

D. Suggest that the client try your small-group training sessions Why? Small-group training will provide variety for the client so that he is not bored, and it will save the client money because the trainer can decrease the cost per session per client. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 689-691

On her health screening form, Carrie indicates that she has been diagnosed with "tennis elbow." Which of the following anatomical structures is MOST affected by this condition? A. The medial epicondyle of the ulna B. The lateral epicondyle of the radius C. The medial epicondyle of the humerus D. The lateral epicondyle of the humerus

D. The lateral epicondyle of the humerus Why? "Tennis elbow" is a common name for lateral epicondylitis, or inflammation of the wrist extensor tendons at their origin on the lateral epicondyle of the humerus. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 581-582

Which of the following scenarios qualifies as a serious HIPAA Violation? A. The trainer keeps clients' files under lock and key behind the front desk. B. The trainer stores files behind the front desk for easy access. C. The trainer permits clients to keep their files and to bring them to each session D. The trainer stores clients' files in a personal office behind a locked door

D. The trainer stores files behind the front desk for easy access. Why? This is a serious HIPAA violation because the clients' files are not locked away, but are instead easily accessible by others in the gym facility. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), page 606

According to research conducted with elite endurance athletes, what percentage of training time should individuals training for peak performance in endurance events spend in zone 1 (HR < VT1), zone 2 (HR > VT1 to HR < VT2), and zone 3 (HR > VT2)? A. Zone 1 = up to 50%, zone 2 = up to 50%, zone 3 = less than 10% B. Zone 1 = 60%, zone 2 = 30%, zone 3 = 10% C. Zone 1 = 60-70%, zone 2 = 25%, zone 3 = 5-15% D. Zone 1 = 70-80%, zone 2 = less than 10%, zone 3 = 10-20%

D. Zone 1 = 70-80%, zone 2 = less than 10%, zone 3 = 10-20% Why? This response has the correct percentage of time in each training zone based on research that has looked at training load distribution among elite, Olympic, and world champion athletes in a variety of endurance sports. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 410-411