Adult Health Exam 4

When referred to a podiatrist, a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus asks, "Why do you need to check my feet when I'm having a problem with my blood sugar?" The nurse's most helpful response to this statement is:

"Diabetes can affect sensation in your feet and you can hurt yourself without realizing it." Explanation: The nurse should make the client aware that diabetes affects sensation in the feet and that he might hurt his foot but not feel the wound. Although it's important that the client's shoes fit properly, this isn't the only reason the client's feet need to be checked. Telling the client that diabetes mellitus increases the risk of infection or stating that the circulation in the client's feet indicates the severity of his diabetes doesn't provide the client with complete information.

A nurse is providing teaching about foot care for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? "I should soak my feet before trimming my nails." "I should buy new shoes late in the day." "I should wear a clean pair of nylon socks every day." "I should use a heating pad at night when my feet feel cold."

"I should buy new shoes late in the day." The client's feet are larger later in the day. Therefore, this is the best time to buy new shoes.

A nurse is providing teaching to the guardian of a child who has a new diagnosis is type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the guardian indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"I will need to feed my child snacks between meals and at bedtime." The nurse should identify that this statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because the child will need snacks between meals and at bedtime to help prevent hypoglycemia.

A nurse explains to a client that she will administer his first insulin dose in his abdomen. How does absorption at the abdominal site compare with absorption at other sites?

Insulin is absorbed more rapidly at abdominal injection sites than at other sites.

Which instruction about insulin administration should a nurse give to a client?

"Always follow the same order when drawing the different insulins into the syringe." Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to always follow the same order when drawing the different insulins into the syringe. Insulin should never be shaken because the resulting froth prevents withdrawal of an accurate dose and may damage the insulin protein molecules. Insulin should never be frozen because the insulin protein molecules may be damaged. The client doesn't need to discard intermediate-acting insulin if it's cloudy; this finding is normal.

During a routine medical evaluation, a client is found to have a random blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL. Which client statement(s) made by the client are concerning to the nurse? Select all that apply.

"At times my vision is blurry." "I have to void nearly every hour." "I cannot seem to quench my thirst." "I have lost 10 pounds without even trying."

A nurse is teaching about sick day management to a parent of a child who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"It is more important for my child to drink fluids than eat during illnesses." Fluids are more important than dietary intake during illness for children who have diabetes because fluids will prevent dehydration and flush out ketones.

A nurse is providing teaching to the guardian of a child who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

"You should warm your child's finger before checking their blood glucose." The nurse should instruct the guardian to warm the child's finger before checking their blood glucose to increase blood flow to the puncture site. This will decrease the discomfort associated with the procedure. The nurse should instruct the guardian to give the child 4 oz of fruit juice when their blood sugar is low, not 8 oz. The nurse should instruct the guardian to administer glucagon intramuscularly, not subcutaneously. The nurse should inform the guardian that the child's insulin needs can fluctuate during times of illness, depending on the severity of the illness and the child's appetite.

A 16-year-old client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes has a very low body weight despite eating regular meals. The client is upset because friends frequently state, "You look anorexic." Which statement by the nurse would be the best response to help this client understand the cause of weight loss due to this condition?

"Your body is using protein and fat for energy instead of glucose." Explanation: Persons with type 1 diabetes, particularly those in poor control of the condition, tend to be thin because when the body cannot effectively utilize glucose for energy (no insulin supply), it begins to break down protein and fat as an alternate energy source. Patients may be underweight at the onset of type 1 diabetes because of rapid weight loss from severe hyperglycemia. The goal initially may be to provide a higher-calorie diet to regain lost weight and blood glucose control.

A nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus about self-management of his condition. The nurse should instruct the client to administer 1 unit of insulin for every:

15 g of carbohydrates. Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to administer 1 unit of insulin for every 15 g of carbohydrates.

A nurse administered NPH insulin to a client at 0900. At which of the following times should the nurse monitor for the peak effect of the insulin?

1600 The nurse should monitor for the peak effect of NPH insulin 4 to 14 hr following administration. Therefore, monitoring for the peak effect at 1600 is correct.

A patient who is 6 months' pregnant was evaluated for gestational diabetes mellitus. The doctor considered prescribing insulin based on the serum glucose result of:

138 mg/dL, 2 hours postprandial. Explanation: The goals for a 2-hour, postprandial blood glucose level are less than 120 mg/dL in a patient who might develop gestational diabetes.

A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL. Which rapidly absorbed carbohydrate would be most effective?

1/2 cup fruit juice or regular soft drink Explanation: In a client with hypoglycemia, the nurse uses the rule of 15: give 15 g of rapidly absorbed carbohydrate, wait 15 minutes, recheck the blood sugar, and administer another 15 g of glucose if the blood sugar is not above 70 mg/dL. One-half cup fruit juice or regular soft drink is equivalent to the recommended 15 g of rapidly absorbed carbohydrate. Eight ounces of skim milk is equivalent to the recommended 15 g of rapidly absorbed carbohydrate. One tablespoon of honey or syrup is equivalent to the recommended 15 g of rapidly absorbed carbohydrate. Six to eight LifeSavers candies is equivalent to the recommended 15 g of rapidly absorbed carbohydrate.

Glycosylated hemoglobin reflects blood glucose concentrations over which period of time?

3 months Explanation: Glycosylated hemoglobin is a blood test that reflects average blood glucose concentrations over a period of 3 months.

What is the duration of regular insulin?

4 to 6 hours Explanation: The duration of regular insulin is 4 to 6 hours; 3 to 5 hours is the duration for rapid-acting insulin such as Novolog. The duration of NPH insulin is 12 to 16 hours. The duration of Lantus insulin is 24 hours.

A female patient with diabetes who weighs 150 pounds has an ideal body weight of 118 pounds. She can lose 1 pound per week and drop her extra 32 pounds in approximately 8 months. To meet this goal, the nurse advises the patient to decrease her calories by:

3,500 per week. Explanation: A person needs to decrease caloric intake by 3,500 for each lb of weight that is lost. To lose 1 lb per week, a person would decrease his or her daily caloric intake by 500 calories (500 calories × 7 days = 3,500 calories = 1 lb).

A nurse is preparing to administer an insulin injection. Which of the following needles should the nurse select?

30 gauge, 5/8-inch needle The nurse should use a 25 or 30 gauge, 5/8-inch needle when administering a subcutaneous injection at a 45° angle, and a 25 or 30 gauge, 3/8-inch needle when administering a subcutaneous injection at a 90° angle. The nurse should base this decision on the size of the client and the amount of adipose tissue at the site.

A client is receiving insulin lispro at 7:30 AM. The nurse ensures that the client has breakfast by which time?

7:45 AM Explanation: Insulin lispro has an onset of 5 to 15 minutes. Therefore, the nurse would need to ensure that the client has his breakfast by 7:45 AM at the latest. Otherwise, the client may experience hypoglycemia.

A client with acromegaly is complaining of severe headaches. What does the nurse suspect is the cause of the headaches that is related to the acromegaly?

A pituitary tumor Explanation: When the overgrowth is from a tumor, headaches caused by pressure on the sella turcica, a bony depression in which the pituitary gland rests, are common. There is actually an increase in the secretion of the growth hormone. The headaches would not be caused by decreases in glucose levels. The client does not have cerebral edema.

A client with type 1 diabetes is to receive a short-acting insulin and an intermediate-acting insulin subcutaneously before breakfast. The nurse would administer the insulin at which site as the preferred site?

Abdomen Explanation: Although the arms, thighs, and lower back can be used, the preferred site insulin administration is the abdomen which allows more rapid absorption.

Insulin is secreted by which of the following types of cells?

Beta cells Explanation: Insulin is secreted by the beta cells, in the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas. In diabetes, cells may stop responding to insulin, or the pancreas may decrease insulin secretion or stop insulin production completely. Melanocytes are what give the skin its pigment. Neural cells transmit impulses in the brain and spinal cord. Basal cells are a type of skin cell.

A nurse is caring for a child who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should identify that the child is at greatest risk for hypoglycemia at which of the following times?

Before meals The nurse should identify that the child is at greatest risk for hypoglycemia before meals and at insulin peak times.

A nurse is teaching a client about insulin infusion pump use. What intervention should the nurse include to prevent infection at the injection site?

Change the needle every 3 days. Explanation: The nurse should teach the client to change the needle every 3 days to prevent infection. The client doesn't need to wear gloves when inserting the needle. Antibiotic therapy isn't necessary before initiating treatment. Sterile technique, not clean technique, is needed when changing the needle.

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a bilateral adrenalectomy. The nurse should expect to administer glucocorticoids following the procedure to enhance which of the following therapeutic effects?

Compensate for decrease in cortisol levels The client who has an adrenalectomy requires glucocorticoids before, during, and after surgery to prevent an adrenal crisis caused by a sudden drop in cortisol levels. One of the hormones produced by the adrenal glands is cortisol, a glucocorticoid. Loss of glucocorticoid secretion leads to a state of altered metabolism and an inability to deal with stressors which, if untreated, is fatal.

A client with hypofunction of the adrenal cortex has been admitted to the medical unit. What would the nurse most likely find when assessing this client?

Decreased blood pressure Explanation: Decreased blood pressure may occur with hypofunction of the adrenal cortex. Decreased function of the adrenal cortex does not affect the client's body temperature, urine output, or skin tone.

Which of the following insulins are used for basal dosage?

Glargine (Lantus) Explanation: Lantus is used for basal dosage. NPH is an intermediate acting insulin, usually taken after food. Humalog and Novolog are rapid-acting insulins.

A nurse is monitoring a client who has Graves' disease for the development of thyroid storm. The nurse should report which of the following findings to the provider?

Hypertension The client who is experiencing a thyroid storm will have an exaggerated condition of hyperthyroidism associated with the development of fever, hypertension, abdominal pain, and tachycardia. Graves' disease is a common cause of hyperthyroidism, which is an imbalance of metabolism caused by overproduction of the thyroid hormone.

A nurse is assessing a client who has manifestations of acromegaly. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Increased head size The client who has acromegaly will manifest an enlarged head size due to the excessive production of growth hormones after closing of the epiphyses (the "growth plate" at the ends of the long bones) by the pituitary gland. It results in the gradual enlargement of the client's body tissues, such as the bones of the face, jaw, hands, feet, and skull.

A nurse is providing education to a client who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. What are classic symptoms associated with diabetes?

Increased thirst, hunger, and urination Explanation: The three classic symptoms of both types of diabetes mellitus are polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Weight loss, dehydration, and fatigue are additional symptoms.

A nurse is caring for a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus and is displaying manifestations of hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client has hyperglycemia?

Increased urination Increased urination, or polyuria, is a manifestation of hyperglycemia due to a deficiency of insulin, which can lead to osmotic diuresis.

A nurse is preparing to administer 6 units of regular insulin and 20 units of NPH insulin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Inject 20 units of air into the NPH insulin vial. When drawing up regular insulin and NPH insulin into the same syringe, the first step the nurse should take is to inject the amount of air into the NPH vial equal to the amount of insulin they will withdraw from the NPH vial. This action will prevent contamination of the regular insulin with the protein in the NPH insulin.

A nurse is preparing to administer an insulin injection to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Insert the needle at a 45° angle into pinched skin. When administering a subcutaneous injection, the nurse must be sure to access the subcutaneous tissue. Unless the client has adipose tissue of greater than 2.5 cm (1 in), the nurse should pinch the skin and insert the needle at a 45° to 60° angle.

A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has diabetes and a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide regarding this type of insulin?

Insulin glargine has a duration of 18 to 24 hr. Insulin glargine is a long duration insulin that has a duration of 18 to 24 hr. It is only dosed once a day.

Which intervention is the most critical for a client with myxedema coma?

Maintaining a patent airway Explanation: Because respirations are depressed in myxedema coma, maintaining a patent airway is the most critical nursing intervention. Ventilatory support is usually needed. Although myxedema coma is associated with severe hypothermia, a warming blanket shouldn't be used because it may cause vasodilation and shock. Gradual warming with blankets is appropriate. Thyroid replacement is administered I.V., not orally. Although recording intake and output is important, these interventions aren't critical at this time.

A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse misread the client's morning blood glucose level as 210 mg/dL instead of 120 mg/dL and administered the insulin dose appropriate for a reading over 200 mg/dL before the client's breakfast. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority? Give the client 15 to 20 g of carbohydrate.

Monitor the client for hypoglycemia. The first action the nurse should take using the nursing process is to assess or collect data from the client. The nurse should immediately check the client's blood glucose level, expecting it to be low because of the excessive dose of insulin. If it is within the expected reference range, the nurse should continue to monitor the client for signs of hypoglycemia.

Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform to determine the development of peptic ulcers when caring for a patient with Cushing's syndrome?

Observe the color of stool. Explanation: The nurse should observe the color of each stool and test the stool for occult blood. Bowel patterns, vital signs, and urine output do not help in determining the development of peptic ulcers.

ADH is secreted by which gland?

Posterior pituitary Explanation: Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. The anterior pituitary secretes growth hormone. The adrenal gland secretes glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids. The thyroid gland secretes T3 and T4.

A nurse is monitoring the blood glucose of a child who received orange juice 15 min ago for hypoglycemia. The child's blood glucose is now 105 g/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Provide the child with a snack containing a starch and protein. The nurse should provide the child with a large snack containing a carbohydrate and a protein. This will help to stabilize the child's blood glucose and prevent another episode of hypoglycemia.

Laboratory studies indicate a client's blood glucose level is 185 mg/dl. Two hours have passed since the client ate breakfast. Which test would yield the most conclusive diagnostic information about the client's glucose use?

Serum glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb A1c) Explanation: Hb A1c is the most reliable indicator of glucose use because it reflects blood glucose levels for the prior 3 months. Although a fasting blood glucose test and a 6-hour glucose tolerance test yield information about a client's use of glucose, the results are influenced by such factors as whether the client recently ate breakfast. Presence of ketones in the urine also provides information about glucose use but is limited in its diagnostic significance.

A nurse educator been invited to local seniors center to discuss health-maintaining strategies for older adults. The nurse addresses the subject of diabetes mellitus, its symptoms, and consequences. What should the educator teach the participants about type 1 diabetes?

The participants are unlikely to develop a new onset of type 1 diabetes. Explanation: Type 1 diabetes usually (but not always) develops in people younger than 20. In older adults, an onset of type 2 is far more common. A significant number of older adults develops type 2 diabetes.

A nurse is preparing to administer two types of insulin to a client with diabetes mellitus. What is the correct procedure for preparing this medication?

The short-acting insulin is withdrawn before the intermediate-acting insulin.

A nurse is preparing to administer two types of insulin to a client with diabetes mellitus. What is the correct procedure for preparing this medication?

The short-acting insulin is withdrawn before the intermediate-acting insulin. Explanation: When combining two types of insulin in the same syringe, the short-acting regular insulin is withdrawn into the syringe first and the intermediate-acting insulin is added next. This practice is referred to as "clear to cloudy."

A nurse in a clinic is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has primary hypothyroidism. The nurse should anticipate an elevation of which of the following laboratory values? Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) Free T4 Serum T4 Serum T3

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) The nurse should anticipate that TSH will be elevated. Free T4 will be decreased Serum T4 will be decreased Serum T3 will be decreased

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has Addison's disease about healthy snack foods. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Turkey and cheese sandwich A turkey and cheese sandwich is high in protein, carbohydrates, and sodium. The client who has Addison's disease requires a diet low in potassium and high in sodium, carbohydrates, and protein. Addison's disease is a hormone deficiency caused by damage to the outer layer of the adrenal gland (adrenal cortex). Addison's disease occurs when the adrenal glands do not produce enough of the hormone cortisol and, in some cases, the hormone aldosterone.

A client with type 1 diabetes asks the nurse about taking an oral antidiabetic agent. The nurse explains that these medications are effective only if the client:

has type 2 diabetes. Explanation: Oral antidiabetic agents are effective only in adult clients with type 2 diabetes. Oral antidiabetic agents aren't effective in type 1 diabetes. Pregnant and lactating women aren't ordered oral antidiabetic agents because the effect on the fetus or breast-fed infant is uncertain.

A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving an oral antidiabetic agent. When caring for this client, the nurse should observe for signs of:

hypoglycemia Explanation: The nurse should observe the client receiving an oral antidiabetic agent for the signs of hypoglycemia. The time when the reaction might occur is not predictable and could be from 30 to 60 minutes to several hours after the drug is ingested.

A client with Addison's disease comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. When assessing this client, the nurse should stay alert for signs and symptoms of:

sodium and potassium abnormalities. Explanation: In Addison's disease, a form of adrenocortical hypofunction, aldosterone secretion is reduced. Aldosterone promotes sodium conservation and potassium excretion. Therefore, aldosterone deficiency increases sodium excretion, predisposing the client to hyponatremia, and inhibits potassium excretion, predisposing the client to hyperkalemia. Because aldosterone doesn't regulate calcium, phosphorus, chloride, or magnesium, an aldosterone deficiency doesn't affect levels of these electrolytes directly.

A nurse is assessing a client who has Graves' disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect the client to display?

Difficulty sleeping The client who has Graves' disease can have difficulty sleeping and anxiety due to the overproduction of thyroid hormone.

A client is having chronic pain from arthritis. What type of hormone is released in response to the stress of this pain that suppresses inflammation and helps the body withstand stress?

Glucocorticoids Explanation: Glucocorticoids, such as cortisol, affect body metabolism, suppress inflammation, and help the body withstand stress. Mineralocorticoids, primarily aldosterone, maintain water and electrolyte balances. The androgenic hormones convert to testosterone and estrogens.

Which of the following would the nurse need to be alert for in a client with severe hypothyroidism?

Myxedemic coma Explanation: Severe hypothyroidism is called myxedema and if untreated, it can progress to myxedemic coma, a life-threatening event. Thyroid storm is an acute, life-threatening form of hyperthyroidism. Addison's disease refers to primary adrenal insufficiency. Acromegaly refers to an oversecretion of growth hormone by the pituitary gland during adulthood.

Following a thyroidectomy, a client exhibits signs of tetany. The nurse anticipates administering which medication?

IV calcium gluconate Explanation: Usually tetany is treated with IV calcium gluconate. Methimazole, propylthiouracil, and potassium iodide are agents used to treat hyperthyroidism.

A nurse is teaching about administering insulin injections to the guardians of a child who was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

If the child has been running and playing, the injection should be given in the abdomen. MY ANSWER The nurse should reinforce to the guardians to avoid administering insulin in an extremity that the child is actively using during play time. Injecting insulin into the extremity used during active play can alter the absorption of the insulin.

The nurse is educating the client with diabetes on setting up a sick plan to manage blood glucose control during times of minor illness such as influenza. Which is the most important teaching item to include?

Increase frequency of glucose self-monitoring. Explanation: Minor illnesses such as influenza can present a special challenge to a diabetic client. The body's need for insulin increases during illness. Therefore, the client should take the prescribed insulin dose, increase the frequency of glucose monitoring, and maintain adequate fluid intake to counteract the dehydrating effects of hyperglycemia. Clear liquids and juices are encouraged. Taking less than normal dose of insulin may lead to ketoacidosis.

The client who is managing diabetes through diet and insulin control asks the nurse why exercise is important. Which is the best response by the nurse to support adding exercise to the daily routine?

Increases ability for glucose to get into the cell and lowers blood sugar Explanation: Exercise increases trans membrane glucose transporter levels in the skeletal muscles. This allows the glucose to leave the blood and enter into the cells where it can be used as fuel. Exercise can provide an overall feeling of well-being but is not the primary purpose of including in the daily routine of diabetic clients. Exercise does not stimulate the pancreas to produce more cells. Exercise can promote weight loss and decrease risk of insulin resistance but not the primary reason for adding to daily routine.

A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus about foot care. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"I'll check my feet every day for sores and bruises." The client should check his feet daily to monitor for any problems and observe any other changes before they become serious. He can use a hand mirror to examine areas that are difficult for him to see.

A client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus asks why he needs ketone testing when the disease affects his blood glucose levels. How should the nurse respond?

"Ketones will tell us if your body is using other tissues for energy." Explanation: The nurse should tell the client that ketones are a byproduct of fat metabolism and that ketone testing can determine whether the body is breaking down fat to use for energy. The spleen doesn't release ketones when the body can't use glucose. Although ketones can damage the eyes and kidneys and help the physician evaluate the severity of a client's diabetes, these responses by the nurse are incomplete.

A nurse is teaching an older adult client who has diabetes mellitus about preventing the long-term complications of retinopathy and nephropathy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

"Maintain stable blood glucose levels." Keeping blood glucose under control is the client's best protection against long-term complications of diabetes, since increased blood sugar contributes to neuropathic disease, and microvascular complications such as retinopathy and nephropathy, as well as to macrovascular complications.

A nurse is teaching about the carbohydrate counting diet with a parent of a child who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

"One carbohydrate choice is equivalent to 15 grams of carbohydrates." MY ANSWER When teaching about the carbohydrate counting diet, the nurse should include that a set number of carbohydrates should be consumed with each meal and snack throughout the day. One carbohydrate choice is equivalent to 15 g of carbohydrates.

A nurse in a pediatric office is providing teaching to an adolescent about insulin management. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

"Regular insulin should be administered within 30 minutes of a meal." To prevent hypoglycemia, the nurse should inform the adolescent that regular insulin should be administered within 30 min of a meal.

Which instruction should a nurse give to a client with diabetes mellitus when teaching about "sick day rules"?

"Test your blood glucose every 4 hours." Explanation: The nurse should instruct a client with diabetes mellitus to check his blood glucose levels every 3 to 4 hours and take insulin or an oral antidiabetic agent as usual, even when he's sick. If the client's blood glucose level rises above 300 mg/dl, he should call his physician immediately. If the client is unable to follow the regular meal plan because of nausea, he should substitute soft foods, such as gelatin, soup, and custard.

A nurse is teaching about levothyroxine with a client who has primary hypothyroidism. Which of the following statements should the nurse use when teaching the client? "Take this medication until your symptoms are gone and then discontinue" "Tremors, nervousness, and insomnia may indicate your dose is too high" "Symptoms improve immediately after starting the medication" "The medication decreases the overproduction of the thyroid hormone thyroxine"

"Tremors, nervousness, and insomnia may indicate your dose is too high." The nurse should teach that tremors, nervousness, and insomnia may indicate an overdose of the medication and to notify the provider

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus about exercise. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

"Wear a medical alert identification tag when you exercise." The client should wear a medical alert identification tag in the event of a hypoglycemic response, because exercise can potentiate the effects of insulin and cause the blood glucose levels to decrease.

A client has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. When teaching the client and family how diet and exercise affect insulin requirements, the nurse should include which guideline?

"You'll need less insulin when you exercise or reduce your food intake." Explanation: The nurse should advise the client that exercise, reduced food intake, hypothyroidism, and certain medications decrease insulin requirements. Growth, pregnancy, greater food intake, stress, surgery, infection, illness, increased insulin antibodies, and certain medications increase insulin requirements.

An agitated, confused client arrives in the emergency department. The client's history includes type 1 diabetes, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. Explanation: To reverse hypoglycemia, the American Diabetes Association recommends ingesting 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate, such as three to five pieces of hard candy, two to three packets of sugar (4 to 6 tsp), or 4 oz of fruit juice. Then the client should check his blood glucose after 15 minutes. If necessary, this treatment may be repeated in 15 minutes. Ingesting only 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate may not raise the blood glucose level sufficiently. Ingesting more than 15 g may raise it above normal, causing hyperglycemia.

The nurse is administering lispro insulin. Based on the onset of action, how long before breakfast should the nurse administer the injection?

10 to 15 minutes Explanation: The onset of action of rapid-acting lispro insulin is within 10 to 15 minutes. It is used to rapidly reduce the glucose level.

A nurse is preparing a continuous insulin infusion for a child with diabetic ketoacidosis and a blood glucose level of 800 mg/dl. Which solution is the most appropriate at the beginning of therapy?

100 units of regular insulin in normal saline solution Explanation: Continuous insulin infusions use only short-acting regular insulin. Insulin is added to normal saline solution and administered until the client's blood glucose level falls. Further along in the therapy, a dextrose solution is administered to prevent hypoglycemia.

A client with diabetes comes to the clinic for a follow-up visit. The nurse reviews the client's glycosylated hemoglobin test results. Which result would indicate to the nurse that the client's blood glucose level has been well controlled?

6.5% Explanation: Normally, the level of glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%. Thus, a level of 6.5% would indicate that the client's blood glucose level is well controlled. According to the American Diabetes Association, a glycosylated hemoglobin of 7% is equivalent to an average blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl. Thus, a level of 7.5% would indicate less control. Amount of 8% or greater indicate that control of the client's blood glucose level has been inadequate during the previous 2 to 3 months.

When administering insulin to a client with type 1 diabetes, which of the following would be most important for the nurse to keep in mind?

Accuracy of the dosage Explanation: The measurement of insulin is most important and must be accurate because clients may be sensitive to minute dose changes. The duration, area, and technique for injecting should also to be noted.

A female client with hyperglycemia who weighs 210 lb (95 kg) tells the nurse that her husband sleeps in another room because her snoring keeps him awake. The nurse notices that the client has large hands and a hoarse voice. Which disorder would the nurse suspect as a possible cause of the client's hyperglycemia?

Acromegaly Explanation: Acromegaly, which is caused by a pituitary tumor that releases excessive growth hormone, is associated with hyperglycemia, hypertension, diaphoresis, peripheral neuropathy, and joint pain. Enlarged hands and feet are related to lateral bone growth, which is seen in adults with this disorder. The accompanying soft tissue swelling causes hoarseness and, commonly, sleep apnea. Type 1 diabetes is usually seen in children, and newly diagnosed persons are usually very ill and thin. Hypothyroidism and growth hormone deficiency aren't associated with hyperglycemia.

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a school-age child who is being tested for type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of type 1 diabetes mellitus?

An HbA1c level of 9% The nurse should identify that an HbA1c level greater than or equal to 6.5% is an indication of type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should identify that an oral glucose tolerance of 200 mg/dL for a 2-hr, not a 4-hr, sample is an indication of type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should identify that a random blood glucose value of 200 mg/dL, not 150 mg/dL, accompanied by manifestations of diabetes mellitus such as polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia, is an indication of type 1 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should identify that 120 mg/dL is within the expected reference range for an 8-hr fasting blood glucose and is not an indication of type 1 diabetes mellitus.

A nurse has been caring for a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The client is overwhelmed by what he's facing and not sure he can handle giving himself insulin. This client has been discharged and the charge nurse is insisting the nurse hurry because she needs the space for clients being admitted. How should the nurse handle the situation?

Ask the physician to delay the discharge because the client requires further teaching.

A client is admitted to the health care center with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The medical reports indicate a history of type 1 diabetes. The nurse suspects the client's symptoms to be those of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which action will help the nurse confirm the diagnosis?

Assess the client's breath odor Explanation: DKA is commonly preceded by a day or more of polyuria, polydipsia, nausea, vomiting, and fatigue, with eventual stupor and coma if not treated. The breath has a characteristic fruity odor due to the presence of ketoacids. Checking the client's breath will help the nurse confirm the diagnosis.

The most common cause of hypothyroidism is which of the following?

Autoimmune thyroiditis Explanation: The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto's disease), in which the immune system attacks the thyroid gland. Hypothyroidism can occur in patient with previous hyperthyroidism that has been treated with radioiodine, antithyroid medication treatment, or thyroidectomy.

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis. The nurse should understand that which of the following laboratory values is consistent with diabetic ketoacidosis?

Bicarbonate level 12 mEq/L The client who has diabetic ketoacidosis should have a bicarbonate level less than 15 mEq/L because the client has an increased production of counter-regulatory hormones that lead to metabolic acidosis.

A client is admitted with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). Which laboratory finding should the nurse expect in this client?

Blood glucose level 1,100 mg/dl Explanation: HHNS occurs most frequently in older clients. It can occur in clients with either type 1 or type 2 diabetes mellitus but occurs most commonly in those with type 2. The blood glucose level rises to above 600 mg/dl in response to illness or infection. As the blood glucose level rises, the body attempts to rid itself of the excess glucose by producing urine. Initially, the client produces large quantities of urine. If fluid intake isn't increased at this time, the client becomes dehydrated, causing BUN levels to rise. Arterial pH and plasma bicarbonate levels typically remain within normal limits.

The nurse is reviewing the initial laboratory test results of a client diagnosed with DKA. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?

Blood pH of 6.9 Explanation: With DKA, blood glucose levels are elevated to 300 to 1000 mg/dL or more. Urine contains glucose and ketones. The blood pH ranges from 6.8 to 7.3. The serum bicarbonate level is decreased to levels from 0 to 15 mEq/L. The compensatory breathing pattern can lower the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood (PaCO2) to levels of 10 to 30 mm Hg.

A nurse is assessing a client who has Addison's disease. Which of the following skin manifestations should the nurse expect to find?

Bronze pigmentation of skin The client who has Addison's disease will have a darkening of the skin in both exposed and unexposed parts of the body due to a hormone deficiency caused by damage to the outer layer of the adrenal gland (adrenal cortex).

Evaluation of an adult client reveals oversecretion of growth hormone. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?

Bulging forehead Explanation: Oversecretion of growth hormone in an adult results in acromegaly, manifested by coarse features, a huge lower jaw, thick lips, thickened tongue, a bulging forehead, bulbous nose, and large hands and feet. Excessive urine output, weight loss, and constant thirst are associated with diabetes insipidus.

Which disorder is characterized by a group of symptoms produced by an excess of free circulating cortisol from the adrenal cortex?

Cushing syndrome Explanation: The client with Cushing syndrome demonstrates truncal obesity, moon face, acne, abdominal striae, and hypertension. Regardless of the cause, the normal feedback mechanisms that control the function of the adrenal cortex become ineffective, and the usual diurnal pattern of cortisol is lost. The signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome are primarily a result of the oversecretion of glucocorticoids and androgens, although mineralocorticoid secretion also may be affected.

Which age-related change may affect diabetes and its management?

Decreased renal function Explanation: Decreased renal function affects the management of diabetes. With decreasing renal function, it takes longer for oral hypoglycemic agents to be excreted by the kidneys, and changes in insulin clearance occur with decreased renal function. Other age-related changes that may affect diabetes and its management include hypertension, decreased bowel motility, and decreased thirst.

A nurse is preparing a client with type 1 diabetes for discharge. The client can care for himself; however, he's had a problem with unstable blood glucose levels in the past. Based on the client's history, he should be referred to which health care worker?

Dietitian Explanation: The client should be referred to a dietitian, who will help him gain better control of his blood glucose levels. The client can care for himself, so a home health agency isn't necessary. The client shows no signs of needing a psychiatric referral, and referring the client to a psychiatrist isn't in the nurse's scope of practice. Social workers help clients with financial concerns; the scenario doesn't indicate that the client has a financial concern warranting a social worker at this time.

A nurse is teaching a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus about exercise. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Do not exercise if ketones are present in your urine. The nurse should instruct the client not to exercise if ketones are present in her urine because this is an indication of inadequate insulin and increases the risk for hyperglycemia.

Which information should be included in the teaching plan for a client receiving glargine, a "peakless" basal insulin?

Do not mix with other insulins. Explanation: Because glargine is in a suspension with a pH of 4, it cannot be mixed with other insulins because this would cause precipitation. When administering glargine insulin, it is very important to read the label carefully and to avoid mistaking Lantus insulin for Lente insulin and vice versa.

A nurse is teaching a client who has diabetes mellitus and receives 25 units of NPH insulin every morning if her blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL. Which of the following information should the nurse include? Discard the NPH solution if it appears cloudy.

Expect the NPH insulin to peak in 6 to 14 hr. NPH insulin is an intermediate-acting insulin. Its onset of action is 1 to 2 hr, peaking at 6 to 14 hr. Its duration of action is 16 to 24 hr. The client is at risk for hypoglycemia during the peak time. The client should discard regular insulin if it appears cloudy. The client should gently roll the NPH insulin before loading the syringe to disperse the mixture without creating bubbles. The unopened insulin vials should be stored in the refrigerator.

A nurse should perform which intervention for a client with Cushing's syndrome?

Explain that the client's physical changes are a result of excessive corticosteroids. Explanation: The nurse should explain to the client that Cushing's syndrome causes physical changes related to excessive corticosteroids. Clients with hyperthyroidism, not Cushing's syndrome, are heat intolerant and must have cool clothing and bedding. Clients with Cushing's syndrome should have a high-protein, not low-protein, diet. Clients with Addison's disease must increase sodium intake and fluid intake in times of stress of prevent hypotension.

A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes and plans to administer his regular insulin subcutaneously before he eats breakfast at 0800. After checking the client's morning glucose level, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Give the insulin at 0730. Regular insulin has an onset of 30 to 60 minutes and should be given at a specific time before meals, usually within 30 min. The nurse should always check the blood glucose levels prior to administering short-acting insulin.

Which is the best nursing explanation for the symptom of polyuria in a client with diabetes mellitus?

High sugar pulls fluid into the bloodstream, which results in more urine production. Explanation: The hypertonicity from concentrated amounts of glucose in the blood pulls fluid into the vascular system, resulting in polyuria. The urinary frequency triggers the thirst response, which then results in polydipsia. Ketones in the urine and body requirements do not affect the production of urine.

A nurse is teaching a client with type 1 diabetes how to treat adverse reactions to insulin. To reverse hypoglycemia, the client ideally should ingest an oral carbohydrate. However, this treatment isn't always possible or safe. Therefore, the nurse should advise the client to keep which alternate treatment on hand?

Glucagon Explanation: During a hypoglycemic reaction, a layperson may administer glucagon, an antihypoglycemic agent, to raise the blood glucose level quickly in a client who can't ingest an oral carbohydrate. Epinephrine isn't a treatment for hypoglycemia. Although 50% dextrose is used to treat hypoglycemia, it must be administered I.V. by a skilled health care professional. Hydrocortisone takes a relatively long time to raise the blood glucose level and therefore isn't effective in reversing hypoglycemia.

During a follow-up visit 3 months after a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, a client reports exercising and following a reduced-calorie diet. Assessment reveals that the client has only lost 1 pound and did not bring the glucose-monitoring record. Which value should the nurse measure?

Glycosylated hemoglobin level Explanation: Glycosylated hemoglobin is a blood test that reflects the average blood glucose concentration over a period of approximately 2 to 3 months. When blood glucose is elevated, glucose molecules attach to hemoglobin in red blood cells. The longer the amount of glucose in the blood remains above normal, the more glucose binds to hemoglobin and the higher the glycosylated hemoglobin level becomes.

A nurse is checking laboratory values to determine if a client who has diabetes mellitus is adhering to the treatment plan. Which of the following tests should the nurse use to make this determination?

Glycosylated hemoglobin levels Checking glycosylated hemoglobin levels, or HbA1c, is an accurate method to determine if the client is routinely compliant. Glycosylated hemoglobin refers to hemoglobin that is connected to glucose. Since the life span of an RBC is 4 months, this value will not be affected by recent changes in the client's diet or medication.

A nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who reports feeling shaky and having palpitations. When the nurse finds the client's blood glucose to be 48 mg/dL on the glucometer, he should give the client which of the following? Graham crackers 1 tsp sugar 4 oz diet soda 4 oz skim milk

Graham crackers After establishing that the client has hypoglycemia, the nurse should give the client about 15 g of a rapid-acting, concentrated carbohydrate, such as 4 oz of fruit juice, 8 oz of skim milk, 3 tsp of sugar or honey, 3 graham crackers, or commercially prepared glucose tablets. The nurse should recheck the client's blood glucose level in 15 minutes.

A nurse is assessing a child who has diabetes mellitus. The nurse should identify that which of the following is a manifestation of hypoglycemia?

Headache MY ANSWER The nurse should recognize that headache is a manifestation of hypoglycemia.

Which condition should a nurse expect to find in a client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism?

Hypercalcemia Explanation: Hypercalcemia is the hallmark of excess parathyroid hormone levels. Serum phosphate will be low (hypophosphatemia), and there will be increased urinary phosphate (hyperphosphaturia) because phosphate excretion is increased.

An older adult patient is in the hospital being treated for sepsis related to a urinary tract infection. The patient has started to have an altered sense of awareness, profound dehydration, and hypotension. What does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?

Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome Explanation: Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS) occurs most often in older people (50 to 70 years of age) who have no known history of diabetes or who have type 2 diabetes (Reynolds, 2012). The clinical picture of HHS is one of hypotension, profound dehydration (dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor), tachycardia, and variable neurologic signs (e.g., alteration of consciousness, seizures, hemiparesis).

When the nurse is caring for a patient with type 1 diabetes, what clinical manifestation would be a priority to closely monitor?

Hypoglycemia Explanation: The therapeutic goal for diabetes management is to achieve normal blood glucose levels (euglycemia) without hypoglycemia while maintaining a high quality of life.

The nurse is preparing a presentation for a group of adults at a local community center about diabetes. Which of the following would the nurse include as associated with type 2 diabetes?

Insulin production insufficient Explanation: Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance or insufficient insulin production. It is more common in aging adults, and now accounts for 20% of all newly diagnosed cases. Type 1 diabetes is more likely in childhood and adolescence although it can occur at any age. It accounts for approximately 5% to 10% of all diagnosed cases of diabetes. Pre-diabetes can lead to type 2 diabetes.

A young adult client with type 1 diabetes does not want to have to self-administer insulin injections several times a day. Which medication approach would the nurse recommend that best controls the condition and meets the client's needs?

Insulin pump Explanation: The insulin pump most closely mimics regular pancreas function and increases meal and exercise flexibility. The use of the pump would meet the client's needs of not wanting to self-administer several injections of insulin every day. With one injection per day, there is difficulty controlling fasting blood glucose if the type of insulin does not last. The client could also develop afternoon hypoglycemia if the single dose is increased in order to control the morning fasting glucose level. Two injections per day might meet the client's needs of minimal self-injections; however, for this regimen, there needs to be a fixed schedule of meals and exercise and it is difficult to adjust the dose if premixed insulin is used. Self-administering insulin before each meal will not meet the client's needs since this requires more injections than any other regimen.

Which statement is correct regarding glargine insulin?

It cannot be mixed with any other type of insulin. Explanation: Because this insulin is in a suspension with a pH of 4, it cannot be mixed with other insulins because this would cause precipitation. There is no peak in action. It is approved to give once daily.

The nurse is describing the action of insulin in the body to a client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following would the nurse explain as being the primary action?

It carries glucose into body cells. Explanation: Insulin carries glucose into body cells as their preferred source of energy. Besides, it promotes the liver's storage of glucose as glycogen and inhibits the breakdown of glycogen back into glucose. Insulin does not aid in gluconeogenesis but inhibits the breakdown of glycogen back into glucose. Insulin does not have an effect on the intestinal absorption of glucose.

The nurse is describing the action of insulin in the body to a client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following would the nurse explain as being the primary action?

It enhances the transport of glucose across the cell membrane. Explanation: Insulin carries glucose into body cells as their preferred source of energy. Besides, it promotes the liver's storage of glucose as glycogen and inhibits the breakdown of glycogen back into glucose. Insulin does not aid in gluconeogenesis but inhibits the breakdown of glycogen back into glucose.

A nurse is teaching a client who is to start self-administering a regimen of regular and NPH insulin twice each day. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Keep prefilled syringes in the refrigerator for up to 1 week. The client can prefill syringes with the appropriate dose and keep them in the refrigerator for up to 1 week. He should keep the syringes in the upright position, which will prevent clogging of the needle, and resuspend the insulin prior to administering by gentle agitation.

A patient is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. What clinical characteristics does the nurse expect to see in this patient? Select all that apply. Ketosis-prone Little or no endogenous insulin Obesity at diagnoses Younger than 30 years of age Older than 65 years of age

Ketosis-prone Little endogenous insulin Younger than 30 years of age Explanation: Type I diabetes mellitus is associated with the following characteristics: onset any age, but usually young (<30 y); usually thin at diagnosis, recent weight loss; etiology includes genetic, immunologic, and environmental factors (e.g., virus); often have islet cell antibodies; often have antibodies to insulin even before insulin treatment; little or no endogenous insulin; need exogenous insulin to preserve life; and ketosis prone when insulin absent.

A nurse is caring for a client with an abnormally low blood glucose concentration. What glucose level should the nurse observe when assessing laboratory results?

Less than 70 mg/dL (3.7 mmol/L) Explanation: Hypoglycemia means low (hypo) sugar in the blood (glycemia), and occurs when the blood glucose level falls to less than 70 mg/dL (3.7 mmol/L). Severe hypoglycemia is when glucose levels are less the 40 mg/dL (2.5 mmol/L).

Which type of insulin acts most quickly?

Lispro Explanation: The onset of action of rapid-acting lispro is within 10 to 15 minutes. The onset of action of short-acting regular insulin is 30 minutes to 1 hour. The onset of action of intermediate-acting NPH insulin is 3 to 4 hours. The onset of action of very long-acting glargine is ~6 hours.

A client with diabetes is receiving an oral anti diabetic agent that acts to help the tissues use available insulin more efficiently. Which of the following agents would the nurse expect to administer?

Metformin Explanation: Metformin is a biguanide and, along with the thiazolidinediones (rosiglitazone and pioglitazone), are categorized as insulin sensitizers; they help tissues use available insulin more efficiently. Glyburide and glipizide, which are sulfonylureas, and repaglinide, a meglitinide, are described as being insulin releasers because they stimulate the pancreas to secrete more insulin.

The nurse is teaching a client about the dietary restrictions related to his diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism. What foods should the nurse encourage the client to avoid?

Milk Explanation: Clients with hyperparathyroidism should use a low-calcium diet (fewer dairy products) and drink at least 3 to 4 L of fluid daily to dilute the urine and prevent renal stones from forming. It is especially important that the client drink fluids before going to bed and periodically throughout the night to avoid concentrated urine. Bananas, chicken livers, and hamburgers do not require avoidance. Milk is the highest in calcium content.

The nurse is caring for a client who has an excess amount of potassium being excreted and has a serum level of 6.2 mEq/L. What group of adrenal hormones is likely to be impacting the laboratory result?

Mineralocorticoids Explanation: Mineralocorticoids, primarily aldosterone, maintain water and electrolyte balances. The androgenic hormones convert to testosterone and estrogens. Glucocorticoids, such as cortisol, affect body metabolism, suppress inflammation, and help the body withstand stress.

A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing the Somogyi effect and takes intermittent-acting insulin. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?

Monitor the client's nighttime blood glucose levels. The Somogyi effect is a swing of a high blood glucose level in the morning after an extremely low blood glucose level during the night. The swing is caused by the release of stress hormones to counter low glucose levels. Monitoring the client's nighttime blood glucose levels over time can provide an accurate diagnosis of the Somogyi effect.

The nurse is preparing to administer intermediate-acting insulin to a patient with diabetes. Which insulin will the nurse administer?

NPH Explanation: Intermediate-acting insulins are called NPH insulin (neutral protamine Hagedorn) or Lente insulin. Lispro (Humalog) is rapid acting, Iletin II is short acting, and glargine (Lantus) is very long acting.

A patient who is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes would be expected to:

Need exogenous insulin. Explanation: Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells that require exogenous insulin.

A nurse obtains a fingerstick glucose level of 45 mg/dl on a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The client is alert and oriented, and the client's skin is warm and dry. How should the nurse intervene?

Obtain a repeat fingerstick glucose level. Explanation: The nurse should recheck the fingerstick glucose level to verify the original result because the client isn't exhibiting signs of hypoglycemia. The nurse should give the client milk and a graham cracker with peanut butter or a glass of orange juice after confirming the low glucose level. It isn't necessary to notify the physician or to obtain a serum glucose level at this time.

A nurse is preparing to obtain a capillary blood glucose level from a child who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Position the finger in a dependent position prior to collecting the specimen. MY ANSWER The nurse should hold the child's finger in a dependent position to increase blood flow to the puncture site.

A nurse is reviewing the medication list for a client who has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. The nurse should recognize which of the following medications can cause glucose intolerance? Cimetidine Dextromethorphan Prednisone Atorvastatin

Prednisone Corticosteroids such as prednisone can cause glucose intolerance and hyperglycemia. The client might require increased dosage of a hypoglycemic medication.

A nurse is caring for a child who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The child's guardian calls to report that the child is experiencing an episode of hypoglycemia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Pallor The nurse should expect the child who is experiencing hypoglycemia to have manifestations that include pallor, sweating, tremors, tachycardia, dizziness, and headache. The nurse should expect a child who is experiencing hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia, to experience thirst. The nurse should expect to find dry mucous membranes in a child who is experiencing hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. The nurse should expect a child who is experiencing hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia, to have Kussmaul respirations.

A client has a dysfunction in one of his glands that is causing a decrease in the level of calcium in the blood. What gland should be evaluated for dysfunction?

Parathyroid gland Explanation: The parathyroid glands secrete parathormone, which increases the level of calcium in the blood when there is a decrease in the serum level. The thyroid, thymus, and adrenal gland do not secrete calcium.

The nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a school-so child who is underweight. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take to ensure injection of medication into the subcutaneous tissue?

Pinch the child's skin at the site of injection. To help ensure injection of insulin into the subcutaneous tissue of a child who is underweight and has decreased adipose tissue, the nurse should pinch the skin and underlying tissue at the site of the injection. This will allow for the needle to be inserted into the subcutaneous, or adipose, tissue and avoid insertion of the needle and injection of the medication into the muscle. To inject a medication into the subcutaneous tissue, the nurse should use a 3/8- to 5/8-inch needle.

A nurse is teaching a diabetic support group about the causes of type 1 diabetes. The teaching is determined to be effective when the group is able to attribute which factor as a cause of type 1 diabetes?

Presence of autoantibodies against islet cells There is evidence of an autoimmune response in type 1 diabetes. This is an abnormal response in which antibodies are directed against normal tissues of the body, responding to these tissues as if they were foreign. Autoantibodies against islet cells and against endogenous (internal) insulin have been detected in people at the time of diagnosis and even several years before the development of clinical signs of type 1 diabetes.

A client who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes 14 years ago is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with abdominal pain. On admission, the client's blood glucose level is 470 mg/dl. Which finding is most likely to accompany this blood glucose level?

Rapid, thready pulse Explanation: This client's abnormally high blood glucose level indicates hyperglycemia, which typically causes polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia. Because polyuria leads to fluid loss, the nurse should expect to assess signs of deficient fluid volume, such as a rapid, thready pulse; decreased blood pressure; and rapid respirations. Cool, moist skin and arm and leg trembling are associated with hypoglycemia. Rapid respirations — not slow, shallow ones — are associated with hyperglycemia.

A client is admitted to the unit with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which insulin would the nurse expect to administer intravenously?

Regular Explanation: Regular insulin is administered intravenously to treat DKA. It is added to an IV solution and infused continuously. Glargine, NPH, and Lente are only administered subcutaneously.

A nurse is planning a teaching session for the guardian of a child who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following information should the nurse plan to include?

Regular and NPH insulin can be combined into the same syringe. The nurse should include that the child's regular and NPH insulin can be combined into the same syringe.

The client with diabetes asks the nurse why shoes and socks are removed at each office visit. The nurse gives which assessment finding as the explanation for the inspection of feet?

Sensory neuropathy Explanation: Neuropathy results from poor glucose control and decreased circulation to nerve tissues. Neuropathy involving sensory nerves located in the periphery can lead to lack of sensitivity, which increases the potential for soft tissue injury without client awareness. The client's feet are inspected on each visit to ensure no injury or pressure has occurred. Autonomic neuropathy, retinopathy, and nephropathy affect nerves to organs other than feet.

A client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide. Which laboratory test is the most important for confirming this disorder?

Serum osmolarity Explanation: Serum osmolarity is the most important test for confirming HHNS; it's also used to guide treatment strategies and determine evaluation criteria. A client with HHNS typically has a serum osmolarity of more than 350 mOsm/L. Serum potassium, serum sodium, and ABG values are also measured, but they aren't as important as serum osmolarity for confirming a diagnosis of HHNS. A client with HHNS typically has hypernatremia and osmotic diuresis. ABG values reveal acidosis, and the potassium level is variable.

A client with status asthmaticus requires endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation. Twenty-four hours after intubation, the client is started on the insulin infusion protocol. The nurse must monitor the client's blood glucose levels hourly and watch for which early signs and symptoms associated with hypoglycemia?

Sweating, tremors, and tachycardia Explanation: Sweating, tremors, and tachycardia, thirst, and anxiety are early signs of hypoglycemia. Dry skin, bradycardia, and somnolence are signs and symptoms associated with hypothyroidism. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are signs and symptoms of diabetes mellitus.

A nurse is teaching a client about selecting injection sites for insulin. Which of the following sites should the nurse recommend as best for injection?

The abdomen below the costal margins to the iliac crests Compared to other injection sites, the abdomen provides for the fastest and most consistent absorption of insulin. The client should use sites at least 5 cm (2 in) from the umbilicus.

Which of the following factors would a nurse identify as a most likely cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in a client with diabetes?

The client has eaten and has not taken or received insulin. Explanation: If the client has eaten and has not taken or received insulin, DKA is more likely to develop. Hypoglycemia is more likely to develop if the client has not consumed food and continues to take insulin or oral antidiabetic medications, if the client has not consumed sufficient calories, or if client has been exercising more than usual.

A client is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The client reports visiting the gym regularly and is a vegetarian. Which of the following factors is important to consider when the nurse assesses the client?

The client's consumption of carbohydrates Explanation: While assessing a client, it is important to ask about consumption of carbohydrates due to the client's high blood sugar. Although other factors such as the client's mental and emotional status, history of tests involving iodine, and exercise routine can be part of data collection, they are not the priority when assessing a client with high blood sugar.

A client is scheduled for a diagnostic test to measure blood hormone levels. The nurse expects that this test will determine which of the following?

The functioning of endocrine glands Explanation: Measuring blood hormone levels helps determine the functioning of endocrine glands. A radioimmunoassay determines the concentration of a substance in plasma. The measurement of blood hormone levels will not reveal a client's blood sugar level. Radiographs of the chest or abdomen determine the size of the organ and its location.

A client receives a daily injection of glargine insulin at 7:00 a.m. When should the nurse monitor this client for a hypoglycemic reaction?

This insulin has no peak action and does not cause a hypoglycemic reaction. Explanation: "Peakless" basal or very long-acting insulins are approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration for use as a basal insulin; that is, the insulin is absorbed very slowly over 24 hours and can be given once a day. It has is no peak action.

Which findings should a nurse expect to assess in client with Hashimoto's thyroiditis?

Weight gain, decreased appetite, and constipation Explanation: Hashimoto's thyroiditis, an autoimmune disorder, is the most common cause of hypothyroidism. It's seen most frequently in women older than age 40. Signs and symptoms include weight gain, decreased appetite; constipation; lethargy; dry cool skin; brittle nails; coarse hair; muscle cramps; weakness; and sleep apnea. Weight loss, increased appetite, and hyperdefecation are characteristic of hyperthyroidism. Weight loss, increased urination, and increased thirst are characteristic of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. Weight gain, increased urination, and purplish-red striae are characteristic of hypercortisolism.

The nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of insulin and about mixing regular and neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin. Which information is important to include in the teaching plan?

When mixing insulin, the regular insulin is drawn up into the syringe first. Explanation: When rapid-acting or short-acting insulins are to be given simultaneously with longer-acting insulins, they are usually mixed together in the same syringe; the longer-acting insulins must be mixed thoroughly before being drawn into the syringe. The American Diabetic Association recommends that the regular insulin be drawn up first. The most important issues are that patients (1) are consistent in technique, so the wrong dose is not drawn in error or the wrong type of insulin, and (2) do not inject one type of insulin into the bottle containing a different type of insulin. Injecting cloudy insulin into a vial of clear insulin contaminates the entire vial of clear insulin and alters its action.

A nurse is caring for a client who has developed agranulocytosis as a result of taking propylthiouracil to treat hyperthyroidism. The nurse should understand that this client is at increased risk for which of the following conditions? Excessive bleeding Ecchymosis Infection Hyperglycemia

infection Agranulocytosis is a failure of the bone marrow to make enough white blood cells, cauing neutropenia and lowering the body defenses against infection

A client with a history of type 1 diabetes is demonstrating fast, deep, labored breathing and has fruity odored breath. What could be the cause of the client's current serious condition?

ketoacidosis Explanation: Kussmaul respirations (fast, deep, labored breathing) are common in ketoacidosis. Acetone, which is volatile, can be detected on the breath by its characteristic fruity odor. If treatment is not initiated, the outcome of ketoacidosis is circulatory collapse, renal shutdown, and death. Ketoacidosis is more common in people with diabetes who no longer produce insulin, such as those with type 1 diabetes. People with type 2 diabetes are more likely to develop hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome because with limited insulin, they can use enough glucose to prevent ketosis but not enough to maintain a normal blood glucose level.

Which of the following is an age-related change that may affect diabetes? Select all that apply. Decreased renal function Taste changes Decreased vision Increased bowel motility Increased proprioception

• Decreased renal function • Taste changes • Decreased vision Age-related changes include decreased renal function, taste changes, decreased vision, decreased bowel motility, and decreased proprioception.

A client has been recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, and reports continued weight loss despite increased hunger and food consumption. This condition is called:

polyphagia. Explanation: While the needed glucose is being wasted, the body's requirement for fuel continues. The person with diabetes feels hungry and eats more (polyphagia). Despite eating more, he or she loses weight as the body uses fat and protein to substitute for glucose.

A client with type 1 diabetes has been on a regimen of multiple daily injection therapy. He's being converted to continuous subcutaneous insulin therapy via an insulin pump. While teaching the client about continuous subcutaneous insulin therapy, the nurse should tell him that the regimen includes the use of:

rapid-acting insulin only. Explanation: A continuous subcutaneous insulin regimen uses a basal rate and boluses of rapid-acting insulin. Multiple daily injection therapy uses a combination of rapid-acting and intermediate- or long-acting insulins.

Which of the following is a characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)? Select all that apply. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine Rapid onset More common in type 1 diabetes Absent ketones Normal arterial pH level

• Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine • Rapid onset • More common in type 1 diabetes Explanation: DKA is characterized by an elevated BUN and creatinine, rapid onset, and it is more common in type 1 diabetes. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is characterized by the absence of urine and serum ketones and a normal arterial pH level.

During an assessment of a client's functional health pattern, which question by the nurse directly addresses the client's thyroid function?

"Do you experience fatigue even if you have slept a long time?" Explanation: With the diagnosis of hypothyroidism, extreme fatigue makes it difficult for the person to complete a full day's work or participate in usual activities.

A nurse is completing an assessment of a client with suspected acromegaly. To assist in making the diagnosis, which question should the nurse ask?

"Has your shoe size increased recently?" Explanation: Excessive skeletal growth occurs only in the feet, the hands, the superciliary ridge, the molar eminences, the nose, and the chin, giving rise to the clinical condition of acromegaly.

A nursing student asks the instructor why the pituitary gland is called the "master gland." What is the best response by the instructor?

"It regulates the function of other endocrine glands." Explanation: The pituitary gland is called the master gland because it regulates the function of other endocrine glands. The term is somewhat misleading, however, because the hypothalamus influences the pituitary gland. The gland has many other hormones that it secretes.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus about the pathophysiology of the disease. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"My cells are resistant to the effects of insulin." The client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus will have resistance to insulin and a decrease in the secretion of insulin by the pancreatic beta cells.

A group of students are reviewing information about the relationship between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland. The students demonstrate the need for additional study when they state:

"The pituitary gland, as the master gland, controls the secretion of hormones by the hypothalamus." Explanation: Although the pituitary gland is considered the "master gland" because it regulates the function of other glands, the hypothalamus influences the pituitary gland. The hypothalamus creates a pathway for neurohormones also known as releasing hormones or factors that stimulate and inhibit secretions from the anterior and posterior lobes of the pituitary gland. Under the influence of the hypothalamus, the lobes of the pituitary gland secrete various hormones. For example, corticotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus causes the anterior pituitary gland to secrete ACTH.

A patient is diagnosed with overactivity of the adrenal medulla. What epinephrine value does the nurse recognize is a positive diagnostic indicator for overactivity of the adrenal medulla?

450 pg/mL Explanation: Normal plasma values of epinephrine are 100 pg/mL (590 pmol/L); normal values of norepinephrine are generally less than 100 to 550 pg/mL (590 to 3,240 pmol/L). Values of epinephrine greater than 400 pg/mL (2,180 pmol/L) or norepinephrine values greater than 2,000 pg/mL (11,800 pmol/L) are considered diagnostic of pheochromocytoma (associated with overactivity of the adrenal medulla). Values that fall between normal levels and those diagnostic of pheochromocytoma indicate the need for further testing.

A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving vasopressin. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication that the medication is effective? A decrease in blood sugar A decrease in blood pressure A decrease in urine output A decrease in specific gravity

A decrease in urine output The major manifestations of diabetes insipidus are excessive urination and extreme thirst. Vasopressin is used to control frequent urination, increased thirst, and loss of water associated with diabetes insipidus. A decreased urine output is the desired outcome

After a thyroidectomy, the client develops a carpopedal spasm while the nurse is taking a BP reading on the left arm. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

Administer IV calcium gluconate as ordered. Explanation: When hypocalcemia and tetany occur after a thyroidectomy, the immediate treatment is administration of IV calcium gluconate. If this does not immediately decrease neuromuscular irritability and seizure activity, sedative agents such as pentobarbital may be administered.

Which type of cell secretes glucagon and promotes gluconeogenesis?

Alpha Explanation: The alpha cells of the pancreas secret the hormone glucagon. It promotes gluconeogenesis, thus increasing the blood glucose level. The beta cells of the pancreas secrete insulin. Delta cells secrete somatostatin, which reduces the rate at which food is absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract.

A nurse is assessing a client with Cushing's syndrome. Which observation should the nurse report to the physician immediately?

An irregular apical pulse Explanation: Because Cushing's syndrome causes aldosterone overproduction, which increases urinary potassium loss, the disorder may lead to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should immediately report signs and symptoms of hypokalemia, such as an irregular apical pulse, to the physician. Edema is an expected finding because aldosterone overproduction causes sodium and fluid retention. Dry mucous membranes and frequent urination signal dehydration, which isn't associated with Cushing's syndrome.

A patient is suspected of having a pheochromocytoma and is having diagnostic tests done in the hospital. What symptoms does the nurse recognize as most significant for a patient with this disorder?

Blood pressure varying between 120/86 and 240/130 mm Hg Explanation: Hypertension associated with pheochromocytoma may be intermittent or persistent. Blood pressures exceeding 250/150 mm Hg have been recorded. Such blood pressure elevations are life threatening and can cause severe complications, such as cardiac dysrhythmias, dissecting aneurysm, stroke, and acute kidney failure.

A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a parathyroidectomy to treat hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse expect to decrease as a therapeutic effect of the procedure?

Calcium The parathyroid hormone regulates calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium balance within the client's blood and bone by maintaining a balance between the mineral levels in the blood and the bone. Hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypercalcemia; therefore, a decrease in the calcium level indicates an improvement in the client's condition.

A nurse is planning care for a client who has Cushing's syndrome due to chronic corticosteroid use. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Check the client's urine specific gravity. The nurse should check the client's urine specific gravity to assess for fluid volume overload.

A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following subtotal thyroidectomy. The client reports a tingling sensation in the hands, the soles of the feet, and around the lips. For which of the following findings should the nurse assess the client? Chvostek's sign Babinski's sign Brudzinski's sign Kernig's sign

Chvostek's sign The nurse should suspect that the client has hypocalcemia, a possible complication following subtotal thyroidectomy. Manifestations of hypocalcemia include numbness and tingling in the hands, the soles of the feet, and around the lips, typically appearing between 24 and 48 hr after surgery. To elicit Chvostek's sign, the nurse should tap the client's face at a point just below and in front of the ear. A positive response would be twitching of the ipsilateral (same side only) facial muscles, suggesting neuromuscular excitability due to hypocalcemia.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory and diagnostic test findings of a client diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?

Decreased serum osmolarity Explanation: With SIADH, serum sodium levels and serum osmolarity are decreased. Urine sodium levels and osmolarity are high. Calcium levels are not involved with this disorder.

A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Dehydration Polyphagia Hyperglycemia Bradycardia

Dehydration Diabetes insipidus causes excessive excretion of dilute urine, resulting in dehydration. Polyphagia and hyperglycemia are found in diabetes mellitus. Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is a manifestation of diabetes insipidus.

During physical examination of a client with a suspected endocrine disorder, the nurse assesses the body structures. The nurse gathers this data based on the understanding that it is an important aid in which of the following?

Detecting evidence of hormone hypersecretion Explanation: The evaluation of body structures helps the nurse detect evidence of hypersecretion or hyposecretion of hormones. This helps in the assessment of findings that are unique to specific endocrine glands. Radiographs of the chest or abdomen are taken to detect tumors. Radiographs also determine the size of the organ and its location.

A client sustained a head injury when falling from a ladder. While in the hospital, the client begins voiding large amounts of clear urine and reports being very thirsty. The client states feeling weak and having experienced an 8-pound weight loss since admission. What condition does the nurse expect the client to be tested for?

Diabetes insipidus (DI) Explanation: With diabetes insipidus, urine output may be as high as 20 L/24 hours. Urine is dilute, with a specific gravity of 1.002 or less. Limiting fluid intake does not control urine excretion. Thirst is excessive and constant. Activities are limited by the frequent need to drink and void. Weakness, dehydration, and weight loss develop. SIADH will have the opposite clinical manifestations. The client's symptoms are related to the trauma and not to a pituitary tumor. The thyroid gland does not exhibit these symptoms.

A client is being seen in the clinic to receive the results of the lab work to determine thyroid levels. The nurse observes the client's eyes appear to be bulging, and there is swelling around the eyes. What does the nurse know that the correct documentation of this finding is?

Exophthalmos Explanation: Exophthalmos is an abnormal bulging or protrusion of the eyes and periorbital swelling. These findings are not consistent with retinal detachment.

Which outcome indicates that treatment of a client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?

Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day. Explanation: Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria (up to 8 L/day), constant thirst, and an unusually high oral intake of fluids. Treatment with the appropriate drug should decrease both oral fluid intake and urine output. A urine output of 200 ml/hour indicates continuing polyuria. A blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 126 beats/minute indicate compensation for the continued fluid deficit, suggesting that treatment hasn't been effective.

A nurse is assessing a client who has hyperthyroidism. The nurse should expect the client to report which of the following manifestations? Sensitivity to cold Constipation Frequent mood changes Weight gain of 4.5 kg (10 lb) in 3 weeks

Frequent mood changes Hyperthyroidism develops when the thyroid gland produces an excess of the thyroid hormones that regulate the metabolic rate. Clients experience emotional lability that fluctuates between emotional hyperexcitability and irritability. They often cannot sit quietly.

Which hormone would be responsible for increasing blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogenolysis?

Glucagon Explanation: Glucagon is a hormone released by the alpha islet cells of the pancreas that raises blood glucose levels by stimulating glycogenolysis (the breakdown of glycogen into glucose in the liver). Somatostatin is a hormone secreted by the delta islet cells that helps to maintain a relatively constant level of blood glucose by inhibiting the release of insulin and glucagons. Insulin is a hormone released by the beta islet cells that lowers the level of blood glucose when it rises beyond normal limits. Cholecystokinin is released from the cells of the small intestine that stimulates contraction of the gall bladder to release bile when dietary fat is ingested.

Which instruction should be included in the discharge teaching plan for a client after thyroidectomy for Graves' disease?

Have regular follow-up care. Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client with Graves' disease to have regular follow-up care because most cases of Graves' disease eventually result in hypothyroidism. Annual thyroid-stimulating hormone tests and the client's ability to recognize signs and symptoms of thyroid dysfunction will help detect thyroid abnormalities early. Recording intake and output is important for clients with fluid and electrolyte imbalances but not thyroid disorders. DDAVP is used to treat diabetes insipidus. Although exercise to improve cardiovascular fitness is important, the importance of regular follow-up is most critical for this client.

A client with a history of Addison's disease and flu-like symptoms accompanied by nausea and vomiting over the past week is brought to the facility. His wife reports that he acted confused and was extremely weak when he awoke that morning. The client's blood pressure is 90/58 mm Hg, his pulse is 116 beats/minute, and his temperature is 101° F (38.3° C). A diagnosis of acute adrenal insufficiency is made. What should the nurse expect to administer by IV infusion?

Hydrocortisone Explanation: Emergency treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency (addisonian crisis) is IV infusion of hydrocortisone and saline solution. The client is usually given a dose containing hydrocortisone 100 mg I.V. in normal saline every 6 hours until blood pressure returns to normal. Insulin isn't indicated in this situation because adrenal insufficiency is usually associated with hypoglycemia. Potassium isn't indicated because these clients are usually hyperkalemic. The client needs normal — not hypotonic — saline solution.

A client has experienced several autoimmune disorders over the last 25 years, and lately has developed a new set of symptoms. What assessments would the nurse expect to find with a client with suspected Addison disease? Select all that apply. Weight gain Increased appetite Hypoglycemia Depression Hypotension

Hypoglycemia Depression Hypotension Explanation: Addison disease is characterized by muscle weakness, anorexia, GI symptoms, fatigue, emaciation, hypotension, low blood glucose levels, low serum sodium levels, high serum potassium levels, and dark pigmentation of the mucous membranes and the skin, especially of the knuckles, knees, and elbows. Depression, emotional lability, apathy, and confusion may also be present.

A nurse is monitoring a client who has syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Hyponatremia The client who has SIADH will have hyponatremia caused by the excessive release of an antidiuretic hormone (ADH). As a result of the excess ADH, the client retains water that causes dilutional hyponatremia

A client with acromegaly has been given the option of a surgical approach or a medical approach. The client decides to have a surgical procedure to remove the pituitary gland. What does the nurse understand this surgical procedure is called?

Hypophysectomy Explanation: The treatment of choice is surgical removal of the pituitary gland (transsphenoidal hypophysectomy) through a nasal approach. The surgeon may substitute an endoscopic technique using microsurgical instruments to reduce surgical trauma. A hysteroscopy is a gynecologic procedure. The thyroid gland is not involved for a surgical procedure. Ablation is not a removal of the pituitary gland.

A client has been diagnosed with myxedema from long-standing hypothyroidism. What clinical manifestations of this disorder does the nurse recognize are progressing to myxedema coma? Select all that apply. Hypothermia Hypertension Hypotension Hypoventilation Hyperventilation

Hypothermia Hypotension Hypoventilation Explanation: Severe hypothyroidism is called myxedema. Advanced, untreated myxedema can progress to myxedemic coma. Signs of this life-threatening event are hypothermia, hypotension, and hypoventilation. Hypertension and hyperventilation indicate increased metabolic responses, which are the opposite of what the client would be experiencing.

Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a client with hyperthyroidism?

Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess Explanation: In the client with hyperthyroidism, excessive thyroid hormone production leads to hypermetabolism and increased nutrient metabolism. These conditions may result in a negative nitrogen balance, increased protein synthesis and breakdown, decreased glucose tolerance, and fat mobilization and depletion. These changes put the client at risk for marked nutrient and calorie deficiency, making Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess the most important nursing diagnosis. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to edema, skin fragility, and poor wound healing and Disturbed body image related to weight gain and edema may be appropriate for a client with hypothyroidism, which slows the metabolic rate.

A patient is diagnosed with a deficiency in vasopressin, a posterior pituitary hormone. Therefore, a primary nursing responsibility is to assess for:

Indicators of dehydration. Explanation: A deficiency in vasopressin, also known as the antidiuretic hormone, would result in increased urinary output, thirst, and dehydration. No glucose is lost in the urine. Hypernatremia occurs with dehydration.

The nurse assesses a patient who has an obvious goiter. What type of deficiency does the nurse recognize is most likely the cause of this?

Iodine Explanation: Oversecretion of thyroid hormones is usually associated with an enlarged thyroid gland known as a goiter. Goiter also commonly occurs with iodine deficiency.

The nurse is teaching a client that the body needs iodine for the thyroid to function. What food would be the best source of iodine for the body?

Iodized table salt Explanation: The major use of iodine in the body is by the thyroid. Iodized table salt is the best source of iodine.

An instructor has just finished teaching a class about the endocrine system. The instructor determines that the students need additional instruction when they identify which of the following as an endocrine gland?

Kidneys Explanation: Although the kidneys secrete renin and erythropoietin, they are typically not considered endocrine glands. Therefore, if the students identify the kidneys as endocrine glands, they need further instruction. The pancreas, adrenal glands, and testes are considered endocrine glands.

A nurse is proving teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism. On which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to instruct the client? Radioactive iodine Levothyroxine Sumatriptan Levofloxacin

Levothyoxine Levothyroxine is a synthetic thyroid hormone that is chemically identical to thyroxine (T4). It is used in the treatment of hypothyroidism. The nurse should be prepared to instruct the client on the use of this medication Radioactive iodine is an anti-thyroid med that treats thyroid cancer, hyperthyroidism, and is used as a diagnostic aid for thyroid function studies Sumatriptan is an anti-migraine agent used for acute treatment migraine and cluster headaches. Levofloxacin is a broad spectrum anti-infective of the quinolone class that is used to treat infections of the sinuses, skin, lungs, ears, airways, bones, joints, and urinary tract

A client is suspected to have a pituitary tumor due to signs of diabetes insipidus. What initial test does the nurse help to prepare the client for?

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Explanation: A computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan is performed to detect a suspected pituitary tumor or to identify calcifications or tumors of the parathyroid glands. A radioactive iodine uptake test would be useful for a thyroid tumor. Radioimmunoassay determines the concentration of a substance in plasma.

For a client with Graves' disease, which nursing intervention promotes comfort?

Maintaining room temperature in the low-normal range Explanation: Graves' disease causes signs and symptoms of hypermetabolism, such as heat intolerance, diaphoresis, excessive thirst and appetite, and weight loss. To reduce heat intolerance and diaphoresis, the nurse should keep the client's room temperature in the low-normal range. To replace fluids lost via diaphoresis, the nurse should encourage, not restrict, intake of oral fluids. Placing extra blankets on the bed of a client with heat intolerance would cause discomfort. To provide needed energy and calories, the nurse should encourage the client to eat high-carbohydrate foods.

A nurse is planning a community health screening for a group of clients who are at risk for type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following clients should the nurse include in the screening?

Men and women who are obese There is a high correlation between obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Obesity plays a major role in the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus by decreasing the number of available insulin receptors in skeletal muscles and fat cells. This is referred to as peripheral insulin resistance. A reduced-calorie diet for obese clients tends to reverse the phenomenon of peripheral insulin resistance.

A patient with a history of hypothyroidism is admitted to the intensive care unit unconscious and with a temperature of 95.2ºF. A family member informs the nurse that the patient has not taken thyroid medication in over 2 months. What does the nurse suspect that these findings indicate?

Myxedema coma Explanation: Myxedema coma is a rare life-threatening condition. It is the decompensated state of severe hypothyroidism in which the patient is hypothermic and unconscious (Ross, 2012a). This condition may develop with undiagnosed hypothyroidism and may be precipitated by infection or other systemic disease or by use of sedatives or opioid analgesic agents. Patients may also experience myxedema coma if they forget to take their thyroid replacement medication.

A client receiving thyroid replacement therapy develops influenza and forgets to take her thyroid replacement medicine. The nurse understands that skipping this medication puts the client at risk for developing which life-threatening complication?

Myxedema coma Explanation: Myxedema coma, severe hypothyroidism, is a life-threatening condition that may develop if thyroid replacement medication isn't taken. Exophthalmos (protrusion of the eyeballs) is seen with hyperthyroidism. Although thyroid storm is life-threatening, it's caused by severe hyperthyroidism. Tibial myxedema (peripheral mucinous edema involving the lower leg) is associated with hypothyroidism but isn't life-threatening.

A nurse is caring for a client who had total thyroidectomy and a serum calcium level of 7.6 mg/dL. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Tingling of the extremities Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes Shorted QT intervals Constipation

Normal range: 8.8 - 10.4 Tingling of the extremities A serum calcium level of 7.6 mg/dL is below the expected reference range, indicating hypocalcemia. A client who undergoes a total thyroidectomy is at risk for parathyroid injury which can lead to hypocalcemia. The nurse should monitor the client for reports of tingling and numbness of the extremities and around the mouth, muscle tremors, cramps, and cardiac dysrhythmias

A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. For which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Polyuria Diabetes insipidus is characterized by increased thirst (polydipsia) and increased urination (polyuria). The client who has diabetes insipidus will excrete large quantities of urine with a very low specific gravity.

A client with acromegaly is admitted to the hospital with complaints of partial blindness that began suddenly. What does the nurse suspect is occurring with this client?

Pressure on the optic nerve Explanation: Partial blindness may result from pressure on the optic nerve. Glaucoma does not occur suddenly, and the client did not report injury to suspect corneal abrasions or retinal detachment.

A nurse is assessing a client who is admitted with hyperthyroidism. The client reports a weight loss of 5.4 kg (12 lb) in the last 2 months, increased appetite, increased perspiration, fatigue, menstrual irregularity, and restlessness. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent a thyroid crisis? Provide a quiet, low-stimulus environment Administer aspirin as prescribed for any sign of hyperthermia Keep the client NPO Observe the client carefully for signs of hypocalcemia

Provide a quiet, low stimulus environment. Thyroid crisis can occur in response to a stressor, so the nurse should minimize stressful stimuli in the client's environment.

A client with hyperthyroidism is concerned about changes in appearance. How can the nurse convey an understanding of the client's concern and promote effective coping strategies?

Reassure the client that their emotional reactions are a result of the disorder and symptoms can be controlled with effective treatment. Explanation: The client with hyperthyroidism needs reassurance that the emotional reactions being experienced are a result of the disorder and that with effective treatment those symptoms can be controlled. It is important to use a calm, unhurried approach with the client. Stressful experiences should be minimized, and a quiet uncluttered environment should be maintained. The nurse encourages relaxing activities that will not overstimulate the client. It is important to balance periods of activity with rest.

A client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

Restricting fluids Explanation: To reduce water retention in a client with the SIADH, the nurse should restrict fluids. Administering fluids by any route would further increase the client's already heightened fluid load.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus about hypoglycemia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse include in the teaching?

Shakiness The client who has hypoglycemia can experience early manifestations of shakiness. Other early manifestations include fatigue, headache, difficulty thinking, sweating, and nausea.

Beta-blockers are used in the treatment of hyperthyroidism to counteract which of the following effects?

Sympathetic Explanation: Beta-adrenergic blocking agents are important in controlling the sympathetic nervous system effects of hyperthyroidism. For example, propranolol is used to control nervousness, tachycardia, tremor, anxiety, and heat intolerance.

The nurse on the telemetry floor is caring for a patient with long-standing hypothyroidism who has been taking synthetic thyroid hormone replacement sporadically. What is a priority that the nurse monitors for in this patient?

Symptoms of acute coronary syndrome Explanation: The nurse must monitor for signs and symptoms of acute coronary syndrome (ACS), which can occur in response to therapy in patients with severe, long-standing hypothyroidism or myxedema coma, especially during the early phase of treatment. ACS must be aggressively treated at once to avoid morbid complications (e.g., myocardial infarction).

Which of the following endocrine disorder causes the patient to have dilutional hyponatremia?

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) Explanation: Patients diagnosed with SIADH retain water and develop a subsequent sodium deficiency known as dilutional hyponatremia. In DI, there is excessive thirst and large volumes of dilute urine. Patients with DI, hypothyroidism, or hyperthyroidism do not exhibit dilutional hyponatremia

Which laboratory test results should a nurse expect to find in a client diagnosed with Hashimoto's thyroiditis?

T4, 2 µg/dl; T3, 35 ng/dl; TSH 45 mIU/ml Explanation: Normal thyroid function tests are as follows: T4, 5 to 12 µg/dl; T3, 65 to 195 ng/dl; TSH 0.3 to 5.4 mIU/ml. With Hashimoto's thyroiditis, T4 and T3 levels are typically subnormal and TSH is elevated. With primary hyperthyroidism, T4 and T3 levels are elevated and TSH is subnormal. With hypothyroidism, T4 is subnormal and T3 and TSH levels are elevated.

A nurse is caring for a client who had a thyroidectomy to treat hyperthyroidism caused by an adenoma. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? (Select all that apply.) Tachycardia and hypertension Respiratory rate 16/min Negative Chvostek's sign Laryngeal stridor and hoarseness Positive Trousseau's sign

Tachycardia and hypertension Laryngeal stridor and hoarseness Positive Trousseau's sign Tachycardia and hypertension are correct. Tachycardia and hypertension are unexpected findings, which can indicate the occurrence of thyroid storm following removal of the thyroid gland, especially if the client was in a hyperthyroid state prior to the surgery. Thyrotoxic, or thyroid storm, is a life-threatening condition with a sudden onset that includes tachycardia, fever, sweating, restlessness, and tremors. Congestive heart failure and pulmonary edema can develop rapidly and lead to death.A respiratory rate of 16/min is incorrect. This is within the expected reference range.A negative Chvostek's sign is incorrect. An expected finding is a positive Chvostek's sign (facial muscle spasm after tapping the facial nerve in front of the ear), which indicates hypocalcemia, a complication of thyroid removal. This occurs when the parathyroid glands are also removed and regulation of serum calcium is impaired.Laryngeal stridor and hoarseness are correct. Laryngeal stridor and hoarseness are unexpected findings and can indicate swelling in the area of the surgery or damage to the laryngeal nerve. This should be reported to the provider before respiratory distress develops.A positive Trousseau's sign is correct. A Positive Trousseau's sign is an indication of hypocalcemia, which is a complication of thyroid removal. This occurs when the parathyroid glands are also removed and regulation of serum calcium is impaired.

The nurse is caring for a patient with hyperthyroidism who suddenly develops symptoms related to thyroid storm. What symptoms does the nurse recognize that are indicative of this emergency?

Temperature of 102ºF Explanation: Thyroid storm is characterized by the following: 1) high fever (hyperpyrexia), >38.5°C (>101.3°F); 2) extreme tachycardia (>130 bpm); 3) exaggerated symptoms of hyperthyroidism with disturbances of a major system—for example, gastrointestinal (weight loss, diarrhea, abdominal pain) or cardiovascular (edema, chest pain, dyspnea, palpitations); and 4) altered neurologic or mental state, which frequently appears as delirium psychosis, somnolence, or coma.

A nurse is assessing a client after a thyroidectomy. The assessment reveals muscle twitching and tingling, along with numbness in the fingers, toes, and mouth area. The nurse should suspect which complication?

Tetany Explanation: Tetany may result if the parathyroid glands are excised or damaged during thyroid surgery. Hemorrhage is a potential complication after thyroid surgery but is characterized by tachycardia, hypotension, frequent swallowing, feelings of fullness at the incision site, choking, and bleeding. Thyroid storm is another term for severe hyperthyroidism — not a complication of thyroidectomy. Laryngeal nerve damage may occur postoperatively, but its signs include a hoarse voice and, possibly, acute airway obstruction.

Which group of clients should not receive potassium iodide? Those who are pregnant Those who are allergic to corticosteroids Those who are allergic to seafood Those taking medications such as cough medicines

Those who are allergic to seafood Explanation: Potassium iodide should not be administered to anyone who is allergic to seafood, which is also high in iodine. Clients who take corticosteroids or cough medicines and those who are pregnant would be appropriate candidates for potassium iodide therapy.

A client is returned to his room after a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which piece of equipment is most important for the nurse to keep at the client's bedside?

Tracheostomy set Explanation: After a subtotal thyroidectomy, swelling of the surgical site (the tracheal area) may obstruct the airway. Therefore, the nurse should keep a tracheostomy set at the client's bedside in case of a respiratory emergency. Although an indwelling urinary catheter and a cardiac monitor may be used for a client after a thyroidectomy, the tracheostomy set is more important. A humidifier isn't indicated for this client.

A nurse is preparing a 24-hour urine specimen for a client who is suspected to have pheochromocytoma. Which of the following laboratory tests from the 24-hour urine specimen should the nurse use to determine the client's condition?

Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) The nurse should expect the 24-hr urine specimen to test for VMA. This test is used to determine if the client has pheochromocytoma, which measures the level of catecholamine metabolites in a 24-hr urine sample. Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal gland that causes excess release of the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are hormones that regulate blood pressure and heart rate.

A client with thyroiditis has undergone surgery and is concerned about the barely visible scar. Which suggestion should the nurse give the client to cope with the condition?

Wear clothing that covers the neck Explanation: The nurse may suggest that the client wear clothing that covers the neck and assure the client that the scar is almost invisible. Application of medicines, skin graft, and cosmetic surgery are not appropriate suggestions.

Trousseau sign is elicited

by occluding the blood flow to the arm for 3 minutes with the use of a blood pressure cuff. Explanation: A positive Trousseau sign is suggestive of latent tetany. A positive Chvostek sign is demonstrated when a sharp tapping over the facial nerve just in front of the parotid gland and anterior to the ear causes the mouth, nose, and eye to spasm or twitch. The palm remaining blanched when the radial artery is occluded demonstrates a positive Allen test. The radial artery should not be used for an arterial puncture. A positive Homans sign is demonstrated when the client reports pain in the calf when the foot is dorsiflexed.

During a client education session, the nurse describes the mechanism of hormone level maintenance. What causes most hormones to be secreted?

decrease in hormonal levels Explanation: Most hormones are secreted in response to negative feedback; a decrease in levels stimulates the releasing gland. In positive feedback, the opposite occurs.

When teaching a client with Cushing's syndrome about dietary changes, the nurse should instruct the client to increase intake of:

fresh fruits. Explanation: Cushing's syndrome causes sodium retention, which increases urinary potassium loss. Therefore, the nurse should advise the client to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods, such as fresh fruit. The client should restrict the consumption of dairy products, processed meats, cereals, and grains because they contain significant amounts of sodium. Although the client should consume foods high in calcium and protein, the client should find these nutrients in low-sodium foods.

A client presents with a huge lower jaw, bulging forehead, large hands and feet, and frequent headaches. What is the most reliable method of confirming the client's condition?

glucose tolerance test + GH measurement Explanation: A glucose tolerance test in combination with a growth hormone measurement is the most reliable method of confirming acromegaly.

A client has been experiencing a decrease in serum calcium. After diagnostics, the physician believes the calcium level fluctuation is due to altered parathyroid function. What is the role of parathormone?

increase serum calcium level Explanation: The parathyroid glands secrete parathormone, which increases the level of calcium in the blood when there is a decrease in the serum level.

The nurse is completing discharge teaching with a client with hyperthyroidism who has been treated with radioactive iodine at an outpatient clinic. The nurse instructs the client to

monitor for symptoms of hypothyroidism. Explanation: Symptoms of hyperthyroidism may be followed later by those of hypothyroidism and myxedema. Hypothyroidism also commonly occurs in clients with previous hyperthyroidism who have been treated with radioiodine or antithyroid medications or thyroidectomy (surgical removal of all or part of the thyroid gland).

During a follow-up visit to the physician, a client with hyperparathyroidism asks the nurse to explain the physiology of the parathyroid glands. The nurse states that these glands produce parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH maintains the balance between calcium and:

phosphorus. Explanation: PTH increases the serum calcium level and decreases the serum phosphate level. PTH doesn't affect sodium, potassium, or magnesium regulation.

A young client has a significant height deficit and is to be evaluated for diagnostic purposes. What could be the cause of this client's disorder?

pituitary disorder Explanation: Pituitary disorders usually result from excessive or deficient production and secretion of a specific hormone. Dwarfism occurs when secretion of growth hormone is insufficient during childhood.

A client is admitted to an acute care facility with a tentative diagnosis of hypoparathyroidism. The nurse should monitor the client closely for the related problem of:

profound neuromuscular irritability. Explanation: Hypoparathyroidism may slow bone resorption, reduce the serum calcium level, and cause profound neuromuscular irritability (as evidenced by tetany). Hypoparathyroidism doesn't alter blood pressure or affect the thirst mechanism, which usually is triggered by fluid volume deficit. Gastritis doesn't cause or result from hypoparathyroidism.