ACSM Missed Question Subjects

To maintain proper hydration during physical activity, how much of a carbohydrate solution should be consumed?

6-8% carb solution

How many different classes of nutrients are available for consumption to aid in human function?

6: carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins, minerals, and water.

Which of the following waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) measurements is considered high risk for a woman?

A. 0.75 B. 0.80 C. 0.82 D. 0.88 D. 0.88

Which of the following waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) measurements is considered high risk for a woman?

A. 0.75 B. 0.80 C. 0.82 D. 0.88 D. 0.88 A waist-to-hip ratio (WHR) greater than 0.86 for women and greater than 0.95 for men is considered a higher risk for a number of diseases in these populations. The waist-to-hip ratio is one of the most-used clinical applications of girth measurement and is utilized due to the correlation between chronic disease and fat stored in the midsection. WHR can be obtained by measuring an individual at their waist (the smallest circumference above the navel) and at their hip (the largest circumference around the buttocks) and then dividing the two measurements.

How often should children participate in resistance activity?

A. 1 day a week B. never C. at least 3 days a week D. at least 2 days a week C. At least 3 days a week. Traditional resistance training activities are generally safe and appropriate for children, provided the children receive proper instruction and supervision. By age 7 or 8, a child should be physically and mentally mature enough to initiate a resistance-training program. However, resistance exercise does not have to be a structured activity like lifting weights or using resistance bands. Unstructured resistance activity such as playing on playground equipment, climbing trees, or playing tug-of-war all suffice for this purpose.

For a beginner exerciser, how many sets are necessary to achieve the stimulus needed from exercise for progress?

A. 1 set B. 2 sets C. 3 sets D. 4 sets A 1 set. From a short-term performance standpoint, a single set per exercise may be enough for beginning exercisers to achieve the stimulus needed from exercise for progress. However, it is all dependent on the individual. This is why it is necessary for a personal trainer to take the time to accurately gauge a client's fitness level prior to beginning an exercise regimen.

What is the minimum required intake per day of carbohydrates?

A. 100-200g B. 25-50 C. 200-300 D. 50-100 D. 50-100g Carbohydrates are the preferred fuel for the body and are a quick energy source, providing 4 calories per gram. Carbohydrate recommendations range from 3 to 12 grams per kilogram of body weight, with the amount dependent on total daily expenditure, sex, activity, and environmental conditions. The minimum required intake of carbohydrates is 50 to 100 grams per day, which is needed to avoid ketosis.

What is the appropriate number of repetitions for a beginner adult client looking to improve muscular strength?

A. 2-4 reps B. 6-8 reps C. 8-12 reps D. 12-16 reps C. 8-12 reps For strength, 1-3 sets, 60-70% 1 RM, 8-12 reps, 2-3 min rest. Novice 2-3d/wk, intermediate 3-4d/wk.

For an asymptomatic middle-aged woman referred for stress testing, which of the following maximal heart rate equations should be used?

A. 206-(0.88xage) B. 216-(0.84xage) C. 208-(0.7xage) D. 220-age A. 206-(0.88xage) There are several equations that a personal trainer can use to predict a client's maximal heart rate; however, some equations have proven to be more appropriate than others, depending on the specific population. These may be superior to the "220 - age" equation, at least in some individuals, although they are not recommended for universal application. Therefore, when estimating maximal heart rate, a personal trainer should choose the equation that most represents the population their client is classified into. For an asymptomatic middle-aged woman referred for stress testing, the maximal heart rate equation that should be used is 206 - (0.88 x age). Equations for different groups: Fox: small group of men and women. HR max = 220-age. Astrand. Men and women ages 4-34 yr. 216.6 - (0.84xage). Tanaka. Healthy men and women. 208-(0.7x age). Gellish. Men and women participants in an adult fitness program with a broad range of age and fitness levels. 207-(0.7xage). [note: in the textbook, this one is listed right after the most common equation used in the field, 220-age. So if we need to memorize any of these, this equation is probably the one to remember.] Gulati. Asymptomatic middle-aged women referred for stress testing. 206-(0.88xage).

When a motor unit is triggered, what percentage of that motor unit is utilized when performing exercises with a load half of one's maximum?

A. 25% B. 50% C. 100% D. 75% C. 100%

For advanced individuals training for muscular power, how many sets per exercise should be completed?

A. 3-5 sets per exercise B. 1-3 C. 3-6 D. 2-4 C. 3-6 sets per exercise For advanced individuals training for muscular power, it is recommended that they perform 3-6 sets per exercise, with heavy loads. When completing primary exercises with a high intensity, there should be a rest period of 2-3 minutes between sets. This type of training can take place 4-5 days per week.

A decrease in exercise performance can occur with a loss of how much fluid?

A. 4% loss of body weight B. 3% loss C. 2% loss D. 1% loss C. 2% loss of body weight Research has shown that a 2% loss in body weight is associated with decreased performance. By staying optimally hydrated, an individual can experience multiple benefits such as a less pronounced increase in heart rate and core body temperature, improvement in cardiac stroke volume and cardiac output, and maintenance of better blood volume. People who experience significant weight loss during practice should learn how to drink more fluid to stabilize weight because a 2% body weight loss is associated with reduced performance.

How long does a typical microcycle last?

A. 4-6 weeks B. 2-3 C. 6-8 D. 1-4 D. 1-4 weeks Periodization is a concept applied in the design of workouts used in an exercise program. It refers to precise variation in acute program variables such as the prescribed volume and intensity during different phases of a resistance training program. The terms micro-, meso-, and macrocycle refer to the time course of the different phases of periodization. A microcycle is the smallest segment, which usually ranges from 1 to 4 weeks and is typically dedicated to one type of workout variable in that phase (i.e., high-volume, low-intensity power). A mesocycle is the completion of all the cycles in a 16-week program. A macrocycle is a calendar year.

The average normal resting heart rate (HR) is approximately:

A. 40-60 bpm B. 60-80 bpm C. 50-70 bpm D. 75-80 bpm B. 60-80 bpm Women typically have a 10bpm faster heart rate than men, and children have a higher heart rate than adults.

What is the oxygen consumption (VO2) of a client with a heart rate of 140 beats per minute, a stroke volume of 250 milliliters per heartbeat, and an arterial-venous oxygen difference of 12 milliliters of oxygen per 100 milliliters of blood?

A. 42,000 mL per min B. 42 C. 402 D. 4,200 D. 4,200 mL per min Oxygen consumption (VO2), is defined physiologically as the rate of oxygen transport and use that can be achieved. It is calculated by using the Fick equation, which is the product of heart rate (HR), stroke volume (SV) and arterial-venous oxygen difference. VO2 = HR x SV x a-vO2 difference VO2 = 140 beats/min x 250 mL/beat x 12 mL/100 mL VO2 = 4,200 mL/min

With a goal of weight gain, how much of a daily caloric increase should occur?

A. 500-700 kcal B. 400-800 C. 800-1000 D. 300-400 D. 300-400. The relationship between weight and energy intake is relatively simple. If a person gains more energy than is expended, the excess energy is stored, and body weight will increase. Clients wishing to increase muscle mass or gain weight should slightly increase their daily caloric intake by 300 to 400 kcal. For clients wishing to decrease body fat, they should make only subtle decreases of no more than 300-400 kcal while maintaining a vigorous conditioning schedule to maintain muscle mass.

Which of the following time frames is an example of a macrocycle?

A. 6-8 weeks B. 4 months C. A calendar year D. 1-4 weeks C. A calendar year

Which of the following ranges is recommended for daily carbohydrate consumption for a physically active adult?

A. 8-20 grams per kg of body weight B. 4-6 C. 10-16 D. 6-12 D. 6-12 g/kg of body weight. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are considered energy nutrients because they all provide carbon, or fuel, which can be burned for energy production. Energy nutrients allow us to do muscular work, transfer electrical energy between nerve cells, and help us maintain body temperature. The recommended energy distribution for physically active people is 6-12 grams of carbohydrates per kilogram of body weight (45-65%), 10%-35% of total calories coming from protein, and 20%-35% of total calories coming from fat. Recommended energy distribution for athletes and physically active adults: 6-10g (up to 12 g for extreme and prolonged activities) carbs /kg body weight (45-65% of total calories) 1.2-2.0g protein/kg (10-35% of total calories) 20%-35% of total calories from fat.

All of the following are potential risks for injury while using a weight machine except:

A. A weight plate slipping B. A cable breaking C. A pin not being properly inserted D. Too heavy of a dumbbell D: While a dumbbell being too heavy certainly has the potential for injury, a client would not be using a dumbbell on a weight machine. On a weight machine, the most likely causes of injury are a weight plate slipping, a cable breaking, and a client falling because a pin was not properly inserted or a cable broke. The 2nd leading reason for claims is injury resulting from use of equipment. PTs should always use safe, reliable, and appropriate equipment and use equipment for its intended purposes. PT should provide proper instructions and supervision. Policies and procedures for routine safety inspections, maintenance, and repair should be in place and observed systematically.

Which structure in the heart allows the ventricles to fill with blood before contraction occurs?

A. AV (atrioventricular) node B. Purkinjhe fibers C. Bundle of His D. SA (sinoatrial) node A. AV node The electrical impulse that causes the heart to contract originates in the sinoatrial (SA) node. This impulse causes the atria to contract, pushing blood into the ventricles. The atrioventricular (AV) node delays the impulse for about .12 seconds, giving the blood time to fill the ventricles before ventricular contraction occurs. The SA node is considered the intrinsic pacemaker because this is where most normal electrical impulses originate. The AV node is responsible for delaying the electrical impulses for approximately 0.12 s between the atria and ventricles. This allows the atria to contract and fill the ventricles with blood. After a brief pause, the electrical impulse moves rapidly to the apex of the heart through the Bundle of His, the right and left bundle branches, and through the Purkinje fibers in the myocardium of both ventricles. This rapid conduction allows the two ventricles to contract at approximately the same time.

Which of the following skinfold measurements involves taking a diagonal fold in order to obtain an accurate reading?

A. Abdominal B. Suprailiac C. Thigh D. Triceps B. Suprailiac (along with chest, suprascapular, and suprailiac).

Dan had two resting blood pressure readings, 122/88 mmHg and 130/95 mmHg, taken a minute apart. What should occur next during the assessment process?

A. Begin exercise B. Take another blood pressure reading on a different day C. refer to a physician D. Move on to body composition measurements B. Take another BP reading on a different day. HTN cannot be diagnosed from a single measurement; serial measurements must be obtained on separate days. The BP of client should be based on the avg of 2 or more resting bp recordings during each of two or more visits.

Of the following exercises, which should be performed first during a resistance-training session?

A. Biceps curl B. Leg extension C. Push-up D. Power clean D. Power clean. ACSM recommends that by exercising the larger muscle groups first, a superior training stimulus is presented to all of the muscles involved. Exercising the larger muscles first is thought to stimulate optimal neural, metabolic, endocrine, and circulatory responses. The more complex multi-joint technique-intensive exercises (e.g., power cleans, squats) should be performed initially, followed by less complex single-joint exercises (e.g., leg extension, biceps curl).

All of the following contribute to joint stability except:

A. Bony structure of the joint B. Ligaments C. Synovial fluid D. Fascia C. Synovial fluid Ligaments, muscles, tendons, fascia, and the bony structure of a joint are all important contributors to joint stability. Synovial fluid, on the other hand, is responsible for constant lubrication during movement to minimize the wearing effects of friction on the cartilaginous covering of the articulating bones.

Hyperkyphosis typically affects which of the following curves of the spine?

A. Cervical curve B. Thoracic curve C. Coccyx curve D. Lumbar curve B. Thoracic curve. Hyperkyphosis aka "hunchback". The thoracic spine is excessively curved.

All of the following foods are considered high on the glycemic index except:

A. Corn flakes B. Crackers C. Honey D. Plums D. Plums The glycemic index is a measure of how different consumed carbs affect the blood sugar level. Foods are compared with the ingestion of glucose, which has an index value of 100. Foods with a lower glycemic index help maintain blood sugar, avoid an excessive insulin response that can encourage the production of fat, and keep people feeling better longer. High glycemic index: glucose, sucrose, maple syrup, corn syrup, honey, bagel, candy... Medium: all-bran cereal, banana, grapes, oatmeal, orange juice, pasta... Low: Fructose, apple, applesauce, cherries, kidney beans, navy beans, chickpeas, lentils...plums, ice cream, milk, yogurt...

What should a personal trainer do if he or she develops a romantic relationship with a client?

A. Discuss it with their boss B. Be open and honest about it C. Discontinue and refer client to another personal trainer D. Make sure professional and discreet behavior is maintained C. Discontinue and refer client to another personal trainer Sexual harassment claims are an area of potential liability for personal trainers. The personal training relationship can be seen as an intimate one; therefore, it is necessary to remain professional and vigilant at all times. If a personal relationship develops with a client, the professional relationship should be discontinued and the client should be referred to another trainer.

All of the following strategies can help a client overcome poor body image except:

A. Discuss with client the health and psychological benefits of exercise B. Encourage client to recognize qualities they like about themselves C. Help client develop weight-loss-related goals and rewards D. Build client's self-worth C. Help client develop weight-loss-related goals and rewards. The best way for the PT to help clients become intrinsically motivated for exercise and set intrinsically motivated goals that will work is to use the SMART goal philosophy.

All of the following strategies can help a client overcome poor body image except:

A. Discuss with client the health and psychological benefits of exercise B. Encourage client to recognize qualities they like about themselves C. Help client develop weight-loss-related goals and rewards D. Build client's self-worth C. Help client develop weight-loss-related goals and rewards. The best way for the PT to help clients become intrinsically motivated for exercise and set intrinsically motivated goals that will work is to use the SMART goal philosophy. Specific Measurable w/Measurement Achievable Relevant Time-Oriented

What is the best way for a personal trainer to help clients become intrinsically motivated?

A. Discussing relapse strategies B. Developing only long-term goals C. Using SMART goals D. Using outcome goals C. Using SMART goals SMART stands for Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, and Time-oriented. A SMART goal includes detailing specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-sensitive measures to ensure success. A client who is intrinsically motivated to exercise is more likely to demonstrate improvements to their self-worth and continue to participate in exercise long-term. For example, a SMART goal would be to lose 10 pounds in 2 months by completing 3 days of cardiovascular training and 2 days of weight training per week.

Which of the following actions is the sternocleidomastoid responsible for?

A. Flexing the neck and head B. Extending the neck and head C. abducting the shoulder D. Adducting the shoulder A. flexing the neck and head The major anterior muscles of the of the cervical region include the sternocleidomastoid, scalene, longus capitis, and longus colli muscles. On bilateral contraction, the anterior scalene, longus capitis, longus colli, and sternocleidomastoid muscles flex the neck and head.

Which of the following plantar flexors is used more during postural and static contractions?

A. Gastrocnemius B. Tibialis anterior C. Soleus D. Peroneus tertius C. Soleus Plantarflexion is toes pointing down. Dorsiflexion is toes pointing up. The superficial posterior muscles of the ankle (gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris) are responsible for plantarflexion. The gastrocnemius has relatively more fast twitch fibers than the soleus. Thus the gastrocnemius is used more during dynamic, higher-force activities, and the soleus is more active during postural and static contractions.

During the power clean, how wide of a grip should be used?

A. Hands touching grip B. shoulder width grip C. wide grip D. two fists distance grip B. shoulder width grip For the power clean, an individual should set their hands to about shoulder-width distance; the snatch uses a wider grip width. Neither of the remaining options (hands touching and two fists distance) are recognized grip positions.

Which of the following is the primary movement during the second pull of a power clean?

A. Horizontal adduction B. Flexion C. Extension D. Abduction C. Extension The power clean exercise is characterized by triple extension during the second pull phase, where the joint angle of the ankles, knees, and hips increases. The primary goal of performing the Olympic lifts, such as the clean, is to increase muscle power, speed, and strength. Phases: Starting position: hip width feet. Wide grip for snatch, shoulder width for clean. First pull: bar pulled toward body and lifted off of ground. Mostly knee extension and plantarflexion with little change in trunk angle and COG shifts toward heels. Elbows remain extended, shoulders move in front of bar, and trunk angle may slightly increase by end of phase. Transition: Adjustment phase characterized by unweighting, knee flexion with an increase in trunk extension, bar reaches lower third of thigh for clean and middle of thigh for snatch. Postural realignment (vertical torso) occurs allowing a second pull to maximize force and power. Second pull: bar is pulled upward and slightly away from body to extension of hips, knees, and ankles. Elbows remain extended throughout. Catch: pull bar to max height. Arms pull body down under bar.

Which of the following is the primary movement during the second pull of a power clean?

A. Horizontal adduction B. Flexion C. Extension D. Abduction C. Extension The power clean exercise is characterized by triple extension during the second pull phase, where the joint angle of the ankles, knees, and hips increases. The primary goal of performing the Olympic lifts, such as the clean, is to increase muscle power, speed, and strength. Phases: Starting position: hip width feet. Wide grip for snatch, shoulder width for clean. First pull: bar pulled toward body and lifted off of ground. Mostly knee extension and plantarflexion with little change in trunk angle and COG shifts toward heels. Elbows remain extended, shoulders move in frotn of bar, and trunk angle may slightly increase by end of phase. Transition: Adjustment phase characterized by unweighting, knee flexion with an increase in trunk extension, bar reaches lower third of thigh for clean and middle of thigh for snatch. Postural realignment (vertical torso) occurs allowing a second pull to maximize force and power. Second pull: bar is pulled upward and slightly away from body to extension of hips, knees, and ankles. Elbows remain extended throughout. Catch: pull bar to max height. Arms pull body down under bar.

An incident report must include which of the following? I. Facts surrounding the incident II. Opinion about what caused the incident III. Names and contact information of witnesses IV. Signature of individual who experienced the incident

A. I, III, and IV only B. II, III, and IV only C. I and IV only D. II and III only A. I, III, and IV only These are the three aspects of an incident report that provide all of the pertinent information about the incident and allow for further contact of those involved if needed. Opinions about what caused the incident should not be included. Personal trainers should document any accident or incident immediately. Insurers will provide incident report forms, and the personal trainer should always carry extra forms to every training session. Relevant key terms: Negligence: a failure to conform one's conduct to a generally accepted standard or duty Release or waiver: an agreement by a client before beginning participation, to give up, relinquish, or waive the participant's rights to legal remedy (damages) in the event of injury, even when such injury arises as a result of provider negligence Risk management: a process whereby a service or program is delivered in a manner to fully conform to the most relevant standards of practice and that uses operational strategies to ensure day-to-day fulfillment, ensure optimum achievement of desired client outcomes, and minimize risk of harm to clients Tort law: body of law that regulates civil wrongdoing

All of the following are appropriate goals for a pregnant client except:

A. Increase cardiorespiratory fitness B. Reduce the risk of gestational diabetes C. Lower the incidence of low back pain D. Avoid excessive weight gain A. Increase cardiorespiratory fitness Pregnancy requires an additional intake of 300 kcal per day to fulfill the increased metabolic demands of pregnancy. Exercise modifications for pregnant people: Mode: walking/cycling. Avoid activities that increase the risk of falls (skiing and skating), abdominal trauma (basketball, softball), and rapid changes in movement that impact balance (tennis) Intensity: Don't use target heart rate to monitor intensity. RPE values of 12-13 (light to somewhat hard) on the 6-20 scale. Or the talk test; exercise at an intensity that permits conversation. Duration: Accumulate 30 min exercise in 20-30 min intermittent bouts and adjusted as needed to 150 min/wk of vigorous aerobic exercise. Frequency: moderate-intensity exercise 3-5 days/wk.

During a push-up, a client moves upward at one meter per second throughout the upward phase. Which of the following describes the type of muscle action displayed?

A. Isometric B. Isotonic C. Isokinetic D. Eccentric C. Isokinetic Isometric aka static contractions: muscle maintains constant length as resistance is applied and no change in joint position occurs Dynamic aka isotonic means movement occurs at the joint of action. Movement of muscle can be concentric or eccentric. Isokinetic entails a muscular contraction at a constant speed against accommodating resistance. The speed is controlled and the amount of resistance is proportional to the amount of force produced throughout the full ROM. Theoretical advantage is the potential for development of maximal muscle tension throughout the ROM.

Which of the following joints is affected by a Q angle?

A. Knee B. Hip C. Ankle D. Shoulder A. Knee: The Q angle describes the angle that is formed by the line connecting the ASIS to the center of the patella and the line connecting the center of the patella to the tibial tuberosity. This angle determines the pull of the patella at the patellofemoral joint.

Which of the following joints is affected by a Q angle?

A. Knee B. Hip C. Ankle D. Shoulder A. Knee: The Q angle describes the angle that is formed by the line connecting the ASIS to the center of the patella and the line connecting the center of the patella to the tibial tuberosity. This angle determines the pull of the patella at the patellofemoral joint. The anterior superior iliac spine (abbreviated: ASIS) is a bony projection of the iliac bone and an important landmark of surface anatomy. It refers to the anterior extremity of the iliac crest of the pelvis, which provides attachment for the inguinal ligament, and the sartorius muscle.

Which of the following activities requires approximately one MET?

A. Maximum intensity sprints B. Rest C. Moderate intensity weight lifting D. Light bike riding B. Rest

What is the first step in the screening process before beginning a new exercise regimen?

A. Medical clearance B. Risk determination C. Medical history D. Body composition measurements B. Risk determination: Before a client begins a new exercise program, there are steps a personal trainer should follow in order to ensure client safety and readiness. In order to reduce the likelihood of occurrence of any unwanted events during a workout, it is necessary to conduct some form of preparticipation physical activity screening. By determining a client's risk for exercising, the personal trainer can determine which areas of the health history to emphasize and begin to assess whether a medical clearance is required. The screening process occurs to ensure the safety of the client and to protect the liability of the personal trainer.

All of the following preparticipation physical activity screening forms are important for a personal trainer except:

A. Medical clearance B. risk management policy C. health history questionnaire D. PAR-Q+ B. risk management policy While a risk management policy that includes a written emergency plan is important for a personal trainer to have, it is not considered a preparticipation physical activity screening form. The important preparticipation physical activity screening forms include a medical clearance, PAR-Q+, and health history questionnaire.

Which of the following skinfold measurement sites uses a diagonal fold?

A. Midaxillary B. biceps C. Chest D. Thigh C. chest There are nine skinfold measurement sites, which include abdominal, triceps, biceps, chest, medial calf, midaxillary, subscapular, suprailiac, and thigh. Diagonal folds are used to measure the following sites: chest, subscapular, and suprailiac.

What is the universal term used to describe regions and spatial relationships of the body?

A. Proprioception B. biomechanics C. kinesiology D. anatomical position D. anatomical position Anatomical position is the universally accepted reference used to describe regions and spatial relationships of the body and to refer to body positions. In the anatomical position, the body is erect with feet together and upper limbs positioned at the sides, palms of the hands facing forward, and fingers fully extended.

At which place in the body is the concentration of oxygen in the blood the highest?

A. Pulmonary artery B. Pulmonary vein C. Superior vena cava D. Aorta B. Pulmonary vein.

All of the following are methods of ensuring client safety except:

A. Referring a client to a physician if the client reports continuous pain B. Maintaining a current CPR certification C. Programming a specific exercise to treat pain D. Treating a client who was cut on a piece of equipment C. Programming a specific exercise to treat pain. As a personal trainer, it is important to know what falls within your scope of practice. Ensuring client safety is essential to a personal trainer. Steps such as maintaining a current CPR/AED certification and having a referral network in place aids in maintaining a safe environment for your clients. Implementing emergency preparedness policies such as basic first aid administration and maintaining equipment necessary for the administration of first aid are imperative as well. Programming a specific exercise to treat pain is something that falls under the scope of practice of a medical professional.

The wood chop, butt kicks, and pendulum leg swings are all classified as which type of warm-up activity?

A. Static B. ballistic C. PNF D. Dynamic D. dynamic stretches Dynamic stretches involve stretching that incorporates movement, along with muscle tension development. The goal is to move the specific joint in a controlled manner within a normal range of motion in order to reduce the risk of injury. Pendulum leg swings, butt kicks, and the wood chop are all examples of exercises that can be used in a dynamic range-of-motion warm-up.

When an individual performs the Astrand-Ryhming Test to measure cardiorespiratory fitness, which method of exercise is utilized?

A. Stepping B. Walking C. Jogging D. Cycling D. Cycling. The Astrand-Ryhming Test is completed on a cycle ergometer and is typically a single-stage test that lasts for 6 minutes. It is a submaximal test meant to predict VO2 max for an individual. Throughout the course of the test, an individual's heart rate and blood pressure are monitored and recorded by the personal trainer, all while maintaining a cadence of 50 rpm.

All of the following are indicators that the client-centered approach is being used except:

A. The client appears to be having realizations and making connections not previously considered B. the personal trainer is speaking slowly C. the personal trainer is talking about behavior change D. the client is talking more than the personal trainer C. the personal trainer is talking about behavior change Client-centered approach involves: rapport building, exhibiting empathy, active listening. (these are motivational interviewing skills that keep the client's perspective at the forefront). This means not giving unsolicited advice because it can hinder behavior change - it can be perceived as condescending and undermines the client's intelligence and sense of independence.

Which of the following foods has the highest percentage of calories from fat per tablespoon?

A. Thousand Island salad dressing B. Blue cheese salad dressing C. Corn oil D. Sour cream C. Corn oil. Many people misconceive that higher fat intake can improve athletic performance. The generally accepted healthy range of fat intake for physically active people is between 20% and 35% of total daily calories. Some choices are healthier than others and have a lower percentage of calories from fat. Per one tablespoon, corn oil is 100% fat, blue cheese salad dressing is 90% fat, and sour cream and Thousand Island salad dressing are both 87% fat. Essential fatty acid: linoleic acid and alpha-linoleic acid. Found in corn, sunflower, peanut, and soy oils. Carrier of vitamins: A, D, E and K. Calorie-dense nutrient: provides more than twice the calories of carbs and protein (9 vs 4 kcal/g). Note: alcohol is 7 kcal/g. Cholesterol-fat relationship: high fat intakes are the main culprit for increasing circulating blood cholesterol levels Food sources: oil, butter, margarine, fatty meats, fried foods, prepared meats, and whole milk dairy products.

Failing to provide safe premises as a personal trainer is an example of breaking which area of law?

A. Tort law B. Litigation C. Negligence law D. Criminal law A. Tort law Any business owner The area of tort law that regulates these issues is termed "premises liability."

Failing to provide safe premises as a personal trainer is an example of breaking which area of law?

A. Tort law B. Litigation C. Negligence law D. Criminal law A. Tort law Any business owner who allows people to enter upon land or into a building is required to provide a reasonably safe environment under theories of tort law. The area of tort law that regulates these issues is termed "premises liability."

When performing the push-up test, how far does the individual have to lower himself to the ground for the down position?

A. Until his chin touches the ground B. until his nose touches the ground C. until his chest touches the ground D. until his stomach touches the ground A. until his chin touches the ground. Muscular endurance is the ability to produce force repeatedly over time. A common assessment for muscular endurance is the push-up test. While the push-up test is joint- and muscle-group-specific, it can give an indication of whole-body muscular endurance. When performing a push-up, the individual must raise the body by straightening the elbows and then return to the down position, until the chin touches the mat. The stomach should not touch the mat.

Which of the following should a personal trainer use as a baseline for determining the load a client lifts?

A. VO2 max B. RPE scale C. 1RM D. RM target range D. RM target range One method of determining resistance for an exercise involves using a percentage of 1 RM (repetition max). However, finding an individual's 1 RM for a specific lift requires vigorous testing and may not be appropriate for all skill levels. Not only can it take a while, but a novice exerciser may not be comfortable with the demands of a 1 RM test. Using an RM target range, the personal trainer has the ability to alter the resistance in response to changes in the number of repetitions that can be performed.

All of the following are training guidelines unique to the design of a flexibility program except:

A. Warm-up B. Breathing C. Posture D. Duration D. Duration There are three preliminary training guidelines unique to the design of flexibility programs. These involve warm-up, breathing, and posture. By considering and implementing these guidelines into a client's program, the personal trainer is ensuring that safe and effective stretching is taking place.

From a litigation standpoint, why are the obligations and duties of a fitness facility heightened?

A. a fitness facility is a customer service business B. a fitness facility is a business/invitee relationship C. a fitness facility is a paid service D. a fitness facility is a healthcare business B. A fitness facility is a business/invitee relationship The operation of a personal training facility constitutes a business/invitee relationship. The client, or invitee, has been "invited" onto the premises for the financial gain of the business. The relationship heightens the obligation of the business to the invitee. In addition to providing reasonably safe premises, the business that invites persons onto the premises of the business must also exercise reasonable care to maintain the premises in a safe condition and to regularly inspect the premises for the presence of dangerous conditions. When exercising reasonable care, it is important that the personal trainer not only perform the regular inspections but also establish a policy or guidelines for the inspection and a method of record keeping for evidence of these inspections.

Which of the following best describes ballistic resistance training?

A. a plyometric modality aimed at increasing muscle power and strength B. a plyometric modality aimed at increasing explosiveness and power development C. a plyometric modality aimed at increasing stride length and frequency D. a plyometric modality aimed at increasing change in distance over time A. a plyometric modality aimed at increasing muscle power and strength Ballistic resistance training is a plyometric modality aimed at increasing muscle power and strength. Traditional exercises are completed using a full range of motion where noticeable deceleration of the load occurs prior to a concentric phase. Examples of ballistic resistance training include jump squats, bench press throws, and shoulder press throws.

The goal of plyometric jumps is best described as:

A. accentuating the ECC component B. maximizing vertical or horizontal motion C. exaggerated bounds with excessive stride length D. maximizing the repeated motion for a specific distance or pattern B. maximizing vertical or horizontal motion Plyometric exercises consist of jumps-in-place, standing jumps, multiple hops/jumps bounding, box drills, depth jumps, and throws, preferably on grass or a similar surface. Jumps involve maximizing vertical or horizontal motion. Hops involve maximizing the repeated motion for a specific distance or pattern. Bounds are exaggerated drills with excessive stride length. Box drills involve jumping on or off boxes of different sizes. Depth jumps involve accentuating the ECC component by stepping off an elevated surface prior to performing an explosive jump. Tosses and passes involve the upper torso and arms releasing the ball below or in front of the head. Throws involve the upper torso and arms releasing the ball or object above, over, or across the head.

Which of the following individuals would benefit most from using the RPE scale rather than HR?

A. an individual who is new to exercise B. an individual taking beta-blockers C. an individual who has anxiety D. an individual who doesn't have much time B. an individual taking beta-blockers It is one of many tasks of the personal trainer to design an individualized cardiorespiratory and/or aerobic interval program for each client. During the performance of these programs, the personal trainer should monitor a client's heart rate (HR) and rating of perceived exertion (RPE) throughout the various stages of the entire workout. RPE must be used for any client taking medication that affects HR, such as beta-blockers, during exercise. RPE should also be used for pregnant clients, since HR is more variable during pregnancy.

All of the following are causes of plantar fasciitis except:

A. ankle sprains B. hyperpronation C. obesity D. tight Achilles tendon A. ankle sprains Plantar fasciitis is a chronic inflammatory condition that typically results in pain at the calcaneal insertion of the plantar fascia. Plantar fasciitis is usually caused by chronic pulling on the plantar fascia, a tight Achilles tendon, hyperpronation, or other factors that overload the fascia, such as obesity. Treatment includes stretching and strengthening exercises for the posterior calf muscles, orthoses to correct hyperpronation, and physiotherapy modalities and medication to reduce inflammation. Sometimes, surgery is required to release the plantar fascia. Plantar fasciitis is often associated with calcaneal heel spurs.

The 5 A's model of behavior change counseling includes all of the following except:

A. assessing B. asking C. advising D. agreeing B. asking The 5 A's model of behavior change counseling can be used to address a variety of poor health behaviors. The 5 A's include assessing, advising, agreeing, assisting, and arranging. This model is intended for the personal trainer to strengthen clients' self-management skills until they achieve change and are able to independently sustain their desired behavior change. 1. Assessing: measuring the client's beliefs, behaviors, and motivations 2. Advising: advise the client based on health risks and behaviors. Together agree on a set of short-term and long-term realistic goals. 3. Assist: assist the client with anticipating barriers and developing a specific plan to help the client avoid or at least effectively respond to barriers. It may involve understanding their ability, comfort level, and access to available resources. It may simply involve referring the client to another professional or resource. 5. Arranging: arrange subsequent sessions with the client as a method of support. This could involve arranging an appointment with the personal trainer or a different provider like a health and fitness professional.

Which of the following methods of measuring body composition is likely to be the most inaccurate?

A. bioelectrical impedance measurements B. skinfold measurements C. height and weight measurements D. waist-to-hip measurements B. skinfold measurements Skinfold determination of the percentage of body fat can be quite accurate if the technician is properly trained in the use of skinfold calipers and the caliper is of high quality. If the technician is not properly trained or does not adhere to the standardized instructions for skinfold measurement, significant error can be introduced into the assessment.

All of the following are signs of hypoglycemia except:

A. blurred vision B. fast heart rate C. dizziness D. sweating A. blurred vision Exercise has an insulin-like effect on circulating blood glucose, even in the absence of blood insulin. Therefore, for individuals with diabetes, a common but potentially serious complication during or after exercise is hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels). A personal trainer should have their client check blood glucose levels before exercise in order to help prevent hypoglycemia. Signs of hypoglycemia include dizziness, sweating, fast heart rate, confusion, shaking, weakness, and fatigue. Signs of hyperglycemia: dry skin, hunger, nausea/vomiting, blurred vision, frequent urination, extreme thirst, drowsiness, acetone breath Signs of hypoglycemia: dizziness and headache, weakness and fatigue, shaking, tachycardia, irritable, confusion, sweating, slurred speech, anxious, hunger

Which two factors determine the frequency and number of sessions a personal trainer should recommend during the initial client consultation?

A. client's needs and goals B. client's needs and income C. client's schedule and goals D. client's schedule and motivation A. client's needs and goals The experience level of a client and the timeline of their goals will determine how often they require a personal trainer's expertise. Recommending the correct number of sessions is essential to ensuring client success and to providing appropriate customer service. The appointment frequency and number of sessions purchased should be determined by the client's needs and goals.

All of the following are considered environmental barriers to exercise except:

A. cost of facility B. bad weather C. gender role expectations D. lack of shower facilities C. gender role expectations Barriers can be personal, social, or environmental and include obstacles such as a lack of time, motivation, confidence, or social support; family and social expectations; temptations and high-risk situations; inability to prioritize one's own needs over the needs of others. Personal barrier examples: lack of time, motivation, knowledge, injury, and extrinsic motivation for exercise. Help clients by building their self-efficacy and self-worth through intrinsic goal setting and accomplishment... Social barrier examples: caregiving (childcare), lack of social support, sociocultural barriers such as cultural values regarding gender roles and accepted behaviors. Environmental barrier examples: lack of access to exercise facilities, bad weather, safety concerns

With a beginner client, which variable of cardiovascular training is the first to be progressed?

A. exercise VO2 B. target heart rate C. number of sessions per week D. duration D. duration Progression as a component of the exercise prescription ensures that the overload is not applied in a manner that exceeds the cardiorespiratory system's ability to adapt. Any or all of the FITT components need to be increased to continually overload and challenge the cardiorespiratory system. Intensity and duration of the exercise bout are usually increased first, with duration increases ranging from 5 to 10 minutes for a couple of weeks before intensity is increased.

Which of the following movements occurs in the transverse plane?

A. flexion B. horizontal abduction C. extension D. abduction B. horizontal abduction The transverse plane separates the body into superior and inferior portions. Movement in this plane will occur around a vertical axis and is rotational. Examples of transverse plane movements include horizontal abduction and adduction as well as internal and external rotation. Flexion and extension occur in the sagittal plane, whereas abduction and adduction occur in the frontal plane. The planes are: Sagittal: right and left Frontal aka coronal: anterior and posterior Transverse aka cross-sectional aka axial aka horizontal: superior and inferior

All of the following are recommendations for improving flexibility with a client who has arthritis except:

A. gently moving through their full ROM during periods of inflammation B. reduction of intensity and duration during inflammation C. stretching during the time of day when pain is typically least severe D. stretching after anti-inflammatory medications have been taken D. stretching after anti-inflammatory medications have been taken Overworking, or overstretching, should be avoided with individuals who have taken anti-inflammatory medications, as these drugs can temporarily lessen musculoskeletal pain and make it possible for a client to push too far. Even though strenuous exercises should be avoided during acute flare-ups and periods of inflammation, it is appropriate as a personal trainer to gently move the client through his full ROM during said periods. Flexibility training should also follow the guidelines of reducing intensity and duration during inflammation periods as well as stretching during the time of day when pain is typically least severe.

All of the following positions should be avoided by an individual with a hip replacement except:

A. hip adduction B. hip internal rotation C. hip flexion D. hip extension D. hip extension Individuals who have recently had a hip fracture or hip replacement are instructed to avoid flexibility exercises that involve excessive internal rotation of the hip (turning the foot inward), hip adduction (crossing the legs beyond the midline), and hip flexion (having the thigh higher than parallel to the floor). For individuals who have recently had a hip fracture or hip replacement, it is recommended to avoid flexibility exercises that involve excessive: internal rotation of the hip (turning the foot inward) hip adduction (crossing the legs beyond the midline) hip flexion (thigh more than parallel to the floor)

Which of the following movements is not allowed by the glenohumeral joint?

A. horizontal adduction B. flexion C. elevation D. abduction C. elevation The glenohumeral joint is one of two synovial ball and socket joints that allow for movement in every plane of motion. The other ball and socket joint found in the body is the hip. While movement in every plane occurs at this joint, elevation does not. Instead, elevation occurs in the shoulder girdle.

All of the following are purposes of preparticipation screening except:

A. identification of clients with medical contraindications to exercise B. Identification of a client's health/medical concerns C. Identification of physical abilities of a client D. Identification of clients who should receive a medical exam and clearance prior to exercise C. Identification of physical abilities of a client The overall purpose of screening is to optimize client safety during exercise participation. The personal trainer is looking for risk factors and/or symptoms of cardiovascular, metabolic, and/or renal (CMR) diseases as well as conditions that may be aggravated by exercise. The trainer is also looking to identify any other health and medical concerns a client might have.

When instructing proper use of the stair stepper, a personal trainer should closely observe all of the following areas except the:

A. knee B. scapulothoracic joint C. neck D. glenohumeral joint A. knee The personal trainer should always instruct clients about proper posture and body alignment during cardiorespiratory training. Having a client perform these exercises in a proper biomechanical position is just as important with cardiorespiratory exercise as with resistance training exercises. For example, with stair steppers, an upright posture should be maintained rather than allowing forward head protrusion, rounded shoulders, or poor alignment. The neck, glenohumeral joint, and scapulothoracic joint are areas where these postural deviations often take place. Typical concerns with treadmill exercise include leaning forward, uneven or unnatural gait, and excessive gripping on the handrails. Proper upright posture, body alignment, and normal gait with the use of handrails only for balance should be encouraged. Similarly, with stair steppers or other cross-training machines, upright posture should be maintained rather than allowing forward head protrusion, rounded shoulders, or poor alignment. The biggest challenge with cycle ergometry is determination of appropriate seat height. Seat height should be adjusted to allow for 5-10degrees of knee flexion at the bottom of the pedal stroke.

Which of the following mechanical laws of motion provides the equation to calculate the size of the magnitude of a force?

A. law of reaction B. law of inertia C. law of acceleration D. law of action C. law of acceleration There are three laws of motion that help explain linear as well as angular movement: The law of inertia (Newton's first law of motion) The law of acceleration (Newton's second law of motion) The law of reaction (Newton's third law of motion) The law of acceleration (second law) provides the mathematical equation to calculate the size of the magnitude of a force, which states that a force is proportional to the product of an object's mass multiplied by its acceleration (F = ma). Force is measured in Newtons. The law of Inertia (first law) explains the physical nature of a force. Inertia is defined as a resistance an object has, to change its state of motion (velocity). To overcome an object's inertia, a force must be applied. An object's linear (straight line) inertia is proportional to its mass. The law of reaction (third law) explains that a force cannot act alone on an object. Any force acting on an object is always accompanied by another (reaction) froce. This reaction force is equal in magnitude (size) and opposite in direction to the force. The division of the muscular contraction force reveals an important feature of the force - a vector quantity. A vector quantity is one that requires both a magnitude and direction to define. (this is in contrast to scalar quantities, which are completely determined by their magnitude, like the number of students in a class, the speed of a car, the volume of water in a jar).

Which of the following risk management strategies is considered the first line of defense?

A. maintaining proper facility standards B. written policies and procedures C. informed consent D. carrying professional liability insurance B. written policies and procedures Personal trainers should control risk exposure by using a multilayered approach that incorporates a number of important strategies. As the first line of defense, personal trainers should create written policies, procedures, and forms that meet industry standards and guidelines, along with keeping detailed written records that document compliance with these policies. This strategy minimizes the likelihood that the personal trainer would fail to demonstrate that they exercised reasonable care under the circumstances. In other words, the personal trainer should make every effort not to be negligent. The second strategy involves using a release, waiver, or informed consent, depending on which legal document is recognized under the laws of the place where the personal trainer conducts business. The purpose of these documents is either a) to demonstrate that the trainer fully informed the client of all of the potential risks of physical activity and the client decided to undertake the activity and waive the trainer's responsibility or b) to demonstrate that the client knowingly waived their right to file a claim against the trainer even if the trainer is negligent. The third strategy is to carry professional liability insurance. This transfers the risk to the insurer. Even if the trainer is negligent, the insurance company assumes responsibility for resolving any claims.

Mechanical work is defined as:

A. mass multiplied by acceleration B. mass divided by acceleration C. force divided by distance D. force multiplied by linear displacement C. force divided by distance Work in everyday usage usually refers to some metabolic measure of the volume of activity a person has completed, i.e., the total caloric expenditure. However, mechanical work is defined as the product of the magnitude of a force that creates a change in position, and the linear displacement (straight-line distance) defines the change in position. Mechanical work (W) = Fxd A wagon is pulled with a force of 100 lb to produce a linear change in position (displacement) of 20 ft, the resulting mechanical work would be: W = F x d W = 100 lb x 20ft W = 2000 ftxlb

Mechanical work is defined as:

A. mass multiplied by acceleration B. mass divided by acceleration C. force divided by distance D. force multiplied by linear displacement D. force multiplied by linear displacement Work in everyday usage usually refers to some metabolic measure of the volume of activity a person has completed, i.e., the total caloric expenditure. However, mechanical work is defined as the product of the magnitude of a force that creates a change in position, and the linear displacement (straight-line distance) defines the change in position. Mechanical work (W) = Fxd A wagon is pulled with a force of 100 lb to produce a linear change in position (displacement) of 20 ft, the resulting mechanical work would be: W = F x d W = 100 lb x 20ft W = 2000 ftxlb

Which of the following periodization programs has been shown to elicit a greater percentage of strength gains?

A. nonlinear periodization B. linear periodization C. Reverse linear periodization D. undulating periodization A. Nonlinear periodization. Linear periodization: a progressive increase in the intensity with small variations in each 1- to 4-week microcycle. Ex: Each microcycle being 4 weeks, to total 16 weeks. Microcycle 1: 3-5 sets of 12-15 RM Microcycle 2: 4-5 sets of 8-10 RM Microcycle 3: 3-4 sets of 4-6 RM Microcycle 4: 3-5 sets of 1-3 RM Microcycle 5 (2 weeks): active rest/recovery A mesocycle is the completion of all the cycles (16 weeks). A macrocycle is 1 year, or several macrocycles. The theoretical basis for a linear periodization consists of developing the body with sequential loading from light to heavy and from high volume to low volume. Reverse linear programs: Goes from heavy to light load and low to high volume. Nonlinear periodization aka daily undulating periodization or DUP: maintain variation in the training stimulus. Ex: 1 set 12-15 RM on Mon, 3 sets of 8-10 RM on Wed, 4 sets of 4-6 RM (Friday), Power day 6 sets of 3 at 30-45% of 1-RM using power exercises or plyometrics on Mon. This nonlinear periodization has been shown to have a greater percentage of strength gains as compared with linear training.

Where is the abdominal skinfold measurement taken?

A. on the midaxillary line at the level of the xiphoid process B. in line with the natural angle of the inguinal crease C. immediately superior to the iliac crest D. 2 cm to the right side of the umbilicus D. 2 cm to the right side of the umbilicus There are nine skinfold measurement sites: abdominal, triceps, biceps, chest, medial calf, midaxillary, subscapular, suprailiac, and thigh. For measuring the abdominal skinfold, the personal trainer should use a vertical fold, located 2 cm to the right of the umbilicus.

What is the easiest method of determining hydration levels?

A. pH strips B. weight stability C. urine frequency D. level of thirst B. weight stability A key to athletic success is avoidance of a state of underhydration. This is not as easy as it may seem because many people rely on thirst as the alarm bell for when to drink. Thirst, however, is a delayed sensation that does not occur until the person has already lost 1-2 L of fluid. Weight stability, before and after exercise, is a good indication that water needs have been met during an exercise program.

Which of the following types of stretching involves assistance from the personal trainer?

A. passive B. dynamic C. ballistic D. static A. passive There are several methods for improving flexibility and increasing joint ROM, and nearly all of them involve some form of stretching. Stretches can be performed by the clients (active stretching) themselves or with the help of the personal trainer (passive stretching). Although passive stretching can be very helpful for improving flexibility, it should only be performed by a personal trainer with adequate knowledge and experience, to prevent injury to the client.

Which stage of the Transtheoretical Model is characterized by a change being planned to begin within the next 30 days?

A. preparation B. contemplation C. pre-contemplation D. action A. preparation The Transtheoretical Model (TTM) is an integrative model used to assess and determine a client's degree of readiness to change. There are five stages: pre-contemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance. Preparation is the stage where a client is getting closer to putting the change into action. The individual has decided that it is worth making this change and will do so in the immediate future (next 30 days). The TTM states that individuals' behaviors are based on their readiness or stage of change. 1. pre-contemplation: client not intending to take action toward change and is not considering the benefits of change at this time 2. contemplation: considering the negative consequences of their bheavior and considering the changes within the next 6 months 3. preparation: developed a plan of action toward behavior change and will be making changes in the immediate future (next 30 days) 4. action: actively making bheavior changes (regularly active for less than 6 mo) 5. maintenance: actively maintaining the changes made during the action stage, the new beahviors have been established for 6 mo or more, and the client is now working to prevent relapse

All of the following muscles comprise the posterior musculature of the spine except:

A. quadratus lumborum B. multifidus muscles C. intrinsic rotators D. erector spinae A. quadratus lumborum The posterior musculature of the lumbar spine consists of three muscle groups: the erector spinae, multifidus muscles, and intrinsic rotators. The lateral muscles of the lumbar spine include the quadratus lumborum and psoas major and minor. The latissimus dorsi, which is usually considered a muscle that acts ont he shoulder, extends and stabilizes the lumbar spine through its attachment to the thoracolumbar fascia. The erector spinae group, which lies lateral and superficial to the multifidus, is divided into the iliocostalis lumborum and longissimus thoracis muscles. These muscles are separated from each other by the lumbar intramuscular aponeurosis, with the longissimus lying medially. The longissimus and iliocostalis are composed of several multisegmental fascicles, which allow for extension and posterior translation when the muscles are contracted bilaterally. The intrinsic rotators are primarily length transducers and position sensors for the vertebral segment. The anterior muscles of the lumbar region consist of the abdominal group: the rectus abdominis, internal and external abdominal oblique, and transversus abdominis.

All of the following are target areas for an adolescent exercise program except:

A. resistance training B. aerobic training C. bone-loading training D. plyometric training D. plyometric training It is recommended that children achieve at least 60 minutes per day of physical activity, daily. When designing an exercise program for children and adolescents, the ACSM recommends three target areas: aerobic activity, resistance activity, and bone-loading activities. Resistance-training principles detailed earlier for adults can also be applied to children. For younger children, unstructured muscle strengthening activities (playing on playground equipment) can also be included within the 60 min per day of physical activity.

Which of the following positions is considered the most basic for a hip rotator stretch?

A. seated on the floor B. lying prone C. lying supine D. seated in a chair D. seated in a chair There are many ways an individual can improve their flexibility and increase joint range of motion (ROM), and nearly all of them use some form of stretching. There are three types of stretching that are performed using active or passive techniques to improve flexibility: static, dynamic, and proprioceptive neural facilitation (PNF). The most basic position for a hip rotator stretch is seated in a sturdy, non-movable chair. Cross the right ankle over onto the bent left knee. Gently press down on the right knee until tension develops in the outer portion of the right thigh. Examples of rotational stretches: Supine rotational stretch: lie face up. Bend knees so that feet are flat on the floor. Extend arms across the floor to stabilize upper body with movement. Slowly move both legs with the knees bent to the left side. Repeat on right side. Maintain upper back against the floor and the abs oriented toward the ceiling. Seated hip rotator stretch level I: sit upright on a chair. Cross right ankle onto bent left knee. Gently press down on right knee until tension develops in the outer portion of the right thigh. Repeat. Seated hip rotator stretch level II: sit upright on the floor, with left leg extended and right knee bent. Place the right foot over left leg. Hug the knee toward the chest. Repeat. Supine hip rotator stretch (progression from seated). Lie face up on floor with knees bent so feet are flat on the floor. Cross right ankle onto bent left knee. Lift left foot off the floor. Wrap hands around the left leg and draw into the body. Focus on opening up the right knee until tension develops in the outer portion of the right thigh. Repeat.

During the downward phase of which machine-based exercise is a slight backward lean maintained?

A. seated row B. chin-up C. machine chest press D. lat pull-down D. lat pull-down For the lat pull-down exercise, a locked grip should be used, with thumb around the bar and hands grasping the cable bar with a wide grip. The thighs should be under the machine for support while pulling the bar to the upper chest and maintaining a slight backward lean. Then, during the upward movement phase, the individual should allow the elbows to slowly return to the starting position. For the machine seated row, you lean your chest against the pad (ie no leaning back).

Observing nonverbal cues is an element of:

A. self-regulation B. active listening C. goal setting D. developing rapport B. active listening Active listening is a communication form that utilizes both verbal and nonverbal skills that are necessary for communication in successful family, business, and therapeutic relationships. Active listening can consist of nodding the head, making eye contact, and restating important information. Specifically, the four elements of active listening include listening to spoken statements, observing nonverbal cues, understanding contextual anxiety, and identifying statements that indicate teaching and learning opportunities.

Aside from slip-and-fall claims, what is the next most common claim made against trainers and fitness facilities?

A. sexual harrassment B. injuries from using equipment C. negligence D. insufficient results B. Injuries from using equipment. ACSM reports that the second leading claim against trainers is when a person gets injured using exercise equipment. Before having a client use a piece of equipment, a personal trainer should make sure it is safe for the client. A trainer who neglects to take reasonable precautions, which are determined on the basis of an evaluation of facts surrounding an incident, could be considered negligent and therefore liable or responsible.

Which of the following is considered a dynamic balance exercise?

A. side shuffling B. holding a squat on a BOSU C. pretending to walk a tightrope D. standing on one leg while completing a biceps curl C. pretending to walk a tightrope Balance exercises may be either static or dynamic. A dynamic balance exercise involves transferring body weight from one foot to the other. For example, pretending to walk a tightrope or a line on the floor, with one foot directly in front of the other, can be challenging for some clients. Specifically for older adults, personal trainers should make an effort to include both types of balance exercises at least twice a week in an exercise program. Fall incidence rates ucrrently pose a serious health problem for older adults. In persons 65 and older, it has been estimated that 35-45% of otherwise healthy, community-dwelling adults fall at least once a year. Both static and dynamic balance activities should be employed at least twice a week. Examples: Progression of sitting balance exercises: Seated and lifting one leg while closing eyes > while arms crossed > while sitting on physioball. Progression of standing balance exercise with arms crossed and one leg up > with arms crossed on a bosu ball and both feet on ball > with arms extended and one foot on bosu ball. Progression of in-motion balance exercise: walking on an imaginary tightrope with arms extended out, heel to toe > excursion or lunge type movement with arms out to the side > multitasking like standing on one foot while throwing a ball back and forth to trainer

Which of the following quadriceps stretches is considered the most basic?

A. standing quad stretch B. prone quad stretch C. sitting quad stretch D. side-lying quad stretch B. prone quad stretch There are many ways an individual can improve their flexibility and increase joint range of motion (ROM), and nearly all of them use some form of stretching. There are three types of stretching that are performed using active or passive techniques to improve flexibility: static, dynamic, and proprioceptive neural facilitation (PNF). The most basic quadriceps stretch is to lie prone on the floor with legs extended, then draw one heel back toward the gluteals. This stretch can then be progressed into a side-lying or standing position. Side-lying: lie on floor with left side of the body. The trunk should be perpendicular to the floor. Bend the right knee, keeping knees and hips stacked. Reach with the right hand across the front of the right foot. Gently pull thigh back slightly using the right arm. Allow the left arm to stabilize the torso. Repeat. Standing: while in a standing position, bend the right knee toward the gluteals. Grasp the right ankle with the right and and gently pull thigh back slightly using right arm.

When calculating the estimation of energy expenditure, which of the following activities does not require a horizontal component?

A. stepping B. arm cycling C. running D. leg cycling B. Arm cycling To determine workload settings based on oxygen consumption data, standard metabolic equations are used. These equations are an estimate of the oxygen consumption required by the body during constant, submaximal activity, such as walking, running, stepping, leg cycling, and arm cycling. For leg cycling, stepping, and running there is a horizontal component to include in the metabolic calculation. However, there is not a horizontal component when computing arm cycling. For these calculations of VO2 max, there is a sum of three components: resting component, horizontal component, vertical component/resistance component; walking, running, stepping, and leg cycling all have horizontal components, but army cycling does not. The resting component is 3.5. The horizontal component is 0.1x speed, 0.2x speed, 0.2x steps/min, and 3.5 respectively. The vertical component is 1.8xspeedxgrade, 0.9xspeedxgrade, 1.33x (1.8xstep heightxsteps/min), (1.8xwork rate)/body mass, and (3xwork rate)/body mass, respectively.

All of the following statements are true regarding industry guidelines relating to matters of facility and equipment setup, inspection, maintenance, repair, and signage, except:

A. the guidelines minimize risk B. the guidelines encourage proactive safe behavior C. the guidelines are legal requirements D. the guidelines prevent injuries C. The guidelines are legal requirements. According to insurance providers, the second leading reason for claims against personal trainers is injury resulting from the use of equipment. ACSM and other professional organizations offer industry guidelines regarding matters of facility and equipment setup, inspection, maintenance, repair, and signage. Although these standards and guidelines do not have the force of law behind them, they can be presented as evidence via testimony of the personal trainer's duties and adherence to the standard of care. Keep in mind that the law does not envision that accidents never happen. Instead, these standards are in place to eliminate preventable injuries. "What steps can PTs take to prevent foreseeable accidents?" Always use safe, reliable, and appropriate equipment and use equipment for its intended purposes according to manufacturer guidelines. Provide proper instructions and supervision. Policies and procedures for routine safety inspections, maintenance, and repair should be in place and observed systematically. Keep written records to demonstrate compliance with these policies and procedures.

When increasing intensity during resistance training, how will the repetitions be adjusted?

A. the repetitions will be performed more slowly B. a greater number of repetitions will be performed C. the repetitions will be performed faster D. a fewer number of repetitions will be performed D. a fewer number of repetitions will be performed The intensity of resistance training is inversely related to the number of repetitions. With higher resistance or load, the number of repetitions will be fewer. [note to self: reps and rest time are also inversely related.] To improve muscular fitness, typically 8-12 repetitions per set are completed, at an intensity between 60-80% of the 1RM. For older and very deconditioned individuals, a lower intensity (40-50% 1RM) with 10-20 reps is recommended initially.

Which of the following is a reason for a personal trainer to provide a CVD Risk Assessment?

A. to help educate and inform the client about their current health B. to determine if a medical clearance is warranted C. to determine whether a personal trainer should refer a client to another health professional D. to adequately show the capabilities of the client A. to help educate and inform the client about their current health The ACSM no longer uses the CVD Risk Assessment as a mandatory component for determining whether medical clearance is warranted before a client begins an exercise program with a personal trainer. However, the assessment still has benefits, such as identifying CVD risk factors in order to prevent or manage disease, as well as educating and informing a client about their current health.

What is the purpose of a waiver or release of liability document for a personal trainer?

A. to protect the trainer from liability in case of lack of results B. to protect the trainer from liability in case of negligence C. to protect the trainer from liability in case of injury while in transit to facility D. to protect the trainer from liability in case of equipment failure B. to protect the trainer from liability in case of negligence A waiver or release of liability document is designed for the client to knowingly waive or release the personal trainer from liability for any acts of negligence. In other words, the prospective client waives their right to sue the personal trainer, even if the personal trainer is negligent. A waiver or release of liability document states that the client knowingly waives or releases the personal trainer from liability for any acts of negligence on the part of the personal trainer. In other words, the prospective client waives their right to sue the personal trainer, even if the personal trainer is negligent.

Which theory of behavior change puts an emphasis on the client's thoughts and feelings?

A. transtheoretical model B. Theory of planned behavior C. Social cognitive theory D. Health belief model C. Social cognitive theory Social cognitive theory (SCT) has several constructs that are important for predicting behavior change. SCT states that outcome expectations and self-efficacy are the most important to behavior change. Outcome expectations are what an individual thinks will happen as a result of their new behavior, and self-efficacy is defined as "situation-specific self-confidence." SCT puts great emphasis on a client's thoughts and feelings, as proponents of this model believe that clients actively shape their lives by thinking, feeling, reflecting, and observing themselves.

What plane of motion does flexion take place in?

A. transverse B. medial C. sagittal D. frontal C. sagittal There are three imaginary planes that pass through the body and divide it into sections or sides: sagittal, frontal, and transverse. Specifically, the sagittal plane divides the body into right and left sides. Examples of motion that take place in this plane are flexion and extension.

All of the following are steps a personal trainer can take to prevent foreseeable accidents with exercise equipment except:

A. use equipment appropriate for the client B. provide proper instructions and supervision C. perform a set of the exercise before the client does D. use reliable equipment C. perform a set of the exercise before the client does A personal trainer can take many steps to prevent foreseeable accidents with exercise equipment. Using safe and routinely maintained equipment in the appropriate manner with proper instruction and supervision is imperative to minimizing client risk. Minimizing risk is a primary role for any personal trainer and therefore the exercises and machines used during a training session should always be appropriate for the client.

All of the following are important tools of the social cognitive theory (SCT) except:

A. using self-directed goals b. recognizing past successes c. using role models d. increasing social support A. using self-directed goals The social cognitive theory (SCT) states that outcome expectations and self-efficacy are the most important factors in behavior change. An individual's physical and social environments are key, as well as one's skill set, reinforcement and incentives, coping skills, experiences, and thoughts and feelings, as these all determine change. Important tools of the SCT include: increasing social support, recognizing past successes, and using role models.

Which of the following modalities attempts to match the strength curve?

A. variable-resistance devices B. static resistance resistance devices C. dynamic constant external resistance devices D. isokinetic devices A. variable-resistance devices Variable-resistance equipment operates through a lever arm, cam, or pulley arrangement. Its purpose is to alter the resistance throughout the exercise's ROM in an attempt to match the increases and decreases in strength (i.e., strength curve). Proponents of variable-resistance machines believe that by increasing and decreasing the resistance to match the exercise's strength curve, the muscle is forced to contract maximally throughout the ROM, resulting in maximal gains in strength. There are 3 major types of strength curves: ascending, descending, and bell-shaped. In an exercise with an ascending strength curve, it is possible to lift more weight if only the top 1/2 or 1/4 of a rep is performed rather than if the complete ROM is performed. For example, an exercise with an ascending strength curve is the squat. If an exercise has a descending strength curve, it is possible to lift more weight if only the bottom half of a repetition is performed. such an exercise is upright rowing. A bell-shaped curve is an exercise in which it is possible to lift more resistance, if only the middle portion of the ROM is performed and not the beginning or end portions of the ROM. Elbow flexion has a bell-shaped strength curve .

Synergist muscle of the gluteus maximus?

Hamstring

All skinfold measurements should be made on which side of the body?

Right side (for reliability)

Approximately how much fluid should be consumed for each pound of body weight lost during exercise?

The key is to avoid underhydration. Thirst is a delayed sensation that doesn't happen until a person has lost 1-2L of fluid (or 1-2% body weight). 1 pint or 600 mL of fluid should be consumed for each pound of body weight lost during exercise. You should stick with 6-8% carbohydrate solutions.

How much volume (time) should be included per joint in a flexibility training session?

Volume: 60 s. Frequency: 2-3 d/wk Intensity: use Borg Rating of Perceived Exertion scale and suggest static stretching at 13-15 intensity Time: 10-30 s for active static stretches and PNF (when preceded by a 3-6s active contraction). For older adults, 30-60s recommended. Type: involve major muscle and tendon groups )both static and dynamic) Example of dynamic stretches: Shoulders - arm circles Hips and butt - pendulum leg swings Quads - butt kicks Hamstrings - high knees Ankles - dynamic foot ROM Full body - wood chop Examples of static stretches (can be active or passive): Neck: lateral flexion Shoulders: arms across chest Chest: chest stretch Arms: elbow extension Back: kneeling cat Torso: modified cobra Hips: seated hip rotator Thigh (anterior): prone quadriceps Thigh (posterior): seated hamstring Calves: standing calf stretch

Which of the following daily caloric reduction values is considered the most appropriate and effective for individuals looking to lose body fat?

a. 150 b. 450 c. 500 d. 300 calories D. 300 In terms of successful weight loss, diet with caloric restriction is the most important predictor. As long as the dietary restriction is not severe, more than 500 to 1000 calories, adding physical activity to the diet has been shown to result in greater weight loss compared with diet alone. Clients wishing to decrease body fat should make only subtle decreases, 300 to 400 calories, in daily energy intake, while maintaining a vigorous conditioning schedule to maintain muscle mass. Clients wishing to increase muscle mass should perform exercises needed to enlarge muscle mass and slightly increase by 300-400 kcal daily caloric intake.

Which of the following recommendations is an appropriate weekly amount of time for moderate-intensity exercise?

a. 180 min per week b. 90 c. 150 d. 75 c. 150 min per week All healthy adults aged 18-65 need moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity for a minimum of 30 minutes on five days each week (150 minutes) or vigorous-intensity aerobic activity for a minimum of 20 minutes on three days each week (60 minutes).

About how much fluid should be consumed for each pound of body weight lost during exercise?

a. 20 oz b. 12 c. 8 d. 16 A. 20 oz What is consumed and when it is consumed following exercise depends on the time and intensity of the exercise session. After exercise, one should drink at least 20 ounces (oz.) of fluid per pound of body weight to replenish what was lost during the exercise session. In order to return to near pre-exercise body weight, this amount should be consumed within two hours of finishing exercise. Kim - get this: in another question, it asked how much water should be consumed per pound of body weight lost, and the answer was 600 mL or 1 pint. Turns out, Google says there is 473 mL in one pint, NOT 600 mL. So one part of that question is wrong. The other thing is that this question says 20 oz, which is NOT 1 pint - it is greater than 1 pint. One pint equals 16 oz, which is why I chose 16 oz in my answer. So there is some grey area here.

About how many grams of carbohydrates should a pre-exercise meal consist of for someone that weighs 110 pounds?

a. 250-350 g b. 100-200 c. 50-200 d. 50-150 c. 50-200 A pre-exercise meal should focus on providing carbohydrates and fluids. A carbohydrate intake ranging from 1 to 4 grams per kg of body weight can enhance performance, depending on the timing (1 to 4 hours pre-exercise) and food choices best suited for the individual. For an individual who weighs 110 pounds, the calculation of an appropriate carbohydrate intake range is as follows: 110 pounds / 2.2 kg = 50 kg 50 kg x 1 = 50 grams; 50 kg x 4 = 200 grams Range of 50-200 grams Carb consumption is divided into: one day before competition, immediately before exercise, during exercise, and after exercise: One day before: avoid high fat foods, eat a good bfast, have carb for lunch, have rice, pasta, noodles, or potatoes plus vegetables and lean meat and yogurt and fruit for dessert, eat a carb snack at dinner, drink an extra 16 oz of fluid throughout the day. Immediately before: high carb, low fat meal 3-4 hours before exercise. Intake is 1-4 g/kg consumed 1-4 hrs before exercise. During exercise: depends on duration and intensity. 6-8% carb solution per hour (28-40 oz fluid). After exercise: 1-1.2g carb per kg during first 4-6 hrs after exercise, or 200-400 kcal right after and 200-300 in the next several hours.

Which of the following protein caloric intakes would be appropriate for a 135-pound marathon runner?

a. 296 kcal b. 250 c. 648 d. 442 a. 296 The protein recommendation for athletes is between 1.2 and 1.7 g per kg of body weight. For each gram of protein, there is 4 kcal/g of energy. Therefore, a 135-pound athlete would require between 74 and 104 grams of protein or 296 to 416 kcal of protein daily. 135 lbs. / 2.2 kg = 61.3 kg 61.3 kg x 1.2 = 74 grams of protein; 61.3 x 1.7 = 104 grams of protein 74 grams x 4 kcal = 296 kcal; 104 grams x 4 kcal = 416 kcal

Which of the following volumes would typically be seen in a linear periodized program within a third microcycle?

a. 3-4 sets of 4-6 reps b. 3-5 sets of 12-15 reps c. 4-5 sets of 8-10 reps d. 3-5 sets of 1-3 reps a. 3-4 sets of 4-6 reps Linear periodization methods use a progressive increase in intensity with small variations in each microcycle that lasts from 1 to 4 weeks. While there is some variation within each microcycle, the general trend for a 16-week program is a steady linear increase in the intensity of the training program. A typical periodized program using 5 microcycles, each lasting 4 weeks, with the exception of the recovery microcycle, would look like this: Microcycle 1: 3-5 sets of 12-15 repetitions Microcycle 2: 4-5 sets of 8-10 repetitions Microcycle 3: 3-4 sets of 4-6 repetitions Microcycle 4: 3-5 sets of 1-3 repetitions Microcycle 5 (two weeks): Active rest/recovery

When a client is performing a biceps curl with a ten-pound weight and the weight moves a total of one meter per repetition, what is the mechanical work for three sets of ten?

a. 30 lb*m b. 300 c. 10 d. 3,000 b. 300. The equation for determining mechanical work is (force x distance) x (number of repetitions) x (number of sets). In this example the force is ten pounds, the distance is one meter, the number of repetitions is ten, and the number of sets is three. (10 lb x 1 m) x 10 x 3 = 300 lb*m

How many minutes per week of light to moderate activity should be completed over the first six months of training by a client with no prior aerobic training?

a. 60-200 min per week a. 100-150 c. 60-90 d. 150-200 a. 60-200 A client who is new to aerobic training is usually relatively inactive and therefore deconditioned. The progression for their program is as follows: For the first week, a light level of activity should be completed for at least 10 minutes twice a day, for a total of 20 minutes each day, for a weekly total of 60 minutes. Each week, 15 minutes should be added, until 120 minutes of activity is reached. Stay at this duration, but increase intensity over the next couple of weeks. Once comfortable with this duration and intensity for a couple of weeks, continue to add 10-15 minutes each week until you reach 150 minutes a week. Once 150 minutes is established, continue to add 10-15 minutes each week to progress to a total of 200 minutes a week.

Which physiological measure will decrease only through submaximal exercise and will possibly increase at maximal exertion?

a. VO2 max b. arterial-ventricular oxygen difference c. blood volume d. stroke volume d. stroke volume Stroke volume is the amount of blood that is ejected from the left ventricle in one contraction (or heartbeat). At maximal exercise, a decrease in stroke volume may occur because the heart is beating too fast to allow ventricular filling. Stroke volume increases curvilinearly with intensity until reaching near-maximal levels, at approximately 40% to 50% of maximum aerobic capacity, increasing only slightly thereafter.

After 35 years of age, how much bone density loss occurs per year in women?

a. about 2-3% b. about 5-6% c. about 1% d. about 4% A. about 2-3% The weakening in bones occurs in both males and females; however, the problem is more prevalent in females, particularly after menopause. Females lose about 1% of bone density per year after 35 years of age, accelerating to 2% to 3% per year after several years of menopause.

Which of the following physiological variables will increase with physical activity for untrained individuals at both submaximal and maximal effort exercise?

a. blood lactate accumulation b. cardiac output c. systolic blood pressure d. blood volume D. blood volume There are many physiological adaptations that occur in untrained individuals, and several are dependent on the intensity of exercise. Blood volume is a variable that increases with both submaximal and maximal effort exercise. This is due to an elevated oxygen-carrying capacity (i.e., red blood cell volume). Blood lactate accumulation, cardiac output, and systolic blood pressure all decrease at submaximal effort bouts of training but increase with maximal effort exercise.

In regard to active listening, how can a personal trainer avoid misunderstandings resulting from differences in languages styles, vernacular, and popular culture?

a. by understanding contextual anxiety b. by identifying statements that indicate teaching and learning opportunities c. by observing nonverbal cues d. by listening to the small details of spoken statements c. by observing nonverbal cues The four elements of active listening include listening to spoken statements, observing nonverbal cues, understanding contextual anxiety, and identifying statements that indicate teaching and learning opportunities. To be an effective communicator, a personal trainer should avoid using slang, metaphors, and other forms of language that might confuse or alienate clients. Misunderstandings may result from differences in language styles, vernacular, and popular culture, and can be avoided by simply taking all verbal and nonverbal cues from the client without interjecting confusing language or images.

Which of the following is advertised as useful for improving endurance?

a. caffeine b. androstenedione c. omega-3 fatty acids d. creatine a. caffeine Caffeine is a product commonly marketed as an ergogenic aid, with the ability to enhance and improve sport performance. It is advertised as useful for improving endurance by enabling more effective fat metabolism during exercise. It is a central nervous system stimulant but has a reduced dose effect, which means an individual will have to continually increase the dosage to obtain the benefits.

Which of the following nutrients can carbohydrates keep from being broken down?

a. calcium b. protein c. fat d. fiber b. protein Protein sparing is a very important function of carbohydrates. Because carbohydrate (glucose) is a preferred fuel for the body, providing enough carbohydrate to meet high energy needs means other nutrients can be broken down and used as a source of energy. But carbohydrates have the ability to preserve protein from being broken down; this is called protein sparing. Below are carb's functions: - providing energy - protein sparing - oxidation of fat; to burn fats efficiently and completely, some carbs are needed - acting as a part of other compounds: carbs are essential components of other compounds essential in human nutrition - storing energy: stored as glycogen

The amount of blood ejected per heartbeat is known as:

a. cardiac output b. blood volume c. heart volume d. stroke volume d. stroke volume Stroke volume is the amount of blood ejected from the left ventricle in a single contraction. Stroke volume is lower in untrained individuals than in trained individuals and is also usually larger in men in comparison to women, as heart size in men tends to be larger. Additionally, stroke volume is sensitive to body position. In a supine or a prone position, stroke volume will increase.

The iliopsoas is targeted in which of the following stretches?

a. child's pose b. butterfly stretch c. side bend with straight arms d. kneeling forward lunge D. kneeling forward lunge The kneeling forward lunge stretch targets the iliopsoas. A client performs this stretch by kneeling on their knees with their upper body erect, planting the left foot on the floor until a 90-degree angle is reached with both the front and back legs, and then shifting the weight forward. The iliopsoas is a strong hip flexor, located anteriorly in the hip region, and is comprised of the psoas major and iliacus muscles.

The most important forms for a personal trainer include all of the following except:

a. client goals list b. preparticipation screening form c. health history questionnaire d. incident reports a. client goals list The most important forms for a personal trainer include the following: Preparticipation screening form Health history questionnaire Physician's statement and medical clearance Fitness assessment Client progress notes Incident reports In order to be a competent personal trainer, one must not only have these forms but know when to use them. Blank spaces are unacceptable in these forms; they should be completely filled out to ensure the personal trainer is being as thorough as possible.

All of the following are examples of emotional support except:

a. client's friend periodically calls to encourage sticking with the workout program b. client's spouse takes a walk with him c. client's group fitness instructor encourages his attendance in more classes d. client's spouse offer to cook dinner while he works out d. client's spouse offers to cook dinner while he works out

Which of the following combinations of repetitions are the most effective?

a. concentric-eccentric b. eccentric-concentric c. concentric-isometric d. isometric-eccentric a. concentric-eccentric Muscles produce force while performing one of three different actions: concentric, eccentric, or isometric contractions. Any exercise can include any combination of the three muscle actions, with most exercises performed using either isometric or concentric-eccentric repetitions. However, the most effective training programs use concentric-eccentric repetitions.

Which of the following is the biggest challenge with cycle ergometry?

a. determining the appropriate seat height b. determining the appropriate population for use c. determining the appropriate resistance d. determining the duration of activity a. determining the appropriate seat height

Which of the following is a specific role of an ACSM-certified personal trainer?

a. develop specific nutritional guidelines for each client b. demonstrate safe and effective methods of exercise c. implement exercise leadership in each client d. follow published exercise recommendations B. demonstrate safe and effective methods of exercise The most important role of a personal trainer is to reduce the risk of exercise for every client while helping him or her obtain the benefits of physical activity. This can be accomplished by demonstrating safe and effective methods of exercise for each exercise given.

All of the following are phases of appreciative inquiry (AI) except:

a. discover b. determine c. design d. dream One skill that a personal trainer should develop is appreciative inquiry (AI). The AI framework is based on the belief that individuals are driven by their focus and understanding of core values, and goals are pursued and realized as a result of positive outcomes. AI involves a process in which each stage is identified by a task, and a measurable outcome is developed from responses to questions asked of the client. These stages of development are define, discover, dream, design, and deliver.

All of the following strategies would be effective in helping a client overcome lack of energy except:

a. discussing with client the benefits of exercise b. asking client what time of day they think they could consistently participate in exercise c. developing a contingency plan d. discussing the client's diet with them c. developing a contingency plan Though a client's motivation for exercise is an important predictor of exercise adherence, motivation alone is not enough to succeed in adhering to exercise. Developing additional skills related to exercise self-regulation is necessary to increase adherence. Individuals may intend to exercise, but the emergence of barriers and non-exercise-related temptations can make it difficult for them to choose exercise. Exercise self-regulation involves strategies for planning, organizing, and managing exercise activities in order to stay on track. For example, a common personal barrier to exercise is lack of energy. A few strategies to overcome this barrier are discussing with the client their diet and the benefits of exercise, and talking with the client about what time of day they think they could consistently participate in exercise. A contingency plan is best used for dealing with unforeseen circumstances.

Which of the following techniques is believed to be the most reliable when it comes to understanding another person?

a. displaying empathy b. listening to spoken statements c. watching nonverbal cues d. paraphrasing spoken statements c. watching nonverbal cues A personal trainer should strive to display positive body language and nonverbal communication skills. Much can be learned about people by observing their nonverbal cues because most people are not good at hiding emotions. In most cases, watching nonverbal cues is considered to be more reliable and crucial to understanding another person than listening to what they are saying. (My autistic self has trouble understanding this concept)

All of the following are signs of hyperglycemia except:

a. dizziness b. nausea c. frequent urination d. dry skin A. dizziness When creating individualized training programs for persons with diabetes, other health concerns that often accompany diabetes need to be considered. Clients with diabetes should check their blood glucose before exercise. Ideally, blood sugar levels need to be between 100 and 250 mg/dL. Clients with glucose levels above 250 mg/dL, thus hyperglycemic, will need to check their urine for ketones. If ketones are present, exercise should be delayed; if no ketones are present, exercise is okay, with caution. In addition to the presence of ketones, dry skin, frequent urination, and nausea are all signs of hyperglycemia.

All of the following are incorrect techniques for the leg extension exercise except:

a. having the legs under the padded lever, just below the ankles b. ensuring the knees are aligned with the machine's center of rotation c. locking out the knees at the top of the movement d. keeping the back arched against the seat throughout the movement b. ensuring the knees are aligned with the machine's center of rotation

Jane is a 25-year-old endurance athlete. She consumes a strict vegetarian diet and does not take supplements. Which of the following supplements should Jane be taking for optimal running performance?

a. iron b. calcium c. folic acid d. vitamin B12 a. iron Vegetarian athletes are perfectly capable of satisfying their nutritional requirements, but they should do so with the knowledge that it is more difficult to obtain certain vitamins and minerals that are sourced from meat. Iron aids in the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood, which is essential for aerobic performance; however, iron deficiency is the most common mineral deficiency and can result in poor performance. The most absorbable iron sources include meats, poultry, fish, and egg yolks. Adequate amounts are considered 8 mg a day, with 18 mg a day being recommended for women between 19 and 50 years old.

Which of the following types of muscle action can produce the most force?

a. isotonic contraction b. concentric contraction c. eccentric contraction d. isometric contraction c. eccentric contraction When the resistance is greater than the force applied by the muscle and the muscle lengthens, it is known as eccentric muscle action. Significantly heavier loads can be moved eccentrically. In fact, in non-fatigued muscle, the ratio of eccentric to concentric strength can be as high as 1.4:1. For example, maximal eccentric weight is 1.4 times the maximal concentric weight in the same muscle group/movement. The greater force production occurring during the eccentric action compared with the concentric action probably results from the greater recruitment of motor units and a slow movement velocity.

All of the following are considered low glycemic foods except:

a. lentils b. raisins c. milk d. applesauce b. raisins The glycemic index is the rate at which carbohydrates in a food affect blood sugar. Foods with greater amounts of carbohydrates, especially simple carbohydrates, will raise the glycemic index to a greater extent than those with more complex carbohydrates. Foods with a lower glycemic index can help maintain blood sugar and help people to feel fuller longer. Applesauce, milk, and lentils are all considered low on the glycemic index, but raisins are considered high on the glycemic index.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of type I muscle fibers as compared to type II muscle fibers?

a. less force b. lower recruitment thresholds c. more mitochondria d. faster tension development d. faster tension development Type I, or slow twitch, muscle fibers have characteristics that allow for greater oxygen delivery and resistance to fatigue. When compared to Type II muscle fibers, Type 1 fibers are slower to develop tension, have lower recruitment thresholds, contain more mitochondria, and produce less force.

Which of the following muscles is located laterally on the neck and head?

a. levator scapulae b. scalenes c. sternocleidomastoid d. longus capitis a. levator scapulae The lateral muscles of the neck and head include the levator scapulae and upper trapezius, both of which laterally bend and rotate the neck on unilateral contraction. The levator scapulae attaches superiorly to the transverse processes of the upper four cervical vertebrae and inferiorly to the vertebral border of the scapula above the spine. The upper trapezius attaches proximally to the occiput and the spinous processes of the cervical vertebrae and distally to the clavicle and acromion of the scapula. Here is the summary of all cervical muscles divided by anterior/posterior/lateral: Anterior: sternocleidomastoid, scalenes, longus capitis, longus colli. Posterior: suboccipital, splenius, erector spinae. Refer to Google Drive for images.

All of the following muscles can be affected by "whiplash" except:

a. levator scapulae b. upper trapezius c. sternocleidomastoid d. cervical paraspinal a. levator scapulae Sprains and strains of the neck muscles are usually the result of a violent hyperextension and hyperflexion from sudden acceleration or deceleration. Seen commonly in head-on car collisions, whiplash can cause tears of the anterior and posterior muscles of the cervical spine, which include the sternocleidomastoid, upper trapezius, and cervical paraspinal muscles. The levator scapulae is a skeletal muscle situated at the back and side of the neck. It is located laterally; therefore, is not affected by a whiplash injury.

Which of the following sets of assessments are most appropriate for children?

a. maximal cardiorespiratory fitness test, muscular endurance tests b. resting blood pressure and heart rate, maximal cardiorespiratory fitness test c. medical clearance from a physician, resting heart rate and blood pressure d. none are needed D. none are needed Most young people are healthy, and thus it is safe for them to initiate moderate-intensity activities without medical screening. Medical exams and exercise testing prior to participation generally are unnecessary in this population unless clinically indicated. ACSM recommends 3 target areas: aerobic endurance, muscular strengthening, and bone strengthening activities.

All of the following are types of cues except:

a. observational b. motivational c. alignment d. educational a. observational Proper cueing during a client's session is critical. It is the personal trainer's job to help the client perform each segment of the workout, along with each exercise, correctly. This can be accompanied by skillful spotting and cueing. There are several different types of cues, including educational, safety, alignment, and motivational cues; "observational" is not a type of cue. Depending on the type of cue, the personal trainer can give them orally, visually, and through touch. An effective way is visual cueing; for example, if the client is having trouble maintaining a neutral pelvis, the trainer may demonstrate a misaligned pelvis versus a neutral pelvis. Show the client the incorrect then the correct position. Phrase all cues positively like, "Make sure to always keep a slight bend in your knees," vs "Don't lock your knees."

Who would benefit the most from using the rating of perceived exertion (RPE) scale to gauge exercise intensity?

a. older adults b. athletes c. novice exercisers d. those taking arthritis medication a. older adults Rating of perceived exertion (RPE) is a subjective measure used to rate overall feelings of exertion during exercise, and it can be helpful in guiding exercise intensity. A 6- to 20-point scale is typically used. RPE is often recommended for determining exercise intensity in older adults and is helpful for individuals having difficulty assessing their heart rate or for those taking medications that influence heart rate, such as beta blockers.

The main idea of the socioecological model states that:

a. outcome expectations and self-efficacy are the most important factors in behavior change b. behavior change is achieved through setting realistic, maintainable goals that are smaller c. behavior change is a result of not only individual factors but also outside influences d. setting goals leads to behavior change c. behavior change is a result of not only individual factors but also outside influences The socioecological model addresses the relationship between the interaction of individual decisions and environmental influences. Specifically, behaviors are shaped by interpersonal interactions, the surrounding environment, community, policy, and law. The socioecological theory addresses a client's barriers while also highlighting their sources of support.

Which two nutrients aid in maintaining the fluid balance of the body?

a. protein and fat b. fat and carb c. water and carb d. water and protein d. water and protein Protein has many functions, one being fluid balance. Protein helps control the fluid balance between the blood and surrounding tissues, which allows people to maintain blood volume and sweat rates during physical activity. Water not only supplies the body with fluid, but it also aids in temperature regulation.

Which of the following components of sports nutrition should a personal trainer should focus on?

a. providing adequate energy and increasing power output b. finding ways to provide enough carbs at the right time c. preventing dehydration and recovering for next event d. finding ways to provide enough extra energy at the right time d. finding ways to provide enough extra energy at the right time Exercise results in an increase in the rate at which energy is burned. This process is not 100% efficient, so only 20-40% of the burned energy is converted to mechanical energy, with at least 60% of the energy lost as heat. This extra heat causes body temperature to rise, which requires an increase in the sweat rate as a means of bringing down body temperature. Therefore, the two essential components of sports nutrition that personal trainers should focus on are the following: - Finding ways to provide enough extra energy at the right time to satisfy the additional energy needs of physical activity - Finding ways to provide enough fluid at the right time to maintain body water and replace the fluid that was lost as sweat

Informational support can be defined as:

a. providing an individual with constructive feedback b. encouragement or acceptance from others c. advice or information given in regard to exercise d. material aid given to provide an individual the opportunity to exercise c. advice or information given in regard to exercise Social support includes an exchange of aid or assistance among individuals or groups within a social network. It is one of the most consistent predictors of exercise participation. There are four types of social support: emotional, tangible, informational, and appraisal. Informational support refers to advice or information given in regard to exercise. For example, a smartphone app that prescribes an exercise plan for a client who travels often can serve as informational support. Emotional support refers to encouragement or acceptance from others, especially from one's spouse or SO, family, friends, and community. Tangible support refers to material aid in order to provide an individual the opportunity to exercise (eg shoes or a gym membership). Appraisal support refers to providing the individual with constructive feedback and accepting their beliefs and values (eg adjusting a client's exercise plan, such as adding 1 d of resistance training per week, if the client has not progressed toward goals as expected).

All of the following are diseases that influence the level of preparticipation physical activity screening except:

a. renal disease b. pulmonary disease c. cardiovascular disease d. metabolic disease b. pulmonary disease Clients with any of the CMR diseases (cardiovascular, metabolic, and/or renal disease) are at a higher risk for an adverse event during exercise. Therefore, the presence of any CMR disease will influence the level of preparticipation physical activity screening. Pulmonary disease has been shown to be less likely to cause an adverse event during exercise when compared to CMR diseases.

Which of the following muscles is a major agonist muscle for upward rotation of the scapulothoracic joint?

a. serratus anterior b. levator scapulae c. trapezius d. rhomboids c. trapezius The scapulothoracic joint has six major movements: fixation, upward rotation, downward rotation, elevation, depression, protraction, and retraction. Specifically for upward rotation, the major agonist muscle performing this movement is the trapezius muscle. The trapezius muscle is a large triangular muscle divided into three fibers: upper, middle, and lower. Together the upper and lower fibers cause upward rotation of the scapula.

All of the following are barriers to beginning an exercise regimen except:

a. support of friends and family b. current fitness level c. time availability d. transportation to a facility a. support of friends and family Barriers are unique to each client and represent an individual's perceived obstacles to exercise. Clients may not know how to overcome barriers or may not believe their barriers are possible to overcome. Therefore, as a personal trainer, it is important to help the client identify barriers and then come up with strategies for dealing with each one. Barriers can be categorized as environmental, personal, or social. Examples are current fitness level, time availability, and transportation to a facility.

According to the Transtheoretical Model (TTM), which of the following strategies is most effective in preventing a relapse?

a. teaching a client to understand their emotions b. discussing self-efficacy and self-worth with the client c. developing plans d. having a client engage in self-reevaluation c. developing plans There are five stages of change that make up the Transtheoretical Model: pre-contemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance. During the maintenance stage of change, behavioral strategies such as self-liberation, counter-conditioning, utilizing supportive relationships, using rewards as reinforcement, and engaging in stimulus control are all ways to help a client stay on track. Creating plans to avoid relapse is another helpful tool to use in the maintenance stage as well.

Feedback can be described as:

a. the practice of tracking one's own behavior b. sharing of relevant struggles c. two-way communication between two or more parties d. an exchange built on trust, respect, or confidence c. two-way communication between two or more parties Feedback is can be described as two-way communication between two or more individuals. Personal trainers need to keep this in mind so that they do not impose their views without listening to their client's views. Feedback is not only necessary for effective goal setting but is also an important component of physical activity behavior change.

Which of the following describes the action of the patellar ligament?

a. transfers force from quads to tibia b. holds menisci to tibia c. connects menisci to each other d. resists posterior tibial movement A. transfers force from quads to tibia In order to better understand the importance of the properties of the tissues surrounding the knee joint, it is necessary to study the anterior view and the cross-sectional view of the joint. The knee is padded with fat and is secured into place by multiple ligaments. Specifically, the patellar ligament, which inserts inferior to the patella to the tibial tuberosity, is responsible for transferring force from quadriceps to tibia.

When measuring waist circumference, which two body landmarks should the tape be placed between?

a. umbilicus and xiphoid process b. gluteal fold and umbilicus c. xiphoid process and scapula d. umbilicus and lowest rib a. umbilicus and xiphoid process Some experts suggest that the waist circumference alone can be used as an indicator of health risk instead of using the waist-to-hip ratio. Regardless of which method is used, waist circumference is defined as the smallest circumference above the umbilicus (navel) and below the xiphoid process (beneath the sternum). Waist circumference is an important measurement, as large amounts of adipose tissue in this area are associated with many chronic diseases.

Which nutrient plays a significant role in satiety control?

a. water b. carbs c. protein d. fat D. fat Fat has a number of functions in the body, such as providing insulation from extreme temperatures, transportation of essential nutrients, and satiety control. Fat keeps people feeling fuller longer because it stays in the stomach longer than other energy nutrients.

There may be a prevalence of phone number instability in all of the following populations except:

a. younger teen population b. older adult population c. low socioeconomic populations d. transient populations b. older adult population Extra support can occur in the form of phone calls, since they can serve as a reminder for appointments or consultations. Before the personal trainer uses phone calls as a support mechanism, it is necessary to confirm that the client has a phone and that it is okay to contact them at the provided number. It is important for the personal trainer to remember that not everyone has a phone. Younger, transient, and low socioeconomic populations often have phone number instability. Therefore, it is helpful to have other communication options.