AEMT Masterlist v19

Which of the following is an example of an open-ended question?

"Does anything make your shortness of breath better or worse?"

Assessment of a​ 72-year-old man reveals absent lung sounds to the left lung accompanied by a sudden onset of sharp chest pain on the same side. When obtaining the​ history, which of the following statements made by his wife is MOST​ important?

"He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease."

A 80-kg patient has a lacerated brachial artery with severe bleeding. Based on his weight, what is the maximum amount of blood loss that his body can tolerate without developing severe shock?

1,00 mL.

One meter equals how many millimeters?

1,000.

Patients with electrical burns should be given enough isotonic crystalloid to maintain a urine output of _ mL/kg per hour.

1.

A 1-year-old female sustained blunt abdominal trauma following a motor-vehicle crash in which she was not properly restrained. Significant signs and symptoms will most likely occurs after as little as _ mL of blood loss.

100.

During one-rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient's chest at a rate of at least _ compressions per minute.

100.

If a patient has a Glasgow Coma score that is less than or equal to _, he or she should be transported to a trauma center that provides the highest level of trauma care.

13.

It has been statistically proven that the lifespan of a person with obesity is decreased by as many as _ years.

13.

Prior to administering oral glucose to your diabetic patient, you look at the dosage, which reads 15 g. How many milligrams is this equivalent to?

15,000.

What is the correct ratio of compression to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR?

15:2

A "high-risk" automobile crash is one in which there is greater than _ inches of intrusion at any site in the vehicle.

18

A "high-risk" automobile crash is one in which there is greater than ___ inches of intrusion at any site in the vehicle

18

A "high-risk" automobile crash is one in which there is greater than ____ inches of intrusion at any site in the vehicle.

18

A patient with suspected internal bleeding is slightly anxious and has cool, pink skin. His heart rate is 90 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 122/60. His presentation is consistent with class _ hemorrhage.

2

A 32-year-old male was involved in a motorcycle crash and sustained bilateral femur fractures as he was ejected over the handlebars of his bike. He is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. On the basis of his injury, what is the approximate volume of blood that he has lost?

2 L.

A severely injured patient has lost approximately 750 mL of blood. What is the appropriate volume of crystalloid solution to administer to the patient?

2,250 mL

How many millimeters are in two centimeters?

20

A 6-year-old, 44-lb male ingested an unknown quantity of aspirin approximately 20 minutes ago. He is conscious and alert and has stable vital signs. The appropriate dose of activated charcoal for this child is:

20 g.

The body will not tolerate an acute blood loss of greater than _________ of blood volume.

20%

A patient is hypoglycemic and unconscious. You administer all of a 50 mL prefilled syringe of 50 percent​ dextrose, or:

25 grams.

In general, you should assess the blood pressure in all patient who are at least _ year(s) of age.

3.

You are transporting a patient who is receiving 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min. Your onboard oxygen, an M cylinder, contains 2,000 psi. How long can you administer oxygen to the patient at this flow rate?

3.1 hours.

You have been dispatched to a home for a​ 16-year-old girl with shortness of breath due to cystic fibrosis. Which of the following is the underlying pathophysiology of cystic​ fibrosis?

A condition in which excessive and thick mucus often clogs the airways.

Changes in sleep patterns experienced by elderly patients are mostly caused by:

A loss of neurons in the brain.

In most states, the AEMT has a legal obligation to report:

A man who was shot during an attempt to rob a bank.

An infectious disease is most accurately defined as:

A medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body.

You respond to a patient with shortness of breath and confusion. You measure the SpO2 which is 88 percent. Which of the following would support your suspicion of​ asthma?

A non-productive nocturnal cough

Susan is an EMS provider who has just received a call to transfer a​ bed-confined patient for routine medical care. What type of call is this considered to​ be?

A nonemergency call

Which of the following general statements about blood pressure measurement is correct?

A normal size cuff should take up two thirds of the length from the armpit to the crease of the elow.

You should be most suspicious for serious bleeding when:

A patient has a poor general appearance.

Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, except:

A patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle.

Which of the following is an example of a violation of the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA)?

A patient with low blood pressure and tachycardia is transferred to another hospital without intravenous access or supplemental oxygen.

Which of the following patients with respiratory distress is the MOST critically​ ill?

A patient with no breath sounds on auscultation.

You receive an order from medical control to start an IV of lactated Ringer and administer 150 mL/hr. Using macrodrip (15 gtts/mL) tubing, how many drops per minute should you set the flow rate at?

38

A minimum of _ personnel should be used to restrain a 17-year-old, 120-pound, violent patient.

4

A 40-year-old female requires a medication to decrease her heart rate. The medication to be administered is supplied in a prefilled syringe in a concentration of 6mg/2 mL. How many millilitres are required to achieve a dose of 12 mg?

4 Ml

A 40-year-old female requires a medication to decrease her heart rate. The medication to be administered is supplied in a prefilled syringe in a concentration of 6 mg/2 mL. How many mililiters are required to achieve a dose of 12 mg?

4 mL

The brain and spinal cord usually cannot go for more than ____________ minutes without perfusion, or the nerve cells will be permanently damaged.

4-6

Which of the following situations would most likely require additional personnel or resources at the scene?

40-year-old male with an apparent self-inflicted gunshot wound to the head.

You have set an IV to deliver 250 mL of normal saline over 3 hours using microdrip tubing. How much fluid are you delivering every 30 minutes?

42 mL

How should give milligrams of a drug be abbreviated?

5

You respond to an apartment complex for an unconscious male. When you arrive, the patient's friend tells you that he overdosed on heroin. Following your local protocol, you administer 2 mg of naloxone. You have 1 mL ampules of naloxone that contain 0.4 mg per ampule. How many ampules will you have to use?

5

A 68-year-old female with unstable bradycardia requires 0.5 mg of atropine containing 1 mg/10 mL. How many millilitres should be administered to the patient?

5 mL

A patient with congestive heart failure requires medication administration. Which of the following IV solutions would be most appropriate to use?

5% dextrose in water.

Which of the following conditions would allow an adult patient to most effectively compensate for external blood loss?

500 mL of blood loss over 15 minutes.

You have a prefilled syringe containing 25 g of dextrose in 50 mL of volume. How many milligrams of dextrose are present in each mililiter?

500 mg

Which of these patients is most likely to suffer a silent MI?

55 year old female with diabetes

What is the recommendation of the American Diabetes Association for diabetic​ patients' HbA1c levels?

6.5 percent or less

Common signs and symptoms associated with menstruation include all of the following, except:

60 mL to 100 mL of blood loss.

What is the cerebral perfusion pressure of a patient with a mean arterial pressure of 70 mm Hg and intracranial pressure of 20 mm Hg?

60 mm Hg.

Intracellular and extracellular fluid account for what percentage of total body weight?

60%

During a long-distance transport, you initiate an IV of normal saline and infuse 125 mL over 2 hours. Using microdrip tubing, how many drops per minute (gtt/min) is your IV flow rate set at?

63 gtt/min.

The pulse rate of a child from ages 3 to 6 years is approximately:

65 to 120 beats/min.

The average pulse rate of individuals between 19 and 60 years of age is typically:

70 beats/min.

What is the approximate weight in kilograms of a 155-l patient?

70 kg.

The normal range for blood glucose levels in nonfasting adults and children ranges from:

70 to 120 mg/dL.

An 80-kg patient has a lacerated brachial artery with severe bleeding. Based on his weight, what is the maximum amount of blood loss that his body can tolerate without developing severe shock? A. 500 mL B. 1,100 mL C. 950 mL D. 1,250 mL

B. 1,100 mL

How much IV fluid (per bolus) should you administer to a 65-kg patient with extensive burns and severe shock? A. 1,435 mL B. 1,300 mL C. 1,410 mL D. 1,350 mL

B. 1,300 mL

Which of the following weapons would MOST likely result in the largest surface area of tissue damage? A. .22 caliber handgun B. 12-gauge shotgun C. 357 magnum D. 9.0 mm handgun

B. 12-gauge shotgun

A 32-year-old male was involved in a motorcycle crash and sustained bilateral femur fractures as he was ejected over the handlebars of his bike. He is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. On the basis of his injury, what is the approximate volume of blood that he has lost? A. 3 L B. 2 L C. 4 L D. 1 L

B. 2 L

Which of the following conditions would allow an adult patient to MOST effectively compensate for external blood loss? A. 500 mL of blood loss over 30 seconds B. 500 mL of blood loss over 15 minutes C. 1,000 mL of blood loss over 20 minutes D. 750 mL of blood loss over 10 minutes

B. 500 mL of blood loss over 15 minutes

During a lengthy transport of a 120-lb 29-year-old female with partial- and full-thickness burns to 45% of her BSA, medical control orders you to begin IV fluid replacement based on the Parkland formula. What volume of IV crystalloid should you administer per hour? A. 690 mL B. 620 mL C. 720 mL D. 780 mL

B. 620 mL

A 67-year-old male complains of a burning sensation in his abdomen and hematemesis. During your assessment, you note pain to the palpation of his left upper quadrant; his vital signs are suggestive of shock. Which of the following conditions should you suspect?

Bleeding peptic ulcer.

Hemostasis is a natural response of the body in which:

Bleeding spontaneously clots through vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation.

An ischemic stroke is most often the result of a(n):

Blocked cerebral artery.

The term "hyphema" is defined as:

Blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.

Which of the following statements regarding scalp lacerations is correct?

Blood loss from a scalp laceration may result in hypovolemic shock, especially in children

Which of the following statements regarding scalp lacerations is correct?

Blood loss from a scalp laceration may result in hypovolemic shock, especially in children.

Obstructive shock occurs when the:

Blood vessels are occluded and perfusion is impared.

Why does the skin become flushed or red when a person is exposed to a hot environment?

Blood vessels dilate and heat radiates to the skin surface.

Which of the following statements regarding the dermal layer of the skin is correct?

Blood vessels in the dermis do not penetrate into the epidermis.

Factors that alter a patient's response to a drug include:

Body mass and psychological factors.

The ilium is defined as the:

Bony prominence of the pelvis.

During your assessment of a trauma patient, you note the presence of bilateral femur fractures. This means that:

Both femurs are roken.

Which of the following clinical signs would indicate a core body temperature of between 89°F and 92°F?

Bradycardia

What is the only organ in the body that does NOT require insulin in order for glucose to enter its​ cells?

Brain

Which of the following organs does not utilize insulin for the cellular uptake of glucose?

Brain

Which of the following statements regarding glucose use by the cells is​ TRUE?

Brain cells require glucose to function.

The cricoid cartilage: A. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea. B. is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage. C. lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck. D. lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck.

A. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated: A. just anterior to the tragus. B. at the angle of the jaw. C. slightly above the ear. D. over the mastoid process.

A. just anterior to the tragus

A 30-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the neck when he was attacked outside a nightclub. During your assessment, you should be MOST alert for:

A. potential airway compromise.

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: A. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. B. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave. C. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious. D. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious.

A. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked

The ability of a person to effectively compensate for acute blood loss is MOST directly related to the: Select one: A. rate of blood loss. B. patient's weight. C. location of the injury. D. patient's total blood volume.

A. rate of blood loss.

Blood leaves the capillary beds and is returned to the right side of the heart by the: A. venules and veins. B. pulmonary capillary vessels. C. cellular capillary vessels. D. arterioles and arteries.

A. venules and veins

The responsibility for maintaining your AEMT certification or license to practice is the responsibility of the:

AEMT

A​ 56-year-old man is complaining of chest pain without respiratory distress. His vital signs show a blood pressure of​ 146/88, pulse​ 88, and pulse oximetry reading of 97 percent. How should you treat this​ patient?

ASSURE that his airway is secure and monitor his respiratory status.

Radios that operate at 800 MHz allow for trunking, which is the:

Ability of multiple agencies to share frequencies.

a brain injury.

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with:

When assessing a patient using a pulse oximeter, it is important to remember that:

Abnormally bound hemoglobin may produce inaccurate readings.

An 80-kg patient has a lacerated brachial artery with severe bleeding. Based on his weight, what is the maximum amount of blood loss that his body can tolerate without developing severe shock?

About 1,100 mL

A 1-year-old female sustained blunt abdominal trauma following a motor-vehicle crash in which she was not properly restrained. Significant signs and symptoms will most likely occur after as little as ____ mL of blood loss.

About 100

A 32-year-old male was involved in a motorcycle crash and sustained bilateral femur fractures as he was ejected over the handlebars of his bike. He is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. On the basis of his injury, what is the approximate volume of blood that he has lost?

About 2 L

A 4-year-old boy pulled a pot of boiling water from the stovetop. He has superficial and partial-thickness burns to his head, left anterior trunk, and entire left arm. On the basis of the "rule of nines," what percentage of this child's body surface area (BSA) has been burned?

About 30%

A 25-year-old female, who is in the third trimester of pregnancy, was involved in a motor-vehicle crash and was not wearing a seatbelt. She complains of severe, tearing abdominal pain. She is experiencing dark red vaginal bleeding, and is exhibiting signs of shock. On the basis of the mechanism of injury and her clinical presentation, you should be most suspicious for:

Abruptio placenta.

Peritonitis typicaly causes ileus, which is the result of:

Absent peristalsis in the intestine.

A man is experiencing significant anxiety and depression regarding the impending death of his wife. However, the wife is trying to comfort her husband by telling him that she loves him and is prepared to die. What stage of the grieving process is the patient experiencing?

Acceptance.

Which of the following represents the official name for aspirin.

Acetylsalicylic acid, USP

Which of the following conditions would result in the most rapid loss of consciousness?

Acute hypoglycemia.

The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies:

Addresses the patient's symptoms more than the acutal disease process.

Your patient is a 38-year-old diabetic who took his insulin but he is ill and can't keep anything down. He is so dehydrated you are unable to start an IV line. Which of the following is TRUE regarding glucagon?

Adequate glycogen stores must be available in the liver for it to be effective.

Your patient is a​ 38-year-old man with diabetes who took his insulin but he is ill and​ can't keep anything down. He is so dehydrated that you are unable to start an IV line. Which of the following statements regarding glucagon is​ TRUE?

Adequate glycogen stores must be available in the liver for it to be effective.

The movement and utilization of oxygen in the body is dependent on all of the following, except:

Adequate numbers of function erythrocytes.

A 22-year-old female with type 1 diabetes is unresponsive and has a blood glucose level of 29 mg/dL. She is receiving high-flow oxygen and several attempts to establish IV access have failed. You should:

Administer 0.5 to 1 mg of glucagon via the intramuscular route.

A 30-year-old man presents with widespread urticaria after being bitten numerous times by fire ants. He is conscious and alert and denies respiratory distress. Further assessment reveals that his breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. He tells you that his wife has a prescribed epinephrine auto-injector because she is allergic to hornets. However, he does not have a prescribed auto-injector of his own. You should:

Administer oxygen as needed and transport promptly.

Your primary survey of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to:

Administer oxygen with the appropriate device.

Aspirin is used in the treatment of myocardial ischemia because it: A) Inhibits the aggregation of platelets. B) Is a thrombolytic. C) Has analgesic effects. D) Can cause gastric upset and bleeding.

Answer: A - Inhibits the aggregation of platelets.

Which of the following statements regarding angina pectoris is TRUE? A) It can be brought on by exertion or stress. B) It is generally relieved by over-the-counter medications. C) It results in death of myocardial cells. D) It generally lasts 30 to 60 minutes.

Answer: A - It can be brought on by exertion or stress.

Your patient has severe respiratory distress from an acute onset of pulmonary edema. Why do you want to treat her with CPAP? A) It can reduce the amount of fluid that can cross into the alveoli. B) It increases the oxygen concentration of the inspired oxygen. C) It reduces the inflammation of the lower airways. D) It has an analgesic to help reduce the patient's anxiety.

Answer: A - It can reduce the amount of fluid that can cross into the alveoli.

Which of the following is the beneficial action of nitroglycerin in some cardiac emergencies? A) It dilates blood vessels throughout the body. B) It dilates only the coronary arteries. C) It reduces the strength of ventricular contractions. D) It slows down the heart rate.

Answer: A - It dilates blood vessels throughout the body.

You are explaining to your EMT partner how he can differentiate tension pneumothorax from a simple pneumothorax. Which of the following would you tell him indicates tension pneumothorax? A) Jugular venous distension B) Mild to severe shortness of breath C) Decreased lung sounds on affected side D) Tachycardia related to anxiety

Answer: A - Jugular venous distension

Asking a patient, "Have you eaten today?" represents what part of the SAMPLE question format? A) L B) P C) A D) M

Answer: A - L

Which of the following heart chambers pumps oxygenated blood to the body? A) Left ventricle B) Left atrium C) Right ventricle D) Right atrium

Answer: A - Left ventricle

The prehospital stroke scoring system that assesses blood glucose levels, facial droop, grip strength, and arm drift is the: A) Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen. B) New York Prehospital Stroke Screen. C) Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale. D) North American Prehospital Stroke Scale.

Answer: A - Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen

Rebound tenderness in the abdomen is a sign of potential: A) Peritoneal irritation B) Large bowel obstruction C) Liver perforation D) Spleen rupture

Answer: A - Peritoneal irritation

Symptoms that are absent but would be pertinent to the chief compliant if present are known as: A) Pertinent negatives B) Irrelevant evaluation C) Associated symptoms D) Pertinent positives

Answer: A - Pertinent negatives

You suspect that your 64-year-old patient with a history of COPD has sustained a pneumothorax. He tells you that he has pain chest when he breathes deeply. Which of the following treatments would be MOST appropriate? A) Place the patient in the Fowler's position. B) Administer albuterol via a nebulizer. C) Begin ventilations with a bag-valve mask. D) Administer sublingual nitroglycerin.

Answer: A - Place the patient in the Fowler's position.

Your patient is having extreme difficulty breathing and you note bilateral wheezing in all quadrants. She is unable to hold herself upright and has become lethargic. Which of the following should you immediately do? A) Provide positive pressure ventilation. B) Call for Advanced Life Support backup. C) Administer oxygen via nonrebreather. D) Call for orders to intubate.

Answer: A - Provide positive pressure ventilation.

Asking a patient, "Can you rate your pain on a 1-10 scale?" represents what part of the OPQRST question format? A) S B) T C) R D) Q

Answer: A - S

Your chest pain patient has a pulse of 48. Which pacemaker do you suspect is malfunctioning? A) Sinoatrial node B) Atrioventricular node C) Bundle of His D) Purkinje fibers

Answer: A - Sinoatrial node

The normal, regular rate of electrical activity for the heart is set by the: A) Sinoatrial node. B) Atrioventricular node. C) Bundle of His. D) Purkinje fibers.

Answer: A - Sinoatrial node.

Your patient is extremely hypertensive with a diastolic reading of over 130 mmHg. He complains of a severe headache, vomiting, and dizziness. You should suspect: A) Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema. B) Hypertensive encephalopathy. C) Dissecting aortic aneurysm. D) Spinal meningitis.

Answer: B - Hypertensive encephalopathy.

In which of the following would you be MOST likely to have a patient with paresthesia? A) Cor pulmonale B) Hyperventilation syndrome C) Laryngotracheobronchitis D) Status asthmaticus

Answer: B - Hyperventilation syndrome

A patient who has been stabbed is losing blood. You know this will make it difficult for him to maintain his blood pressure because: A) His vessels vasodilate. B) It decreases his preload. C) His tissues become hypoxic. D) It increases his stroke volume.

Answer: B - It decreases his preload.

Which one of the following statements about an abdominal aortic aneurysm is TRUE? A) It is more common in women than in men. B) It is most prevalent above the age of 60. C) It is very painful in the early stages. D) Symptoms include pain in the calf muscles.

Answer: B - It is most prevalent above the age of 60.

Which of the following patient medications would lead you to suspect your patient suffers from heart failure? A) Aspirin B) Lasix C) Nitroglycerin D) Glucophage

Answer: B - Lasix

The postictal patient with no suspected spinal injury should be placed in which position? A) Semi-Fowler's B) Lateral recumbent C) Supine D) Fowler's

Answer: B - Lateral recumbent

Which of the following observations indicate that your patient may have overused his prescription inhaler? A) Decreased level of consciousness B) Nervousness C) Increased secretions from the airway D) Decreased heart rate

Answer: B - Nervousness

A lack of oxygen or excess of carbon dioxide in the body that results in unconsciousness is called:

Asphyxia.

When treating an anxious and uncooperative patient with chest pain, you state, "If you don't settle down, I am going to put a large IV in your arm." What is this an example of?

Assault.

You are called to the county jail for a 50-year-old male who is "drunk." When you assess him, you note the smell of alcohol on his breath and a decreased level of consciousness. The sheriff's deputy tells you that this patient is a "regular." On the basis of the information that you have obtained, you should:

Asses the patient's blood glucose and suspect intracranial bleeding.

The function of the National Registry of EMTs is to

Assess competence through a valid testing process

A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation with a rival gang member. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you control any obvious bleeding, and then:

Assess for an exit wound.

A 70-year-old male presents with acute aphasia, unilateral weakness, and confusion. You should:

Assess his blood glucose level to rule out hypoglycemia.

While assessing a semiconscious 22-year-old female's respirations, you note that they are 16 breaths/min. You should:

Assess the regularity and depth of the patient's breathing.

Which of the following actions would you not perform during the scene size-up?

Assessing a patient's breathing effort.

You are called for a patient who has received an electrical shock. When you​ arrive, you find that the patient has struck a power pole with a motorcycle and has a power line lying across him. Which of the following components of the scene​ size-up is particularly relevant at this​ point?

Assessing the need for additional resources

A young male tripped on a garden hose, fell, and struck his head on a concrete sidewalk. He is unresponsive and has a large hematoma to his forehead. His respirations are slow and shallow. You should:

Assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen

A 63-year-old is being transported to the hospital for an acute exacerbation of his emphysema. He is on oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 L/min. During your reassessment, you note that his mental status has deteriorated and his respirations have become markedly slow and shallow. You should:

Assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.

A 46-year-old female presents with respiratory difficulty, facial swelling, and widespread hives after she was stung by an unknown type of insect. Her blood pressure is 88/58 mm Hg; auscultation of her lungs reveals diffuse expiratory wheezing. The patient has a prescribed EpiPen, but has not used it. After administering 100% oxygen, you should:

Assist the patient with her EpiPen in accordance with your protocols.

A 21-year-old female was sexually assaulted with a glass bottle. Your assessment reveals that she is semiconscious with shallow breathing. The bottle is still inside her vagina. You should:

Assist ventialtions, perform a head-to-toe assessment, and stabilize the bottle in place.

A 40-year-old female is semiconscious following blunt head trauma. Your assessment reveals that her respirations are slow and shallow, her pulse is slow, and her blood pressure is elevated. Her pupils are bilaterally dilated and sluggishly reactive. Appropriate management for this patient includes:

Assisted ventilation at a rate of 10 breaths/min.

In an attempt to kill herself, a 56-year-old female ingested a large quantity of Darvon. Your primary survey reveals that she is semiconscious; has slow, shallow respirations; and has a heart rate of 40 beats/min, Further assessment reveals that her BP is 80/50 mm Hg. Initial management for this patient includes:

Assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen.

A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should:

Carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline.

You respond to a 71-year-old woman who is unresponsive. You try to get her to respond but have no success. Her airway is open, and she is breathing at a rate of 14 breaths/min. What structure on her neck should you locate to take a pulse?

Carotid arteries

The spinal nerves branch out from the brain cord and:

Carry signals to and from the body.

An ion that has an overall positive charge is called a(n):

Cation.

The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as:

Cavitation.

Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) issues are regulated by the:

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services.

Located just behind the brainstem, the _ controls muscle and body coordination.

Cerebellum.

The largest part of the brain is the:

Cerebrum

Migraine headaches are thought to be caused by:

Changes in blood vessel size within the base of the brain.

You are caring for a patient with significant stroke symptoms. You are completing your assessment when you notice that her SpO 2 reading is dropping. Which of the following should you do next?

Check her airway and breathing.

You are called for an​ 18-year-old woman with dyspnea with sharp chest pain. Your assessment shows she has cramps in her hands and fingers. How should you treat this​ patient?

Coach her to use her diaphragm to breathe.

Which of the following medications will not response to the administration of naloxone (Narcan)?

Cocaine.

You are dispatched to the home of a 64-year-old male patient with lung cancer. The patient complains of acute dyspnea; however, as long as he is sitting upright, his breathing is easier. He denies fever, and his breath sounds are decreased over the base of the left lung. What is most likely cause of this patients symptoms?

Collection of fluid outside of the lung.

When performing EMS tasks, which of the following would have the greatest potential for errors? A) Communicating either orally or verbally B) Taking the patient's blood pressure C) Assessing the patient's health history D) Identifying resources

Communicating either orally or verbally

Heat that is generated by an electrical injury can cause coagulation and vascular occlusion, resulting in:

Compartment syndrome.

DUring your assessment of a 43-year-old male with suicidal thoughts, he becomes agitated and appears uncomfortable. You should:

Continue talking to him while your partner requests police backup.

An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:

Continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.

You respond to a call for a 16-year-old boy who injured his arm. As you are assessing the child, he tells you that he does not want you to touch him. His mother tells you to begin treatment and transport the child to the hospital if necessary. What should you do?

Continue your assessment and transport if necessary.

Which of the following would be MOST appropriate for an AEMT to provide for a patient with an acute onset of pulmonary edema with severe respiratory​ distress?

Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

A 61-year-old female called EMS after suddenly being awakened in the middle of the night with a feeling that she was "smothering." You arrive to find the patient, very apprehensive and restless, sitting on the living room couch in obvious respiratory distress. Her BP is 160/90 mm Hg, pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular, and respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. Auscultation of her lungs reveals diffuse rhonchi in all fields. Treatment for this patient should include:

Continuous positive airway pressure and an IV line set to keep the vein open.

A circular system of ongoing internal and external reviews is known as:

Continuous quality improvement

Which of the following is a late sign of a tension pneumothorax?

Contralateral tracheal shift

After experiencing a stroke to the right side of the brain, a patient experiences hemiplegia on the left side of the body. Which of the following terms best describes the finding?

Contralateral.

Immediate treatment for a patient with an open soft-tissue injury includes:

Control of active bleeding.

Transparent tissue layer in front of the pupil and iris

Cornea

Which anatomic plane divides the body into dorsal and ventral portions?

Coronal

Prinzmetal angina is caused by:

Coronary vasospasm

Estrogen and progesterone are secreted by the:

Corpus luteum.

Adrenocorticotropic hormone targets the adrenal _ and causes it to release _.

Cortex; cortisol

A consistently high level of _ suppresses the immune system by increasing production of interleukin-6.

Cortisol

Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they:

Cough.

When caring for an open wound that has small pieces of glass and other debris inside of it, you should:

Cover the wound with a sterile dressing.

Which of the following sounds indicates fluid in the​ lungs?

Crackles

An established process to determine the qualifications necessary to be allowed to practice in a specific EMS system is called:

Credentialing.

One of the inflammatory disease processes that can occur in any part of the gastrointestinal tract is:

Crohn's disease.

Which of the following respiratory disorders presents with a seal bark cough and​ stridor?

Croup

When assessing a patient who experienced blunt abdominal trauma, you note bruising around the umbilicus. This is called _______ sign and indicates _______.

Cullen sign; significant internal bleeding

Your patient has a history of viscous mucus that blocks the ducts of the exocrine glands that secrete digestive enzymes into the digestive tract. These thick secretions also obstruct the airways. This patient likely​ has:

Cystic fibrosis

Which of the following medications would interfere with the body's hemostatic effect? Select one: A. Antianginals B. Antidepressants C. Anticoagulants D. Antihypertensives

C. Anticoagulants

The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as: A. capitation. B. conversion. C. cavitation. D. congruent.

C. cavitation

Which of the following statements regarding cerebreal perfusion pressure (CPP) is correct?

CPP is the difference between mean arterial pressure and intracranial pressure.

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the AEMT must: A. consider the mechanism of injury. B. manually stabilize the patient's head. C. wear gloves and facial protection. D. closely assess the patient's airway.

C. wear gloves and facial protection

The ability of a person to effectively compensate for acute blood loss is MOST directly related to the: A. patient's weight. B. location of the injury. C. patient's total blood volume. D. rate of blood loss.

D. rate of blood loss

When managing a patient with severe bleeding, it is important to: Select one: A. control the bleeding. B. administer high-flow oxygen. C. obtain frequent vital signs. D. take standard precautions.

D. take standard precautions.

Cardiac arrest following an electrical burn would MOST likely occur if: A. there is an entrance and an exit wound. B. the patient is exposed to direct current. C. the patient is older than 50 years of age. D. the electricity flows from arm to arm.

D. the electricity flows from arm to arm

Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, EXCEPT:

D. the speed of the fall.

Death immediately following a burn is MOST commonly the result of: A. massive bacterial infection. B. severe hypovolemic shock. C. incineration of the patient. D. toxic chemical inhalation.

D. toxic chemical inhalation

According to the Association of Air Medical Services (AAMS), you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if:

D. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.

A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: A. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline. B. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab. C. use tweezers to try to remove the object. D. transport her to the emergency department.

D. transport her to the emergency department

All of the following signs are indicative of upper airway burns due to an inhalation injury, EXCEPT: A. carbonaceous sputum. B. dyspnea and hypoxia. C. an altered mental status. D. wheezing or rhonchi.

D. wheezing or rhonchi

Force acting over a distance defines the concept of: A. kinetic energy. B. potential energy. C. latent energy. D. work.

D. work

Following blunt head trauma, a 44-year-old male presents with clear, waterly fluid draining from his now. You should suspect:

Damage to all of the meningeal layers.

The portion of the tidal volume that does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange is called:

Dead space air

It is essential that you _ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.

Decontaminate.

After inserting an IV catheter into a vein, you should:

Decrease the angle of the catheter to 15 percent and insert the catheter a few millimetres farther.

Ventilating a patient too fast or with too much volume would most likely cause:

Decreased blood return to the heart.

Which of the following is not a physiologic effect of sympathetic nervous system stimulation?

Decreased heart rate.

Which of the following is correct?

Decreased pH = increased hydrogen ion concentration = acidosis

The term anemia is defined as:

Deficiency of red blood cells

A patient is found to have a high blood sugar level (hyperglycemia). What is a cause of this?

Deficient insulin levels in the blood.

After an advanced airway has been inserted during two-rescuer CPR, you should:

Deliver ventilations at a rate of 10 breaths per minute.

After being told of the death of her husband, a middle-aged woman asks, "Why are you lying to me?" What stage of the grieving process is this typical of?

Denial

Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR?

Dependent blood pooling.

Which of the following factors has the most significant impact on determining the severity of a burn?

Depth and extent of the burn

The layer of skin that lies below the germinal layer and contains nerves, sebaceous glands, and blood vessels is called the:

Dermis.

Which of the following is an example of acquired immunity?

Desensitized with a vaccination.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin? A. Protection from harmful agents B. Temperature regulation C. Maintenance of water balance D. Destruction of sebum

Destruction of sebum

Which of the following is not a function of the skin?

Destruction of sebum.

When using the Cincinnati Stroke Scale to assess a 59-year-old female with a suspected stroke, you note a left-sided facial droop when you ask her to smile. You should:

Determine if the patient has dysarthria or is unable to speak.

You and your partner are standing by at the scene of a structural fire when two firefighters carry a patient to you that they rescued from one of the rooms inside the house. The patient is not moving and has no obvious bruns. You should:

Determine if the patient's airway is patent and then assess ventilatory effort.

Following an electrical burn, estimating the extent of the BSA involved is:

Difficult because the degree and depth may be greater internally than externally.

Compounds or charges concentrated on one side of a cell membrane will move across it to an area of lower concentration to maintain balance on both sides of the cell wall. This process is called:

Diffusion

Compounds or charges concentrated on one side of a cell membrane will move across it to an area of lower concentration to maintain balance on both sides of the cell wall. This process is called:

Diffusion.

The movement of a solute from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called:

Diffusion.

a blowout fracture.

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:

laryngeal fracture.

Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice, and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a(n):

You have responded for a 34-year-old male patient who is lethargic and febrile. He has pus weeping from a small gray-colored lesion on his scrotum and a foul odor in the area. You should suspect which of the following?

Fournier's gangrene

Which of the following positions would MOST likely be preferred by an alert and oriented patient with respiratory​ distress?

Fowler's

such injuries can affect the respiratory system.

Frequent reassessments of the patient with face or neck injuries are MOST important because:

More carbon dioxide diffuses out of the bloodstream when:

Fresh oxygen diffuses into the alveoli.

Where can you find the specific scope of practice for an AEMT?

From your state EMS office

You are caring for a patient with a possible myocardial infarction. When communicating with medical control, you are able to speak to the physician and send an ECG tracing at the same time. What type of radio system is required to do this?

Full duplex mode.

The uppermost portion of the uterus is called the:

Fundus

During your assessment of a 30-year-old pregnant patient, you determine that she has given birth to two children and has had one miscarriage. You should document her obstetric history as:

G3, P2, A1.

To minimize the risk of legal implications when managing an emotionally disturbed patient, you should:

Gain his confidence so that he consents to care.

Complications that may be associated with chest compressions include all of the following, except:

Gastric distention.

Upon entering the residence of a young female with possible toxic exposure, you begin surveying the scene. Which of the following findings would provide you with the least amount of information regarding the type of exposure?

General condition of the living area.

Which of the following is an uncontrollable risk factor for disease?

Genetics

When treating a patient with a blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg due to "pump failure," you should:

Give 250-mL fluid boluses as needed to improve perfusion.

Cells or organs that selectively remove, concentrate, or alter materials in the blood and then secrete them back into the body are called:

Glands.

The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint where the humeral head articulates with the:

Glenoid Fossa

Eyeball

Globe

Which of the following medications does NOT indicate a history of respiratory disease?

Glucagon

Which of the following medications does NOT indicate a history of respiratory​ disease?

Glucagon

If insulin production and secretion are insufficient for metabolic​ needs:

Glucose will accumulate in the bloodstream.

The cells convert glucose into energy through the Krebs cycle and:

Glycosis.

Exophthalmos in which swelling of the tissues behind the eyes causes the eyes to​ protrude, is characteristic of which of the following​ disorders?

Graves' disease

While caring for a 40-year old male with shortness of breath and a history of tuberculosis, the AEMT should place a:

HEPA respirator on him-- or herself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient

Which of the following statements regarding hypersomolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS) is correct?

HHS is not associated with a fruity odor on the patient's breath.

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct?

HIV cannot enter the bloodstream through intact skin.

Which of the following would provide you with the least amount of information about the emotional state of a 20-year-old male who will not respond to any of your questions?

Hair length.

Common signs and symptoms of radiation sickness include:

Hair loss and skin burns.

Which of the following statements regarding diabetic ketoacidosis is​ TRUE?

Hallmark signs of DKA include​ polyphagia, polyuria, and polydipsia

Although painful and difficult to manage, what is the location of choice for starting IVs in pediatric patients?

Hand vein

Although painful and difficult to manage, what is the location of choice for starting IVs in pediatric patients?

Hand vein.

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:

Has a greater ability to produce disease.

Compared to drugs such as phenobarbital and diazepam (Valium), heroin:

Has a much higher potential for abuse and dependence.

In most states, a person may be denied certification as an AEMT if he or she:

Has been convicted of a felony.

Which of the following questions would allow you to assess the "P" in the SAMPLE history?

Has this ever happened to you before?

In contrast to the Combitube, the King LT airway:

Has two cuffs that are simultaneously inflated.

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injury because:

a specialist may be needed to manage the injury.

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because:

a specialist may need to be called.

You suspect that a 75-year-old man has internal injuries after he fell and struck his ribs and abdomen on the corner of a table. When assessing and treating him, it is important to recall that:

His ability to physiologically compensate for his injury may be impaired by an inability to increase cardiac output.

Which of the following information obtained during the history taking would lead you to suspect that emphysema is the cause of the​ patient's respiratory​ distress?

History of smoking a pack of cigarettes a day.

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would most likely reveal the cause of his or her problem?

History taking.

Prior to applying a tourniquet to a profusely bleeding injury, you should take standard precautions and then:

Hold direct pressure over the bleeding site.

Dysphasia and dysphagia are examples of

Homonyms.

Behavior is most accurately defined as:

How a person responds to his or her environment.

You are treating a 2-year-old boy who is experiencing respiratory distress. During your assessment, you note that the child has mild inspiratory stridor, a barking cough, and a low-grade fever. The child is otherwise conscious, is acting appropriate for his age, and has strong radial pulses. Treatment should include:

Humidified oxygen.

Which of the following electrolyte imbalances would most likely cause polyuria?

Hypercalcemia.

Cardiac arrest following a crush injury is most often the result of:

Hyperkalemia.

The most common contraindication for any medication is:

Hypersenstitivity.

Common physical signs and symptoms of agitated delirium include:

Hypertension, tachycardia, and diaphoresis.

In which of the following would you be MOST likely to have a patient with paresthesia?

Hyperventilation syndrome

In which of the following would you be MOST likely to have a patient with​ paresthesia?

Hyperventilation syndrome

On the​ scene, you encounter a patient who is experiencing a feeling of suffocation despite an increased respiratory rate and volume and a normal SpO2. What condition might this patient be​ experiencing?

Hyperventilation syndrome

The signs and symptoms of stroke may closely resemble those of what other condition?

Hypoglycemia

Which of the following is TRUE regarding blood glucose levels and stroke?

Hypoglycemia worsens neurological outcome.

The presence of _ often contributes to the signs and symptoms of acute alcohol intoxication.

Hypoglycemia.

The lower portion of the pharynx that opens into the larynx anteriorly and the esophagus posteriorly is the:

Hypopharynx.

A 25-year-old male experienced blunt abdominal trauma and is developing shock. Which of the following signs would you expect to manifest late?

Hypotension

The trauma triad of death includes:

Hypothermia, coagulopathy, and acidosis.

In which of the following conditions would you find a patient with​ myxedema?

Hypothyroidism

A solution that hydrates the cells while depleting the vascular compartment is referred to as being:

Hypotonic.

Which of the following signs indicate narcotic-induced CNS depression and would indicate the administration of naloxone.

Hypoventilation.

A 48-year-old man is short of breath and confused. His airway is open and clear with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. His skin is cool and dry. His pulse is 124 beats per minute with a blood pressure of 152/88 mmHg. His SpO 2 is 89 percent on room air and he has slight wheezing on inspiration. Based on his signs and symptoms what is the greatest threat to this patient?

Hypoxia

A​ 34-year-old man has overdosed on an unknown drug and is unresponsive. His is breathing six times per minute and shallow. He has cyanosis around his lips and nail beds and he is cool to the touch. His breath sounds are diminished but clear. You should recognize which of the following​ conditions?

Hypoxia

A​ 48-year-old man is short of breath and confused. His airway is open and clear with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. His skin is cool and dry. His pulse is 124 beats per minute with a blood pressure of​ 152/88 mmHg. His Sp02 is 89 percent on room air and he has slight wheezing on inspiration. Based on his signs and symptoms what is the greatest threat to this​ patient?

Hypoxia

you have arrived at a residence to help another crew with a 62-year-old woman who is complaining of fatigue, chest discomfort, and diaphoresis. The EMTs on scene report that she has a history of hypertension from atherosclerosis, for which she takes a blood pressure pill, and is also prescribed nitroglycerin. She reports an allergy to aspirin. Vital signs are pulse, 64; respirations, 16 breaths/min; blood pressure, 128/86 mmHg; and SpO2, 97% on room air. Which of these statements made by your EMT partner would require immediate correction on your part?

I am not going to put her on oxygen because she is not short of breath or complaining of chest pain

You are called for a man who fell and needs assistance getting up. During your assessment, he tells you that he has missed his last two dialysis appointments. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient?

IV of NS at keep open rate.

When performing the primary survey of a patient, your goal is to:

Identify and treat immediate life-threatening injuries or conditions.

Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the AEMT to:

Identify contact points and predict potential injuries.

Roles and responsibilities of the AEMT include:

Identifying patients who are critically ill or injured.

A 30-year-old male presents with a partial seizure to his left arm. His wife denies that he has ever had seizures in the past. Which of the following conditions would be the least likely cause of this patient's seizure?

Idiopathic epilepsy.

Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct?

If the patient is unstable, the secondary assessment should be performed en route.

vomiting

If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an increased risk of ________.

The most common immunoglobulin, which accounts for 75% of the antibodies in the blood, is:

IgG

Once the "pigtail" that covers the access port of a bag of IV fluid has been removed, the fluid must be used:

Immediately

Once the "pigtail" that covers the access port of a bag of IV fluid has been removed, the fluid must be used:

Immediately.

A young male has experienced a possible neck injury. When you attempt to place his head in a neutral in-line position, he complains of a severe spasm in his neck. You should:

Immobilize him in the position in which you found him.

You have two patients who were involved in a motor vehicle crash when their SUV struck a tree-one with neck and back pain, and the other with a deformed left femur. The patient with the deformed femur states that he does not want to be placed on a hard board, nor does he want a collar around his neck. What is the most appropriate and practical method of securing these patients and placing them into the ambulance?

Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench.

Which of the following injuries or conditions would have the lowest treatment priority during the primary survey?

Impressive amount of dried blood in the hair but no active bleeding.

Which of the following will impair cardiac output?

Improperly functioning valves

The "rule of palms" for estimating the extent of the body surface area (BSA) burned is especially useful with:

Irregularly shaped burns.

Which of the following statements regarding clinical decision making is correct?

Irrelevant or extraneous data can skew your interpretation of a patient's condition, potentially leading to inappropriate care.

A 22-year-old male was walking on the beach and had sand blown into his eyes. He complains of pain and decreased vision to his right eye. Treatment should include:

Irrigating his right eye laterally.

In contrast to en epidemic, a pandemic:

Is a disease outbreak that occurs on a global scale.

Nitroglycerin is especially useful in treating patients with cardiac ischemia because it:

Is a vasodilator and lowers preload on the heart.

Five percent dextrose in water (D5W) is an isotonic solution until it:

Is administered to a patient.

The AEMT should wear double gloves when caring for a patient who:

Is bleeding heavily from a large artery laceration.

A patient who remains flaccid without moving or making a sound with no indication of hearing you:

Is considered unsresponsive.

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will most likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she:

Is ejected or partially ejected.

In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:

Is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and the patient's symptoms.

A patient experiencing status epilepticus:

Is having a prolonged generalized motor seizure.

Tidal volume is define as the volume of air that:

Is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath.

A body temperature of 99.4 F in a 2-year-old child:

Is normal for his or her age.

Which of the following statements regarding a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is correct?

It administers the same dose of medication each time it is used.

What is the mechanism of action of activated charcoal when administered to a patient who has ingested a poisonous substance?

It adsorbs the toxic substance and delays the digestive process.

You should attempt to remove an imbedded stinger from a patient who was stung by a bee because:

It can inject venom for up to 20 minutes after the initial sting.

A hemostatic agent is useful in controlling external bleeding because:

It causes enhanced clot formation at the wound site.

Which of the following is the beneficial action of nitroglycerin in some cardiac emergencies?

It dilates blood vessels throughout the body.

You are transporting a patient who had an episode of chest pain. You administered two doses of nitroglycerin which relieved the patient's pain. He asks you why the nitroglycerin alleviated the pain. Which of the following is the BEST answer to his question?

It dilates the blood vessels which decreases the workload on the heart.

What is the most significant drawback to cannulating a scalp vein in a child with a butterfly catheter?

It does not allow for rapid fluid administration.

In addition to serving as legal documentation, which of the following is the most critical function of the patient care report (PCR)?

It ensure continuity of patient care.

Which of the following statements regarding the nonrebreathing mask is incorrect?

It increases a patient's tidal volume.

Which of the following is an action of insulin?

It increases the movement of sugar from the bloodstream to the cell.

Which of the following is an action of​ insulin?

It increases the movement of sugar from the bloodstream to the cell.

Which of the following statements elevating a​ patient's legs and feet in the presence of shock is​ TRUE?

It interferes with the movement of the diaphragm.

Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct?

It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost.

What role does phosphorus play in the body?

It is an important component in the formation of adenosine triphosphate.

Which of the following is a characteristic of referred pain?

It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it.

Which of the following statements regarding interstitial fluid is correct?

It is located in the extracellular space and in between the cells.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding​ Cushing's disease?

It is the result of a tumor on the pituitary gland.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding "evidenced based practice"? A) It does not require significant prehospital research. B) It may challenge previously unquestioned practices. C) It only evaluates evidence of validity. D) It relies on traditional treatment techniques.

It may challenge previously unquestioned practices

What protective function does the Hering-Breuer reflex serve?

It prevents overexpansion of the lungs.

What role does the spleen play in the body's compensatory response to hypoperfusion?

It releases sequestered red blood cells.

Which of the following statements regarding the brown recluse spider is correct?

Its venom is cytotoxic and causes severe local tissue destruction.

Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient's airway when a spinal injury is suspected?

Jaw-Thrust.

You are explaining to your EMT partner how he can differentiate tension pneumothorax from a simple pneumothorax. Which of the following would you tell him indicates tension pneumothorax?

Jugular venous distension

You are explaining to your EMT partner how he can differentiate tension pneumothorax from a simple pneumothorax. Which of the following would you tell him indicates tension​ pneumothorax?

Jugular venous distension

Which of the following assessment finds is most indicative of a cardiovascular problem?

Jugular venous distention.

Which of the following is a method to reduce the risk of carbon monoxide exposure from vehicle​ exhaust?

Keep the heater or air conditioner on at all times.

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:

Keep the weight as close to your body as possible.

The energy contained in a moving object is called:

Kinetic energy

When chosing an IV site on an elderly patient, you should:

Know that varicose veins allow minimal circulation.

Under which of the following conditions would external bleeding be least difficult to control?

Lacerated femoral vein and BP of 88/60 mm Hg.

Under which of the following conditions would external bleeding be least difficult to control?

Lacerated femoral vein and a BP of 88/60 mm Hg

Relative to other microorganisms, mycobacterium tuberculosis:

Lacks a capsule, yet resists destruction.

A 45-year-old female is found semiconscious by a neighbor. She is incontinent of urine and is bleeding from her mouth. Which of the following medications found in her residence would lead you to suspect that she experienced a seizure?

Lamictal.

Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice, and subcutaneous emphaysema in the soft tissue around his neck. You should suspect a(n):

Laryngeal fracture.

Which of the following structures is not a part of the lower airway?

Larynx.

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during:

Lateral crashes.

You are called for a patient with a possible appendicitis. Which of the following positions would be the MOST comfortable for patient​ transport?

Lateral recumbent

An unconscious, adequately breathing patient should be placed in the recovery position, which is:

Laterally recumbent.

A horizontal fracture of the maxilla that separates the hard palate and lower maxilla from the remainder of the skull is called a(n):

Le Fort I fracture.

A 29-year-old male has an anterior nosebleed after he was accidentally elbowed in the nose. He is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. The most appropriate care for this patient includes:

Leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together.

An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the most appropriate method of immobilizing this patient?

Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.

Treatment for anaphylactic shock secondary to an insect sting may include all of the following, except:

Leaving the stinger in place.

The nose and navel are found along which anatomic plane?

Midsagittal.

The AEMT should be most suspicious of a Le Fort fracture if a patient who experienced massive blunt force trauma to the face presents with:

Mobility of the facial bones.

When assessing a patient with blunt abdominal trauma, the severity of internal bleeding is best determined by:

Monitoring for signs of shock.

Phagocytosis is the process by which:

Monocytes digest microbes.

Which of the following statements regarding hip dislocations is correct?

Most hip dislocations are caused by posterior displacement of the femoral head.

After ensuring you and your partner's safety, the next step in caring for a patient with any burn is to: A. ensure the burning process has stopped. B. perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment. C. open and maintain the patient's airway. D. move the patient to a place of safety.

Move the patient to a place of safety

After ensuring your and your partner's safety, the next step in caring for a patient with any burn is to:

Move the patient to a place of safety.

A 55-year-old man is found unresponsive in his bed. He is pulseless and apneic. You should:

Move the patient to the floor.

During two-rescuer CPR, the compressor and ventilator switch positions. While rescuer one is finishing his or her cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should:

Move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.

The mouth, nose, and other body orifices are lined with _, which secrete a watery substance and provide a protective barrier against harmful agents.

Mucus membranes.

Myasthenia means:

Muscle Weakness.

The middle, muscular layer of the heart is called the:

Myocardium.

A 20-year-old male has sustained blunt trauma to the face, chest, and abdomen after being attacked by a rival gang. Which of the following signs or symptoms is most suggestive of decompensated (Progressive) shock?

Narrowing pulse pressure.

AEMT training follows National EMS Education Standards, as recommended by the:

National Highway Traffic Safety Administration.

Continuous quality improvement (CQI) involved all of the following components, except:

Negative feedback to those who make mistakes while on a call.

Which of the following observations indicate that your patient may have overused his prescription inhaler?

Nervousness

Which of the following observations indicate that your patient may have overused his prescription​ inhaler?

Nervousness

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected _ problem.

Neurologic.

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is most likely to be reported in which​ state?

New Mexico

An isotonic solution is one that causes:

No change in the shape of the cell.

Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when:

Nonfunctional alveoli inhibit the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Basic Life support (BLS) is defined as:

Noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.

A physician authorizes you, via two-way radio, to help a patient administer prescribed nitroglycerin. What type of medical direction is this?

Online medical control.

Which of the following patients require immediate transport following initial stabilization at the scene?

Patient with severe pain to the left lower quadrant of the abdoen.

Contraindications for intraosseous infusion include all of the following, except:

Patients who are in cardiac arrest or status epilepticus.

Which of the following injuries presents the greatest risk for severe internal bleeding?

Pelvic fractures

Which of the following injuries presents the greatest risk for severe internal bleeding?

Pelvic fractures.

Which of the following findings requires transport to a trauma center that provides the highest level of trauma care?

Penetrating injury to the distal femur

You are dispatched to a football game, where a spectator fell approximately 20 feet from the stands. As you approach the patient, you can see that he has obvious bilateral femur fractures and is not moving. Your initial action should be to:

Open his airway and assess his breathing.

Which of the following medications is administered in gel form?

Oral glucose.

The _ is a solid organ.

Ovary

the greatest danger in displaying a personal bias or "labeling" a patient who frequently calls EMS is:

Overlooking a potentially serious medical condition.

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male who has abused an unknown type of drug, you note severe deformity to his hand. The patient, who is very agitated, states that he bent his fingers back in an attempt to break them. This abnormal behavior is most consistent with the use of:

PCP.

Osmosis is defined as the:

Passive transport of molecules across the cell membrane.

Other than oxygen, prior to administering any medication to a patient, you must take standard precautions and then:

Perform a careful assessment of the patient

When administered to a normally hydrated patient, normal saline will:

Stay in the intravascular space.

When responding to an emergency​ call, what should you do if you come upon a school bus unloading​ students?

Stop and wait for all the children to cross the road safely

The prefix ortho- means:

Straight.

Which of the following illnesses or conditions would most likely predispose a patient to chronic renal disease?

Strep throat.

When administering a medication via the intramuscular route, should should:

Stretch the skin over the area and insert the needle at a 45 degree angle.

When administering a medication via the intramuscular route, you should:

Stretch the skin over the area and insert the needle at a 90 degree angle.

Typical signs and symptoms of pneumonia include:

Stridor, chills, shortness of breath, and fever.

Which of the following clinical signs is a manifestation of fluid leakage into the interstitial spaces?

Stridor.

Past brain trauma is an example of a(n) _ cause of a seizure.

Structural.

Which of the following statements regarding subcutaneous injections is correct?

Subcutaneous injections are usually given with a 24-gauge to 26-gauge needle.

A glass drug cartridge and syringe are components of a(n):

Prefilled syringe.

The pressure in the heart immediately before a contraction is called the:

Preload.

A 66-year-old female is in cardiac arrest and requires advanced airway management. Prior to inserting a Combitube, you should take standard precautions and then:

Preoxygenate the patient with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen

When managing an adult patient with an inhalation injury, inspiratory stridor, and an altered mental status, you should:

Prepare for early definitive airway management.

When assessing a female patient with chest pain and shortness of breath, you note that her blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, her heart rate is 120 breaths/min, and she has cyanosis around her mouth. In addition to supporting her ventilations, you should:

Prepare for immediate transport.

You have just completed your primary survey of a 48-year-old man with crushing chest pain. The patient has been given 324 mg of aspirin and is receiving supplemental oxygen. As you begin your secondary assessment, you note that his mental status has deteriorated and he is now bradycardic. You should:

Prepare the patient for immediate transport.

As an AEMT, you may legally restrain a patient if he or she:

Presents harm to you, your partner, or bystanders.

What is the purpose of valves in the circulatory system?

Prevent the backflow of blood in the vessels

During an explosion, a metal worker sustained a large laceration to the left side of his neck by flying debris. He is conscious, but restless; the wound is moderately bleeding. Appropriate care for this patient's injuries includes:

Preventing air from entering the wound and applying a pressure dressing.

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that:

Primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.

In contrast to the dorsal respiratory group, the ventral respiratory group is:

Primary responsible for motor control of the inspiratory and expiratory muscles.

Natural immunity occurs when a person's body:

Produces antibodies after being exposed to and experiencing all the symptoms of a disease.

What is conveyed through adherence to a set of values and behavior that are accepted as defining features of a given occupation?

Professionalism

Which of the following clinical presentations is most indicative of a subdural hematoma?

Progressive deterioration of mental status and other neurologic functions 2 days following a head injury.

Factors that increase the risk for developing MRSA include:

Prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit.

Your general impression of a 50-year-old man with acute abdominal pain reveals that he is confused and has pale, diaphoretic skin. After correcting any problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, your main focus should be on:

Prompt transport to the hospital.

Which of the following medications is indicated in the treatment of a 52-year-old man with difficulty breathing and a history of emphysema?

Proventil

Which of the following medications is indicated in the treatment of a​ 52-year-old man with difficulty breathing and a history of​ emphysema?

Proventil

You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene involving a critically injured patient. The scene if safe. Your first priority is to:

Provide emergency care to the patient.

You respond to a residence for a 27-year-old male with an altered mental status. As you are assessing him, his girlfriend tells you that he does not have any medical problems that she is aware of; however, he did fall two days ago and struck his head. These clinical and historical findings should make you most suspicious for:

Subdural hemorrhaging.

Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by:

Rapid and slow breathing with alternating apenic periods.

Following the primary survey, your actions prior to transport of a critically injured patient should include:

Rapid head-to-toe assessment, spinal immobilization, vital signs.

Which of the following is the most significant consequence of inappropriate documentation?

Subsequent patient care that is inappropriate.

The self-administration of licit or illicit substances in a manner that is not consistent with approved medical or social practice is called:

Substance abuse.

To become a licensed AEMT, a candidate miust:

Successfully complete a healthcare provider CPR course.

When suctioning the airway of a child, you should:

Suction for 10 seconds and reassess the child's airway.

Following severe maxillofacial trauma, a 16-year-old male presents with oropharyngeal bleeding and poor respiratory effort. You should:

Suction the oropharynx.

You are dispatched to the scene of a shooting. Upon arrival, you are directed by law enforcement to a patient, a 44-year-old male, who is unconscious. He is lying in an impressive pool of blood, and you can hear gurgling from his mouth when he breaths. After your partner opens the patient's airway, you should:

Suction the patient's oropharynx.

Which of the following most accurately describes an acute adoment?

Sudden onset of abdominal pain that indicates peritoneal irritation.

With reference to the sternum, the larynx is:

Superior

A patient requiring airway management should almost always be put in which of the following​ positions?

Supine

Emphysema is caused by:

Surfactant destruction and increased alveolar surface tension.

You will most likely be able to determine whether the cause of your patient's problem is medical or trauma in origin after you have:

Surveyed the scene and assessed the patient.

After several years in EMS, you begin to experience chronic stress. An effective way to deal with this is to:

Sustain friends or activities outside of EMS.

Epinephrine is classified as a(n):

Sympathomimetic.

Ventricular muscle contraction and the pumping of blood throughout the body occur during:

Systole.

What happens when systemic vascular resistance is decreased?

Systolic blood pressure falls.

You arrive at the scene of a shooting. The patient, a young man, was shot in the head and has exposed rain matter. He is pulseless and apneic. What should you do?

Take necessary precautions not to disturb the scene.

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:

Take standard precautions.

Prior to administering an oral medication to a patient, you must:

Take standard precautions.

Which of the following interventions is most critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma?

Rapid transport to a trauma center

Which of the following interventions is most critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma?

Rapid transport to a trauma center.

Bioavailability is defined as the:

Rate and extent to which an active drug enters the general circulation.

The ability of a person to effectively compensate for acute blood loss is most directly related to the:

Rate of the blood loss.

A young female overdose on heroin and has slow, shallow breathing. Which of the following condition will she develop initially?

Respiratory acidosis.

What acid-base derangement initially occurs in a tachypneic patient without a physiologic demand for increased oxygen?

Respiratory alkalosis.

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:

Respiratory arrest.

A 32-year-old male ingested a large quantity of an opioid. Which of the following clinical signs would you most likely encounter during your assessment?

Respiratory depression and hypotension.

Minute volume would increase if:

Respiratory rate was increased.

Violent or dangerous individuals who do not require medical care should be:

Taken into police custody.

You are dispatched for a young male who, according to witnesses, is "not acting right." The patient is found sitting on the ground outside of a grocery store, rocking back and forth. He has blood on his arm from an apparent wound to his wrist. You should:

Talk to him as you approach him, but be prepared for him to turn violent.

You are called for a patient with respiratory distress. She is only able to speak in one or two word phrases so you check her medication list to give you some history. Which of the following medications would be along acting​ beta2-agonist?

Terbutaline

You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will most likely find that she:

Responds to her name but is fearful of your presence.

Which of the following patients has the legal right to refuse treatment?

Responsive and alert 45-year-old male with chest pressure.

An appropriately sized cervical collar should:

Rest on the shoulder and provide support under the mandible.

After applying the AED to your cardiac arrest patient, you receive a "shock advised" message. you should:

Resume CPR as the defibrillator is charging.

Light-sensitive area of the eye where images are projected

Retina

You respond to a residence for a patient who is "not acting right." As you approach the door, the patient, a 35-year-old male, begins shouting profanities at you and your partner while holding a baseball bat. The man is confused and diaphoretic and is wearing a medical identification bracelet. You should:

Retreat at once and call law enforcement.

You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement "He has a gun!" At this point, you should:

Retreat immediately and call for law enforcement assistance.

You arrive at the scene of a domestic dispute. You can hear yelling and the sound of breaking glass from inside the residence. You should:

Retreat to a safe place until the scene has been secured.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes asthma?

Reversible obstruction caused by bronchospasm, mucus production, and edema.

The degradation of dead muscle tissue is called:

Rhabdomyolysis.

Which abdominal quadrant contains the appendix?

Right lower

The presence of distended jugular veins that do not collapse, even when the patient is sitting, is consistent with:

Right-side heart failure.

Increased resistance to blood flow through the pulmonary vasculature often leads to which of the​ following?

Right-sided heart failure

You respond to a call for an unconscious person. Upon arriving at the scene, you find an unconscious young male lying in a prone position in his front yard. After taking standard precautions, you should:

Roll the patient into a supine position, without twisting his body, and open his airway.

On the basis of the Consensus (Parkland) formula, how much crystalloid should you administer per hour to a 70-kg patient with severe burns to 50% of his BSA?

Roughly 800-900 mL

Life-long immunity would most likely occur after a patient is infected with:

Rubella.

Which of the following injuries or conditions would most likely overwhelm the body's hemostatic response and result in death?

Ruptured aortic aneursym.

Which of the following injuries or conditions would most likely overwhelm the body's hemostatic response and result in death?

Ruptured aortic aneurysm

A 60-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a sudden, severe headache. Within a few minute, his level of consciousness rapidly deteriorates. This is most suggestive of a(n):

Ruptured cerebral artery.

A 66-year-old male with congestive heart failure presents with pulmonary edema and difficulty breathing. His blood pressure is 180/90 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 110 beats/min and irregular. When starting an IV, which of the following, if available, would be most appropriate for this patient?

Saline lock.

Which of the following bodily fluids has the least chance of transmitting an infectious disease?

Saliva

A 50-year-old female with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea complains of intense thirst and generalized weakness. Her blood pressure is 86/50 mm Hg and her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and thready. Which of the following interventions would not be appropriate for her?

Salt-containing solutions by mouth.

Static tension lines are present on the:

Scalp

Which of the following statements regarding scalp lacerations is correct:

Scalp lacerations may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adult patients.

In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated?

The AEMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards.

Which of the following statements regarding scalp lacerations is correct?

Scalp lacerations may contribute to hypovolemic shock in adult patients.

An AEMT is allowed to administer some medications through an intravenous line which is considered part of the:

Scope of Practice

If the heart's natural pacemaker is not functioning properly:

The AV node may take over and pace the heart at 40 to 60 beats/min.

the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.

The Adam's apple is:

airway compromise.

The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is:

You have provided an albuterol treatment for your asthma patient and after a few minutes you reassess her. Which of the following would indicate that she is worsening rather than improving?

She is becoming lethargic.

You have provided an albuterol treatment for your asthma patient and after a few minutes you reassess her. Which of the following would indicate that she is worsening rather than​ improving?

She is becoming lethargic.

When a person is standing upright, the wight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the:

Shoulder girdle.

Which of the following seatbelt positions will most likely result in severe intraabdominal injuries when a vehicle suddenly decelerates?

Shoulder harness and lap belt placed superior to the iliac crest

In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child:

Shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is most directly related to:

Shrinkage of the brain.

The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is:

Significant depression.

​On-scene, you suspect a young female patient is suffering from hyperventilation syndrome. Which one of the following signs would BEST assist you in confirming your​ suspicion?

Spasm of the hands

General safety guidelines to follow when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency include all of the following, except:

Spending as little time as possible at the scene.

Significant trauma to the face should increase the AEMT's index of suspicion for a(n):

Spinal cord injury.

Sickle cell disease can result in damage or disease of what abdominal organ?

Spleen

A 26-year-old female, who is at the end of her first trimester of pregnancy, complains of vaginal bleeding. She denies abdominal pain, and states that her last menstrual cycle was approximately 2 months ago. She is conscious and alert, and her vital signs are stable. You should be most suspicious for:

Spontaneous abortion.

In addition to​ pneumonia, which of the following is a complication of​ COPD?

Spontaneous pneumothorax

Which of the following has the most impact on the severity of radiation injury or type of health effect?

The amount and duration of exposure

A 29-year-old female had a glass bottle inserted into her vagina during a sexual assault. She is conscious and alert and has stable vital signs, but she is in severe pain. How should you manage this patient?

Stabilize the bottle with bulky dressings, monitor her vital signs, provide emotional support, and transport promptly.

One of the three small bones in the middle ear is the:

Stapes

You are treating a 50-year-old female with severe abdominal pain. She is conscious but restless, and is begging you for pain medication. Her blood pressure is 146/88 mm Hg, pulse is 120 beats/min and strong, and respirations are 24 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should:

Start a large-bore IV and set it at a keep the vein open rate.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 60-year-old diabetic male who is unresponsive. As you are assessing the patient, your partner attempts to obtain a blood glucose reading; however the glucometer reads "error" after two attempts. You should:

Start an IV and administer 50 mL of 50% dextrose.

Which of the following statements regarding low-energy penetrating injuries is correct?

The area of injury is usually close to the path the object took through the body.

pupil

The opening in the center of the iris, which allows light to move to the back of the eye, is called the:

Disease or inflammation of organs that lie behind or beneath the abdominal cavity can cause signs of peritonitis because:

The parietal peritoneum is richly supplied with very sensitive nerves.

Which of the following situations dictates removal of a football or motorcycle helmet?

The patient has respirations of 24 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume

Manual C-spine stabilization should continue until:

The patient is fully secured to a long backboard.

Which of the following statements regarding the administration of nitroglycerin tablets is TRUE?

The patient may complain of a headache after administration.

A male patient with a history of congestive heart failure presents with orthopnea. This means that:

The severity of his respiratory difficulty varies with position.

have a rich blood supply and bleed profusely.

The skin and underlying tissues of the face:

You are assessing a patient complaining of shortness of breath. Which of the following medications would indicate the patient has a history of respiratory​ disease?

Theophylline

Which of the following statmeents regarding pulmonary respiration is correct?

There are more oxygen molecules in the alveoli than in the blood, therefore, the oxygen molecules move from the alveoli into the blood.

Which of the following statements regarding a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state​ (HHS) relative to diabetic ketoacidosis​ (DKA) is​ TRUE?

There is a lack of ketone formation in a patient with HHS.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding HHS relative to DKA?

There is a lack of ketone formation.

Which of the following would explain why a person might need an implanted pacemaker device?

There is a problem with the electrical system in the heart.

Ventricular tachycardia often causes hypotension because:

There is not enough time between beats for the left ventricle to fill with blood.

Which of the following conditions or injuries would most likely require transfer to a specialty facility?

Thermal burns

Which of the following statements regarding central chemoreceptors is correct?

They adjust respirations based on arterial PaCO2 and PO2 levels

Why do middle adults commonly experience financial concerns?

They are preparing for retirement but must still manage everyday financial demands.

During a seizure, neurons are in a hypermetabolic state. This means that:

They are using large amounts of glucose and producing lactic acid.

Unlike IM or SC injections, intravenously administered drugs rapidly affect the body because:

They bypass most barriers to drug absorption.

Patients with COPD are highly susceptible to pneumonia because:

They cannot effectively expel infected pulmonary secretions.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the family's reaction to the death of a loved one who had an extended or terminal illness?

They often feel relieved that the illness is over.

Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct?

They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly.

The patient must be moved immediately from a structure that has caught fire. He is lying on the ground with only a set of shorts on. You are by yourself and have no other supplies or materials. What type of move would be MOST appropriate in this​ situation?

The​ armpit-forearm drag

The atrioventricular (AV) valves of the heart include the:

Tricuspid and mitral.

An older man complains of chest pain. He is conscious and alert and denies any other symptoms. Your focused assessment of this patient should include:

Vital signs, looking at the chest for obvious trauma, auscultation of breath sounds, assessing the external jugular veins, and assessing for edema to the extremities.

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the AEMT must:

Wear gloves and facial protection.

The National EMS Information System (NEMSIS) Has identified minimum data to be included in a patient care report. Which of the following is not included in the minimum data?

Weather forecast at the time of dispatch.

The absence of a pulse and breath sounds are not adequate in declaring death in patients who:

Were acutely poisoned.

Allows movement of the head

What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?

Nasal

What is the most common type of facial fracture?

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a laryngeal injury?

Wheezing

it should become smaller in size.

When a light is shone into the pupil:

wear gloves and facial protection.

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT's immediate priority should be to:

DCAP-BTLS

When performing a full body scan, you should assess for ________.

they may need to call a specialist to see the patient.

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because:

For the​ AEMT, which of the following is the MOST important question to ask of a diabetic patient or his family​ members?

When was the last time you​ ate?

Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of a head injury?

They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly.

Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct?

Once the protective wrap is removed from a bag of IV fluid, the fluid must be used:

Within 24 hours.

Epinephrine is a critical treatment for patients with severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis) because it:

Works rapidly to raise the BP by constricting the vasculature and improves ventilation by dilating the bronchioles.

has a history of eye surgeries.

You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he:

apply direct pressure above and below the wound.

You are dispatched to a convenience store where the clerk sustained a laceration to the side of his neck during a robbery attempt. During your assessment, you note bright red blood spurting from the laceration. You should:

When using CPAP on a patient with respiratory distress, it is important to remember that:

You are not treating the underlying cause of the patient's respiratory distress.

turn the backboard onto its side.

You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should:

A violent patient should never be restrained in a prone position because:

You cannot effectively monitor the patient's airway.

Which of the following situations would contraindicate use of the LMA?

You have a patient who is morbidly obese.

In which of the following situations would the AEMT have a legal duty to act?

You initiate CPR on a young child outside of your jurisdiction.

When administering a medication via the intranasal route with a mucosal atomizer device, it is important to remember that:

You must spray half of the medication dose into each nostril.

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:

a blowout fracture.

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is most consistent with:

a blowout fracture.

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with:

a brain injury.

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would most likely be observed in a patient with:

a brain injury.

A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights, specks, or "floaters" in his or her field of vision has MOST likely experienced

a detached retina

A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights, specks, or "floaters" in his or her field of vision has MOST likely experienced:

a detached retina.

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:

a detached retina.

You should be most suspicious for serious bleeding when:

a patient has a poor general appearance.

Retinal injuries that are caused by exposure to extremely bright light:

are typically not painful, but may result in permanent damage to vision.

You are interviewing a patient whom you suspect has an acute coronary syndrome. Which question is most appropriate initially?

are you having any chest discomfort

You are dispatched to a call for a​ two-year-old not breathing. When​ responding, you realize that your FIRST responsibility is​ to:

arrive at the scene safely with no mishaps.

During your primary survey of a 33-year-old male with severe hypothermia, you find that he is unresponsive and has agonal breathing. You should:

assess for a carotid pulse for up to 60 seconds.

During your rapid assessment of a semiconscious 44-year-old female with blunt thoracic trauma, you detect an area on the left anterior chest that bulges during exhalation. The patient's oxygen saturation is 75%, and her breathing is shallow. You should:

assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device and high-flow oxygen.

An elderly male was removed from his burning house by firefighters. He has extensive full-thickness burns; is semiconscious; and has shallow, stridorous respirations. The firefighters have already stopped the burning process. After ensuring an open airway, you should:

assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen.

The __________ system monitors the body's needs from moment to moment and adjusts blood flow by changing the vascular tone, as needed.

autonomic nervous

What part of the human body helps the cardiovascular system adapt to changes in order to maintain homeostasis?

autonomic nervous system

A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should:

avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering her eye.

A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should:

avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye.

During your assessment of a 48-year-old female with localized blunt abdominal trauma, you should:

be prepared for the patient to vomit.

A patient has a low platelet count. Based on this finding, which complication is he most at risk for?

bleeding out

Hemostasis is a natural response of the body in which:

bleeding spontaneously clots through vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation.

The term "hyphema" is defined as

blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.

The term "hyphema" is defined as:

blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.

The absence of pain when palpating a trauma patient's abdomen does not rule out the possibility of intraabdominal bleeding because:

blood within the peritoneal cavity does not provoke an inflammatory response.

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with

blowout fracture.

Visceral injuries in the chest that occur from shearing forces, compression, or rupture are most commonly seen with:

blunt chest trauma.

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with

brain injury.

A(n) _______ is also called a contusion.

bruise

A 34-year-old male is in late shock secondary to blunt chest trauma. His respirations of 6 breaths/min and shallow will initially result in:

carbon dioxide retention and acidosis.

Blunt or penetrating abdominal trauma can be especially lethal in pregnant patients because the:

gravid uterus is highly vascular.

When AEMT lifts a​ patient, the:

hands must be positioned with palms forward.

A 40-year-old male experienced penetrating trauma to the left anterior chest. During inhalation, you note that his radial pulses become barely palpable. You should suspect:

cardiac tamponade.

You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he:

has a history of eye surgeries.

You are assessing a 59-year-old male who complains of a headache and note that his pupils are asymmetrical. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he:

has a history of eye surgeries.

You are assessing a 59-year-old male who complains of a headache and note that his pupils are asymmetrical. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is most pertinent to ask him if he:

has a history of eye surgeries.

The skin and underlying tissues of the face:

have a rich blood supply and bleed heavily.

When assessing a patient in the prehospital setting, which of these does the EMT recognize as an indication for aspirin?

chest discomfort that is suggestive of a heart attack

When assessing a patient, which of the following should you recognize as an indication for aspirin therapy?

chest discomfort that is suggestive of a heart attack

Completing the preparation phase of ambulance operations does NOT​ include:

choosing the best route to the receiving hospital.

When using an air splint to control bleeding in a fractured extremity, you should reassess the _________ frequently.

circulation in the injured extremity

Perfusion is most accurately defined as:

circulation of blood within an organ or tissue.

The disease process related to chronic inflammation of the liver is:

cirrhosis

A 39-year-old female experienced a severe closed head injury. She is unconscious with her eyes slightly open; her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, you should:

close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing.

Detecting vehicles at your side cushions​ requires:

constant scanning of your side mirrors.

A young male is wearing lightweight clothing and is standing outside in windy winter weather. He is losing heat to the environment mostly by:

convection.

EMS badges and ID cards should include a photo of the bearer and​ be:

counterfeit resistant.

A 40-year-old male was in his woodworking shop when he felt a sudden, sharp pain in his left eye. Your assessment reveals a small splinter of wood embedded in his cornea. You should:

cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital.

Signs and symptoms of internal bleeding in both trauma and medical patients include:

hematemesis

_______ is vomited blood.

hematemesis

A lack of the one or more of the blood's clotting factors is called:

hemophilia

Clinical findings associated with a laryngeal injury include:

hemoptysis, subcutaneous emphysema, and cyanosis.

Unilaterally diminished or absent breath sounds, a narrowed pulse pressure, and dullness to percussion of the hemithorax are clinical findings suggestive of a:

hemothorax.

The homeostatic function of the endocrine system is regulated​ by:

hormonal release.

Diabetes mellitus is an endocrine disorder characterized​ by:

inadequate regulation of blood glucose.

Hyperthermia occurs when:

inadequate thermolysis causes reduced heat loss.

The BEST way to get other drivers attention when you are driving with lights and sirens is​ to:

increase your audible warnings by changing the siren tone or activating the horn.

You are treating a patient who complains of altered mental status, shortness of breath, and chest pain. A paramedic has just administered a medication that causes the sympathetic nervous system to increase its influence in the body. Which finding should you anticipate after this treatment?

increased heart rate

If the typical adult loses more than 1 L of blood, significant changes in vital signs, such as _________ , will occur.

increased respiratory rate

In contrast to upper-airway injury following a burn, lower-airway injury is usually the result of:

inhalation of chemicals and particulate matter.

Aspirin is used in the treatment of myocardial ischemia because it:

inhibits the aggregation of platelets.

Following blunt head trauma, a 44-year-old male presents with clear, watery fluid draining from his nose. You should suspect:

damage to all of the meningeal layers.

When administering aspirin to a patient with chest discomfort that is suggestive of a heart attack, the EMT recognizes that this medication will benefit the patient by:

decreasing the ability of the platelets in the blood to form clots

The function of the blood is to _________ all of the body's cells and tissues.

deliver nutrients to

The layer of skin that lies below the germinal layer and contains nerves, sebaceous glands, and blood vessels is called the:

dermis.

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with:

direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.

In an attempt to minimize the pain associated with abdominal trauma, the patient will typically:

draw his or her knees into the abdomen and tense the abdominal muscles.

The primary factor in loss of control of the ambulance​ is:

driving too fast for current road conditions.

You are treating a patient who complains of having excessive bleeding and pain during her regular menstrual cycle. She states this has been an ongoing problem for the past few years. This condition is referred to as:

dysmenorrhea.

Heat cramps are typically the result of prolonged exposure to a hot environment, resulting in:

electrolyte depletion and severe muscle spasms.

Looking at something from the patient's point of view is an example of:

empathy

Protocols and standing orders for your EMS service are available through your:

employer

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash involving a telephone pole, you note that the driver appears unconscious and is bleeding heavily from the mouth. There is a power line across the hood and roof of the car. You should:

ensure that the power line is not electrically active.

To maintain your license or certification, all of the following are required EXCEPT: A) documentation of mandatory continuing education activities. B) submission of a CPR card. C) payment of fees for renewal. D) evidence of a negative TB skin test.

evidence of a negative TB skin test

Using the BEST available research evidence to guide patient assessment and care is an example of:

evidence-based practice

A patient with a displaced fracture of the proximal femur typically presents with:

external leg rotation, with the injured leg shorter than the opposite leg.

Which of the following is not a component of the cardiac electrical conduction system?

interatrial septum.

_______ bleeding is any bleeding in a cavity or space inside the body.

internal

You are assisting a paramedic in the transport of a patient from a community hospital emergency department to a large medical center. The patient was diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and received fibrinolytic therapy in the ED. Currently, you are transporting the patient with the fibrinolytic medication infusing through an IV. In regard to the fibrinolytic therapy, you know that during this transport, you will need to closely monitor the patient for which complication?

internal bleeding

The AEMT must be especially cautious when administering IV fluids to patients with:

internal hemorrhage.

A 50-year-old male fell approximately 20 feet and landed on his side. He is conscious and alert and denies loss of consciousness. During your assessment, you note pain and crepitus when palpating the iliac crests. In addition to the potential for spinal injury, you should be most concerned about:

internal hemorrhaging.

Diffuse (global) swelling of the abdomen is most suggestive of:

intraabdominal bleeding.

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be most concerned with the possibility of:

intracranial bleeding.

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. If you do not have sterile saline or water, you should:

irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water.

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should:

irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water.

An industrial-plant worker was splashed in the left eye with a strong acid chemical. The most appropriate initial care for this patient's injury is to:

irrigate the eye laterally, away from the unaffected eye.

A 22-year-old male was walking on the beach and had sand blown into his eyes. He complains of pain and decreased vision to his right eye. Treatment should include:

irrigating his right eye laterally.

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will most likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she:

is ejected or partially ejected.

Which of the following statements regarding stable angina pectoris is TRUE?

it can be brought on by exertion or stress

Your patient has severe respiratory distress from an acute onset of pulmonary edema. Why do you want to treat her with CPAP?

it can reduce the amount of fluid that can cross into the alveoli

Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice, and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a(n):

laryngeal fracture.

An unconscious patient who is vomiting intermittently should be placed in the recovery​ position, also known​ as:

left lateral recumbent

The ______ is the thickest chamber of the heart.

left ventricle

When lifting or moving any​ patient, you MUST remember to primarily use the muscles of​ your:

legs.

Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice, and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a/an:

laryngeal fracture.

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during:

lateral crashes.

A 29-year-old male has an anterior nosebleed after he was accidentally elbowed in the nose. His is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. The MOST appropriate care for this patient includes:

leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together.

Atrophine increases the heart rate by:

locking the vagus nerve and preventing innervation by ACh

A 29-year-old male has an anterior nosebleed after he was accidentally elbowed in the nose. His is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. The most appropriate care for this patient includes:

leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together.

Two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are:

falls and motor vehicle collisions.

An individual is considered to be hypothermic when his or her core body temperature:

falls below 95°F.

When cells are unable to utilize glucose for​ fuel, they will slowly begin to use​ ________ as an energy source.

fats

Signs of cerebral herniation include:

flexor posturing.

The tricuspid valve prevents blood from:

flowing from the right ventricle into the right atrium.

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull known as the:

foramen magnum.

Sclerosis of a vein is caused by:

frequent cannulation.

A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. You should:

fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, tilt the backboard to the left side, and transport.

Your patient is a 25-year-old woman with a history of diabetes. She is confused, agitated, and verbally abusive to you, and she is very sweaty. Although she refuses to give a history of the present illness, you should suspect which of the following as the likely cause of her presentation?

low blood glucose levels

Blood enters the left atrium from the:

lungs

The mediastinum encompasses all of the structures within the thoracic cavity, except for the:

lungs.

A 62-year-old female with a history of type 2 diabetes has sustained partial-thickness burns to 27% of her body surface area (BSA). This burn should be classified as a:

major burn.

The lower jawbone is called the:

mandible

The lower jawbone is called the

mandible.

The lower jawbone is called the:

mandible.

A 29-year-old male fell approximately 5 feet from a ladder and landed on his right shoulder. He is conscious and alert, denies loss of consciousness, and complains of pain to the shoulder. His vital signs are stable. You should:

manually stabilize the injury until it is splinted, perform a secondary assessment, splint the injury appropriately, and transport.

The upper jawbones are called the:

maxillae

The upper jawbones are called the.

maxillae.

The upper jawbones are called the:

maxillae.

When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the:

mechanism of injury

As you approach the scene of a​ three-vehicle crash, dispatch information and the initial information you gather as you approach the scene can help you​ determine:

mechanism of injury.

Which of the following inhibits the body's ability to control bleeding?

medications that interfere with normal clotting

Blunt abdominal trauma may result in tearing of the mesentery, which is/are:

membranous folds that attach the intestines to the abdominal wall.

The first signs of hypovolemic shock is a change in:

mental status

When assessing a patient with a mandibular fracture, you would MOST likely encounter:

misalignment of the teeth.

The AEMT should be MOST suspicious of a Le Fort fracture if a patient who experienced massive blunt force trauma to the face presents with:

mobility of the facial bones.

Compared to classic heatstroke, exertional heatstroke commonly presents with:

moist, pale skin.

When assessing a patient with blunt abdominal trauma, the severity of internal bleeding is best determined by:

monitoring for signs of shock.

The _______ only requires a minimal blood supply when at rest.

muscles

Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of oxygen?

myocardial infarction

The patient with type 2 diabetes is usually:

non-insulin dependent.

A 34-year-old male sustained a twisting injury to his left lower leg when he stepped into a hole. Your assessment reveals ecchymosis and pain to the area, but no deformity or crepitus. You should suspect a:

nondisplaced fracture.

When treating a diver who complains of severe pain to his joints and abdomen after returning to the surface of the water, you should manage his airway accordingly and position him:

on his left side with his head down.

The MOST dangerous seating position in the back of the ambulance​ is:

on the side facing the bench seat.

The safest seating position in the back of the ambulance​ is:

on the stretcher.

In contrast to paradoxical chest motion, asymmetrical chest movement occurs when:

one side of the chest fails to move normally during inspiration.

Blood leaves each chamber of a normal heart through a(n):

one-way valve

The AEMT's responsibility to support or promote the needs and rights of patients is considered:

patient advocacy

The term for an inflammation of the female reproductive organs and genitalia usually caused by STD is:

pelvic inflammatory disease.

Good time management includes all of the following EXCEPT: A) getting to work on time. B) prioritizing your tasks. C) proper documentation. D) performing tasks in a timely manner.

proper documentation

The single MOST important factor in reducing injuries in ambulance crashes​ is/are:

proper restraint of occupants and equipment.

It is the employer's responsibility to:

provide a training officer or a mentor for new employees

Which of the following is Not a factor in the formation of blood clots?

pumping function of the heart

The opening in the center of the iris, which allows light to move to the back of the eye, is called the:

pupil.

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy:

quadruples.

When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant:

remains in motion until acted upon by an external force.

The optic nerve endings are located within the:

retina.

The kidneys lie within the:

retroperitoneal space

If the physician told you that the patient had a cold, you could document that in your patient care report as:

rhinovirus.

When assessing a patient with a scapular fracture, you should also be alert for:

rib fractures and a pneumothorax.

The ________ side of the heart receives oxygen-poor blood from the veins.

right

A patient has pulmonary hypertension, which has increased the resistance in the pulmonary blood vessels. In response, what will most likely occur over a long period of time?

right side of the heart will weaken

A young female is found floating face-down in a lake. There were no witnesses to the event. Prior to removing her from the water, you must first:

rotate the patient into a supine position and protect her spine.

The presence of a scaphoid abdomen and bowel sounds in the lower hemithorax are most suggestive of a:

ruptured diaphragm.

The AEMT should perform an urgent or emergency move when​ the:

scene contains an immediate threat to the crew or patient.

The white portion of the eye is called the:

sclera.

When immobilizing a patient onto a long backboard, it is important to:

secure the torso prior to securing the head.

Cleaning the surfaces of the patient care compartment without being asked is an example of:

self-motivation

The skin sends messages to the brain to regulate various functions via:

sensory nerves.

All patients with closed soft-tissue injuries should be assessed for:

serious hidden injuries.

Mild hypothermia is characterized by:

shivering, tachypnea, and peripheral vascular constriction.

________ is inadequate tissue perfusion.

shock

The normal, regular rate of electrical activity for the heart is set by the:

sinoatrial node

The primary pacemaker site of the heart is the:

sinoatrial node

Your chest pain patient has a pulse of 48. Which pacemaker do you suspect is malfunctioning?

sinoatrial node

The normal, regular rate of electrical activity for the heart is set by the:

sinoatrial node.

The ability to consciously flex a muscle in an extremity is a function of the:

somatic nervous system.

Significant trauma to the face should increase the AEMT's index of suspicion for a(n):

spinal cord injury.

Significant trauma to the face should increase the AEMT's index of suspicion for a/an:

spinal cord injury.

You respond to a 25-year old man who has cut his arm with a circular saw. The bleeding appears to be bright red and spurting. The patient is alert and oriented and converses with you freely. He appears to be stable at this point. What is your first step in controlling his bleeding?

standard precautions

A 30-year-old female was assaulted by a gang as she was leaving a nightclub. She has massive facial trauma and slow, gurgling respirations. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you should:

suction her oropharynx for 15 seconds.

A 30-year-old female was assaulted. She has massive facial trauma and slow, gurgling respirations. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you should:

suction the blood from her oropharynx.

Following severe maxillofacial trauma, a 16-year-old male presents with oropharyngeal bleeding and poor respiratory effort. You should:

suction the oropharynx.

You are dispatched to the scene of a shooting. Upon arrival, you are directed by law enforcement to the patient, a 44-year-old male, who is unconscious. He is lying in an impressive pool of blood, and you can hear gurgling from his mouth when he breathes. After your partner opens the patient's airway, you should:

suction the patient's oropharynx.

Consider a hemorrhagic stroke if the patient describes it as:

sudden in onset and "the worst headache of my life."

Patients with inadequate perfusion should be​ transported:

supine

When stabilizing a large foreign object in the eye, you should first cover the eye with a moist dressing, then:

surround the object with a doughnut-shaped collar made from gauze.

A patient with developing compartment syndrome following a fracture typically complains of or presents with:

tension or pressure in the affected extremity.

You have been called to a residence for an obese 52-year-old male patient who complains of chest pain. When obtaining a history from the patient, which of these statements made by the patient would you find most concerning?

the pain came on suddenly when I was reading the paper

When assessing the skin temperature of a patient with a cold-related emergency, you should feel the skin closest to the core of the body because:

the patient may be hemodynamically stable even if his or her extremities are cold.

Which of the following statements regarding the administration of nitroglycerin tablets is TRUE?

the patient may complain of a headache following administration

If a person places his or her hand on a hot stove:

the sensory nerve will bypass the brain and send a message directly to the motor nerve.

Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, except:

the speed of the fall.

The Adam's apple is

the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.

The Adam's apple is:

the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.

For a critical patient with type 2 diabetes in a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic​ state, you would document each of the following in the patient care report​ EXCEPT:

the ​ patient's family history is unknown.

A frostbitten extremity should never be rewarmed if:

there is a chance that it may refreeze.

You should consider bleeding to be serious if all of the following conditions are present Except:

there is no mechanism of injury

In order for electricity to flow through the body and cause injury:

there must be a complete circuit between the electrical source and the ground.

While transporting a pregnant trauma patient who is immobilized on a backboard, you note a sudden decrease in her blood pressure and a decrease in her mental status. You should:

tilt the backboard to the left.

Testicular torsion is a(n):

time-sensitive injury and requires rapid transport.

Seizures characterized by rapid, rhythmic contractions of the muscles that may last for several minutes are called:

tonic-clonic.

Fracture of the first and second ribs following severe blunt trauma would most likely result in a:

tracheobronchial injury.

The small, rounded, fleshy bulge immediately anterior to the ear canal is called the:

tragus.

EMRs can use basic airway management, ventilation skills, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and:

treat nerve agent poisoning

You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should:

turn the backboard onto its side.

You are responding to an emergency call but the traffic is at a standstill and vehicles are unable to clear a path for you to move through. You​ should:

turn your lights and sirens off and wait for traffic to move.

Which of these statements from a patient should the EMT recognize as an absolute contraindication to the use of fibrinolytic medications in the emergency department?

two months ago i had a stroke on th left side of my brain

The term "status epilepticus" refers to a:

two or more seizures with no intervening periods of consciousness.

In the absence of obvious external trauma, an abdominal injury would be most difficult to assess for in a(n):

unresponsive patient.

When assessing a patient with a grossly deformed humerus, you note that the radial pulse is absent and the extremity is becoming cyanotic. You should:

use constant, gentle manual traction to align the humerus.

A good defensive driver constantly scans the surroundings. This process includes each of the following​ EXCEPT:

watching everything outside the front windshield.

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the AEMT must:

wear gloves and facial protection.

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT must:

wear gloves and facial protection.

All of the following are important to providing medical care safely, EXCEPT: A) using appropriate personal protective equipment. B) double checking medication doses. C) driving with "due regard." D) wearing a N-95 respirator during extrication.

wearing a N-95 respirator during extrication

Braking and stopping distance for ambulances can be up to 3 times greater than​ cars' due​ to:

weight.

Operators of emergency vehicles MUST drive with the safety of others in mind which is known as​ driving:

with due regard.

An intracerebral hematoma is the result of bleeding:

within the brain tissue itself.

The signs and symptoms related to hypoglycemia have a(n) ________ onset.

Rapid

________ blood is dark red and oozes from a wound steadily but slowly.

capillary

You are administering aspirin to a patient with crushing chest pain when he asks you if he is having a heart attack. An appropriate response to his question would be:

"I don't know."

Which of the following most accurately describes the correct sequence of events after attaching an AED to a patient in cardiac arrest and pushing the analyze button?

"Shock advised" message, stand clear, defibrillate, immediately resume CPR, reanalyze after 2 minutes.

A 40-year-old female complains of a sudden onset of chest pressure. When assessing the history of her present illness, which of the following patient responses would identify a palliating factor?

"The pressure seems to subside when I sit down."

A 39-year-old male with a history of type 1 diabetes is found unresponsive by his wife. When obtaining initial information from the wife, which of the following questions would be least pertinent?

"Was your husband hospitalized for this problem in the past?"

The mastoid process is located approximately:

1" posterior to the external opening of the ear.

With regard to potential treatment in the hospital, which of the following questions is most important to ask the spouse of a 66-year-old female who presents with signs and symptoms of an acute ischemic stroke?

"When did you first notice the symptoms?"

Which of the following suffixes refers to drooping?

-Ptosis

A​ 4-year-old child has inflammation of the​ bronchioles, which is often caused​ by:

. respiratory syncytial virus.

Body armor with a threat level of Type IIA would provide protection from which of the following weapons?

.40 Smith & Wesson.

The dose of epinephrine, via auto-injector, for patients who weigh more than 33 pounds is:

0.3 mg.

Which of the following IV catheters would deliver the largest volume of fluid?

1 1/4 in 14-gauge catheter

One mililiter (mL) is the equivalent of:

1 cubic centimeter.

one mililiter (mL) is the equivalent of:

1 cubic centimeter.

The dose of glucagon when given IM​

1 mg IM.

Which of the following represents a "standard" drug dose?

1 mg.

A 7-year-old child has swallowed a bottle of aspirin. Medical control orders you to give the child 0.5 g/kg of activated charcoal. Based on the child's weight of 45 pounds, how much charcoal will you administer?

10 g

At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?

10 to 18 months

A systolic blood pressure of less than ______ mm Hg with weak, rapid pulse suggest the presence of hypoperfusion in a patient who may have significant bleeding.

100

By the end of their first year of life, a child's tidal volume typically ranges between:

10 and 15 mL/kg.

The most appropriate administration set to use for a patient who requires rapid fluid replacement is one that delivers 1 mL of IV fluid per:

10 drops

Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 11, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. His Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is:

8.

Which of the following blood glucose levels is considered normal for an​ adult?

80 mg/dL

A full-term neonate has a total body water percentage of:

80%

Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min, his Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is:

9

Which of the following blood glucose readings would you see in a patient with in a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic​ state?

900 ​ mg/dL

Supplemental oxygen should be administered to maintain an oxygen saturation of _ % or greater.

94%.

The high normal body temperature for an infant is:

99.6

irrigating his right eye laterally.

A 22-year-old male was walking on the beach and had sand blown into his eyes. He complains of pain and decreased vision to his right eye. Treatment should include:

Which of the following scenarios is an example of an intentional poisoning?

A 24-year-old female sprays mace into the eyes of a perpetrator during a burglary attempt.

leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together.

A 29-year-old male has an anterior nosebleed after he was accidentally elbowed in the nose. He is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. The MOST appropriate care for this patient includes:

conjunctivitis.

A 30-year-old female presents with redness, inflammation, and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing:

transport her to the emergency department.

A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should:

Assuming that previous exposure and sensitization has occurred, which of the following patients will likely experience the most severe allergic reaction?

A 40-year-old female who was stung by a yellow jacket.

padding between the ear and the scalp.

A 44-year-old male sustained a laceration to his left ear during a minor car accident. Your assessment reveals minimal bleeding. Appropriate care for this injury includes:

carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline.

A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should:

fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport.

A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should:

Which of the following situations is not an example of a patient with a mental illness?

A 55-year-old male who experiences a panic attack after being diagnosed with cancer.

rapidly transporting her to the hospital.

A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is:

Which of the following scenarios is most descriptive of an absence seizure?

A 6-year-old male who is conscious, but will not response to his mother; symptoms subside spontaneously within a few minutes.

Of the following, which is the least common sign or symptom of a head injury?

A cardiac rhythm disturbance.

When assessing a middle-aged male patient with chest pain, you note a large vertical scar in the center of his chest. This indicates that he has most likely had:

A coronary artery bypass graft

Age-related changes in the renal system result in:

A decreased ability to clear wastes from the body and a decreased ability to conserve fluids when needed.

irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water.

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should:

Which of the following describes an injury caused by indirect force?

A fall on an outstretched hand with a fractured wrist and a dislocated elbow

Definitive treatment to reduce acute respiratory distress in a patient with a pleural effusion involves:

A fluid thoracentesis.

Which of the following fits the definition for acute respiratory distress syndrome​ (ARDS)?

A form of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema

Approximately 2 weeks following a total hip replacement, a 70-year-old female complains of a sudden onset of dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain. Your assessment reveals perioral cyanosis, blood-tinged sputum, and wheezing to the base of her right lung. As your partner applies high-flow oxygen, the patient states that she has a history of hypertension. You should be most suspicious of:

A pulmonary embolism.

A 67-year-old female complains of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain that woke her from her sleep. As you and your partner enter her residence, you immediately note the smell of natural gas. Suspecting carbon monoxide toxicity, you quickly remove the patient from her home and place her in the ambulance. When assessing her, it is important to remember that:

A pulse oximetry reading that is high does not rule out significant hypoxemia.

Ventricular tachycardia is:

A rapid contraction of the ventricles that does not allow for normal filling of the heart.

A behavioral crisis occurs when:

A reaction to an event interferes with daily living activities.

A 19-year-old female presents with severe pain to the left lower quadrant of her abdomen. She is restless, tachypneic, and tachycardic. When you inquire about her last menstrual period, she tells you that it was approximately 2 months ago. You should suspect:

A ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

Acute abdominal pain in a female of childbearing age should be assumed to be:

A ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is most important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injury because:

A specialist may be needed to manage the injury.

apply direct pressure to her arm wound.

A young female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She complains of pain to her left eye, which appears to have a piece of glass impaled in it. Further assessment reveals a large laceration to her left forearm with active venous bleeding. As your partner manually stabilizes the patient's head, you should:

13: Which of the following statements is true regarding facial fractures? A) Be sure to remove and save any loose teeth or bone fragments from the mouth. B) Facial fractures are always an acute emergency. C) Facial fractures generally heal themselves. D) You should transport a patient with a facial fracture directly to the plastic surgeon.

A) Be sure to remove and save any loose teeth or bone fragments from the mouth.

A 40-year-old male was in his woodworking shop when he felt a sudden, sharp pain in his left eye. Your assessment reveals a small splinter of wood embedded in his cornea. You should: A) Cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital. B) Remove the object with a cotton-tipped applicator. C) Scrape the splinter away with moist, sterile gauze. D) Cover his right eye and flush the left eye with saline.

A) Cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital.

Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice, and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a(n): A) Laryngeal fracture. B) Collapsed trachea. C) Crushed cricoid. D) Esophageal tear.

A) Laryngeal fracture.

8: After taking standard precautions, the EMT should focus on the patient's: A) airway. B) breathing pattern. C) circulation. D) chief complaint.

A) airway.

3: When treating a patient with an impaled object in the eye, the EMT should: A) stabilize the object in place. B) remove the object. C) flush with sterile saline. D) cover with a Styrofoam cup.

A) stabilize the object in place.

2: In what manner should the EMT flush the eye when there is a foreign body in it? A) the nose to the outside of the eye B) the outside of the eye to the nose C) top of the eye towards the mouth D) none of the above

A) the nose to the outside of the eye

Significant vital signs changes, including increased heart and respiratory rates and a decreasing blood pressure, would likely occur if an 80-kg adult patient acutely loses as little as _____ L of blood. A. 1 B. 2 C. 0.5 D. 2.5

A. 1

Appropriate management for a patient with a serious closed injury and signs of shock includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. 15" to 20" elevation of the lower extremities. B. IV fluid boluses to maintain perfusion. C. prompt transport to a local trauma center. D. high-flow oxygen or assisted ventilation.

A. 15" to 20" elevation of the lower extremities

Which of the following fits the definition for acute respiratory distress syndrome ARDS? A. A form of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema B. An infection resulting in inflammation of the larynx. C. A viral respiratory disease D. A chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

A. A form of non-cradiogenic pulmonary edema.

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding asthma? A. After initial treatment for an attack, a secondary reaction may occur hours later. B. Beta2-agonists act to reduce mucus production in the lungs. C. If treated by the beta2-agonists, the underlying inflammation is eliminated. D. When an asthmatic stops wheezing, the medication is working well.

A. After initial treatment for an attack, a secondary reaction may occur hours later.

What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A. Allows movement of the head B. Allows flexion of the neck C. Connects the scapulae together D. Facilitates chest movement

A. Allows movement of the head

Which of the following is TRUE regarding energy production in the body? A. An increase in H+ concentration decreases the body's pH B. Water and carbon monoxide are formed and are easily eliminated C. Cells require carbon dioxide in order to bind to oxygen. D. Anaerobic metabolism decreases the accumulation H+

A. An increase in H+ concentration decreases the body's pH

A 19-year-old male sustained major head trauma following a motorcycle crash. During your assessment, you note the presence of blood draining from his left ear. What is the MOST important reason for not attempting to control the flow of this bleeding? A. An increase in intracranial pressure may occur. B. The patient may develop a life-threatening infection. C. It would likely skew the physician's assessment. D. Its origin is from a location that you cannot access.

A. An increase in intracranial pressure may occur

A 19-year-old male sustained major head trauma following a motorcycle crash. During your assessment, you note the presence of blood draining from his left ear. What is the MOST important reason for not attempting to control the flow of this bleeding? Select one: A. An increase in intracranial pressure may occur. B. The patient may develop a life-threatening infection. C. Its origin is from a location that you cannot access. D. It would likely skew the physician's assessment.

A. An increase in intracranial pressure may occur.

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. Aortic rupture B. Forehead lacerations C. Flail chest D. Extremity fractures

A. Aortic rupture

Which of the following statements regarding the dermal layer of the skin is correct? A. Blood vessels in the dermis do not penetrate into the epidermis. B. The dermis forms a watertight covering for the body. C. Cells of the dermis are constantly worn away and replaced. D. Most of the skin's melanin granules are contained in the dermis.

A. Blood vessels in the dermis do not penetrate into the epidermis

Carbon dioxide exchanged for oxygen in the alveolus in the lungs is an example of: A. External respiration B. Anatomic ventilation C. Oxyhemoglobin exchange D. Internal respiration

A. External respiration

Your patient is complaining of chest pain and is cool, pale, and diaphoretic with a bluish tinge on his nail beds. You place a pulse oximeter probe on his index finger and it shows a reading of 88 percent. Based on this information, what will you document in your patient care report when describing his condition? A. He is hypoxic with signs of shock B. He has chest pain with dyspnea C. He is sweaty with signs of pneumonia D. He needs to take his nitroglycerin

A. He is hypoxic with signs of shock.

Which of the following is the MOST acute and serious complication associated with a break in the integrity of the skin? A. Loss of fluids B. Hyperthermia C. Severe infection D. Vasodilation

A. Loss of fluids

Which of the following organs or tissues requires only intermittent circulation of blood? A. Muscles B. Brain C. Lungs D. Kidneys

A. Muscles

Which of the following injuries presents the greatest risk for severe internal bleeding? A. Pelvic fractures B. Rib fractures C. Tibial fractures D. Bilateral femur fractures

A. Pelvic fractures

What types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? A. Rotational and rollover B. Rear-end and rotational C. Frontal and rotational D. Lateral and rollover

A. Rotational and rollover

Which of the following statements regarding severe burns is correct? A. Significant hypovolemia may not occur for several hours following the burn injury. B. Immediately following the burn, fluid shifts to the injured area and creates edema. C. Sodium is shunted away from the burned area as the body attempts to compensate. D. Following the burn, there is an immediate shift of fluid out of the vascular space.

A. Significant hypovolemia may not occur for several hours following the burn injury

A 22-year-old male, who was trapped in a confined space during a structural fire, is conscious and alert and refuses EMS treatment and transport. He is breathing without difficulty, but has singed nasal hair and facial redness. Which of the following statements regarding this patient is correct? A. The patient may die several hours later due to pulmonary complications. B. Signs and symptoms of upper airway swelling are rapidly progressing. C. It is likely that this patient has not experienced a serious airway burn. D. You should encourage this patient to drive himself to the hospital.

A. The patient may die several hours later due to pulmonary complications

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct? A. The speed of a bullet has a greater impact on causing injury than the mass. B. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury. C. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries. D. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of internal injury.

A. The speed of a bullet has a greater impact on causing injury than the mass

Which of the following physiologic responses occurs initially following a burn injury? A. Vasoconstriction and decreased blood flow to the burned area B. Massive edema as the fluid shifts into the extravascular space C. An inflammatory response and increased capillary permeability D. Electrolyte derangements and significant hypovolemia

A. Vasoconstriction and decreased blood flow to the burned area

A 21-year-old male has lost approximately 35% of his blood volume following a penetrating injury to the chest. Which of the following signs or symptoms would you NOT expect to see? A. Widened pulse pressure B. Marked tachypnea C. Diaphoresis and pallor D. Decreased systolic BP

A. Widened pulse pressure

When assessing a conscious patient who experienced an electrical injury, you note irregularity in his pulse. This is MOST indicative of: A. a cardiac dysrhythmia. B. impending respiratory arrest. C. ventricular fibrillation. D. decreased perfusion.

A. a cardiac dysrhythmia

A 22-year-old female was involved in a traumatic incident. She is exhibiting signs of shock, but there are no obvious external signs of trauma. You should suspect bleeding within the: A. abdominal cavity. B. lower extremities. C. cranial vault. D. thoracic cavity.

A. abdominal cavity

A patient has severe bleeding from a large laceration to the anterior forearm. Direct pressure and a pressure dressing are not immediately effective in controlling the bleeding. You should: A. apply a tourniquet above the level of the bleeding. B. elevate the arm and apply ice to the injury. C. apply additional dressings and elevate the arm. D. locate and apply digital pressure to the brachial artery.

A. apply a tourniquet above the level of the bleeding

A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. You should: A. apply supplemental oxygen, immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport. B. assist ventilations with a bag-mask device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport. C. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, tilt the backboard to the left side, and transport. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport.

A. apply supplemental oxygen, immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport

Retinal injuries that are caused by exposure to extremely bright light: A. are typically not painful, but may result in permanent damage to vision. B. are intensely painful, but usually only result in temporary blindness. C. usually do not immediate medical attention unless vision is impaired. D. damage the motor cells of the eye, resulting in reduced eye movement.

A. are typically not painful, but may result in permanent damage to vision

You and your partner are caring for a 30-year-old female who sustained extensive partial- and full-thickness burns when she was near a gas heater that exploded. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is semiconscious with profoundly labored and stridorous respirations. Immediate management of this patient should include: A. assisting her breathing with a bag-mask device and oxygen. B. covering her with dry, sterile dressings and applying oxygen. C. insertion of a multilumen airway to protect her from aspiration. D. 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and rapid transport.

A. assisting her breathing with a bag-mask device and oxygen

Prior to applying and inflating the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG), you should: A. auscultate bilateral breath sounds. B. palpate the pelvis at least two times. C. palpate the abdomen for rigidity. D. perform a secondary assessment.

A. auscultate bilateral breath sounds

A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should: A. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering her eye. B. apply firm direct pressure to the injured eye and cover the opposite eye. C. carefully examine her eye and remove any foreign objects if needed. D. ask her to move the injured eye to assess the integrity of the optic nerve.

A. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering her eye

When treating a patient who experienced a pulmonary blast injury, you should: A. avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure. B. administer large amounts of intravenous fluid. C. use a demand valve to ventilate the patient. D. suspect an accompanying cardiac tamponade.

A. avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure

If a patient is hemorrhaging, he or she is: A. bleeding. B. bleeding externally. C. bleeding internally. D. in severe shock.

A. bleeding

Hemostasis is a natural response of the body in which: A. bleeding spontaneously clots through vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation. B. all body systems work together to maintain stability of the internal environment. C. blood is diverted away from the skin to areas where it is needed the most. D. platelets lose their ability to aggregate due to severe internal bleeding.

A. bleeding spontaneously clots through vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation

Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as: A. circulation of blood within an organ or tissue. B. adequate supplies of glucose within the brain. C. removal of carbon dioxide from the body. D. oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange in the lungs.

A. circulation of blood within an organ or tissue

The LEAST desirable method of bleeding control in the prehospital setting is: A. clamping a bleeding artery with hemostats. B. applying a tourniquet proximal to the injury. C. applying a pressure dressing and bandage. D. maintaining manual pressure over the injury.

A. clamping a bleeding artery with hemostats

The LEAST desirable method of bleeding control in the prehospital setting is: Select one: A. clamping a bleeding artery with hemostats. B. applying a tourniquet proximal to the injury. C. maintaining manual pressure over the injury. D. applying a pressure dressing and bandage.

A. clamping a bleeding artery with hemostats.

You are caring for a 59-year-old male involved in a motor-vehicle crash. During your assessment, you note that his pelvis is unstable, he is pale and diaphoretic, and his blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg. Use of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) would be absolutely contraindicated if further assessment of this patient revealed: A. coarse crackles in the lungs B. collapsed jugular veins. C. bilateral femur fractures D. a rigid, distended abdomen.

A. coarse crackles in the lungs

A 59-year-old male has a partial amputation of his left arm, just proximal to the elbow. Bleeding has been controlled and you note that the arm is attached by only a few strands of tissue. You should: A. cover the arm with a bulky dressing and carefully splint it. B. splint the arm but do not cover it so you can assess for bleeding. C. carefully detach the arm and wrap it in a moist sterile dressing. D. immerse the arm, still attached, in a container of cool water.

A. cover the arm with a bulky dressing and carefully splint it

Appropriate management of a patient with an abdominal evisceration includes: A. covering the exposed organs with a moist, sterile dressing and securing the dressing in place with a dry, sterile dressing. B. applying and inflating all compartments of the PASG to protect the exposed organs and treat for shock. C. carefully irrigating the exposed organs with sterile saline and replacing them back into the abdomen. D. avoiding flexion of the patient's knees as this may exacerbate bleeding and enlarge the evisceration.

A. covering the exposed organs with a moist, sterile dressing and securing the dressing in place with a dry, sterile dressing

The layer of skin that lies below the germinal layer and contains nerves, sebaceous glands, and blood vessels is called the: A. dermis. B. melanin layer. C. subcutaneous layer. D. epidermis.

A. dermis

The layer of the skin that plays a key role in the cooling of the body is the: A. dermis. B. epidermis. C. sebaceous layer. D. germinal layer.

A. dermis

A 20-year-old male was shot multiple times during a drive-by shooting. You arrive at the scene, which has been secured by law enforcement, and approach the patient. He is semiconscious and is bleeding heavily from the chest. You should: A. follow proper standard precautions. B. ensure the patient's airway is patent. C. perform a primary assessment. D. immediately control all bleeding.

A. follow proper standard precautions

The eyeball itself is called the: A. globe. B. sclera. C. orbit. D. cornea.

A. globe

Common signs and symptoms of radiation sickness include: A. hair loss and skin burns. B. hyperactive organ function. C. thickening of the skin. D. increased visual acuity.

A. hair loss and skin burns

The skin and underlying tissues of the face: A. have a rich blood supply and bleed heavily. B. swell minimally when exposed to blunt trauma. C. contain a relatively small number of nerve fibers. D. are well protected by the maxillae and mandible.

A. have a rich blood supply and bleed heavily

A 40-year-old unrestrained female impacted the steering wheel of her vehicle with her chest when she hit a tree while traveling at 45 mph. She is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant chest pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following injuries did this patient likely NOT experience?

A. head injury.

When assessing a patient with multiple gunshot wounds, you should: A. identify the number and location of all wounds. B. carefully assess the patient to predict the bullet's path. C. control the bleeding that you see and then transport. D. distinguish between entrance and exit wounds.

A. identify the number and location of all wounds

Compartment syndrome is caused by:

A. increased pressure in the fascial compartment

A full-thickness burn is typically characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. intense pain. B. muscle involvement. C. eschar. D. leathery skin.

A. intense pain

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. If you do not have sterile saline or water, you should: A. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. B. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical. C. mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution. D. flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport.

A. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that:

A. osteoporosis can cause a fracture that may have resulted in the fall.

A 44-year-old male sustained a laceration to his left ear during a minor car accident. Your assessment reveals minimal bleeding. Appropriate care for this injury includes: A. padding between the ear and the scalp. B. covering the wound with a moist dressing. C. applying a tight pressure dressing. D. packing the ear with sterile gauze pads.

A. padding between the ear and the scalp

Frequent reassessments of the patient with face or neck injuries are MOST important because: A. such injuries can affect the respiratory system. B. hospital staff require frequent patient updates. C. rapid facial swelling may mask hidden injuries. D. they lend credibility to your documentation.

A. such injuries can affect the respiratory system

Following severe maxillofacial trauma, a 16-year-old male presents with oropharyngeal bleeding and poor respiratory effort. You should: A. suction the oropharynx. B. pack the mouth with sterile gauze. C. assist his ventilations at once. D. insert a nasopharyngeal airway.

A. suction the oropharynx

High-voltage burn injuries occur MOST frequently in: A. utility workers. B. adults in the workplace. C. industrial plant workers. D. children in the home.

A. utility workers

You are dispatched to the scene of a shooting. Upon arrival, you are directed by law enforcement to the patient, a 44-year-old male, who is unconscious. He is lying in an impressive pool of blood and you can hear gurgling from his mouth when he breathes. After your partner assumes C-spine control and opens the patient's airway, you should: A. suction the patient's oropharynx. B. perform a secondary assessment. C. assess respiratory rate and quality. D. locate the source of the bleeding.

A. suction the patient's oropharynx

If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should:

A. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.

The Adam's apple is: A. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. B. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. C. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. D. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea.

A. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage

Passengers who are seated in the rear of a vehicle and are wearing only lap belts have a higher incidence of injuries to the:

A. thoracic and lumbar spine.

The small, rounded, fleshy bulge immediately anterior to the ear canal is called the: A. tragus. B. stapes. C. pinna. D. incus.

A. tragus

The driver of a sport utility vehicle lost control and struck a utility pole head-on. The driver was killed instantly. The passenger, a young female, is conscious and alert and has several small abrasions and lacerations to her left forearm. Treatment for the passenger should include:

A. transport to a trauma center.

A lethargic​ 8-year-old boy is in respiratory distress. His airway is patient and his respiratory rate is 12 breaths per minute. His breath sounds are diminished bilaterally and you note accessory muscle use with inspiration and expiration. His pulse is 84 beats per minute and his SpO2 is 88 percent. Which of the following should you do​ next?

Administer supplemental oxygen to an SpO2 of​ 95%.

The term "bolus" is defined as:

Administering a drug in one mass of volume.

Which of the following scenarios involves an ALS skill?

Administering oxygen and infusing IV fluids.

Appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes:

Administering oxygen and transporting immediately.

The sympathetic nervous system is also know as the:

Adrenergic nervous system.

Which of the following EMS providers can provide both basic and limited advanced skills that focus on the acute management and transportation of critical and emergent patients? A) Emergency Medical Responder B) Emergency Medical Technician C) Advanced Emergency Medical Technician D) Paramedic

Advanced Emergency Medical Technician

In which of the following situations can aortocaval compression reduce the change of successful resuscitation from cardiac arrest?

Advanced pregnancy.

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding​ asthma?

After initial treatment for an attack, a secondary reaction may occur hours later.

Which of the following represents the most appropriate order in which to present patient information over the radio when communicating with the hospital?

Age and sex, chief complaint, history of present illness, exam findings, care provided, estimated time of arrival.

Which of the following is the MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries?

Airway compromise

Which of the following is the most significant complication associated with facial injuries?

Airway compromise

Which of the following medications would the AEMT help a patient self-administer?

Albuterol.

Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers?

All crew members

According to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA):

All health care facilities must provide a medical assement and required treatment, regardles of the patient's ability to pay.

What occurs when the​ body's need for oxygen exceeds the available oxygen​ supply?

All of the above

Which of the following is important information to gather from a patient suspected of​ pneumonia?

All of the above

What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?

Allows movement of the head

A concise and well-organized radio report to the hospital is most beneficial because it:

Allows the hospital to allocate the appropriate resources.

When assessing an adult patient with respiratory​ distress, which of the following signs and symptoms would be MOST​ alarming?

Altered mental status

Which of the following is TRUE regarding a patient with severe respiratory distress?

Altered mental status may be a sign of exhaustion and impending failure.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding a patient with severe respiratory​ distress?

Altered mental status may be a sign of exhaustion and impending respiratory failure

Of the following clinical findings, which one would you most likely encounter during the early phase following a fracture of the basilar skull?

Altered mental status.

If the amount of pulmonary surfactant is decreased:

Alveolar surface tension will increase.

Which of the following actions is appropriate when using a helicopter on the scene of an​ emergency?

Always approach a helicopter from the front

Factors that can cause an insufficient or absent flow of fluid through an IV line include:

An IV bag that is placed too low.

The detection of a pulsating mass upon palpation of a patient's abdomen should make the EMT suspicious that the patient may be suffering from which of the following?

An abdominal aortic aneurysm

A 20-year-old female presents with acute respiratory distress. Auscultation of her lungs reveals diffuse expiratory wheezing. She is in moderate distress and tells you that she has a prescribed inhaler that she uses when this happens. You should suspect:

An acute asthma attack.

You should be most suspicious that a patient is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction if he or she presents with:

An acute onset of weakness, nausea, and sweating without an obvious cause.

A biphasic response to an antigen occurs when:

An acute response is followed later by a delayed response.

Which of the following situations requires reporting to the authorities?

An adult who was bitten by a stray dog.

You were summoned by a family member for a​ 64-year-old woman who is having an acute respiratory emergency. She complains that her chest feels tight and she wheezes on expiration. Her vital signs show she is tachycardic. You should​ suspect:

An asthma attack

Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct?

An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.

A 19-year-old male sustained major head trauma following a motorcycle crash. During your assessment, you note the presence of blood draining from his left ear. What is the most important reason for not attempting to control the flow of this bleeding?

An increase in intracranial pressure may occur.

Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults?

An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's.

If ventilation becomes difficult due to gastric distention, the patient will require:

An orogastric or nasogastric tube.

When oxygen levels are low or absent, the cells revert to a process of:

Anaerobc metabolism.

Which of the following types of shock are caused by "relative hypovolemia"?

Anaphylactic and neurogenic.

Which of the following will impair cardiac output? A) Improperly functioning valves B) Increased perfusion to the heart C) Elevated blood pressure D) Increase in mean arterial pressure

Answer: A - Improperly functioning valves

The AEMT should recognize the cause of heart failure is: A) Inadequate ejection of blood. B) Poor gas exchange in the lungs. C) Fluid accumulation in the lung tissue. D) Backup of fluid in the lower extremities.

Answer: A - Inadequate ejection of blood.

Assessment of a72-year-old man reveals absent lung sounds to the left lung accompanied by sharp chest pain on the same side. When obtaining the history, which of the following statements made by his wife is MOST important? A) "He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease." B) "He has had a fever since last night." C) "He did not take his medications today." D) "He just saw his doctor yesterday."

Answer: A - "He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease."

Which of the following fits the definition for atelectasis? A) A state in which the alveoli are collapsed B) An involuntary contraction of the muscles of the chest C) A condition in which ventilation exceeds metabolic needs D) Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema

Answer: A - A state in which the alveoli are collapsed

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom of stroke? A) Acute chest pain B) Facial numbness C) Visual disturbances. D) Loss of coordination.

Answer: A - Acute chest pain

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding asthma? A) After initial treatment for an attack, a secondary reaction may occur hours later. B) If treated by beta2-agonists, the underlying inflammation is eliminated. C) Beta2-agonists act to reduce mucus production in the lungs. D) When an asthmatic stops wheezing, the medication if working well.

Answer: A - After initial treatment for an attack, a secondary reaction may occur hours later.

What sign or symptom of a stroke is defined as the inability of a patient to speak? A) Aphasia B) Dysarthria C) Hemiparesis D) Ataxia

Answer: A - Aphasia

You are caring for a patient whom you suspect has had a stroke. She is unable to form her words properly making it difficult for you to understand her. Which of the following would describe the condition of her speech? A) Aphasia B) Ataxia C) Dysphagia D) Hypophasia

Answer: A - Aphasia

In the mnemonic DCAP-BTLS, "C" stands for: A) Contusions B) Cuts C) Concussions D) Crepitus

Answer: A - Contusions

Asking a patient, "What brought this on?" represents what part of the SAMPLE question format? A) E B) L C) M D) P

Answer: A - E

Which of the following is the BEST way to differentiate between non-life-threatening and life-threatening causes of headache? A) Gather a good history using OPQRST. B) Find out if trauma was involved. C) Ask if the patient has allergies. D) Evaluate the blood glucose level.

Answer: A - Gather a good history using OPQRST.

Your patient is complaining of chest pain and is cool, pale, and diaphoretic with a bluish tinge on his nail beds. You place a pulse oximeter probe on his index finger and it shows a reading of 88percent. Based on this information, what will you document in your patient care report when describing his condition? A) He is hypoxic with signs of shock. B) He has chest pain with dyspnea. C) He is sweaty with signs of pneumonia. D) He needs to take his nitroglycerin.

Answer: A - He is hypoxic with signs of shock.

The clinical syndrome in which the heart's mechanical performance is compromised so that cardiac output cannot meet the body's needs is called: A) Heart failure. B) Angina pectoris. C) Cardiac tamponade. D) Pneumothorax.

Answer: A - Heart failure.

A family has called you for a 41-year-old man they cannot wake up. They state he has been threatening to kill himself and believe that he may have intentionally overdosed on several medications. As you enter the patient's bedroom, you observe him supine on the floor with his eyes closed. As he breathes, you hear snoring respirations. As a knowledgeable AEMT, you recognize which one of the following? A) His tongue is partially blocking the airway B) His respiratory rate must be less than 10 per minute C) He is sleeping and has not overdosed D) He will require immediate suctioning

Answer: A - His tongue is partially blocking the airway

A 34-year-old man has overdosed on an unknown drug and is unresponsive. His is breathing shallowly at six times per minute. He has cyanosis around his lips and nail beds and he is cool to the touch. His breath sounds are diminished but clear. You should recognize which of the following conditions? A) Hypoxia B) Tachypnea C) Apnea D) Dyspnea

Answer: A - Hypoxia

A 48-year-old man is short of breath and confused. His airway is open and clear with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute. His skin is cool and dry. His pulse is 124 beats per minute with a blood pressure of 152/88 mmHg. His Sp02 is 89percent on room air and he has slight wheezing on inspiration. Based on his signs and symptoms is the greatest threat to this patient? A) Hypoxia B) Tachycardia C) Infection D) Elevated blood pressure

Answer: A - Hypoxia

The connection points between the arterial and venous systems are called: A) Lumens. B) Venules. C) Tunica. D) Capillaries.

Answer: D - Capillaries.

A young female patient has been stung by a bee and states that her throat is "closing up." She states that she is allergic to bee stings and the last time this happened, she had to have a "tube put into my windpipe." She is struggling to breathe and can only speak a few words at a time. Knowing that allergic reactions can cause swelling in the pharynx and at the level of the larynx, which one of the following respiratory sounds would indicate that the patient indeed has swelling in this area? A) Stridor B) Snoring C) Wheezing D) Gurgling

Answer: A - Stridor

Assessment reveals a drooling 57-year-old man with slurred speech and right arm paralysis. Which of the following should be your FIRST priority? A) Suction the airway. B) Protect the right arm. C) Determine his risk factors for stroke. D) Closely monitor his blood pressure.

Answer: A - Suction the airway.

You are told after delivering your chest pain patient to the emergency department that he is on his way to the cardiac catheterization lab. How does this help the patient? A) The surgeon can place a stent to open an occluded artery. B) The patient has some blood drawn to check for cardiac enzyme levels. C) The patient can have some aberrant conduction pathways cauterized. D) An X-ray is taken to determine if the left ventricle is enlarged.

Answer: A - The surgeon can place a stent to open an occluded artery.

Which of the following would explain why a person might need an implanted pacemaker device? A) There is a problem with the electrical system in the heart. B) The heart muscle is damaged and is unable to contract. C) Their potassium levels are too low which prevents depolarization. D) They have malfunctioning valves between the cardiac chambers.

Answer: A - There is a problem with the electrical system in the heart.

Seizures characterized by rapid, rhythmic contractions of the muscles that may last for several minutes are called: A) Tonic-clonic. B) Febrile. C) Focal motor. D) Complex partial.

Answer: A - Tonic-clonic.

You are called for a patient who passed out with no apparent cause. Bystanders report that she was only out for a few seconds. The patient has a cardiac history and diabetes. The patient reports she was reading at the library and simply fell forward. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause of her syncope? A) Transient cardiac dysrhythmia B) Fright from something she read C) A focal motor seizure of short duration D) An acute neurological disorder

Answer: A - Transient cardiac dysrhythmia

Which one of the following statements about the four chambers of the heart is correct? A) Ventricles are more muscular than the atria. B) Atria are the inferior chambers of the heart. C) Ventricles receive incoming blood from the body. D) Atria are the two largest chambers of the heart.

Answer: A - Ventricles are more muscular than the atria.

While reading a patient's history, you discover the he has had pertussis. Which of the following BEST defines pertussis? A) Whooping cough B) Croup C) Sore throat D) Common cold

Answer: A - Whooping cough

Increased resistance to blood flow through the pulmonary vasculature often leads to which of the following? A) Right-sided heart failure B) Pulmonary embolism C) Spontaneous pneumothorax D) Atelectasis

Answer: A -Right-sided heart failure

A patient who appears to be intoxicated has fallen and is complaining of pain to his right arm. He is loud and using profane language. Which one of the following should be your initial approach to the patient? A) "If you do not quiet down, I will call the police and they will arrest you." B) "Let me put an ice pack on your wrist. It will help it feel better." C) "I cannot help you if you keep yelling like that!" D) "Stop yelling or I will have to strap you to the stretcher."

Answer: B - "Let me put an ice pack on your wrist. It will help it feel better."

When using the SAMPLE mnemonic, which of the following statements made by the patient would be categorized under the letter "M"? A) "I have never had a surgical procedure." B) "I take Zocor, but I am not sure why." C) "My doctor's name is Dr. Hansen." D) "I was diagnosed and treated for breast cancer."

Answer: B - "My doctor's name is Dr. Hansen."

Stroke patients who may be candidates for fibrinolytic therapy MUST receive definitive treatment within __________ hours of onset of symptoms. A) 1-2 B) 3-4 ½ C) 5-6 ½ D) 6-8

Answer: B - 3-4 ½

Which of the following patients would be the BEST candidate for fibrinolytic treatment? A) A 37-year-old woman diagnosed in the ED with a hemorrhagic stroke two hours after onset of symptoms. B) A 48-year-old man whose symptoms started while watching the 6 P.M. news and 911 was called at 6:10 P.M. C) An 84-year-old man who awoke in the morning with symptoms after sleeping eight hours. D) A 64-year-old woman whose symptoms began at 8 A.M. and resolved 20 minutes later.

Answer: B - A 48-year-old man whose symptoms started while watching the 6 P.M. news and 911 was called at 6:10 P.M.

For which of the following patients should you call for ALS assistance? A) A patient with chest pain that is relieved with nitroglycerin. B) A bradycardic patient with chest pain and a blood pressure of 88/62. C) A teenager with shortness of breath and tingling of the lips and fingers. D) A 72-year-old woman with chest pain that subsides when she rests.

Answer: B - A bradycardic patient with chest pain and a blood pressure of 88/62.

You have been dispatched to a home for a 16-year-old woman with shortness of breath. On scene, you find the patient in bed with her mother at her side. Her mother states that her daughter has a fever with a past medical history of cystic fibrosis and wants her transported to the hospital. Which of the following is the underlying pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis? A) A contagious disease in which the lungs are damaged by bacteria and excessive coughing. B) A condition in which excessive and thick mucus often clogs the airways. C) A disease in which a lifelong antibiotic medications are needed for survival. D) A hereditary disease in which the lungs are malformed and smaller than normal.

Answer: B - A condition in which excessive and thick mucus often clogs the airways.

Which of the following fits the definition for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)? A) A chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B) A form of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema C) A viral respiratory disease D) An infection resulting in inflammation of the larynx

Answer: B - A form of non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema

Your protocol allows the administration of nitroglycerin to patients with chest pain under certain circumstances. To which of the following patients should you administer nitroglycerin? A) A man who has chest pain from a fall from a ladder. B) A patient with chest pain and a blood pressure of 124/86 C) A patient who has taken three of his own nitroglycerin tablets. D) A patient who has chest pain after taking Cialis.

Answer: B - A patient with chest pain and a blood pressure of 124/86

The condition in which the heart's reduced stroke volume causes an overload of fluid in the lungs is called: A) Prinzmetal's angina. B) Acute heart failure. C) Angina pectoris. D) Myocardial infarction.

Answer: B - Acute heart failure.

Which one of the following descriptions would be obtained when asking about the "A" component of the SAMPLE history? A) Airway open B) Allergy to penicillin C) Abdomen soft D) History of asthma

Answer: B - Allergy to penicillin

You were summoned by a family member for a 64-year-old woman who is having an acute respiratory emergency. You note that her chest looks full and she wheezes on expiration. Her vital signs show she is tachycardic and you are unable to hear air movement upon auscultation. You should suspect: A) A pulmonary embolism. B) An asthma attack. C) Emphysema. D) Pulmonary edema.

Answer: B - An asthma attack.

You are assessing a 68-year-old woman with shortness of breath. Your assessment reveals crackles in all quadrants of the lungs as well as some swelling of the ankles. As you take her vital signs you see that she is becoming anxious and her breathing is becoming more shallow. Which of the following should you do? A) Increase her oxygen flow to 15 lpm via nonrebreather. B) Apply continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). C) Give her another albuterol treatment. D) Start an IV and consider giving her a fluid bolus of 250 cc.

Answer: B - Apply continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP).

Of the following, which is the MOST common cause of a transient ischemic attack? A) Illegal drug use B) Atherosclerosis C) Prinzmetal's angina D) Aneurism

Answer: B - Atherosclerosis

A lethargic 8-year-old boy is in respiratory distress. His airway is patient and respiratory rate is 12 breaths per minute. His breath sounds are diminished bilaterally and you note accessory muscle use with inspiration and expiration. His pulse is 84 beats per minute and his SpO2 is 88percent. Which of the following should you do next? A) Recheck the SpO2 on another finger. B) Begin positive pressure ventilation. C) Get a history and begin a secondary exam. D) Initiate immediate transport to the hospital.

Answer: B - Begin positive pressure ventilation.

Ventricular fibrillation should be treated with immediate: A) Synchronized cardioversion. B) Defibrillation. C) Intubation. D) Antidysrhythmics.

Answer: B - Defibrillation.

Which of the following would be the treatment of choice for a patient with severe anaphylaxis? A) Oxygen via nonrebreather B) Epinephrine C) Albuterol D) Nitroglycerin

Answer: B - Epinephrine

The tricuspid valve prevents blood from: A) Moving between the right and left ventricles. B) Flowing from the right ventricle into the right atrium. C) Bypassing the pulmonary vessels and entering the right heart. D) Flowing backward through the left atrium.

Answer: B - Flowing from the right ventricle into the right atrium.

You are treating a 48-year-old man who has fallen off a ladder. He is complaining of pain to his right elbow and right ankle. His vital signs are: blood pressure 110/74, pulse 48, respirations 18 bpm, blood sugar 88 mg/dL. How should you manage his bradycardia? A) Provide aspirin and IV fluid bolus for cardiac compromise. B) He is asymptomatic therefore supportive treatment is indicated. C) Request ALS intercept to administer cardiac medications. D) Apply transcutaneous pacing pads and begin pacing the patient.

Answer: B - He is asymptomatic therefore supportive treatment is indicated.

Which of the following information obtained during the history taking would lead you to suspect that emphysema is the cause of the patient's respiratory distress? A) The patient has a history of Marfan's disease. B) History of smoking a pack of cigarettes a day. C) The patient has had a cough and fever for three days. D) You can hear audible stridor upon inhalation.

Answer: B - History of smoking a pack of cigarettes a day.

Which of the following is a cause of Secondary headache syndrome? A) Migraines B) Hypertension C) Cluster headaches D) Photosensitivity

Answer: B - Hypertension

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the pathophysiology of stroke? A) Ischemic stroke is often a result of an aneurysm. B) Neurological damage and death can begin within four minutes. C) Ventricular fibrillation leads to the formation of blood clots in the atria. D) Ischemic stroke usually presents with a severe headache.

Answer: B - Neurological damage and death can begin within four minutes.

The division of the autonomic nervous system that is responsible for controlling vegetative functions is the ______ nervous system. A) Somatic B) Parasympathetic C) Sympathetic D) Afferent

Answer: B - Parasympathetic

The appearance of pale or ashen skin on the patient suffering from hypoperfusion (shock) is caused by: A) Reduced cardiac output B) Peripheral vasoconstriction C) Peripheral vasodilation D) External or internal blood loss

Answer: B - Peripheral vasoconstriction

You want to accurately document that your patient has a sore throat. Which of the following term would correctly identify a sore throat? A) Laryngitis B) Pharyngitis C) Sinusitis D) Rhinovirus

Answer: B - Pharyngitis

Your patient tells you that he is suffering with a bad migraine. Which of the following would provide the patient with the MOST comfort? A) Provide three adult aspirins per protocol. B) Place a cool compress on his forehead. C) Transport in left lateral recumbent position. D) Apply gentle pressure to the temples.

Answer: B - Place a cool compress on his forehead.

You are called for a person having a seizure. When you arrive, you note that the patient is postictal and a bystander is providing care for the patient. Which of the following would be considered appropriate care by the bystander? A) Placing a bite block between the patient's teeth. B) Placing the patient in the recovery position. C) Giving the patient small sips of water. D) Sweeping the patient's mouth to remove vomit.

Answer: B - Placing the patient in the recovery position.

Pressure in the filled ventricle at the end of diastole is called: A) Afterload. B) Preload. C) Cardiac output. D) Stroke volume.

Answer: B - Preload.

What is the purpose of valves in the circulatory system? A) Control the volume of blood moved in each pulse B) Prevent the backflow of blood in the vessels C) Support the bifurcation of the veins D) Allows for expansion and contraction of the veins

Answer: B - Prevent the backflow of blood in the vessels

Which of the following is the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart? A) Aorta B) Pulmonary C) Semilunar D) Coronary

Answer: B - Pulmonary

Which of the following is CPAP MOST likely indicated? A) Pneumonia B) Pulmonary edema C) Asthma D) Pneumothorax

Answer: B - Pulmonary edema

Your patient has suffered a stroke and is having difficulty speaking. Which of the following is the BEST way to communicate with her? A) Try to use sign language. B) See if she can write. C) Speak more loudly to her. D) Have her nod her head.

Answer: B - See if she can write.

You have provided an albuterol treatment for your asthma patient and after a few minutes you reassess her. Which of the following would indicate that she is worsening rather than improving? A) She has become tachycardic. B) She is becoming lethargic. C) Her blood pressure is unchanged. D) She reports increased palpitations.

Answer: B - She is becoming lethargic.

Consider a hemorrhagic stroke if the patient describes it as: A) Lasting for more than 18-24 hours. B) Sudden in onset and "the worst headache of my life" C) Being accompanied by nausea and photosensitivity. D) Dull or achy pain with a feeling of forceful pressure.

Answer: B - Sudden in onset and "the worst headache of my life"

You are called for a patient with respiratory distress. She is only able to speak in one or two word phrases so you check her medication list to give you some history. Which of the following medications would be along acting beta2-agonist? A) Albuterol B) Terbutaline C) Proventil D) Atrovent

Answer: B - Terbutaline

A 69-year-old man is complaining of weakness to the left arm and leg. He also states that he is nauseated and has a headache. The patient's past medical history includes stroke and diabetes. In relation to this information, which one of the following is TRUE? A) The dizziness is a sign indicating the severity of the chief complaint B) The headache is a symptom related to the chief complaint C) The history of diabetes is a contributing symptom of the chief complaint D) The history of diabetes is a sign related to the chief complaint

Answer: B - The headache is a symptom related to the chief complaint

In which of the following situations would the administration of aspirin to a cardiac patient be prohibited? A) The patient does not currently take aspirin. B) The patient has a history of asthma. C) The patient has a diastolic blood pressure greater than 100 mmHg. D) None of the above

Answer: B - The patient has a history of asthma.

Which of the following statements regarding the administration of nitroglycerin tablets is TRUE? A) An increase in blood pressure should be expected. B) The patient may complain of a headache after administration. C) If it is fresh it will have no noticeable taste. D) It takes 10 to 15 minutes for nitroglycerin to take effect.

Answer: B - The patient may complain of a headache after administration.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the peripheral circulation? A) Provide blood flow to the internal organs. B) The vessels lay closer to the surface of the body. C) Contains the large vessels of the body. D) Vessels vasodilate during hypovolemic shock.

Answer: B - The vessels lay closer to the surface of the body.

Your 59-year-old patient is suffering an acute myocardial infarction and is a candidate for fibrinolytic therapy. How do fibrinolytics work? A) They cause platelets to become sticky. B) They break down blood clots. C) They reduce cardiac dysrhythmias. D) They increase the blood pressure.

Answer: B - They break down blood clots.

The QRS complex reflects: A) Atrial depolarization. B) Ventricular depolarization. C) Ventricular repolarization. D) Atrial repolarization.

Answer: B - Ventricular depolarization.

Which of the following sounds may be heard in lower respiratory obstruction? A) Crowing B) Wheezing C) Stridor D) Snoring

Answer: B - Wheezing

After completion of the initial assessment, you should consider top priority transport for the following patients EXCEPT an adult: A) With a respiratory rate greater than 10 breaths per minute B) With multiple lacerations and controlled bleeding C) With a pulse rate greater than 100 beats per minute D) That is alert but not oriented

Answer: B - With multiple lacerations and controlled bleeding

The AEMT understands the primary reason to obtain a medical history using the SAMPLE mnemonic when he states: A) "The SAMPLE mnemonic helps AEMTs to diagnose a patient's medical problem." B) "The SAMPLE mnemonic is important because it will give the AEMT the patient's exact chief complaint." C) "After performing the primary assessment, the SAMPLE mnemonic helps guide the AEMT in further assessment and care." D) "It is important to use the SAMPLE mnemonic because the emergency department will need the information."

Answer: C - "After performing the primary assessment, the SAMPLE mnemonic helps guide the AEMT in further assessment and care."

An AEMT has accurately checked the skin color of a patient. Which one of the following indicates correct documentation? A) "Warm skin noted on the upper arm." B) "Thoracic and abdominal skin normal in color." C) "Pale skin color noted to the conjunctiva." D) "Forehead and face show pink skin color."

Answer: C - "Pale skin color noted to the conjunctiva."

Symptoms from a transient ischemic attack (TIA) generally resolve within: A) 6 hours. B) 12 hours. C) 24 hours. D) 48 hours

Answer: C - 24 Hours

The AV node has an intrinsic rate of self excitation, which is ______ beats per minute. A) 20 to 40 B) 40 to 60 C) 60 to 100 D) 80 to 100

Answer: C - 60 to 100

Which of the following patients show signs of inadequate perfusion? A) A five-year-old child with a capillary refill of two seconds and a seal bark cough. B) A 65-year-old complaining of indigestion and is diaphoretic. C) A 52-year-old woman with congestive heart failure who is very lethargic. D) A teenager with shortness of breath and tingling of the lips and fingers.

Answer: C - A 52-year-old woman with congestive heart failure who is very lethargic.

Which of the following patients with respiratory distress is the MOST critically ill? A) A patient who speaks in five or six word sentences. B) A patient with wheezing in the lower lobes. C) A patient with no breath sounds on auscultation. D) A patient with a pulse oximetry reading of 93 percent.

Answer: C - A patient with no breath sounds on auscultation.

Which of the following mnemonics is used to help determine the cause of a patient's altered mental status? A) SAMPLE B) AEIOU-TIPS C) AVPU D) OPQRST

Answer: C - AVPU

You are caring for a 68-year-old woman displaying signs of stroke. She has right sided weakness and slurred speech. Her vitals are: pulse 118, respirations 22 with a SpO2 of 92percent, and blood pressure of 188/98. Which of the following would be the LEAST appropriate care? A) Apply high flow oxygen and titrate to effect. B) Place her in the position of comfort. C) Administer nitroglycerin for hypertension. D) Check her blood glucose level.

Answer: C - Administer nitroglycerin for hypertension.

In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, what does the letter 'A' stand for? A) Arm drift B) Anaphylaxis C) Alcohol D) Abnormal speech

Answer: C - Alcohol

Which of the following is TRUE regarding energy production in the body? A) Water and carbon monoxide are formed and are easily eliminated. B) Anaerobic metabolism decreases the accumulation of H+. C) An increase in H+ concentration decreases the body's pH. D) Cells require carbon dioxide in order to bind to oxygen.

Answer: C - An increase in H+ concentration decreases the body's pH.

Which of the following vessels has the least ability to constrict? A) Arterioles B) Venules C) Aorta D) Vena cava

Answer: C - Aorta

A 56-year-old man is complaining of chest pain without respiratory distress. His vital signs show a blood pressure of 146/88, pulse 88, and pulse oximetry reading of 97percent. How should you treat this patient? A) Administer oxygen via nonrebreather at 15 liters per minute. B) Provide oxygen via bag-valvemask at 15 liters per minute. C) Assure that his airway is secure and monitor his respiratory status. D) Assist the patient with his metered dose inhaler.

Answer: C - Assure that his airway is secure and monitor his respiratory status.

A condition in which fatty plaque builds up in arteries, eventually narrowing the lumen and restricting blood flow is called: A) Arteriosclerosis. B) Claudication. C) Atherosclerosis D) An aneurysm.

Answer: C - Atherosclerosis

When assessing an adult patient with respiratory distress, which of the following signs and symptoms would be MOST alarming? A) Delayed capillary refill B) An SpO2 saturation of 92% C) Blue coloration to the lips D) Temperature of 101.4°F

Answer: C - Blue coloration to the lips

When auscultating breath sounds in a patient complaining of shortness of breath reveals wheezing. Which of the following is responsible for this finding? A) Significant hypoxia B) Swelling in the throat C) Bronchiole constriction D) Mucus in the lungs

Answer: C - Bronchiole constriction

You are caring for a patient with significant stroke symptoms. You are completing your assessment when you notice that her Sp02 reading is dropping. Which of the following should you do next? A) Check the batteries in your pulse oximeter. B) Check her skin color and temperature. C) Check her airway and breathing. D) Check the oxygen cylinder pressure.

Answer: C - Check her airway and breathing.

Signs and symptoms of a life-threatening emergency due to asthma include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Cyanosis B) Altered mental status C) Chest pain D) Audible stridor

Answer: C - Chest pain

A sign or symptom that causes a patient or bystander to request medical help is known as the: A) Primary problem B) Present illness C) Chief complaint D) Associated symptom

Answer: C - Chief Complaint

You are called for an 18-year-old woman with dyspnea with sharp chest pain. Your assessment shows she has cramps in her hands and fingers. How should you treat this patient? A) Administer a dose of three baby aspirin. B) Have her breathe slowly into a paper bag. C) Coach her to use her diaphragm to breathe. D) Administer an albuterol treatment.

Answer: C - Coach her to use her diaphragm to breathe.

The heart receives its nutrients from the: A) Anterior great cardiac vein. B) Blood within its chambers. C) Coronary arteries. D) Aorta.

Answer: C - Coronary arteries.

Which of the following respiratory disorders presents with a seal bark cough and stridor? A) Epiglottitis B) Bronchiolitis C) Croup D) Pneumonia

Answer: C - Croup

In the mnemonic DCAP-BTLS, "D" stands for: A) Drainage B) Debilitation C) Deformities D) Dislocation

Answer: C - Deformities

Late one night, you are called for a patient with an acute onset of altered mental status. You find that the elderly patient is confused and combative. His medical history includes hypertension, diabetes and kidney failure. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of his altered mental status? A) Alzheimer's B) Dementia C) Delirium D) Neuropathy

Answer: C - Delirium

A non-pacemaker heart cell that automatically depolarizes is called a(n) ______ focus. A) Ischemic B) Irritable C) Ectopic D) Reentry

Answer: C - Ectopic

When caring for a patient suffering from a nervous system condition or disease, the FIRST priority in patient care is to: A) Administer thrombolytic therapy. B) Assess for any neurological deficits. C) Establish and maintain a patent airway. D) Apply high-concentration oxygen.

Answer: C - Establish and maintain a patent airway.

Which of the following is associated with cocaine and methamphetamine use, as well as the use of other drugs? A) Dementia B) Meningismus C) Excited delirium D) Photophobia

Answer: C - Excited delirium

Carbon dioxide exchanged for oxygen in the alveolus in the lungs is an example of: A) Internal respiration. B) Anatomic ventilation. C) External respiration. D) Oxyhemoglobin exchange.

Answer: C - External respiration.

Bystanders state that a woman complained of chest pain and dizziness just before she fell down a flight of stairs. She is alert but confused and she states that she is nauseated and may vomit. How should you position this patient for transport? A) Left lateral position on a long spine board. B) Supine with her head turned to one side. C) Fully immobilized to a long spine board. D) Semi-Fowler's with a cervical collar in place.

Answer: C - Fully immobilized to a long spine board.

The term automaticity refers to a cell's capability of: A) Responding promptly to electrical stimuli. B) Generating an electrical impulse from one cell to another. C) Generating an electrical impulse on their own. D) Contraction or shortening an impulse

Answer: C - Generating an electrical impulse on their own.

You are caring for a 64-year-old woman with chest pain and shortness of breath. She is alert and oriented with an open airway. Her breathing is adequate and you have provided her with oxygen via nonrebreather at 15 lpm. She has a normal pulse and her skin is warm and dry. Which of the following should you do next? A) Obtain her heart rate and blood pressure. B) Prepare for immediate transport. C) Inquire about history of heart problems. D) Hook up the automatic external defibrillator.

Answer: C - Inquire about history of heart problems.

The major difference between stable and unstable angina is that unstable angina: A) Indicates the patient's condition is improving. B) Responds more readily to treatment. C) Is generally not relieved by rest. D) Causes cardiac muscle cell death.

Answer: C - Is generally not relieved by rest.

You have responded for a 65-year-old man with chest pain. You note that his blood pressure is 88/62 and his heart rate is 136. Which of the following should you suspect? A) Angina pectoris B) Pain and anxiety C) Cardiac tamponade D) Cardiogenic shock

Answer: D - Cardiogenic shock

You are transporting a patient who had an episode of chest pain. You administered two doses of nitroglycerin which relieved the patient's pain. He asks you why the nitroglycerin alleviated the pain. Which of the following is the BEST answer to his question? A) It decreases the heart rate which allows the heart muscle to rest more. B) It has a sedative effect on the brain which makes you less aware of the pain. C) It dilates the blood vessels which decreases the workload on the heart. D) It causes the body to relax which decreases the need for oxygen.

Answer: C - It dilates the blood vessels which decreases the workload on the heart.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding hemoglobin? A) It contains proteins such as albumin and antibodies. B) It can carry two oxygen molecules at a time. C) It is a molecule that consists of protein and iron. D) It has a greater affinity for oxygen than carbon monoxide.

Answer: C - It is a molecule that consists of protein and iron.

The MOST common cause of status epilepticus is: A) A sudden drop in blood sugar levels. B) Brain swelling from traumatic head injury. C) Low levels of antiseizure medications. D) Overdose of a hypnotic medication.

Answer: C - Low levels of antiseizure medications.

Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of oxygen? A) Angina pectoris B) Cardiac arrest C) Myocardial infarction D) Heart failure

Answer: C - Myocardial infarction

An 86-year-old woman has called 911 for rectal bleeding. There is a large amount of dark red blood and clots in the toilet and on the patient's clothing. The EMR reports a blood pressure of 84/68 mmHg with a heart rate of 124 beats per minute. Given this information, the AEMT should recognize: A) Normal blood pressure since the patient is alert and oriented B) Normal heart rate given the patient's age C) Narrowed pulse pressure and possible shock D) Diastolic hypertension and risk for stroke

Answer: C - Narrowed pulse pressure and possible shock

Asking a patient, "What were you doing when this problem began?" represents what part of the OPQRST question format? A) P B) Q C) O D) R

Answer: C - O

The part of the nervous system that extends throughout the body is called the ______ nervous system. A) Afferent B) Somatic C) Peripheral D) Ventral

Answer: C - Peripheral

Your patient is a 68-year-old man who has apparently suffered a stroke. He is unable to hold himself in an upright position on the stretcher and has begun to vomit. Which of the following actions would be MOST appropriate? A) Tighten the chest straps and begin suctioning. B) Insert an oral airway and lower the head of the stretcher. C) Place him in the left lateral recumbent position. D) Suction and begin ventilations with a bag-valvemask.

Answer: C - Place him in the left lateral recumbent position.

Which of the following medications is indicated in the treatment of a 52-year-old man with difficulty breathing and a history of emphysema? A) Activated charcoal B) Nitroglycerin C) Proventil D) Oral glucose

Answer: C - Proventil

Of the following, which is the MOST important in caring for a possible stroke patient? A) Establish the time of onset of signs and symptoms. B) Administer oxygen to patients with a SpO2 <94percent. C) Recognize signs and symptoms that may indicate stroke. D) Check the patient's blood glucose level.

Answer: C - Recognize signs and symptoms that may indicate stroke.

When assessing a patient with a possible stroke, what is the priority of care? A) Identifying the risk factors for stroke. B) Determining if there is a family history of stroke. C) Recognizing the signs and symptoms of stroke. D) Determining what type of stroke has occurred.

Answer: C - Recognizing the signs and symptoms of stroke.

Bell's palsy is a temporary weakness or paralysis of which cranial nerve? A) Third B) Fifth C) Seventh D) Ninth

Answer: C - Seventh

In addition to pneumonia, which of the following is a complication of COPD? A) Allergic reaction from beta2 medications B) Difficulty controlling blood sugar C) Spontaneous pneumothorax D) Deep vein thrombosis

Answer: C - Spontaneous pneumothorax

In the mnemonic DCAP-BTLS, "S" stands for: A) Sensation B) Shock C) Swelling D) Symmetry

Answer: C - Swelling

The pulse pressure is the: A) Stroke volume times the heart rate. B) End-systolic volume minus the end-diastolic volume. C) Systolic blood pressure minus the diastolic blood pressure. D) Cardiac output times the systemic vascular resistance.

Answer: C - Systolic blood pressure minus the diastolic blood pressure.

You are assessing a patient complaining of shortness of breath. Which of the following medications would indicate the patient has a history of respiratory disease? A) Phenobarbital B) Tregretol C) Theophylline D) Lithium

Answer: C - Theophylline

The term "status epilepticus" refers to a: A) Chronic seizure patient taking anticonvulsant medication regularly. B) Generalized seizure lasting more than one minute. C) Two or more seizures with no intervening periods of consciousness. D) Patient experiencing a seizure for the first time.

Answer: C - Two or more seizures with no intervening periods of consciousness

Management of the responsive adult patient with a history acute heart failure who presents with respiratory distress with pulmonary edema, respiratory rate of 32, and SpO2 of 88 percent includes: A) Placing the patient supine position with legs slightly raised. B) Administration of aspirin and epinephrine. C) Use of continuous positive airway pressure. D) Establishing an IV and administering a fluid bolus.

Answer: C - Use of continuous positive airway pressure.

A problem with the eighth cranial nerve can lead to which of the following disorders? A) Photophobia B) Meningismus C) Vertigo D) Macrotia

Answer: C -Vertigo

When obtaining a medical history using the SAMPLE mnemonic, which one of the following statements would be obtained when asking about the "P" component? A) "The pain is rated at 8/10." B) "The pulse is 116 beats per minute." C) "The physician is Dr. Coleman." D) "There is a history of pancreatitis."

Answer: D - "There is a history of pancreatitis."

Which one of the following illustrates a question that would be asked when obtaining a medical history, using the SAMPLE mnemonic, for a female patient who is crying and complaining of dizziness? A) "You seem upset. Do you want to talk about it?" B) "Who is your doctor and when was your last office visit?" C) "Why exactly did you call the ambulance today?" D) "What were you doing when the dizziness started?"

Answer: D - "What were you doing when the dizziness started?"

The AEMT is appropriately using the SAMPLE mnemonic when he asks which one of the following questions? A) "Why did you call for the ambulance?" B) "Who is your doctor?" C) "Have you thought about stopping smoking?" D) "When did you eat last?"

Answer: D - "When did you eat last?"

Which of the following patients demonstrates clearly that they can maintain their own airway and breathing? A) An 18-year-old man vomiting in his sleep after drinking too much at a party. B) A 62-year-old woman with shortness of breath from an acute onset of pulmonary edema. C) A 28-year-old man who is hypotensive and is complaining of palpitations. D) A 42-year-old man who appropriately answers all of your questions with full sentences.

Answer: D - A 42-year-old man who appropriately answers all of your questions with full sentences.

Which of the following would be MOST likely to present with atypical symptoms of acute coronary syndrome? A) A 56-year-old with asthma B) A 72-year-old man C) A 32-year-old woman D) A 68-year-old diabetic

Answer: D - A 68-year-old diabetic

You respond to a patient with shortness of breath, confusion, and a SpO2 88percent. Which of the following would support your suspicion of asthma? A) Stridor on inspiration and expiration B) Subcutaneous emphysema C) Rhonchi in all lung fields D) A non-productive nocturnal cough

Answer: D - A non-productive nocturnal cough

Which of the following is TRUE regarding a transient ischemic attack? A) Signs and symptoms are a little different from a stroke. B) If it doesn't resolve within two hours, it is a full blown stroke. C) If not promptly treated, a TIA will progress to a stroke. . D) A patient who has had a TIA is at high risk for subsequent stroke.

Answer: D - A patient who has had a TIA is at high risk for subsequent stroke.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding a patient with severe respiratory distress? A) Cellular metabolism without adequate oxygen creates an alkalotic state. B) Supporting an open airway is usually sufficient to reverse respiratory distress. C) A blocked airway is the most common cause of respiratory emergencies. D) Accessory muscle use increases oxygen demand during a respiratory emergency.

Answer: D - Accessory muscle use increases oxygen demand during a respiratory emergency.

What occurs when the body's need for oxygen exceeds the available oxygen supply? A) Anaerobic metabolism B) Hypoxia C) Cyanosis D) All of the above

Answer: D - All of the above

Which of the following is important information to gather from a patient suspected of pneumonia? A) Acute onset of chills and fever B) History of recent bout of bronchitis C) Dyspnea that is progressively worsening D) All of the above

Answer: D - All of the above

Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias can lead to the formation of blood clots which increases the risk for stroke? A) Asystole B) Sinus arrhythmia C) Ventricular tachycardia D) Atrial fibrillation

Answer: D - Atrial fibrillation

You have been called for a 25-year-old man who is experiencing difficulty breathing and sharp chest pain after moving some heavy furniture. The pain is located on the right side of the chest and seems to worsen on deep inspiration. With this information, you immediately suspect pneumothorax. Which of the following should you perform next to help confirm your suspicion? A) Inquire about past lung problems B) Obtain and SpO2 reading C) Palpate for subcutaneous emphysema D) Auscultate all lung fields

Answer: D - Auscultate all lung fields

A patient states that he is short of breath, lightheaded, and has chest pain that worsens when he takes a deep breath. Assessment reveals an open airway, adequate breathing, and a rapid pulse of 120 beats per minute. His skin is hot to the touch, and he has a blood pressure of 116/84 mmHg. The patient informs you that he was diagnosed with pneumonia three days ago and has not been taking the prescribed antibiotics. Which one of these assessment findings would the AEMT BEST recognize as a sign related to the patient's chief complaint? A) Recent diagnosis of pneumonia B) Complaint of lightheadedness C) Chest pain that worsens with inspiration D) Blood pressure of 116/84 mmHg

Answer: D - Blood pressure of 116.84 mmHg

In the mnemonic DCAP-BTLS, "B" stands for: A) Breaks B) Bleeding C) Bruises D) Burns

Answer: D - Burns

When assessing a patient, which of the following should you recognize as an indication for aspirin therapy? A) A complaint of a headache after taking nitroglycerin. B) The patient takes an aspirin a day to prevent heart attacks. C) A blood pressure above 100 mmHg systolically. D) Chest discomfort that is suggestive of a heart attack.

Answer: D - Chest discomfort that is suggestive of a heart attack.

A series of one-sided headaches that are sudden and intense and that may continue for 15 minutes to four hours is referred to as: A) Syncope headaches. B) Organic headaches. C) Migraine headaches. D) Cluster headaches.

Answer: D - Cluster headaches.

Which of the following would be MOST appropriate for an AEMT to provide for a patient with an acute onset of pulmonary edema with severe respiratory distress? A) Immediate tracheal intubation B) IV administration of nitroglycerin C) Administration of a beta2-agonist D) Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

Answer: D - Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

Your patient has a history of viscous mucus that blocks the ducts of the exocrine glands that secrete digestive enzymes into the digestive tract. These thick secretions also obstruct the airways. What is his diagnosis? A) COPD B) Pneumonia C) Emphysema D) Cystic fibrosis

Answer: D - Cystic fibrosis

Which of the following statements regarding eye contact with a patient is NOT true? A) It shows you are interested in the patient B) It shows you are confident C) It shows you are attentive D) Eye contact is always appropriate

Answer: D - Eye contact is always appropriate

The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale evaluates possible stroke patients on what three parameters? A) Age, duration of symptoms, abnormal speech B) Arm drift, blood glucose levels, history seizures C) Headache, arm drift, onset of symptoms D) Facial droop, arm drift, abnormal speech

Answer: D - Facial droop, arm drift, abnormal speech

You are called for a four-year-old girl who apparently has suffered a seizure. Her mother states that she has been sick for a day or two. Which kind of seizure has she MOST likely had? A) Focal motor seizure B) Petit mal seizure C) Epileptic seizure D) Febrile seizure

Answer: D - Febrile seizure

The sympathetic nervous system is also known as the ______ division. A) Feed or breed B) Slow or go C) Stand or draw D) Fight or flight

Answer: D - Fight Or Flight

A patient presents with extremely pale skin. His family states that this is NOT his normal skin color. Which one of the following medical conditions would make sense given this finding? A) Respiratory infection B) Body temperature of 102.5°F C) Chest pain accompanied by a bounding pulse D) Gastrointestinal hemorrhage

Answer: D - Gastrointestinal hemorrhage

Which of the following is a risk factor for hemorrhagic stroke? A) Atrial fibrillation B) Hypoglycemia C) Spinal injury D) Hypertension

Answer: D - Hypertension

The signs and symptoms of stroke may closely resemble those of what other condition? A) Narcotic overdose B) Syncope C) Stroke D) Hypoglycemia

Answer: D - Hypoglycemia

Which of the following is TRUE regarding blood glucose levels and stroke? A) Glucose requires insulin to enter brain cells. B) Excessive glucose in cells causes cellular dehydration. C) Hyperglycemia is protective of brain cells. D) Hypoglycemia worsens neurological outcome.

Answer: D - Hypoglycemia worsens neurological outcome.

Which one of the following statements about the P wave is TRUE? A) It represents ventricular depolarization. B) It is a rounded wave appearing after the QRS complex. C) It follows the R wave on normal ECGs. D) It corresponds to atrial depolarization.

Answer: D - It corresponds to atrial depolarization.

A mnemonic for remembering the steps for determining the present illness is: A) SAMPLE B) HEENT C) ABCDE D) OPQRST

Answer: D - OPQRST

To determine specifics about chest pain, use ______ to help you. A) SAMPLE B) DCAP-BTLS C) AEIOU-TIPS D) OPQRST

Answer: D - OPQRST

Asking a patient, "Are you being treated by a physician for anything?" represents what part of the SAMPLE question format? A) A B) M C) S D) P

Answer: D - P

Asking a patient, "Does it hurt more when you breathe deep?" represents what part of the OPQRST question format? A) Q B) O C) R D) P

Answer: D - P

A chest injury in which two or more ribs are fractured in two or more places causes the chest wall on the affected side to rise during expiration. This movement is known as: A) Flail segment B) Reduced intrathoracic pressure C) Diaphragm rupture D) Paradoxical movement

Answer: D - Paradoxical movement

You arrive on the scene of a seizure patient. In what state will you MOST often encounter the seizure patient? A) Aura phase B) Tonic phase C) Clonic phase D) Postictal phase

Answer: D - Postictal phase

You have arrived by the side of a cyanotic patient who is responsive only to painful stimuli and exhibiting stridorous respirations. Which one of the following would be MOST appropriate? A) Prepare and apply the pulse oximeter before administering oxygen B) Contact medical direction for instructions on how to manage the patient C) Obtain a full set of vital signs excluding the patient's temperature D) Provide positive pressure ventilation with supplemental oxygen

Answer: D - Provide positive pressure ventilation with supplemental oxygen

Signs of hypoperfusion in infants include all of the following EXCEPT: A) Pale, ashen, or cyanotic skin B) Altered mental status C) Capillary refill time greater than two seconds D) Pulse rate greater than 100 beats per minute `

Answer: D - Pulse rate greater than 100 beats per minute

Asking a patient, "Where does it hurt?" represents what part of the OPQRST question format? A) P B) Q C) O D) R

Answer: D - R

Which of the following is TRUE regarding capillaries? A) They consist of three layers or coats. B) The thinnest layer is the tunica adventitia. C) They contain valves to limit back flow of blood. D) Red blood cells move through in single file.

Answer: D - Red blood cells move through in single file.

While gathering a history from a 65-year-old man, you note that he takes a beta blocker. You know this is a cardiac medication which will: A) Cause smooth muscle in the heart to contract. B) Block the beta receptors of the parasympathetic nervous system C) Interrupt the signals to the vagus nerve. D) Reduce the rate and force of cardiac contractions.

Answer: D - Reduce the rate and force of cardiac contractions.

If the physician told you that the patient had a cold, you could document that in your patient care report as: A) Laryngitis. B) Pharyngitis. C) Sinusitis. D) Rhinovirus.

Answer: D - Rhinovirus.

Which one of the following pieces of information would be obtained when getting a history using the SAMPLE mnemonic? A) Reason for calling for an ambulance B) No life threats to the airway, breathing, or circulation C) Pulse 144, respiration 16, blood pressure 132/88 D) Sensation of dizziness prior to falling

Answer: D - Sensation of dizziness prior to falling

Your patient opens his eyes only when you pinch his shoulder. He has no verbal response and withdraws from pain. His Glasgow Coma score total is: A) Two. B) Four. C) Three. D) Seven.

Answer: D - Seven

On-scene, you suspect a young female patient is suffering from hyperventilation syndrome. Which one of the following signs would BEST assist you in confirming your suspicion? A) Heart rate of 62 beats per minute B) Urinary incontinence C) Breathing through the mouth D) Spasm of the hands

Answer: D - Spasm of the hands

Which one of the following statements about the circulation of blood is TRUE? A) Pulmonary arteries are the only arteries that carry oxygenated blood. B) The right myocardium is thicker than the left myocardium. C) The right atrium receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava. D) The left atrium sends oxygenated blood into the left ventricle.

Answer: D - The left atrium sends oxygenated blood into the left ventricle.

You have arrived on the scene of a call for a possible stroke. On your arrival, the patient denies signs and symptoms, is alert and oriented, and moves all extremities well. Her husband states that before you arrived the patient could not move her right arm and the left side of her face seemed to be "slack." Which of the following has MOST likely occurred? A) The patient suffered a cerebral vascular accident. B) The patient is suffering from aphasia. C) The patient has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage. D) The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack.

Answer: D - The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack.

A generalized motor seizure that begins with a hypertonic state of the muscles is known as a(n): A) Absence seizure. B) Hysterical seizure. C) Complex partial seizure. D) Tonic-clonic seizure.

Answer: D - Tonic-clonic seizure.

Which of the following may be used in the treatment of symptomatic paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)? A) Lidocaine B) Defibrillation C) Epinephrine D) Valsalva maneuvers

Answer: D - Valsalva maneuvers

You suspect your patient is suffering from a stroke. What information is crucial to obtain from family and bystanders that will aid in proper treatment? A) When was the last meal consumed? B) Is the patient oriented to the current time? C) Does the patient seem more agitated than usual? D) What was the time of onset of the symptoms?

Answer: D - What was the time of onset of the symptoms?

You are called for a 20-year-old college student respiratory distress. Of the following information, which would MOST likely indicate a possible pneumothorax? A) He has had a fever and coughing for two or three days. B) He has just returned from the Asia and is having night sweats. C) He has a rescue inhaler that he uses when he needs it. D) He began having shortness of breath after lifting a heavy object.

Answer: D -He began having shortness of breath after lifting a heavy object.

If you administered naloxone (Narcan) to a patient who overdose on morphine, what effect would occur?

Antagonism.

A 34-year-old male experienced an abduction injury to his right arm. He is found in extreme pain, holding his injured arm in a fixed position away from the chest wall. Your assessment reveals a bulge through the pectoralis major muscle and a squared off appearance of the shoulder. What has most likely occurred?

Anterior dislocation of the humeral head

You are assessing a 4-year-old male who was electrocuted when he stuck a pin into an electrical socket. He is conscious and alert and complains of pain to his left hand, where you find a small entrance wound. When treating this child, you should:

Anticipate extensive internal injuries.

A 60-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. As emergency medical responders are performing CPR, your partner is managing the patient's airway. After preparing your IV set, you should first attempt to cannulate the:

Anticubital vein.

A foreign substance that stimulates the body's immune response is called a(n):

Antigen.

Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct?

Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak during the eighth or ninth grade.

Which of the following techniques is appropriate when cannulating a vein?

Apply traction to the vein and insert the needle with the bevel side up at a 45 degree angle.

What is an enteral drug?

Any drug that is administered along any portion of the GI tract.

Which of the following vessels has the least ability to constrict?

Aorta

Which of the following injuries would most likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash?

Aortic rupture.

What sign or symptom of a stroke is defined as the difficulty with or loss of language skills?

Aphasia

Which of the following causes of an acute abdomen would be least likely to present with fever?

Appendicitis prior to rupture and abscess formation.

A 27-year-old male complains of an acute onset of abdominal pain. He if found curled in a fetal position with his right knee drawn up to his abdomen. This position is most commonly seen in patients with acute:

Appendicitis.

A 28-year-old female was the unrestrained driver of a car that struck the rear end of another car while traveling at 35 mph. She is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the anterior chest. During your assessment, you note a large ecchymotic area over the superior aspect of the anterior chest. As your partner assumes manual stabilization of her head, you should:

Apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A 37-year-old male was struck on the driver side of his vehicle by another car traveling at 45 mph. Your primary survey reveals that the patient is semiconscious and in respiratory distress. When extricating this patient from his car, you should:

Apply a C-Collar and rapidly remove him on a long backboard.

When performing the rapid extrication technique to remove a patient from his or her vehicle, you should:

Apply a cervical collar and remove the patient on a long backboard.

A patient has a severe injury to his upper thigh with massive external bleeding. The source of this bleeding is not immediately apparent. You should:

Apply a tourniquet as high on the thigh as you can.

You are dispatched to a local nightclub for a patient who has been stabbed. After arriving at the scene and ensuring you and your partner's safety, you find the patient sitting on the ground. He is conscious, screaming in pain, and attempting to control bright red blood that is spurting from his groin area. After taking standard precautions, you should:

Apply direct pressure to control the bleeding.

During your initial attempt to control severe external bleeding rom an extremity, you should:

Apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing.

A 55-year-old male with poorly controlled hypertension presents with respiratory distress and difficulty speaking in complete sentences. He is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 28 breaths/min and labored. Auscultation of his lungs reveals diffuse coarse crackles. After placing the patient in a comfortable position, you should:

Apply the CPAP device.

When applying the AED pads to a patient with a surgically implanted pacemaker, you should:

Apply the pads at least 1 inch away from the pacemaker.

A 29-year-old male experienced multiple fire-ant bites to his lower extremities. He is conscious and alert, and denies respiratory distress. His skin is warm, dry, and without urticaria and his breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Appropriate management for this patient includes:

Applying ice to the bites and observing for signs of an allergic reaction.

The most significant complications of Zika virus affect patients who:

Are pregnant.

Patients who have developed partial immunity to a particular disease:

Are protected against new infections, but not from germs that remain in the body from the initial illness.

The coronary arteries of a person with arteriosclerotic heart disease:

Are thickened and hardened and lose their elasticity.

Retinal injuries that are caused by exposure to extremely bright light:

Are typically not painful, but may result in permanent damage to the vision.

A patient with congenital anisocoria would be expected to have pupils that:

Are unequal in size.

What part of the cardiac electrical conduction system initiates electrical impulses at the slowest rate?

Areas below the AV node.

A 57-year-old female with a history of peripheral vascular disease presents with an acute onset of confusion, aphasia, left-sided hemiparesis, and facial droop. You should suspect an:

Arterial blockage in the right cerebral hemisphere.

A 57-year-old female with a history of peripheral vascular disease presents with an acute onset of confusion, aphasia, left-sided hemiparesis, and facial drop. You should suspect an:

Arterial blockage in the right cerebral hemisphere.

As an EMS​ provider, when you approach an emergency​ situation, when does the scene​ size-up begin?

As you arrive at the scene

A patient with liver failure has an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. This is called:

Ascites.

When assessing an anxious 55-year-old male with chest pain, you should:

Ask him how he prefers to be addressed.

A 31-year-old man has signs and symptoms of excited delirium. When assessing his orientation, memory, and ability to concentrate, you should:

Ask him simple questions, such as "When did you first notice these feelings?"

When responding to the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you should:

Ask the dispatcher to notify all of the hospitals in the area.

You are caring for a 27-year-old male with suspected ketoacidosis. He is unresponsive and his blood glucose level, as measured by glucometer, reads "high." His blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, pulse is 130 beats/min and weak, and respirations are 40 breaths/min and shallow. Which of the following represents the most appropriate treatment approach?

Assisted ventilation, 20-mL/kg crystalloid boluses to maintain perfusion, transport, and consider an advanced airway.

You and your partner are caring for a 30-year-old female who sustained extensive partial- and full-thickness burns when she was near a gas heater that exploded. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is semiconscious with profoundly labored and stridorous respirations. Immediate management of this patient should include:

Assisting her breathing with a bag-mask device and oxygen.

Which of the following medications would the AEMT be least likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint?

Atropine.

Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unresponsive, you should:

Attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient:

You are having difficulty verbally communicating with your 55 year old female patient. Which of the following would be the BEST way to next attempt to communicate with her?

Attempt written communication.

You are assessing a 59-year-old male with an altered mental status. You should suspect an acute ischemic stroke versus hypoglycemia if the patient:

Attempts to communicate with you.

You have been called for a​ 25-year-old man who is experiencing difficulty breathing and sharp chest pain after moving some heavy furniture. The pain is located on the right side of the chest and seems to worsen on deep inspiration. With this​ information, you immediately suspect pneumothorax. Which of the following should you perform next to help confirm your​ suspicion?

Auscultate all lung fields

When assessing a patient's abdoment, which of the following techniques will provide you with the least amount of information?

Auscultation of bowel sounds.

The production of antibodies or T cells that work against the tissues of one's own body is called:

Autoimmunity.

You are the only AEMT in the back of the ambulance caring for an apneic patient. Which of the following ventilation devices would allow you to perform other patient care tasks while still ventilating the patient?

Automatic transport ventilator.

What portion of the nervous system controls the functions of many of the body's vital organs, over which the brain has no voluntary control?

Autonomic

General guidelines for effectively communicating information over the radio include:

Avoiding providing a preliminary diagnosis of the patient's condition.

Significant vital signs changes, including increased heart and respiratory rates and a decreasing blood pressure, would likely occur if an 80-kg adult patient acutely loses as little as _____ L of blood. Select one: A. 0.5 B. 1 C. 2 D. 2.5

B. 1

When administering IV crystalloid boluses to a patient with an electrical injury, you should give enough fluid to maintain a urine output of: A. 4 mL/kg per hour. B. 1 mL/kg per hour. C. 2 mL/kg per hour. D. 3 mL/kg per hour.

B. 1 mL/kg per hour.

6: When a patient has one pupil larger than the other, the EMT should suspect: A) an impaled object. B) a head injury. C) a blowout fracture. D) nothing.

B) a head injury.

10: What is the "halo test"? A) a test for level of consciousness B) a test for cerebrospinal fluid in the blood C) a test for neurological responses D) none of the above

B) a test for cerebrospinal fluid in the blood

7: What is another name for the skull? A) foramen magnum B) cranium C) occiput D) face

B) cranium

1: What is the correct term for the white of the eye? A) conjunctiva B) sclera C) cornea D) globe

B) sclera

You are called for an 18-year-Old woman with dyspnea with sharp chest pain. Your assessment shows she has cramps in her hands and fingers how should you treat this patient? A. Have her breathe slowly into a paper bag B. Coach her to use her diaphargm to breath C. Administer a dose of three baby aspirin D. Administer an albuterol treatment.

B. Coach her to use her diaphargm to breath

Which of the following factors has the MOST significant impact on determining the severity of a burn? A. The age of the patient B. Depth and extent of the burn C. Preexisting medical conditions D. Location of the burned areas

B. Depth and extent of the burn

When assessing a 70-year-old male with suspected internal bleeding, which of the following findings would be MOST pertinent? A. A history of controlled hypertension B. Dizziness or syncope upon standing C. A history of trauma six months ago D. The patient regularly takes Tylenol.

B. Dizziness or syncope upon standing

uring your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed area to the front of his skull. This injury MOST likely occurred:

B. During the tertiary phase

Which of the following is the MOST significant acute complication associated with a laceration to the forearm? A. Severe pain B. External bleeding C. Severe infection D. Internal bleeding

B. External bleeding

Which of the following types of burns is characterized by intense pain and destruction of a portion of the dermis? A. First-degree B. Partial-thickness C. Third-degree D. Full-thickness

B. Partial-thickness

Which of the following injuries or conditions would MOST likely overwhelm the body's hemostatic response and result in death? A. Bleeding within the brain B. Ruptured aortic aneurysm C. Laceration to the liver D. Laceration to the spleen

B. Ruptured aortic aneurysm

Which of the following organs or systems can survive the longest without oxygen? Select one: A. Gastrointestinal system B. Skeletal muscles C. The myocardium D. Central nervous system

B. Skeletal muscles

In addition to pneumonia, which of the following is a complication of COPD? A. Allergic reaction from beta2 medications B. Spontaneous pneumothorax. C. Deep vein thrombosis D. Difficulty controlling blood sugar

B. Spontaneous pneumothorax.

Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct? A. They are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull. B. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly. C. They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control. D. They cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx.

B. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly

Which of the following patients would benefit MOST from the application and inflation of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG)? Select one: A. Closed head trauma with a BP of 160/90 mm Hg B. Unstable pelvis with a BP of 80/50 mm Hg C. Chest trauma with a systolic BP of 60 mm Hg D. Unilateral femur fracture with a BP of 100/60 mm Hg

B. Unstable pelvis with a BP of 80/50 mm Hg

A fracture involving the nasal bone and inferior maxilla, which separates the nasal bone and lower maxilla from the facial skull and remainder of the cranial bones describes: A. a Le Fort III fracture. B. a Le Fort II fracture. C. a Le Fort I fracture. D. craniofacial disjunction.

B. a Le Fort II fracture

A 22-year-old male has sustained full-thickness burns to approximately 55% of his BSA. You are appropriately managing his airway and are administering 100% oxygen. You note that the patient's heart rate is 140 beats/min and thready and his blood pressure is 78/58 mm Hg. You should: A. deliver several 500 mL boluses of normal saline solution. B. administer 20 mL/kg crystalloid boluses to maintain perfusion. C. administer IV fluids based on the Parkland formula. D. withhold IV fluid therapy until you have contacted medical control.

B. administer 20 mL/kg crystalloid boluses to maintain perfusion

You are dispatched to a local nightclub for a patient who has been stabbed. After arriving at the scene and ensuring you and your partner's safety, you find the patient sitting on the ground. He is conscious, screaming in pain, and attempting to control bright red blood that is spurting from his groin area. After taking standard precautions, you should: A. ensure that the patient's airway is patent. B. apply direct pressure to control the bleeding. C. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. obtain baseline vital signs and treat for shock.

B. apply direct pressure to control the bleeding

During your initial attempt to control severe external bleeding from an extremity, you should: Select one: A. apply a pressure dressing to the wound. B. apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing. C. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound. D. digitally compress a proximal pressure point.

B. apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing.

A young male tripped on a garden hose, fell, and struck his head on a concrete sidewalk. He is unresponsive and has a large hematoma to his forehead. His respirations are slow and shallow. You should: A. apply ice to the injury to reduce bleeding. B. assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen. C. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. D. start an IV and administer a 20 mL/kg bolus.

B. assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen

An elderly male was removed from his burning house by firefighters. He has extensive full-thickness burns; is semiconscious; and has shallow, stridorous respirations. The firefighters have already stopped the burning process. After ensuring an open airway, you should: A. insert a multilumen airway device to protect the patient's airway. B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen. C. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and keep him warm. D. estimate the severity of his burns and begin IV fluid replacement.

B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen

When caring for a patient with multiple abrasions, you should: A. clean the wounds with sterile water. B. be alert for underlying injuries. C. give a 500 mL crystalloid bolus. D. transport to a local trauma center.

B. be alert for underlying injuries

While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. underlying cardiac disease. B. bruising of the heart muscle. C. a lacerated coronary artery. D. traumatic rupture of the aorta.

B. bruising of the heart muscle

You are dispatched to an industrial plant for a worker who was exposed to an unknown chemical. Upon arrival, you find the patient sitting outside of the plant. He has a white, dry powder covering his right arm. Care for this patient's exposure includes: A. immediately flushing the area with sterile saline to stop the burning process. B. brushing the chemical from the patient's arm and then irrigating with water. C. removing the patient's clothing and immersing his arm in a container of water. D. removing the patient's clothing and flushing with copious amounts of water.

B. brushing the chemical from the patient's arm and then irrigating with water

A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should: A. leave the contact lenses in place and cover both eyes with a dry dressing. B. carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline. C. leave the contact lenses in place and flush his eyes with sterile water. D. remove the contact lenses and cover his eyes with a dry, sterile dressing.

B. carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline

You respond to a domestic dispute, where a middle-aged male was stabbed in the chest by his wife. Your assessment reveals that the patient is pulseless and apneic. The knife is impaled in the center of his chest. You should: A. turn the patient onto his side, stabilize the knife, and begin CPR. B. carefully remove the knife, control the bleeding, and perform CPR. C. stabilize the knife with bulky dressing, initiate CPR, and transport. D. leave the knife in place, control the bleeding, and initiate CPR.

B. carefully remove the knife, control the bleeding, and perform CPR

Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. removal of carbon dioxide from the body. B. circulation of blood within an organ or tissue. C. adequate supplies of glucose within the brain. D. oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange in the lungs.

B. circulation of blood within an organ or tissue.

Heat that is generated by an electrical injury can cause coagulation and vascular occlusion, resulting in: A. massive infection. B. compartment syndrome. C. spinal cord inflammation. D. spontaneous hemorrhage.

B. compartment syndrome

A small compact car was involved in a rollover crash. As you are approaching the vehicle, you note that the roof is significantly collapsed. The patient, a 29-year-old male, is complaining of severe pain in his neck and to the top of his head as well as numbness and tingling in his extremities. Witnesses who removed the patient from the vehicle state that he was wearing his seatbelt. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for this patient's condition?

B. compression of the head against the roof.

When a person is exposed to cold temperatures, blood vessels in the skin: A. dilate and draw blood to the surface of the skin. B. constrict and divert blood away from the skin. C. dilate and divert blood to the core of the body. D. constrict and draw blood to the skin's surface.

B. constrict and divert blood away from the skin

During Stage 1 hemorrhage, the body compensates primarily by: Select one: A. increasing systolic blood pressure. B. constriction of the vascular bed. C. increasing the respiratory rate. D. narrowing the pulse pressure.

B. constriction of the vascular bed.

Priority treatment for a patient with an open soft-tissue injury includes: A. wound decontamination. B. control of active bleeding. C. prevention of hypothermia. D. IV crystalloid fluid boluses.

B. control of active bleeding

During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note the presence of ecchymosis to the area of impact. This finding is MOST characteristic of a/an: A. crush injury. B. contusion. C. abrasion. D. hematoma.

B. contusion

A 62-year-old female with a history of type 2 diabetes has sustained partial-thickness burns to 27% of her body surface area (BSA). This burn should be classified as a: A. first-degree burn. B. critical burn. C. minor burn. D. moderate burn.

B. critical burn

Following an electrical burn, estimating the extent of the BSA involved is: A. not possible in the prehospital setting and can only be determined by a physician. B. difficult because the degree and depth may be greater internally than externally. C. easy because the external wound is often more dramatic than any internal injury. D. extremely difficult and should not be assessed in the field by the AEMT.

B. difficult because the degree and depth may be greater internally than externally

Upon arriving at the scene of a motorcycle crash, you find the patient, a young male, lying supine approximately 10 feet from his bike. An emergency medical responder is manually stabilizing the patient's head. You note an obvious open injury to the patient's left lower leg with severe bleeding. Your MOST appropriate initial action should be to: A. open the patient's airway and assess respiratory rate, regularity, and depth. B. direct your partner to control the bleeding as you assess the patient's airway. C. locate and control all obvious bleeding and then perform a primary assessment. D. have your partner assume control of the patient's head as you open the airway.

B. direct your partner to control the bleeding as you assess the patient's airway

During your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed area to the front of his skull. This injury MOST likely occurred: A. as a direct result of the pressure wave. B. during the tertiary phase.

B. during the tertiary phase

You are assessing a 59-year-old male who complains of a headache and note that his pupils are asymmetrical. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: A. regularly sees a family physician. B. has a history of eye surgeries. C. took any medication for his headache. D. is allergic to any medications.

B. has a history of eye surgeries

Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the EMT to:

B. identify contact points and predict potential injuries.

An industrial-plant worker was splashed in the left eye with a strong acid chemical. The MOST appropriate initial care for this patient's injury is to: A. neutralize the substance with a strong alkaline solution. B. irrigate the eye laterally, away from the unaffected eye. C. cover the affected eye with a sterile dressing or eye patch. D. limit irrigation of the affected eye to a maximum of 5 minutes.

B. irrigate the eye laterally, away from the unaffected eye

A 22-year-old male was walking on the beach and had sand blown into his eyes. He complains of pain and decreased vision to his right eye. Treatment should include: A. covering both eyes and transporting. B. irrigating his right eye laterally. C. irrigating both eyes simultaneously. D. flushing his eye starting laterally.

B. irrigating his right eye laterally

When treating a patient who complains of dyspnea, it is important for the AEMT to:

Be prepared to treat the patient's anxiety as well.

Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice, and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a/an: A. esophageal tear. B. laryngeal fracture. C. crushed cricoid. D. collapsed trachea.

B. laryngeal fracture

During your rapid assessment of an unconscious 67-year-old female, you note signs of shock and the presence of hematochezia. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. bleeding within the retroperitoneum. B. lower gastrointestinal bleeding. C. a leaking abdominal aortic aneurysm. D. upper gastrointestinal bleeding.

B. lower gastrointestinal bleeding

When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the: A. kinetic energy. B. mechanism of injury. C. index of suspicion. D. potential energy.

B. mechanism of injury

When assessing a patient with a mandibular fracture, you would MOST likely encounter: A. pain directly over the chin. B. misalignment of the teeth. C. impaired ocular movement. D. lateral bulging of the jaw.

B. misalignment of the teeth

The AEMT should be MOST suspicious of a Le Fort fracture if a patient who experienced massive blunt force trauma to the face presents with: A. misalignment of the teeth. B. mobility of the facial bones. C. numbness of the chin. D. flattening of the cheekbones.

B. mobility of the facial bones

During an explosion, a metal worker sustained a large laceration to the left side of his neck by flying debris. He is conscious, but restless; the wound is moderately bleeding. Appropriate care for this patient's injury includes: A. circumferentially wrapping the neck with gauze to secure a dressing in place. B. preventing air from entering the wound and applying a pressure dressing. C. controlling the bleeding by applying direct pressure to both carotid arteries. D. applying a pressure dressing to the wound and then apply a cervical collar.

B. preventing air from entering the wound and applying a pressure dressing

The opening in the center of the iris, which allows light to move to the back of the eye, is called the: A. sclera. B. pupil. C. cornea. D. conjunctiva.

B. pupil

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: A. doubles. B. quadruples.

B. quadruples

A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is: A. requesting a paramedic ambulance. B. rapidly transporting her to the hospital. C. quickly immobilizing her spinal column. D. careful monitoring of her vital signs.

B. rapidly transporting her to the hospital

A burn occurs when the soft tissue of the skin: A. is severely damaged by thermal or friction heat. B. receives more energy than it can absorb without injury. C. degrades due to exposure to radioactive substances. D. is exposed to caustic or corrosive chemicals.

B. receives more energy than it can absorb without injury

During times of decreased perfusion, the autonomic nervous system: A. causes vasodilation to increase venous capacitance. B. redirects blood to the most vital organs of the body. C. decreases the heart rate so as to decrease oxygen demand. D. diverts all available blood flow to the kidneys.

B. redirects blood to the most vital organs of the body

When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant: A. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard. B. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force. C. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle. D. will most likely be thrown over the steering column.

B. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force

The optic nerve endings are located within the: A. cornea. B. retina. C. pupil. D. sclera.

B. retina

After blood diffuses across the capillary membrane and perfuses the cells, it: Select one: A. drops off carbon dioxide and returns oxygenated blood to the heart. B. returns waste products to the right side of the heart, starting with the venules. C. forms lactic and pyruvic acids, which are used by the cells to form energy. D. returns carbon dioxide to the left side of the heart, starting with the veins.

B. returns waste products to the right side of the heart, starting with the venules.

The skin sends messages to the brain to regulate various functions via: A. efferent nerves. B. sensory nerves. C. motor nerves. D. axonal nerves.

B. sensory nerves

Patients with internal bleeding are in MOST need of: A. IV fluid boluses. B. surgical intervention. C. high-flow oxygen. D. thermal management.

B. surgical intervention

Common prehospital treatment for patients with severe burns includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. advanced airway care. B. tetanus prophylaxis. C. crystalloid fluid boluses. D. contamination prevention.

B. tetanus prophylaxis

Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because:

B. the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body.

Radiation is released into the atmosphere when: A. atoms lose their charge and increase their production of energy. B. unstable atoms emit excess energy in an attempt to stabilize. C. stable atoms become unstable and produce excess energy. D. it becomes ionized and its atoms become stable in their charge.

B. unstable atoms emit excess energy in an attempt to stabilize

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. B. your concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.

B. your concern for potentially serious underlying injuries

Which of the following assessment findings would be the least reliable indicator of inadequate perfusion?

BP of 104/60 mm Hg.

Which of the following sets of vital signs is most indicative of the Cushing triad?

BP, 190/100 mm Hg; pulse, 68 beats/min; respirations, 30 breaths/min and irregular.

The preferred initial method for ventilating an apneic patient is the:

Bag-mask device with two rescuers.

The fourth link in the chain of survival includes:

Basic and advanced EMS care.

The most appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the:

Basket stretcher.

The chemical mediators that cause an allergic reaction are released by:

Basophils and mast cells.

While treating a responsive and alert patient with a serious illness, your partner starts an IV, but does not explain the procedure to the patient. Your partner's action most accurately constitutes:

Battery

In order for continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) to be beneficial, the patient must:

Be able to follow commands.

While assessing a patient with blunt head trauma, you note an unstable segment of the skull and a large laceration to the scalp. You should control active bleeding, administer 100% oxygen, and:

Be alert for increased intracranial pressure.

Prehospital documentation of a sexual assault case should:

Be objective, factual, and detailed.

A 29-year-old male was struck in the chest with a steel pipe. Your assessment reveals severe pain and crepitus to the right upper chest, at and below the clavicle. What is most significant about the location of this patient's injury?

Because they are protected by the bony girdle of the clavicle and scapula, upper rib fractures may indicate severe internal injuries.

During the IV procedure, when is it most appropriate to apply the constricting band?

Before you cleanse the venipuncture site.

Shortley after administering epinephrine to a 49-year-old male with anaphylactic shock, he becomes unconscious. Your assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic. You should:

Begin CPR and apply the AED

You are assessing a 62-year-old female who has an automatic implantable cardiac defibrillator (AICD). As you are applying oxygen to her, she becomes unconscious, pulseless, and apneic. You should:

Begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

Following defibrillation with the AED, you have achieved return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) in a 42-year-old man. However he remains unresponsive and apneic. You continue to ventilate him and begin immediate transport to the hospital. En route, you reassess the patient and determine that he is in carciac arrest. You should:

Begin CPR, tell your partner to stop the ambulance, and analyze the patient's cardiac rhythm with the AED.

You are dispatched to an assisted-living center for a 67-year-old male with "mental status changes." You arrive at the scene and begin to assess the patient. He is responsive to painful stimuli only, has rapid and shallow breathing, and a slow radial pulse. You should:

Begin assisting the patient's ventilations.

A lethargic 8-year-old boy is in respiratory distress. His airway is patient and respiratory rate is 12 breaths per minute. His breath sounds are diminished bilaterally and you note accessory muscle use with inspiration and expiration. His pulse is 84 beats per minute and his SpO 2 is 88 percent. Which of the following should you do next?

Begin positive pressure ventilation.

Your crew responds to a motor vehicle crash where a​ four-door pickup truck has crashed into a tree. One man was ejected and is obviously dead and a woman is unconscious still in her seatbelt. You notice a car seat in the back with various toys scattered about the scene. Which of the following is MOST​ crucial?

Begin searching for additional patients

Which of the following demonstrates "integrity"? A) Being thorough, accurate, and honest on your daily vehicle and equipment checklists B) Showing compassion and understanding for others C) Changing out the oxygen cylinder when it gets low without being asked D) Keeping your fingernails clean and trimmed

Being thorough, accurate, and honest on your daily vehicle and equipment checklists

A subdural hematoma is an accumulation of blood:

Beneath the dura mater but outside the brain.

Subcutaneous injections deliver the medication:

Between the skin and the muscle.

Which of the following electrolytes determines whether or not the body is acidotic or alkalotic?

Bicarbonate

Which of the following electrolytes determines whether ot not the body is acidotic or alkalotic?

Bicarbonate

Major cations in the body include all of the following, except:

Bicarbonate.

The liver secretes _, which is an enzyme that the body uses to:

Bile, dissolve fats into solution.

Carbon monoxide (CO) causes severe tissue hypoxia because it:

Binds to the hemoglobin molecule and inhibits cellular oxygenation

Following severe head trauma, a patient presents with an irregular rate, pattern, and depth of breathing with brief periods of apnea. This breathing pattern is characteristic of:

Biot's respirations.

Patients with cyanide poisoning often have breath odor that resembles?

Bitter almonds

The prefix melan- is used to describe something that is:

Black.

direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with:

Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of a head injury?

Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light

When auscultation of breath sounds in a patient complaining of shortness of breath reveals wheezing, which of the following is responsible for this finding?

Bronchiole constriction

When auscultation of breath sounds in a patient complaining of shortness of breath reveals​ wheezing, which of the following is responsible for this​ finding?

Bronchiole constriction

After an advanced airway device has been inserted during cardiac arrest, you should ventilate an infant or child:

By giving one breath every 6 seconds.

Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? A) It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost. B) It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost. C) It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. D) It is a clear, watery fluid that cannot be replaced if it is lost during an eye injury.

C) It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost.

12: After taking standard precautions, what should the EMT do to control epistaxis? A) Apply direct pressure. B) Keep the patient calm. C) Lean the patient forward. D) Apply ice on the nose.

C) Lean the patient forward.

You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should: A) Quickly suction his oropharynx. B) Reassess his breathing adequacy. C) Turn the backboard onto its side. D) Alert the hospital of the situation.

C) Turn the backboard onto its side. .

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT must: A) Consider the mechanism of injury. B) Closely assess the patient's airway. C) Wear gloves and facial protection. D) Manually stabilize the patient's head.

C) Wear gloves and facial protection.

9: Anytime there are injuries to the face or head, the EMT should suspect: A) respiratory arrest. B) respiratory failure. C) spinal injuries. D) a decreased level of consciousness.

C) spinal injuries.

The mastoid process is located approximately: A. ½" anterior to the external opening of the ear. B. 1" inferior to the external opening of the ear. C. 1" posterior to the external opening of the ear. D. 1" posterior to the angle of the mandible.

C. 1" posterior to the external opening of the ear

A 4-year-old boy pulled a pot of boiling water from the stovetop. He has superficial and partial-thickness burns to his head, left anterior trunk, and entire left arm. On the basis of the "rule of nines," what percentage of this child's body surface area (BSA) has been burned? A. 36% B. 27% C. 30% D. 45%

C. 30%

During your assessment of a patient with a head injury, you note that he opens his eyes when you pinch his trapezius muscle, is mumbling, and has his arms curled in toward his chest. You should assign him a GCS score of:

C. 7.

Which of the following patients has experienced a critical burn? A. A 50-year-old with 9% full-thickness burns involving an upper extremity B. A 10-year-old with 45% superficial burns involving the chest and back C. A 65-year-old with 18% partial-thickness burns to both upper extremities D. A 31-year-old with 27% partial-thickness burns who takes antidepressants

C. A 65-year-old with 18% partial-thickness burns to both upper extremities

Which of the following fits the definition for atelectasis? A. An involuntary contraction of the muscles of the chest. B. A condition in which ventilation exceeds metabolic needs. C. A state in which the alveoli are collapsed D. Non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

C. A state in which the alveoli are collapsed

Which of the following is the MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries? A. Cervical spine injury B. External hemorrhage C. Airway compromise D. Damage to the eyes

C. Airway compromise

After starting an IV on a patient in shock, the AEMT accidentally gets stuck with the IV needle. This is referred to as a(n):

Contaminated stick.

Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of a head injury? A. One pupil larger in size than the other pupil B. Failure of the eyes to move in the same direction C. Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light D. Failure of the eyes to follow movement of an object

C. Briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light

Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. Collapsed dashboard B. Intrathoracic hemorrhage C. Deformed steering wheel D. Caved-in passenger door

C. Deformed steering wheel

Which of the following statements regarding electrical burns is correct? A. The size of entrance and exits wounds provides an indicator as to the degree of internal injury. B. When exposed to electricity, the human body is an excellent insulator because it is comprised primarily of water. C. Internal injury caused by an electrical burn is usually more severe than the external burns indicate. D. Ordinary household current can cause an electrical injury, but the burns are usually not severe.

C. Internal injury caused by an electrical burn is usually more severe than the external burns indicate

With regard to the three collisions that occur during a motor vehicle crash, which of the following statements regarding the first collision is correct? A. It has a direct effect on patient care because of the obvious vehicular damage. B. It occurs when the unrestrained occupant collides with the interior of the vehicle. C. It is the most dramatic part of the collision and may make extrication difficult. D. It provides the least amount of information about the mechanism of injury.

C. It is the most dramatic part of the collision and may make extrication difficult

You are explaining to your EMT partner how he can differentiate tension pneumothorax from a simple pneumothorax. of the following would you tell him indicates tension pneumothorax. A. Mild to severe shortness of breath B. Tachycardia related to anxiety C. Jugular venous distension D. Decreased lung sounds on affected side.

C. Jugular venous distension

Under which of the following conditions would external bleeding be LEAST difficult to control? A. Lacerated antecubital vein and a BP of 130/70 mm Hg B. Lacerated carotid artery and a BP of 140/90 mm Hg C. Lacerated femoral vein and a BP of 88/60 mm Hg D. Lacerated brachial artery and a BP of 84/56 mm Hg

C. Lacerated femoral vein and a BP of 88/60 mm Hg

Which of the following would be classified as a moderate burn in an infant or child? A. Superficial burns covering 30% of the BSA B. Partial-thickness burns to the hands, face, or genitalia C. Partial-thickness burns covering 15% of the BSA D. Full-thickness burns covering 1% of the BSA

C. Partial-thickness burns covering 15% of the BSA

You should be MOST suspicious for serious bleeding when: A. the MOI suggests injury to the lower extremities. B. the typical signs of shock are not present. C. a patient has a poor general appearance. D. a patient has a normal BP for his or her age

C. a patient has a poor general appearance

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injury because: A. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital. B. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery. C. a specialist may be needed to manage the injury. D. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed.

C. a specialist may be needed to manage the injury

A patient has severe bleeding from a large laceration to the anterior forearm. Direct pressure and a pressure dressing are not immediately effective in controlling the bleeding. You should: Select one: A. elevate the arm and apply ice to the injury. B. apply additional dressings and elevate the arm. C. apply a tourniquet above the level of the bleeding. D. locate and apply digital pressure to the brachial artery.

C. apply a tourniquet above the level of the bleeding.

You are dispatched to a convenience store, where the clerk sustained a laceration to the side of his neck during a robbery attempt. During your assessment, you note bright red blood spurting from the laceration. You should: A. circumferentially wrap a dressing around his neck. B. apply direct pressure below the lacerated vessel. C. apply direct pressure above and below the wound. D. apply pressure to the closest arterial pressure point.

C. apply direct pressure above and below the wound

A young female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She complains of pain to her left eye, which appears to have a piece of glass impaled in it. Further assessment reveals a large laceration to her left forearm with heavy bleeding. As your partner manually stabilizes the patient's head, you should: A. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. B. stabilize the impaled glass in her eye. C. apply direct pressure to her arm wound. D. carefully remove the glass from her eye.

C. apply direct pressure to her arm wound

During your initial attempt to control severe external bleeding from an extremity, you should: A. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound. B. digitally compress a proximal pressure point. C. apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing. D. apply a pressure dressing to the wound.

C. apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing

When evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car versus pedestrian collision, you should first:

C. approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian.

A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation with a rival gang member. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control any obvious bleeding and then: A. auscultate bowel sounds. B. apply a cervical collar. C. assess for an exit wound. D. obtain baseline vital signs.

C. assess for an exit wound

The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the: A. retina. B. cornea. C. conjunctiva. D. sclera.

C. conjunctiva

During Stage 1 hemorrhage, the body compensates primarily by: A. increasing systolic blood pressure. B. narrowing the pulse pressure. C. constriction of the vascular bed. D. increasing the respiratory rate.

C. constriction of the vascular bed

A 40-year-old male was in his woodworking shop when he felt a sudden, sharp pain in his left eye. Your assessment reveals a small splinter of wood embedded in his cornea. You should: A. remove the object with a cotton-tipped applicator. B. scrape the splinter away with moist, sterile gauze. C. cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital. D. cover his right eye and flush the left eye with saline.

C. cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital

When caring for an open wound that has small pieces of glass and other debris inside of it, you should: A. remove the glass and debris with hemostats. B. leave the wound open unless it is bleeding. C. cover the wound with a sterile dressing. D. irrigate the wound with sterile water.

C. cover the wound with a sterile dressing

When a driver is in a car equipped with an air bag, but is not wearing a seatbelt, he or she will MOST likely strike the __________ when the air bag deploys upon impact. A. dashboard B. steering wheel C. door D. windshield

C. door

A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12′ from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain?

C. energy transmission to the spine.

Small muscles within the dermis that pull the hair into an erect position when you are cold or frightened are called the: A. erector ducts. B. hair follicles. C. erector pili. D. sebum muscles.

C. erector pili

According to the American College of Surgeons, an adult trauma patient meets Level I criteria if he or she: A. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min. B. was involved in a motor-vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed. C. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 8 with a mechanism attributed to trauma. D. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury.

C. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 8 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.

In contrast to a Level III trauma center, a Level I trauma center must: A. be able to stabilize patients before transferring to a higher level facility. B. be involved in trauma prevention programs. C. have general surgeons that are in-house 24 hours a day. D. have access to an emergency physician within 30 minutes.

C. have general surgeons that are in-house 24 hours a day

Prior to applying a tourniquet to a profusely bleeding injury, you should take standard precautions and then: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. elevate the patient's legs 6" to 12". C. hold direct pressure over the bleeding site. D. apply pressure over a proximal artery.

C. hold direct pressure over the bleeding site

In contrast to upper-airway injury following a burn, lower-airway injury is usually the result of: A. inhalation of superheated gases. B. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli. C. inhalation of chemicals and particulate matter. D. interstitial fluid shifts and pulmonary edema.

C. inhalation of chemicals and particulate matter

The three basic pathways by which radiation enters the body are: A. inhalation, absorption and direct exposure. B. ingestion, direct exposure, and injection. C. inhalation, ingestion, and direct exposure. D. absorption, inhalation, and injection.

C. inhalation, ingestion, and direct exposure

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of:

C. intracranial bleeding.

The conjunctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the: A. posterior orbit. B. corneal ducts. C. lacrimal glands. D. optic chiasma.

C. lacrimal glands

In addition to improving systemic perfusion following an electrical burn injury, you should administer IV crystalloid fluid boluses in order to: A. abruptly increase the blood pressure. B. concentrate myoglobin in the renal tubules. C. maintain adequate urine output. D. prevent the occurrence of dysrhythmias.

C. maintain adequate urine output

The lower jawbone is called the: A. maxillae. B. zygoma. C. mandible. D. mastoid.

C. mandible

The upper jawbones are called the: A. mastoid. B. mandible. C. maxillae. D. zygoma.

C. maxillae

When assessing a patient with blunt abdominal trauma, the severity of internal bleeding is BEST determined by: A. noting the mechanism of injury. B. frequently taking the blood pressure. C. monitoring for signs of shock. D. ascertaining the patient's medical history.

C. monitoring for signs of shock

The mouth, nose, and other body orifices are lined with ___________________, which secrete a watery substance and provide a protective barrier against harmful agents. A. germinal cells B. melanin granules C. mucus membranes D. sebaceous glands

C. mucus membranes

While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: A. lower-extremity fractures. B. blunt trauma to the head. C. neck and facial injuries. D. open abdominal trauma.

C. neck and facial injuries

A 40-year-old patient has sustained circumferential burns to the chest. The MOST serious complication associated with this type of burn injury is: A. increased chest excursion. B. cardiac dysrhythmias. C. ventilatory insufficiency. D. compartment syndrome.

C. ventilatory insufficiency

When managing an adult patient with an inhalation injury, inspiratory stridor, and an altered mental status, you should: A. apply ice packs to the neck to reduce swelling. B. give humidified oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. prepare for early definitive airway management. D. ventilate at a rate of 20 breaths per minute.

C. prepare for early definitive airway management

If used, inflation of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) should continue until the: A. systolic BP reaches 120 mm Hg. B. carotid pulse is stronger. C. radial pulses return. D. patient develops dyspnea.

C. radial pulses return

When managing a critically-burned patient, it is important to: A. administer topical analgesia to the burned areas to afford the patient pain relief. B. break the integrity of any formed blisters as these can result in infection. C. rapidly estimate the burn's severity and then cover with dry, sterile dressings. D. perform a detailed physical exam at the scene to look for occult injuries.

C. rapidly estimate the burn's severity and then cover with dry, sterile dressings

When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an air bag that did not deploy upon impact, it is MOST important to: A. recognize that the force of impact was most likely not severe. B. realize that the air bag malfunctioned at the time of impact. C. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you. D. suspect that the patient may have experienced serious injuries.

C. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you

The white portion of the eye is called the: A. iris. B. retina. C. sclera. D. cornea.

C. sclera

A thermal burn involving the epidermis that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: A. moderate burn. B. second-degree burn. C. superficial burn. D. full-thickness burn.

C. superficial burn

Patients with internal bleeding are in MOST need of: Select one: A. high-flow oxygen. B. IV fluid boluses. C. surgical intervention. D. thermal management.

C. surgical intervention.

In order for electricity to flow through the body and cause injury: A. there must be an insulator in between the patient and the electrical source. B. the source of the electricity must be high voltage, such as a high power line. C. there must be a complete circuit between the electrical source and the ground. D. a patient must be in direct contact with the electrical source for at least 30 seconds.

C. there must be a complete circuit between the electrical source and the ground

Compartment syndrome is caused by: A. severe increased intracranial pressure following blunt head trauma. B. excessive blood or fluid collection within the abdominal musculature. C. tissue compression and damage due to fluid trapped in a confined space. D. permanent nerve and tissue damage proximal to an injury site.

C. tissue compression and damage due to fluid trapped in a confined space

A sport utility vehicle lost control and struck a utility pole head-on. The driver was killed instantly. The passenger, a young female, is conscious and alert and has several small abrasions and lacerations to her left forearm. Treatment for the passenger should include: A. a focused exam of her forearm. B. transport to a community hospital. C. transport to a trauma center. D. a secondary assessment at the scene.

C. transport to a trauma center

You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should: A. alert the hospital of the situation. B. reassess his breathing adequacy. C. turn the backboard onto its side. D. quickly suction his oropharynx.

C. turn the backboard onto its side

In contrast to an anaphylaxis, an anaphylactoid reaction:

Can occur without previous exposure to the offending agent.

Unlike the honeybee, wasps and hornets:

Can sting multiple times, because their stinger is not left imbedded in the skin.

A neoantigen is an antigen associated with:

Cancerous cells.

A major advantage of the multilumen airway device is that:

Cannot be improperly inserted.

During your assessment of a 39-year-old female with acute abdominal pain, you note the presence of diffuse pain while palpating her abdomen. With this information, you:

Cannot identify the underlying organ that is causing the pain.

The primary waste of metabolism is:

Carbon Dioxide.

Common hazards associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except:

Carbon dioxide deficiency.

When assessing a patient suspected of overdosing on cocaine, you must be especially alert for:

Cardiac dysrhythmias.

You have responded for a 65-year-old man with chest pain. You note that his blood pressure is 88/62 and his heart rate is 136. Which of the following should you suspect?

Cardiogenic shock

Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct?

Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer.

Signs and symptoms of a​ life-threatening emergency due to asthma include all of the following​ EXCEPT:

Chest pain

Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese?

Chest thrusts.

Which of the following is a major anion in the body?

Chloride.

When assessing a patient with type 2​ diabetes, which of the following is an oral antihyperglycemic medication you might document that the patient​ takes?

Chlorpropramide

Shortly following a meal, a 49-year-old female complains of acute pain to the right upper quadrant of her abdomen with referred pain to her right shoulder. This is most suggestive of acute:

Cholecystitus.

When the papillary muscles contract, the _ tighten, preventing blood from regurgitating from the ventricles to the atria.

Chordae tendineae

A major risk factor associated with lung cancer is:

Cigarette smoking.

Perfusion is most accurately defined as:

Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue.

A patient with suspected internal bleeding is slightly anxious and has cool, pink skin. His heart rate is 90 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 122/60. His presentation is consistent with ____ hemorrhage.

Class 2

You arrive at the residence of a young female who is experiencing an apparent psychotic episode. Law enforcement is on scene and has ensured that it is safe. You find the patient sitting in a chair, rocking back and forth. You should:

Clearly identify yourself and your partner and tell her you are there to help.

Which of the following is not a standard licensure requirement for AEMTS?

Completion of an NREMT-developed AEMT course.

A small compact car was involved in a rollover crash. As you are approaching the vehicle, you note that the roof is significantly collapsed. The patient, a 29-year-old male, is complaining of severe pain in his neck and to the top of his head as well as numbness and tingling in his extremities. Witnesses who removed the patient from the vehicle state that he was wearing his seatbelt. What injury mechanism is most likely responsible for this patient's condition?

Compression of the head against the roof

You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a young male experiencing an "Emotional problem." Law enforcement is at the scene when you arrive. You should:

Confer with a police officer before making patient contact.

Critical incident stress management is a program designed to:

Confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them.

Rapid isotonic crystalloid boluses in a patient with cardiogenic shock would most likely result in:

Congestion of blood in the lungs.

The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the:

Conjunctiva.

Ethnocentrism is defined as:

Considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.

How do the blood vessels of the skin respond to cold temperatures?

Constriction, which diverts blood away from the skin.

Which of the following conditions would be least likely to result in cerebral hypoxia?

Methamphetamine overdose.

Common signs and symptoms associated with an acute abdomen include:

Rapid and shallow breathing.

Comon findings in patients with blood disorders inculde all of the following, except:

Flushed skin and bradycardia.

On the basis of the Parkland formula, how much crystalloid should you administer per hour to a 70-kg patient with severe burns to 50% of his BSA? A. 900-1,000 mL B. 700-800 mL C. 1,000-1,100 mL D. 800-900 mL

D. 800-900 mL

In which of the following circumstances should you remove an impaled object?

Metal shard in the cheek and inadequate respiratory effort

Which of the following patients has experienced the MOST significant fall? A. A 5'-0" patient who fell 13' B. A 5'-9" patient who fell 14' C. A 4'-8" patient who fell 13' D. A 4'-6" patient who fell 13'

D. A 4'-6" patient who fell 13'

What size oxygen cylinder is typically carried by the AEMT to the patient's side?

D Cylinder.

4: How long should the EMT irrigate a burn to the eye caused by a strong acid or alkali? A) 5 minutes B) 10 minutes C) 15 minutes D) 20 minutes

D) 20 minutes

A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights, specks, or "floaters" in his or her field of vision has MOST likely experienced: A) Conjunctivitis. B) Acute hyphema. C) A blowout fracture.

D) A detached retina.

A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should: A) Apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport. B) Fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, tilt the backboard to the left side, and transport. C) Assist ventilations with a bag-mask device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport. D) Apply supplemental oxygen, immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport.

D) Apply supplemental oxygen, immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport.

A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should: A) Remove the contact lenses and cover his eyes with a dry, sterile dressing. B) Leave the contact lenses in place and cover both eyes with a dry dressing. C) Leave the contact lenses in place and flush his eyes with sterile water. D) Carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline.

D) Carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline.

You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: A) Noticed the change during a meal. B) Is allergic to any medications. C) Regularly sees a family physician. D) Has a history of eye surgeries.

D) Has a history of eye surgeries.

When a light is shone into the pupil: A) Both pupils should dilate together. B) It should become larger in size. C) The opposite pupil should dilate. D) It should become smaller in size.

D) It should become smaller in size.

5: When an eyeball has been displaced from its socket, what should the EMT do? A) Cover the eye. B) Stabilize the eye. C) Cover both eyes. D) all of the above

D) all of the above

11: The presence of air in the soft tissue produces a characteristic crackling sensation known as: A) emphysema. B) air embolism. C) pulmonary embolism. D) subcutaneous emphysema.

D) subcutaneous emphysema.

A 1-year-old female sustained blunt abdominal trauma following a motor-vehicle crash in which she was not properly restrained. Significant signs and symptoms will MOST likely occur after as little as _____ of blood loss. A. 250 mL B. 300 mL C. 50 mL D. 100 mL

D. 100 mL

A 60-year-old male has sustained partial- and full-thickness burns to his anterior chest, head, and both anterior arms. On the basis of the "Rule of Nines," what percentage of his body surface area (BSA) has been burned? A. 45% B. 18% C. 27% D. 36%

D. 36%

Which of the following conditions would allow an adult patient to MOST effectively compensate for external blood loss? Select one: A. 750 mL of blood loss over 10 minutes B. 500 mL of blood loss over 30 seconds C. 1,000 mL of blood loss over 20 minutes D. 500 mL of blood loss over 15 minutes

D. 500 mL of blood loss over 15 minutes

Which of the following is TRUE regarding a patient with severe respiratory distress? A. Cellular metabolism without adequate oxygen creates an alkalotic state B. A blocked airway is the most common cause of respiratory emergencies C. Supporting an open airway is usually sufficient to reverse respiratory distress D. Accessory muscle use increases oxygen demand during a respiratory emergency

D. Accessory muscle use increases oxygen demand during a respiratory emergency.

What occurs when the body's need for oxygen exceeds the avilable oxygen supple? A. Hypoxia B. Anaerobic metabolism C. Cyanosis D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following is important information to gather from a patient suspected of pneumonia? A. History of recent bout of bronchitis B. Dysnea that is progressibely worsening C. Acute onset of chills and fever D. All of the above

D. All of the above

You were summoned by a family member for a 64-year old woman who is having an acute respiratory emergency. You note that her chest looks full and she is tachycardic and you are unable to hear air movement upon auscultation. You should suspect: A. Emphysema B. A pulmonary embolism C. Pulmonary edema D. An asthma attack

D. An asthma attatck

A 56-year-old man is complaining of chest pain without respiratory distress. His vital signs show a blood pressure of 146/88, pulse 88, and pulse oximetry reading of 97 percent. How should you treat this patient? A. Provide oxygen via bag-valvemask at 15 liters per minute B. Assist the patient with his metered dose inhaler C. Administer oxygen via nonrebreather at 15 liters per minute D. Assure that his airway is secure and monitor his respiratory status.

D. Assure that his airway is secure and monitor his respiratory status.

Which of the following statements regarding scalp lacerations is correct? A. Because the scalp is highly vascular, you should always apply a tight pressure dressing to control bleeding B. Patients who take antihypertensive medications bleed more severely from scalp lacerations C. Although deep scalp lacerations bleed profusely, they are rarely associated with skull fractures D. Blood loss from a scalp laceration may result in hypovolemic shock, especially in children

D. Blood loss from a scalp laceration may result in hypovolemic shock, especially in children

Why does the skin become flushed or red when a person is exposed to a hot environment? A. Sweat glands produce sebum, resulting in heat evaporation. B. Vasoconstriction shunts blood to the surface of the skin. C. The blood is hyperoxygenated and assumes a bright color. D. Blood vessels dilate and heat radiates to the skin surface.

D. Blood vessels dilate and heat radiates to the skin surface

When performing a secondary assessment on a responsive patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should:

Focus on his or her chief complaint.

Your patient has a history of viscous mucus that blocks the ducts of the exocrine glands that secrete digestive enzymes into the digestive tract. These thick secretions also obstruct the airways. What is his diagnosis? A. COPD B. Pneumonia C. Emphysema D. Cystic fibrosis

D. Cystic fibrosis

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma? A. Intrusion into the vehicle B. Dismounted seats C. Steering wheel deformity D. Deployment of the air bag

D. Deployment of the air bag

When assessing a 70-year-old male with suspected internal bleeding, which of the following findings would be MOST pertinent? Select one: A. A history of trauma six months ago B. The patient regularly takes Tylenol. C. A history of controlled hypertension D. Dizziness or syncope upon standing

D. Dizziness or syncope upon standing

What layer of the skin contains cells that are replaced with new cells that are formed in the germinal layer? A. Subcutaneous layer B. Melanin layer C. Dermis D. Epidermis

D. Epidermis

Under which of the following conditions would external bleeding be LEAST difficult to control? Select one: A. Lacerated brachial artery and a BP of 84/56 mm Hg B. Lacerated antecubital vein and a BP of 130/70 mm Hg C. Lacerated carotid artery and a BP of 140/90 mm Hg D. Lacerated femoral vein and a BP of 88/60 mm Hg

D. Lacerated femoral vein and a BP of 88/60 mm Hg

In which of the following circumstances should you remove an impaled object? A. Metal rod in the thigh with severe arterial hemorrhage B. Knife in the abdomen of a pulseless and apneic patient C. Ice pick in the chest of an unconscious breathing patient D. Metal shard in the cheek and inadequate respiratory effort

D. Metal shard in the cheek and inadequate respiratory effort

Which of the following organs or tissues requires only intermittent circulation of blood? Select one: A. Brain B. Lungs C. Kidneys D. Muscles

D. Muscles

By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height? A. As the person falls, the amount of kinetic energy is converted into work; work is then converted to kinetic energy upon impact. B. Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy; the potential energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop. C. Potential energy is created as the person is falling; the potential energy is then converted into kinetic energy upon impact. D. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.

D. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop

Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma? A. Elevation of the lower extremities B. Early administration of oxygen C. Intravenous fluid administration D. Rapid transport to a trauma center

D. Rapid transport to a trauma center

Which of the following organs or systems can survive the longest without oxygen? A. Gastrointestinal system B. Central nervous system C. The myocardium D. Skeletal muscles

D. Skeletal muscles

If a person is standing near a building that explodes, which of the following injuries would he or she MOST likely experience as a result of the pressure wave? A. Fractured bones B. Severe burns C. Impaled objects D. Stomach rupture

D. Stomach rupture

Which of the following has the MOST impact on the severity of radiation injury or type of health effect? A. Type of radiation and the patient's age B. The distance between the patient and the source C. The presence of any underlying medical conditions. D. The amount and duration of exposure

D. The amount and duration of exposure

Which of the following statements regarding low-energy penetrating injuries is correct? A. Exit wounds are typically easy to locate with low-energy penetrating injuries. B. Internal injuries caused by low-velocity bullets are usually easy to predict. C. It is usually easy to differentiate between an entrance wound and an exit wound. D. The area of injury is usually close to the path the object took through the body.

D. The area of injury is usually close to the path the object took through the body.

Which of the following patients would benefit MOST from the application and inflation of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG)? A. Unilateral femur fracture with a BP of 100/60 mm Hg B. Closed head trauma with a BP of 160/90 mm Hg C. Chest trauma with a systolic BP of 60 mm Hg D. Unstable pelvis with a BP of 80/50 mm Hg

D. Unstable pelvis with a BP of 80/50 mm Hg

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with: A. conjunctivitis. B. contact lenses. C. retinitis. D. a brain injury.

D. a brain injury

When managing a patient with severe bleeding, it is important to: A. obtain frequent vital signs. B. administer high-flow oxygen. C. control the bleeding. D. take standard precautions.

D. take standard precautions

You are assessing a 4-year-old male who was electrocuted when he stuck a pin into an electrical socket. He is conscious and alert and complains of pain to his left hand, where you find a small entrance wound. When treating this child, you should: A. apply an AED and monitor the child. B. fully immobilize his spinal column. C. flush the wound with sterile saline. D. anticipate extensive internal injuries.

D. anticipate extensive internal injuries

A 28-year-old female was the unrestrained driver of a car that struck the rear end of another car while traveling at 35 mph. She is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the anterior chest. During your assessment, you note a large ecchymotic area over the superior aspect of the anterior chest. As your partner assumes manual stabilization of her head, you should: A. rapidly extricate her from the car and transport. B. open her airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. C. obtain vital signs to assess for signs of shock. D. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

D. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask

You arrive at the scene of a residential fire where the occupant, a 48-year-old male, has sustained partial- and full-thickness burns to his lower extremities and lower torso. Firefighters removed the patient's smoldering clothing and stopped the burning process prior to your arrival. The patient is conscious, but restless, and complains of intense pain to the burned areas. After taking the standard precautions, you should: A. rapidly estimate the extent of the patient's burns. B. perform a secondary assessment and start an IV. C. immerse the burned areas in sterile water. D. apply supplemental oxygen and monitor his airway.

D. apply supplemental oxygen and monitor his airway

A utility worker was trimming branches away from a high power line when he accidentally cut the power line. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should begin CPR and then: A. assess for an entrance and exit wound. B. establish two large-bore IV lines. C. apply full spinal motion restriction precautions. D. apply the AED as soon as possible.

D. apply the AED as soon as possible

The term "hyphema" is defined as: A. an acute rupture of the globe of the eye. B. inflammation of the iris, cornea, and lens. C. compression of one or both optic nerves. D. blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.

D. blood in the anterior chamber of the eye

A 39-year-old female experienced a severe closed head injury. She is unconscious with her eyes slightly open; her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, you should: A. secure her eyes open so you can reassess her pupils. B. inspect her eyes and gently remove impaled objects. C. irrigate her eyes with water to prevent mucosal drying. D. close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing.

D. close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing

A 34-year-old male was involved in a motor-vehicle crash. During the crash, his vehicle caught fire. Bystanders removed the patient from his vehicle prior to your arrival. The patient is conscious with adequate breathing. He has partial-thickness burns to his face and neck, and an open femur fracture with severe bleeding. Immediate management for this patient should include: A. performing a secondary assessment. B. providing assisted ventilation. C. maintaining body temperature. D. controlling the bleeding from his leg.

D. controlling the bleeding from his leg

Signs of a pulmonary blast injury include:

D. coughing up blood.

Air bags are designed to: A. be used with or without a shoulder harness. B. prevent a second collision inside the car. C. prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma. D. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.

D. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries

All of the follow deformity of a short bonea closed soft tissue injury, EXCEPT: A. swelling beneath the skin. B. a history of blunt trauma. C. pain at the site of injury. D. deformity of a short bone.

D. deformity of a short bone

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with: A. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point. B. ice packs and elevation of the patient's head. C. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs. D. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.

D. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash involving a telephone pole, you note that the driver appears unconscious and is bleeding heavily from the mouth. There is a power line across the hood and roof of the car. You should: A. carefully remove the power line with rubber gloves. B. remove the power lines with a non-conductive object. C. attempt to safely remove the patient from the car. D. ensure that the power line is not electrically active.

D. ensure that the power line is not electrically active

Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are:

D. falls and motor vehicle collisions.

The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the:

D. headrest is appropriately positioned.

Clinical findings associated with a laryngeal injury include: A. hematemesis, bulging eyes, and jugular venous distention. B. pallor, a mediastinal shift, and tracheal deviation. C. posterior neck deformity, Battle's sign, and a dry cough. D. hemoptysis, subcutaneous emphysema, and cyanosis.

D. hemoptysis, subcutaneous emphysema, and cyanosis

Prior to applying a tourniquet to a profusely bleeding injury, you should take standard precautions and then: Select one: A. elevate the patient's legs 6" to 12". B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. apply pressure over a proximal artery. D. hold direct pressure over the bleeding site.

D. hold direct pressure over the bleeding site.

A 58-year-old woman fell and landed face-first on a concrete sidewalk. She is conscious, but confused. Her skin is pale, cool, and clammy; her radial pulses are weak and rapid; and her blood pressure is 72/54 mm Hg. Further assessment reveals crepitus to her left cheekbone. After administering high-flow oxygen, you should: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment, immobilize her entire spine, and establish IV access. B. place her in a sitting position on the stretcher, insert a saline lock, and reassess her blood pressure. C. apply a cervical collar only, establish two large-bore IV lines, and administer 2 liters of normal saline. D. immobilize her entire spine, establish at least one large-bore IV line, and give a 20-mL/kg crystalloid bolus.

D. immobilize her entire spine, establish at least one large-bore IV line, and give a 20-mL/kg crystalloid bolus

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she: A. experiences multiple impacts. B. remains within the vehicle. C. is wearing only a lap belt. D. is ejected or partially ejected.

D. is ejected or partially ejected

The energy contained in a moving object is called: A. potential energy. B. latent energy. C. converted energy. D. kinetic energy.

D. kinetic energy

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during: A. rollover collisions. B. rear-end collisions. C. frontal collisions. D. lateral collisions.

D. lateral collisions

A 29-year-old male has an anterior nosebleed after he was accidentally elbowed in the nose. His is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. The MOST appropriate care for this patient includes: A. applying a gauze pad in between his lower lip and gum. B. packing the nasopharynx with moist, sterile dressings. C. placing him supine and pinching his nostrils together. D. leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together.

D. leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together

When assessing a patient with blunt abdominal trauma, the severity of internal bleeding is BEST determined by: Select one: A. ascertaining the patient's medical history. B. frequently taking the blood pressure. C. noting the mechanism of injury. D. monitoring for signs of shock

D. monitoring for signs of shock

Facial injuries must be identified and treated as soon as possible because: A. bleeding must be controlled early. B. swelling may mask hidden injuries. C. the spine may be injured as well. D. of the risk for airway problems.

D. of the risk for airway problems

After blood diffuses across the capillary membrane and perfuses the cells, it: A. drops off carbon dioxide and returns oxygenated blood to the heart. B. returns carbon dioxide to the left side of the heart, starting with the veins. C. forms lactic and pyruvic acids, which are used by the cells to form energy. D. returns waste products to the right side of the heart, starting with the venules.

D. returns waste products to the right side of the heart, starting with the venules

All patients with closed soft-tissue injuries should be assessed for: A. intra-abdominal bleeding. B. trauma to the spinal cord. C. signs of impending infection. D. serious hidden injuries.

D. serious hidden injuries

Significant trauma to the face should increase the AEMT's index of suspicion for a/an: A. displaced mandible. B. airway obstruction. C. basilar skull fracture. D. spinal cord injury.

D. spinal cord injury

A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to:

D. stabilize her entire spine.

A 55-year-old male sustained partial-thickness burns to his face and neck when he opened the hot radiator cap on his car. He is conscious and alert, but complains of dyspnea and difficulty swallowing. His oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. You should be MOST concerned about the: A. possibility of blindness. B. degree of burns. C. risk of infection. D. status of his airway.

D. status of his airway

A 30-year-old female was assaulted by a gang as she was leaving a nightclub. She has massive facial trauma and slow, gurgling respirations. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you should: A. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. visualize her mouth for obvious wounds. C. begin immediate ventilatory assistance. D. suction her oropharynx for 15 seconds.

D. suction her oropharynx for 15 seconds

You are treating a 56-year-old man with CPAP. He has a history of congestive heart failure and is experiencing marked respiratory distress. When you reassess him, you note that he is no longer to follow verbal commands. You should:

Discontinue CPAP and assist his ventilation with a bag-mask device.

A 49-year-old female was the victim of a sexual assault. Your assessment reveals that she is conscious and alert and is breathing adequately. There is no gross external bleeding, and her vital signs are stable. You should:

Discourage her from showering or douching.

When caring for a patient with a suspected laryngeal injury, you should:

Discourage the patient from talking.

CPAP produces all of the following physiologic effects, except:

Dispersing thick secretions within the lung tissue.

The hallmark sign of compartment syndrome is

Disproportionate pain

When cleaning around her empty swimming pool, a 30-year-old female fell into the deep end of the pool. She presents with decreased sensation and movement in her lower extremities, a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 50 beats/min. What is most likely etiology of this patient's condition?

Disruption of the nervous system and relative hypovolemia.

Partial pressure is the term used to describe the amount of gas that is:

Dissolved in fluid.

The wrist is _ to the elbow.

Distal.

Widespread dilation of the resistance and capacitance vessels causes which type of shock?

Distributive.

Which of the following formulas is correct for converting a patient's weight in pounds to his or her weight in kilograms?

Divide the patient's weight in pounds by 2 and subtract 10%.

Which of the following is your best protection against being accused of defamation of character?

Documenting objective findings only.

You arrive at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash where a small car has struck a tree head-on. You see one patient sitting in the driver's seat with the door open. Prior to exiting the ambulance, you should:

Don the appropriate protective equipment.

While en route back to your station after delivering a patient to the hospital, you realize that you made an error on the front page of the patient care report. You should:

Draw a straight line through it with different colored ink, and date and initial it.

What is the most appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to the wheeled stretcher?

Draw sheet method.

A hypertonic solution is one that:

Draws fluid and electrolytes out of the cell.

Even with an EMS certification, your ability to function as an AEMT is governed locally by the:

EMS systems medical director

Authorization to use an automatic transport ventilator when transporting a patient requires which minimum level of EMS provider?

EMT

Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A) An EMR license is a prerequisite for EMT. B) EMT is a prerequisite for Advanced EMT. C) AEMT's provide complex patient assessments. D) AEMT core program includes 1000 hours of education.

EMT is a prerequisite for Advanced EMT

Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

Educating the public regarding the use of helmets and seat belts.

The movement and utilization of oxygen in the body is dependent on all of the following, except:

Effective alveolar-capillary osmosis.

Substances that become charged particles when they disassociate in water are called:

Electrolytes.

Which prehospital level is designed to arrive quickly at the scene of an injury or illness to provide care while awaiting an ambulance?

Emergency Medical Responder

Which of the following is often included as part of training for an EMT? A) Interpreting EKG tracings B) Gaining intravenous access C) Emergency department experience D) Administering sedatives

Emergency department experience

Being aware and thoughtful about the needs of your patient describes the attribute of:

Empathy.

Pregnancy hormones cause the _ of the uterus to thicken in preparation for implantation of a fertilized egg.

Endometrium.

A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12 feet from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is most likely responsible for his back pain?

Energy transmission to the spine

If you suspect aortic dissection, which of the following are considered appropriate interventions?

Ensure a patent airway with adequate ventilation and oxygenation.

You respond to a call for an older woman who has fallen. Upon arrival at the scene, you assess the patient, who is responsive and alert to person, place, time, and event. She states that she does not want to go to the hospital; however, her son requests that you take her. What should you do?

Ensure the patient is fully aware of the consequences of refusing treatment.

What layer of the skin contains cells that are replaced with new cells that are formed in the germinal layer?

Epidermis

Which of the following would be the treatment of choice for a patient with severe​ anaphylaxis?

Epinephrine

A 50-year-old male was stung two times by a yellow jacket. He has a history of coronary artery disease and thinks that he is allergic to yellow jackets. Your assessment reveals a fine rash to his trunk and arms. His breath sounds are clear and equal bilaterally, his vital signs are stable, and he denies shortness of breath. Treatment for this patient should include all of the following, except:

Epinephrine via auto-injector.

Prior to applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should:

Evaluate the patient for potentially correctable cause of combativeness, such as head injury, hypoxia, or hypoglycemia.

Your patient is a​ 25-year-old woman with a history of diabetes. She is​ confused, agitated, and verbally abusive to​ you, and she is very sweaty. Although she refuses to give a history of the present​ illness, you should suspect low blood glucose levels as the likely cause of her presentation. If this patient accepts treatment and​ transport, how often should you reassess​ her?

Every 15 minutes

An allergic reaction is most accurately defined as a(n):

Exaggerated response of the body's immune system to a foreign stimulus.

When palpating the abdomen of a female in pain, you should.

Examine the area farthest away from the pain first.

MOST state statutes allow an emergency vehicle operator to do which of the following on emergency​ calls?

Exceed posted speed limits if life and property are not endangered

In diabetic​ ketoacidosis, which of the following may​ result?

Excessive ​ urination, excessive​ thirst, and excessive hunger

Which of the following is associated with cocaine and methamphetamine use, as well as the use of other drugs?

Excited delirium

You receive a call for a 66-year-old female who was found unresponsive by her husband. Your primary survey reveals that the patient is responsive to painful stimuli and has rapid, shallow respirations. Her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg and her pulse rate is 120 beats/min and irregular. The patient's husband tells you that she complained of chest pressure the previous day, but would not allow him to call EMS. This patient is:

Experiencing cardiogenic shock and requires assisted ventilation, IV therapy, and rapid transport.

You respond to the scene of a 16-year-old pregnant woman with abdominal pain. Her friend called EMS because she was concerned. As you begin your assessment, the patient tells you that she feels better and does not want to go to the hospital. You should:

Explain the consequences of refusal of care.

For consent to be informed, the AEMT must:

Explain the risks and benefits of treatment.

You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who was sexually assaulted. She is conscious and alert and has multiple abrasions and bruises to her face and arms. As you begin to assess her, she tells you that she does not want to go to the hospital. You should:

Explain the seriousness of the situation but allow her to refuse if she wishes.

Signs of cerebral herniation include:

Extensor posturing.

Increased capillary permeability that occurs during the body's inflammatory response causes:

Extravasation of fluid.

You are requesting an order to perform an invasive intervention on a critically ill patient from medical control when the radio system suddenly fails. You should:

Follow standing orders.

of the risk for airway problems.

Facial injuries should be identified and treated as soon as possible because:

Two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are:

Falls and motor vehicle collisions.

In adults, most bone marrow in the long bones of the extremities contains:

Fat.

You are returning to quarters after transporting a patient to the hospital in the middle of the night at the end of a double shift. Your partner is driving and you are completing your patient care report. You look up just in time to see your partner run off the​ road, over correct and then veer briefly into oncoming traffic before returning safely to your lane. What is the MOST likely cause of this​ near-miss?

Fatigue

You respond for a patient who tells you he has hypothyroidism. Which of the following signs or symptoms would you​ expect?

Fatigue and a lack of energy

You are called for a four-year-old girl who apparently has suffered a seizure. Her mother states that she has been sick for a day or two. Which kind of seizure has she MOST likely had?

Febrile seizure

Patients who fall and land on their _ may have the least severe injuries.

Feet.

You remove the shirt of a patient in cardiac arrest and note an adhesive patch applied to his upper right arm. This medication is most likely:

Fentanyl patch.

When assessing a patient for pneumonia, which of the following symptoms might help you determine that the patient is more likely to have pneumonia versus pulmonary edema?

Fever and chills

When assessing a patient for​ pneumonia, which of the following symptoms might help you determine that the patient is more likely to have pneumonia versus pulmonary​ edema?

Fever and chills

In contrast to bronchitis, pneumonia typically presents with:

Fever and chills.

The protein that bonds to form the fibrous component of a blood clot is called:

Fibrin.

Which of the following pain patterns is most consistent with kidney stones?

Flank pain that radiates to the groin.

A 40-year-old female is unconscious following blunt trauma to the chest. During the rapid trauma assessment (rapid body scan), you auscultate the chest and hear rhonchi. This indicates:

Fluid in the larger airways of the lungs.

Compartment syndrome occurs when:

Fluid leaks out of the bone and into the osteofascial compartment.

In cases of pulmonary edema, diffusion is impared primarily because of:

Fluid-filled alveoli.

A 66-year-old female's daughter called EMS because her mother was having chest pain. When you arrive the patient states that she does not need EMS and will not go to the hospital on her own. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented and will not sign a refusal form. You should:

Have the daughter sign the form verifying her mother's refusal.

When assisting a patient with his or her prescribed inhaler, it is important to:

Have the patient exhale deeply prior to inhaling the medication.

Which of the following questions would be of least pertinence when obtaining a focused history of a patient with an acute onset of chest discomfort?

Have you ever been told you have low blood pressure?

You are responding to a motor vehicle crash on the interstate. Which of the following describes the BEST way to assure you will arrive​ safely?

Have your partner handle communication with the dispatch center.

You are called for a 20-year-old college student with respiratory distress. Of the following information, which would MOST likely indicate a possible pneumothorax?

He began having shortness of breath after lifting a heavy object.

You are called for a​ 20-year-old college student with respiratory distress. Of the following​ information, which would MOST likely indicate a possible​ pneumothorax?

He began having shortness of breath after lifting a heavy object.

An 82-year-old man experienced a minor facial injury when he tripped and fell. He is conscious and alert and complains of slight pain to his cheekbones. His medical history includes hypertension, blood clots in his legs, hypothyroidism, and type 2 diabetes. During your assessment, it is important to remember that:

He is at an increased risk for severe posterior epistaxis.

Your patient is complaining of chest pain and is​ cool, pale, and diaphoretic with a bluish tinge on his nail beds. You place a pulse oximeter probe on his index finger and it shows a reading of 88 percent. Based on this​ information, which of the following statements is​ true?

He is hypoxic with signs of pulmonary embolism.

A 30-year-old male presents with respiratory distress that began within minutes of being exposed to an unknown chemical at an industrial site. When caring for this patient, it is most important to remember that:

He must be properly decontaminated first.

If a patient has a ventricular assist device (VAD) that provides continuous blood flow:

He or she will not have any palpable pulses.

In addition to administering supplemental oxygen, what is the most appropriate management for a patient with circulatory overload caused by excessive IV fluid administration?

Head elevated, medical control notified.

Which of the following would be a sign or symptom of carbon monoxide​ poisoning?

Headaches

The cervical spine is most protected from whiplash-type injuries when the:

Headrest is appropriately positioned.

Perfusion depends on adequate cardiac output, which is calculated as:

Heart rate times stroke volume.

In which of the following situations would a diabetic patient most likely develop hypoglycemic crisis (insulin shock)?

Heavy exertion following a small meal.

All of the following are common signs and symptoms of chronic renal disease, except:

Hematuria.

The increased destruction of red blood cells is called:

Hemolytic anemia.

Which of the following interventions should be able to be performed by all EMS providers, regardless of their level of certification?

Hemorrhage control

Which of the following is the BEST treatment for carbon monoxide​ poisoning?

High flow oxygen

Perfusion occurs in the capillaries as a result of _ hydrostatic pressures and _ in the capillary beds.

High, osmosis.

The purpose of a constricting band when starting an IV is to:

Increase venous pressure at the puncture site.

Which of the following is not a typical warning sign of stress?

Increased appetite.

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system results in:

Increased blood pressure and heart rate.

The alpha1 effects of norepinephrine result in:

Increased peripheral vascular resistance.

In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include:

Increased stability due to a wider wheelbase.

Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, except:

Increased surface area available for air exchange.

Which of the following physiologic processes does not occur in patients with COPD?

Increased surfactant production.

According to the Starling law of the heart:

Increased venous return stretches the ventricles, resulting in increased contracility.

Which of the following factors would have the least effect on a 75-year-old patient's vital signs?

Increased weight.

Patients with a hemorrhagic stroke typically experience a rapidly declining level of consciousness because of:

Increasing intracranial pressure.

Warning signs of stress include which of the following?

Indecisiveness.

Benzodiazepines are classification of medication that are used to:

Induce sedation.

When considering spinal immobilization of an infant who fell, it is important for the AEMT to remember that:

Infants and small children often land head first because their head accounts for 25% of their body weight.

The vast majority of all poisonings, intentional and unintentional, occur via:

Ingestion.

In contrast to upper-airway injury following a burn, lower-airway injury is usually the result of:

Inhalation of chemicals and particulate matter.

Reconstituting a drug, such as glucagon, involves:

Injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that already contains powder.

Muscle and surrounding tissue behind the cornea that dilate and constrict the pupil

Iris

A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should:

Inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible.

Actions taken after administering a medication to a patient include all of the following, except:

Inquiring about drug allergies.

A 55-year-old male ingested a large quantity of bourbon whiskey. He is deeply unconscious and has slow shallow breathing. His "drinking buddy" tells you that the patient frequently abuses alcohol. You should:

Insert an oral airway, assist his ventilations, assess his blood glucose level, transport, and start an IV line en route.

When inserting an IV into the external jugular vein, you should:

Insert the catheter with the tip pointing towards the shoulder.

The two processes that occur during respiration are:

Inspiration and expiration.

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized​ by:

Insufficient insulin production.

When using the mnemonic AEIOU TIPS to assess a patient to determine causes of altered mental​ status, what issue does the​ "I" in TIPS remind you to​ investigate?

Insulin

What are the two endocrine hormones released by the​ pancreas?

Insulin and glucagon

Which of the following statements regarding age-related changes in the nervous system is correct?

Interconnections between brain cells often prevent a loss of knowledge or skull, despite a loss of neurons.

You are instructing a group of new EMTs about the basics of driving an emergency vehicle. What should you emphasize as the MOST frequent locations or circumstances for ambulance​ crashes

Intersections

_ Fluid accounts for approximately 16% of the body's total weight.

Interstitial.

_ fluid accounts for approximately 16% of the body's total weight.

Interstitial.

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the scope of practice of the AEMT? A) The interventions are identical to the older Intermediate level. B) AEMTs are responsible for providing manual defibrillation. C) AEMTs are allowed to administer narcotic medications. D) Interventions are focused on airway, breathing and circulation.

Interventions are focused on airway, breathing and circulation

Your patient is a 29-year-old male who presents with signs and symptoms of shock. However, your assessment reveals no obvious external signs of injury. You should suspect:

Intraabdominal bleeding.

The majority of the body's potassium is found within the:

Intracellular fluid

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be most concerned with the possibility of:

Intracranial bleeding.

A known contraindication to the administration of 50% dextrose (D50) is:

Intracranial hemorrhage.

Which of the following medication routes will provide the most rapid rate of absorption?

Intraosseous.

When the diaphragm and intercostal muscle contract:

Intrapulmonary pressure falls below atmospheric pressure.

When treating a patient with decompensated shock, which of the following interventions is best performed en route to the hospital as opposed to at the scene?

Intravenous therapy.

Which of the following routes is the quickest for getting medication into the central circulation?

Intravenous.

Transparent part of the eye through which images are focused on the retina

Lens

When caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency, it is important for you to:

Let the patient tell you what happened in his or her own words.

The primary endogenous mediators of inflammation, which contribute to the signs and symptoms seen in acute inflammation, are called:

Leukotrienes.

When writing your patient care form involving an acutely intoxicated patient, you document that the patient was "drunk." What does this statement constitute?

Libel

The proper technique for using the power grip is to:

Lift with your palms up.

When performing your assessment of a 40-year-old male who is agitated and displaying bizarre behavior, you should:

Limit the number of personnel around the patient.

Which of the following abdominal organs would cause the most profuse bleeding when severely injured?

Liver

Which of the following organs lie in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen?

Liver and gallbladder

A patient was struck in the right lower anterior chest with a baseball bat. In addition to fractured ribs, you should be suspicious of injury to the:

Liver.

Which of the following is the most appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury?

Long backboard.

Which of the following conditions would most likely mimic the signs and symptoms of an acute ischemic stroke?

Low blood glucose level.

The immune response involves which type of white blood cell?

Lymphocyte.

Which of the following statements regarding multiple-organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is correct?

MODS occurs when injury or infection triggers a massive immune, inflammatory, and coagulation response.

The Narcotic Control Act of 1956:

Made the possession of heroin illegal and outlawed the acquisition and transportation of marijuana.

General management for a patient who has overdosed on benzodiazepine includes:

Maintaining airway patency, supporting ventilations as needed, and transporting

Damage control resuscitation focuses on:

Maintaining circulating volume; controlling hemorrhage; and correcting coagulopathy, acidosis, and hypothermia.

The ascending reticular activating system in the brain is responsible for:

Maintaining consciousness.

Effectively performed CPR is a crucial treatment for a patient in cardiac arrest because it:

Maintains myocardial and cerebral perfusion.

A 62-year-old female with a history of type 2 diabetes has sustained partial-thickness burns to 27% of her body surface area (BSA). This burn should be classified as a:

Major burn.

At the scene of an automobile crash, a utility pole has been broken, and power lines are lying across the car. The driver of the car is responsive, but reporting neck pain. You should:

Mark off a danger zone around the car and downed lines.

Following blunt and penetrating chest trauma, your patient presents with signs of shock and jugular venous distention. These clinical findings indicate:

Mechanical obstruction of the heart, which is impairing pump function.

The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer to the midsagittal plane is:

Medical

The term applied to the practice of preventing contamination of the patient when performing an invasive procedure is called:

Medical asepsis.

According to the terminal drop hypothesis:

Mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death.

While assessing a 32-year-old male with an acute behavioral crisis, he asks to go into the kitchen to get something to eat. You should:

Not allow him to leave the area without a police escort.

To determine specifics about chest pain, use ________ to help you.

OPQRST

When treating a woman with vaginal bleeding and signs of shock, you must:

Observe standard precautions.

A patient who presents with hypotension, jugular venous distention, and a rapid irregular pulse should be suspected of experiencing:

Obstructive shock.

Unresponsive patients most often experience airway obstructions from:

Occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue.

Which cranial nerve is responsible for constriction of the pupil and accommodation of the lens?

Oculomotor

The _ nerve innervates the muscles that cause motion of the eyeballs and upper lid.

Oculomotor.

Which of the following is a sign of decompensated shock?

Oliguria.

A patient who was stung on the left leg b a scorpion develops a rash on the ipsilateral side. This means that the rash is:

On the left side of the body.

Shortly after starting an IV on a patient with a possible femur fracture, the patient experiences a sudden onset of shortness of breath and develops cyanosis. After reassessing airway patency and breathing adequacy, you should position the patient:

On the left side with the head down.

Shortly after starting an IV on patient with a possible femur fracture, the patient experiences a sudden onset of shortness of breath and develops cyanosis. After reassessing airway patency and breathing adequacy, you should position the patient:

On the left side with the head down.

Which of the following statements regarding driving an ambulance at night is​ TRUE?

Oncoming drivers may be temporarily blinded by your headlights.

When attaching an administration set to a bag of IV fluid and priming the IV tubing, you should ensure that the drip chamber is:

One half full.

You are not covered under the good Samaritan law if you:

Perform an act beyond your scope of care

________ is the circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs for oxygen, nutrients, and waste removal.

Perfusion

Indicators to the patient that you are actively listening to him or her include:

Periodically repeating back important points to the patient.

Which of the following physiologic responses would you expect to occur following administration of a drug that possesses alpha-1 properties?

Peripheral vasoconstriction.

The protein coat surrounding the core of a virus rotects it from:

Phagocytosis.

You want to accurately document that your patient has a sore throat. Which of the following term would correctly identify a sore​ throat?

Pharyngitis

The cell membrane is a(n) _ bilayer, which is an important barrier to fluid movement and acid-base balance.

Phospholipid.

With regard to substance abuse, tolerance is defined as a:

Physiologic adaptation to the effects of a drug such that increasingly larger doses are required to achieve the same effect.

You are assessing the pupils of a patient who was struck in the back of the head. You note that his pupils differ in size by slightly less than 1 mm. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented to person, place, time, and event. You should suspect:

Physiologic anisocoria.

What gland lies at the base of the brain and secretes hormones that regulate the function of many other glands in the body?

Pituitary.

Upon encountering an ill patient with a recent travel history, you should:

Place a mask on the patient.

Your patient is a 68-year-old man who has apparently suffered a stroke. He is unable to hold himself in an upright position on the stretcher and has begun to vomit. Which of the following actions would be MOST appropriate?

Place him in the left lateral recumbent position.

You suspect that your​ 64-year-old patient with a history of COPD has sustained a pneumothorax. He tells you that he has pain chest when he breathes deeply. Which of the following treatments would be MOST​ appropriate?

Place the patient in the Fowler's position.

A 32-year-old female complains of acute lower abdominal pain that began approximately 1 week after her menstrual period ended. Her blood pressure is 116/66 mm Hg, heart rate is 96 beats/min, and respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate depth. Further assessment reveals that she is running a fever of 101.6 F. Treatment for this patient should include:

Placing her in a position of comfort, stating an IV line at a KVO rate, and transporting to an appropriate hospital.

White blood cells that develop from B cells and produce large volumes of specific antibodies are called:

Plasma cells.

When collecting potential evidence at the scene of a sexual assault, you should place any items in paper bags, because:

Plastic bags may develop condensation and could destroy evidence.

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called:

Polyphagia.

When managing a semiconscious patient with adequate breathing, you should administer oxygen and:

Position the patient on his or her side and have suction ready.

Compared to the frontal region of the skull, the occiput is:

Posterior.

You arrive on the scene of a seizure patient. In what state will you MOST often encounter the seizure patient?

Postictal phase

A 30-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the neck when he was attacked outside a nightclub. During your assessment, you should be most alert for:

Potential airway compromise.

By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height?

Potential energy is converted into kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.

Your patient is having extreme difficulty breathing and you note bilateral wheezing in all quadrants. She is unable to hold herself upright and has become lethargic. Which of the following should you immediately​ do?

Provide positive pressure ventilation.

A 45-year-old female with type 1 diabetes presents with an altered mental status. Her skin is pale and moist, and her respirations are rapid and shallow. You should:

Provide ventilatory assistance with 100% oxygen.

Which of the following is a function of the trigerminal nerve (Cranial nerve V)?

Provides motor innervation to the muscles of chewing.

A direct relationship between a patient's injury and the AEMT's actions or inactions is called:

Proximate cause.

Which of the following is the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart?

Pulmonary

For which of the following conditions is CPAP MOST likely indicated?

Pulmonary edema

For which of the following conditions is CPAP MOST likely​ indicated?

Pulmonary edema

Which of the following conditions would most likely cause obstructive shock?

Pulmonary embolism.

A 70-year-old male presents with an acute onset of difficulty breathing that woke him from his sleep. He has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and several heart attacks. During your assessment you note dried blood around his mouth. The patient tells you that he cannot lie down because he will "smother." What additional assessment findings will you most likely discover?

Pulmonary rales.

Freshly oxygenated blood is returned to the left atrium via the:

Pulmonary veins.

Within the first 30 minutes after birth, a neonate's:

Pulse rate decreases to approximately 120 beats/min.

Circular opening in the middle of the iris that admits light to the back of the eye

Pupil

The opening in the center of the iris, which allows light to move to the back of the eye, is called the:

Pupil

Pain to palpation of the costovertebral angle is most suggestive of:

Pyelonephritis

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy:

Quadruples.

The most reliable indicator that suggests crystalloid IV fluids have improved perfusion is when the:

Radial pulses become stronger.

During your assessment of an elderly women, you note a shunt on her left forearm. This indicates that she:

Receives hemodialysis treatments.

A burn occurs when the soft tissue of the skin:

Receives more energy than it can absorb without injruy.

In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chef complaint, what else should you inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease?

Recent travel.

While ventilating an apneic 33-year-old man, you note that his stomach is becoming slightly distended. You should:

Recheck and reposition his airway.

Lymphangitis is characterized by:

Red streaks adjacent to the wound.

During times of decreased perfusion, the autonomic nervous system:

Redirects blood to the most vital organs of the body.

You are transporting a patient with an IV of D5W. Which of the following signs would be atypical of inflitration?

Redness around the IV site.

Tranexamic acid (TXA) works by:

Reducing fibrinolysis.

A 68-year-old female with a history of Alzheimer disease complains of acute abdominal pain. As you prepare to start an IV on her, she becomes verbally abusive. You should:

Remain patient and explain the procedure to her.

When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant:

Remains in motion until acted upon by an external force.

When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an air bag that did not deploy upon impact, it is most important to:

Remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you

While starting an IV on a patient, you see bright red blood quickly traveling up the IV tubing. you should:

Remove the catheter and apply direct pressure.

A 29-year-old male with a history of type 1 diabetes presents with excessive urination and marked thirst. These signs indicate that the:

Renal system is excreting excess glucose.

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:

Repeating the primary survey.

You have just established an IV on a critically injured patient. As you prepare to dispose of the needle in the appropriate container, you get stuck with the needle. You should:

Report the incident to your supervisor as soon as possible.

You and your partner respond to the scene of a 49-year-old male with acute abdominal pain. As you enter his residence, you find him lying on the floor in severe pain. He is conscious and alert. The patient appears to weigh in excess of 350 lb. Your first action should be to:

Request additional personnel before making any attempts to lift him.

Arriving at the​ scene, Shayla recognizes the presence of hazardous materials. What should Shayla​ do?

Request specialized resources.

Which of the following would improve safety when working at scenes on and near​ roadways?

Requiring safety personnel to wear reflective clothing.

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide, at the cellular level or in the lungs, is called:

Respiration.

When immobilizing a patient onto a long backboard, it is important to:

Secure the torso prior to securing the head.

Common side effects of inhaled medications used for acute shortness of breath include all of the following, except:

Sedation.

Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with hypoglycemic crisis (insulin shock)?

Seizures

Postpartum eclampsia is characterized by:

Seizures within 24 hours following delivery of a baby.

You response to the residence of a 39-year-old male who, according to his wife, is not acting right. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you assess the patient, you find that he is confused, has a fever, and is agitated. The patient's wife states that he is an alcoholic and stopped drinking 2 days ago. In addition to assessing and managing his airway, you should be most concerned with the potential for:

Seizures.

Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move?

Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock.

Baroreceptors, which are located in the aortic arch and carotid sinuses, help regulate blood pressure by:

Sensing changes in systemic vascular resistance.

Which if the following statements regarding the geriatric patient with an acute abdomen is correct?

Severe abdominal organ dysfunction may present with mild or absent pain.

spinal column injury.

Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT's index of suspicion for a(n):

A hypertensive crisis is considered to be a true emergency when:

Signs of central nervous system dusfunction are prsent.

You are performing a rapid assessment on a 30-year-old male who was involved in a motor-vehicle crash. The patient is conscious, but restless. He complains of difficulty breathing and chest pain. Your assessment reveals diminished breath sounds in the left hemithorax and normal jugular veins. His blood pressure is 124/64 mm Hg, heart rate is 120 and regular, and respirations are 26 breaths/min and shallow. Which of the following injuries should you suspect?

Simple pneumothorax

The normal site of origin of electrical impulses in the heart is the _, which generates _ impulses per minute.

Sinoatrial node, 60 to 100.

A patient who is in a tripod position is:

Sitting and leaning forward on outstretched arms with the head and chin trust slightly forward.

Which of the following describes​ Fowler's position?

Sitting upright at a greater than​ 45-degree angle

Which of the following organs or systems can survive the longest without oxygen?

Skeletal muscles

The germinal layer contains cells that produce pigment granules, which help to produce:

Skin color.

Because the _ is the body's first line of defense, signs of anaphylaxis typically manifest there first.

Skin.

The shape of the Cobra perilaryngeal airway (CobraPLA) allows the device to:

Slide easily along the hard palate and to hold the soft tissue away from the laryngeal inlet.

Which of the following is the most effective method of immobilizing a fractured clavicle?

Sling and swathe

The primary function of the atrioventricular (AV) node is to:

Slow conduction from the atria to the ventricles to allow for ventricular filling.

Which of the following is characteristic of a patient with hyperglycemia?

Slow onset, Kussmaul's respirations and acetone odor on breath.

Which of the following is characteristic of a patient with​ hyperglycemia?

Slow onset, Kussmaul's respirations and acetone odor on breath.

When the parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated, it:

Slows the heart rate by decreasing SA node discharge.

The corpus luteum is a(n):

Small endocrine structure that develops within a ruptured ovarian follicle.

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to care for this child, you must remember that:

Small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times.

The olfactory nerve (Cranial nerve I) is responsible for:

Smell

Which of the following electrolytes is essential for the distribution of water throughout the body?

Sodium.

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) occurs when:

The body's cells metabolize fat as an immediate energy source.

lacrimal glands.

The conjunctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the:

Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is a procedure in which:

The coronoary artery is mechanically cleared via angioplasty.

A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should:

The correct answer is: avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye.

A drug's therapeutic index refers to:

The difference between a therapeutic and lethal dose.

Before you can calculate an IV drip rate, you must know all of the following information, except:

The gauge of the IV catheter you will use.

Which one of the following statements about the circulation of blood is TRUE?

The left atrium sends oxygenated blood into the left ventricle.

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct?

The majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso.

face

The maxilla and zygoma are components of the ________.

A 22-year-old male who was trapped in a confined space during a structural fire, is conscious and alert and refuses EMS treatment and transport. He is breathing without difficulty, but has singed nasal hair and facial redness. Which of the following statements regarding this patient is correct?

The patient may die several hours later due to pulmonary complications.

You have arrived on the scene of a call for a possible stroke. On your arrival, the patient denies signs and symptoms, is alert and oriented, and moves all extremities well. Her husband states that before you arrived the patient could not move her right arm and the left side of her face seemed to be "slack." Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?

The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack.

Which of the following information are you least likely to obtain from the dispatcher while responding to an EMS call?

The patient's past medical history.

You are giving your oral report to the attending physician in the emergency department. Which of the following information about the patient is usually not given at this point?

The patient's physical address.

The focused assessment of a responsive medical patient is guided by:

The patient's reason for calling EMS.

The AEMT should transport any patient with an allergic reaction even if he or she is able to stop the reaction with epinephrine, because:

The patient's symptoms could recur up to 8 hours later.

When cellular perfusion is diminished:

The postcapillary sphincters remain constricted, causing the capillaries to engorge with fluid.

Which of the following occurs during shock (hypoperfusion)?

The removal of metabolic waste products is decreased.

Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct?

The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream.

tragus

The small, rounded, fleshy bulge immediately anterior to the ear canal is called the:

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct?

The speed of a bullet has a greater impact on causing injury than the mass.

Who regulates the standards under which AEMTs provide emergency care?

The state EMS office or agency

A. just anterior to the tragus. Correct

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated:

blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.

The term "hyphema" is defined as:

maxillae.

The upper jawbones are called the:

The Adam's apple is:

The upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.

Vaginal yeast infections develop when:

The vaginal environment becomes less acidic.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the peripheral circulation?

The vessels lay closer to the surface of the body.

You are assessing a patient complaining of shortness of breath. Which of the following medications would indicate the patient has a history of respiratory disease?

Theophylline

When should the AEMT conduct an evaluation of the scene for hazards that can threaten or harm​ him?

Throughout the entire call

Compartment syndrome is caused by:

Tissue compression and damage due to fluid trapped in a confined space.

A potential complication associated with the administration of D50 is:

Tissue necrosis if it extravasates into the soft tissues.

Of the​ following, which is the MOST important information to give to family members regarding transport of the patient to the​ hospital?

To not follow the ambulance to the hospital

When assessing an unresponsive 20-year-old male with a traumatic brain injury, you note that his left pupil is fully dilated and nonreactive. This indicates injury:

To the left cerebral hemisphere.

What might happen if a drug is given to a patient with liver disease?

Toxic blood levels of the drug.

A stoma, located superior to the suprasternal notch, is the resultant orifice following a:

Tracheostomy.

You are called for a patient who passed out with no apparent cause. Bystanders report that she was only out for a few seconds. The patient has a cardiac history and diabetes. The patient reports she was reading at the library and simply fell forward. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause of her syncope?

Transient cardiac dysrhythmia

When energy impacts a body structure it:

Translates into injury.

Which of the following head-injured patients should be ventilated at a rate of 20 breaths/min with a bask-mask device and 100% oxygen?

Unresponsive 21-year-old male with slow, irregular breathing; fixed and dilated pupils, and extensor posturing

Abdominal thrusts in a responsive child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed:

Until he or she becomes unresponsive.

What structures may be affected in a lower urinary tract infection in a female patient?

Urethra and bladder

You arrive at the scene of an overturned semi-trailer truck. There is an odd odor in the air and you can see material leaking from the truck. After ensuring that fire department and law enforcement personnel are notified, you should:

Use binoculars to try and read the placard.

When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:

Using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible.

Which of the following scenarios does not involve an ALS skill?

Using an AED and performing rescue breathing

The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient:

With a deformed humerus.

High-voltage burn injuries occur most frequently in:

Utility workers.

You are caring for a young female who experienced blunt head trauma and is unresponsive. You have inserted a King LT airway and are ventilating her because she has signs of brain herniation. In doing this, you should:

Utilize capnography and ensure that her end-tidal CO2 does not fall below 30 mm Hg.

The _ is the outermost cavity of a woman's reproductive system and forms the lower portion of the birth canal.

Vagina.

What physiologic response may occur when a head-injured patient is hyperventilated with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen?

Vasoconstriction and decreased cerebral perfusion

In response to shock or stress, sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes:

Vasoconstriction.

What physiologic response would be expected to occur if a patient's systolic blood pressure dropped below 80 mm Hg?

Vasomotor stimulation with resultant arterial vasoconstriction.

A stable patient requires an IV line in the vent that medication therapy is needed. When selecting the appropriate vein, you should first attempt to cannulate the:

Vein on the hand.

If used in pediatric patients, butterfly catheters are commonly placed in the:

Veins of the scalp.

Blood enters the right atrium through the:

Vena cavae and coronary sinus.

You are dispatched to a construction site, where a 30-year-old male fell approximately 30 feet and landed on his head. He is unresponsive, has irregular respirations of 39 breaths/min, and exhibits decerebrate posturing. Further assessment reveals that his pupils are fixed and dilated and his blood pressure is 190/120 mm Hg. In additional to spinal immobilization, the most appropriate treatment for this patient includes:

Ventialation at a rate of 20 breaths/min with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen, follow by insertion of an advanced airway device.

The process of moving air into and out of the lungs in called:

Ventilation.

A 40-year-old patient has sustained circumferential burns to the chest. The most serious complication associated with this type of burn injury is:

Ventilatory insufficiency.

Which of the following cardiac rhythms or conditions requires defibrillation?

Ventricular tachycardia without a pulse.

The most common cardiac dysrhythmia associated with sudden cardiac death following an acute myocardial infarction is:

Ventricular tachycardia.

The prefix angio- refers to:

Vessels

Which cranial nerve is responsible for constriction of the pupil and accommodation of the lens?

Vestibulocochlear

Which cranial nerve passes through the internal auditory meatus and provides the sense of hearing and balance?

Vestibulocochlear.

Which of the following may result in hypoglycemia in the diabetic​ patient?

Vigorous exercise

While assessing a patient with an apparent behavioral crisis, he tells you that he sees a pink elephant in the corner of the room. This is an example of a(n):

Visual hallucination.

Which of the following statements regarding scorpion stings is correct?

With the exception of one particular species of scorpion, most scorpion stings cause severe pain and swelling, but are not dangerous.

It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost.

Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct?

When ventilating an apneic adult with a simple barrier device, you should deliver each breath:

While watching for adequate chest rise.

Which of the following is not a crystalloid?

Whole blood.

A 21-year-old male has lost approximately 35% of his blood volume following a penetrating injury to the chest. Which of the following signs or symptoms would you not expect to see?

Widened pulse pressure

Which of the following injuries or conditions would be least likely to result in hypovolemic shock?

Widespread vasodilation.

Index of suspicion is most accurately defined as:

Your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.

The index of suspicion is mot accurately defined as:

Your concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.

If a patient is experiencing nausea and vomiting, what medication might the EMT provide to try and relieve these symptoms?

Zofran

Which of the following patients shows signs of inadequate perfusion?

a 52 year old woman with congestive heart failure who is very lethargic

A fracture involving the nasal bone and inferior maxilla, which separates the nasal bone and lower maxilla from the facial skull and remainder of the cranial bones describes:

a Le Fort II fracture.

The cardiovascular system consists of all of the follow Except:

a battery

While stacking wood on a woodpile, a 60-year-old male experienced immediate, severe pain on the back of his hand. He complains of abdominal pain, nausea, and dizziness. Your assessment reveals that he is conscious and alert, but has an extremely rigid abdomen. You should suspect:

a black widow spider bite.

When treating a patient with signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock and no outward signs of bleeding, always consider the possibility of bleeding into the:

abdomen

The most common symptom to internal abdominal bleeding is:

acute abdominal pain

The EMT understands the ECG when he makes which of these statements about the waveform?

an ecg represent the electrical activity of the heart

Shortly after returning to the surface of the water, a scuba diver experiences an acute onset of pleuritic chest pain and difficulty breathing. He is tachycardic and his pulse is irregular. You should suspect:

air embolism.

life-threatening external bleeding demands your immediate attention, even before __________ has been manage.

airway

The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is:

airway compromise.

What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?

allows movement of the head

When driving to a scene of an​ emergency, the ambulance driver​ should:

always pass cars on the left.

A patient has severe bleeding from a large laceration to the anterior forearm. Direct pressure is not immediately effective in controlling the bleeding. You should:

apply a tourniquet above the level of the bleeding.

After being dispatched for a male patient experiencing dyspnea, you arrive to find the confused 67-year-old man sitting upright at his kitchen table in severe respiratory distress. You also note remarkable swelling to his lower legs and feet. He has an open airway, but cannot speak more than two to three words without attempting to breathe. His breathing is extremely labored, with inspiratory crackles heard upon auscultation. His skin is cool, diaphoretic, and dusky in color. A family member at the scene reports a history of hypertension, congestive heart failure, and angina, for which the patient takes nitroglycerin. The baseline vital signs are acceptable and the room-air pulse oximeter reading is 45%. What is your immediate action in caring for this patient

apply continuous positive airway pressure ( cpap)

You are assessing a 68-year-old woman with shortness of breath. Your assessment reveals crackles in all quadrants of the lungs as well as some swelling of the ankles. As you take her vital signs you see that she is becoming anxious and her breathing is becoming more shallow. Which of the following should you do?

apply continuous postive airway pressure cpap

You are dispatched to a convenience store, where the clerk sustained a laceration to the side of his neck during a robbery attempt. During your assessment, you note bright red blood spurting from the laceration. You should:

apply direct pressure above and below the wound.

A young female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She complains of pain to her left eye, which appears to have a piece of glass impaled in it. Further assessment reveals a large laceration to her left forearm with active venous bleeding. As your partner manually stabilizes the patient's head, you should:

apply direct pressure to her arm wound.

A young female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She complains of pain to her left eye, which appears to have a piece of glass impaled in it. Further assessment reveals a large laceration to her left forearm with heavy bleeding. As your partner manually stabilizes the patient's head, you should:

apply direct pressure to her arm wound.

A young female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She complains of pain to her left eye, which appears to have a shard of glass impaled in it. Further assessment reveals a large laceration to her left forearm with heavy bleeding. As your partner manually stabilizes the patient's head, you should:

apply direct pressure to her arm wound.

A 29-year-old male was involved in a rollover motor-vehicle crash. The patient was removed from his vehicle prior to your arrival. During your general impression, you note that he is conscious, yelling in pain, and has an actively bleeding open fracture of his left leg. As your partner assumes manual stabilization of the patient's head and communicates with him, you should:

apply direct pressure to his leg.

During your initial attempt to control severe external bleeding from an extremity, you should:

apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing.

A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. You should:

apply supplemental oxygen, immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport.

On scene, you are treating a 62-year-old female patient with chest pain, diaphoresis, and nausea. She has a history of heart problems as well as diabetes, for which she takes medications. She is allergic to penicillin and iodine. She is alert, oriented, and calm, and there are no threats to the airway, breathing, or circulation. The patient took 81 mg of aspirin this morning, as she always does. Her vital signs are pulse, 100; respirations, 16 breaths/min; blood pressure, 118/90 mmHg; and SpO2, 97% on room air. In overseeing the care of this patient, which of these actions would demand immediate and corrective intervention?

applying oxygen through a nasal cannula

Significant vital signs changes, including increased heart and respiratory rates and a decreasing blood pressure, would likely occur if an 80-kg adult patient acutely loses as little ____ L of blood.

as 1

A 40-year-old female is semiconscious following blunt head trauma. Your assessment reveals that her respirations are slow and shallow, her pulse is slow, and her blood pressure is elevated. Her pupils are bilaterally dilated and sluggishly reactive. Appropriate management for this patient includes:

assisted ventilation at a rate of 10 breaths/min.

Urinary tract infections (UTI) occur secondary to:

bacterial invasion of the genitourinary system.

When rapidly cooling a semiconscious patient with heatstroke, you must stop the cooling process if the patient:

begins to shiver.

One of the leading factors in making mistakes is:

being overconfident about your skills

It is characteristic of carbon monoxide​ to:

be​ colorless, odorless, and tasteless.

______ are small tubes that are about the same diameter as a single red blood cell.

capillaries

A kidney stone is called a renal:

calculus

The _________ link(s) the arterioles and the venules.

capillaries

Listening carefully to make sure you get the patient's history correct, adhering to proper procedures, and taking appropriate safety precautions when caring for patients, are examples of:

careful delivery of service

A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should:

carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline.

Type 2 diabetes occurs when there is both a decrease in the amount of insulin produced and a decrease​ in:

cellular response to insulin.

A 19-year-old male was struck by a baseball in the occipital region of the skull. Witnesses report that the patient was briefly unconscious following the incident. He is now conscious and alert but cannot remember the events immediately following the injury. He is breathing without difficulty and his vital signs are stable. This patient's clinical presentation is most consistent with a(n):

cerebral concussion.

Blood contains all of the following Except:

cerebrospinal fluid

The largest portion of the brain, which controls a wide variety of functions, is the:

cerebrum.

A series of one-sided headaches that are sudden and intense and that may continue for 15 minutes to four hours is referred to as:

cluster headaches.

The process of blood clotting and plugging the hole is called:

coagulation

An organ or tissue that is considerably _________ is much better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion.

colder

When interacting with other health care providers, it is important that you:

communicate respectfully

The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the:

conjunctiva.

A 30-year-old female presents with redness, inflammation, and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing:

conjunctivitis.

A mother has called 911 because her 6-year-old son told her he had chest pain. On scene, the mother informs you that her son suffers from a congenital heart defect called aortic coarctation. The boy admits to chest pain and appears distressed. His airway is patent, breathing adequate, and radial pulse present and regular. Vital signs are pulse, 108; respirations, 24 breaths/min; blood pressure, 148/92 mmHg; and SpO2, 98%. Your next action would be to:

contact medical command for advice

Priority management for a patient with an amputated penis and stable vital signs includes:

controlling any active hemorrhage.

Appropriate management of a patient with an abdominal evisceration includes:

covering the exposed organs with a moist, sterile dressing and securing the dressing in place with a dry, sterile dressing.

You are assessing a patient in heart failure. Which sign or symptom seemingly indicates that the left ventricle is the cause of the heart failure?

crackles in the bases of both lungs

Following blunt force trauma to the lower arm, a 40-year-old female complains of severe pain and the feeling that her elbow is "locked." Your assessment reveals marked deformity and swelling of the elbow. This patient has most likely experienced a(n):

dislocation.

A 38-year-old male committed suicide by hanging himself. This mechanism of injury most likely resulted in:

distraction of the upper cervical spine.

Certification:

does not give legal permission to practice

Before you can render care to a patient, you MUST:

ensure your emergency vehicle is in good working order

A fracture that occurs in the growth section of a child's bone, which may lead to bone growth abnormalities, is called a(n) _______ fracture.

epiphyseal

When caring for a patient suffering from a nervous system condition or disease, the FIRST priority in patient care is to:

establish and maintain a patent airway.

Effective teamwork depends upon:

good communication skills

The eyeball itself is called the:

globe.

The eyeball itself is referred to as the:

globe.

Under​ stress, cortisol from the adrenal glands stimulates an increase in​ ________, and thus an increase in​ BGL, to provide energy.

glucagon

An unconscious patient is hypoglycemic and has no suitable intravenous site. What do you administer to this patient and by which​ route?

glucagon IM

The management of medical and trauma emergencies in diabetic patients is complicated by​ impaired:

glucose homeostasis.

You are treating a 48-year-old man who has fallen off a ladder. He is complaining of pain to his right elbow and right ankle. His vital signs are blood pressure 110/74, pulse 48, respirations 18, and blood sugar 88 mg/dL. How should you manage his bradycardia?

he is asymptomatic therefore supportive treatment is indicated

An 82-year-old man experienced a minor facial injury when he tripped and fell. He is conscious and alert and complains of slight pain to his cheekbones. His medical history includes hypertension, blood clots in his legs, hypothyroidism, and type 2 diabetes. During your assessment, it is important to remember that:

he is at an increased risk for severe posterior epistaxis.

The cervical spine is most protected from whiplash-type injuries when the:

headrest is appropriately positioned.

All organs depend on the ______ to provide a rich blood supply.

heart

The primary control or automaticity of the heart rate originates in the:

heart

Following a traumatic brain injury, a patient presents with Cushing's triad, which consists of:

hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations.

The condition in which there is an insufficient amount of sugar in the blood is​ called:

hypoglycemia.

The trauma triad of death includes:

hypothermia, coagulopathy, and acidosis.

_____________ shock is a condition in which low blood volume results in inadequate perfusion or even death.

hypovolemic

Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the AEMT to:

identify contact points and predict potential injuries.

Commotio cordis is a condition in which:

immediate cardiac arrest occurs when the chest is impacted during the heart's repolarization period.

Severe, persistent pain caused by a jellyfish sting should be treated by:

immersing the affected area in hot water for 30 minutes.

A 58-year-old woman fell and landed face-first on a concrete sidewalk. She is conscious, but confused. Her skin is pale, cool, and clammy; her radial pulses are weak and rapid; and her blood pressure is 72/54 mm Hg. Further assessment reveals crepitus to her left cheekbone. After administering high-flow oxygen, you should:

immobilize her entire spine, establish at least one large-bore IV line, and give a 20-mL/kg crystalloid bolus.

In the process of applying a splint on a 21-year-old female with an apparent dislocated patella, the patella spontaneously returns to its normal position. You should:

immobilize her knee with board splints.

A young male has experienced a possible neck injury. When you attempt to place his head in a neutral in-line position, he complains of a severe spasm in his neck. You should:

immobilize him in the position in which you found him.

When assessing a 14-year-old male with an injured arm, you note gross deformity just distal to the elbow. Distal neurovascular functions are grossly intact. You should:

immobilize the injury with a sling and swathe.

The major difference between stable and unstable angina is that unstable angina:

is generally not relieved by rest.

The cricoid cartilage:

is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea.

You are transporting a patient who had an episode of chest pain. On scene, you assisted him in taking his nitroglycerin medication, which completely alleviated the chest pain. En route to the hospital, the patient asks you why the nitroglycerin took the chest pain away. Beyond telling the patient that nitroglycerin can increase coronary artery blood flow, you would add:

it dilates the blood vessels which decreases the workload on the heart

When a light is shone into the pupil:

it should become smaller in size.

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated:

just anterior to the tragus.

During a football game, a 16-year-old male was "speared" in the right flank by another player. This mechanism of injury is most suggestive of injury to the:

kidney.

The energy contained in a moving object is called:

kinetic energy

Which of the following is Not a cause of no traumatic internal bleeding.

laceration

The conjunctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the:

lacrimal gland.

The conjunctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the:

lacrimal glands.

All of the following are considered Allied Health Professionals EXCEPT: A) respiratory therapists. B) paramedics. C) physical therapists. D) nurses.

nurses

You have been called to an office building for a 47-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. He is alert, oriented, and complaining of mild pain in his chest that came on suddenly about 15 minutes ago. Airway, breathing, and circulation are intact, and his skin is diaphoretic and cool. What should you do first

obtain a heart rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure and spO2 reading

During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with a severe head injury, you note that her left pupil is dilated and unreactive to light. This suggests pressure on the:

oculomotor nerve.

Facial injuries must be identified and treated as soon as possible because:

of the risk for airway problems.

Facial injuries should be identified and treated as soon as possible because:

of the risk for airway problems.

__________ are the key to formation of blood clots.

platelets

The patient with type 2 diabetes is MOST likely to control the condition​ with:

oral antihyperglycemic agents.

Your patient is a​ 28-year-old man who is found​ unconscious, breathing deeply and rapidly with a​ weak, rapid pulse. The​ patient's skin is warm with dry mucous membranes and you note a fruity odor to the breath. Treatment for this patient would​ EXCLUDE:

oral glucose.

The basis of the excessive urination characteristic of untreated diabetes is​ called:

osmotic diuresis.

The patient in a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state is at risk for dehydration due​ to:

osmotic diuresis.

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that:

osteoporosis can cause a fracture that may have resulted in the fall.

A 44-year-old male sustained a laceration to his left ear during a minor car accident. Your assessment reveals minimal bleeding. Appropriate care for this injury includes:

padding between the ear and the scalp.

A patient with acute peritonitis may present with rapid, shallow breathing resulting from:

pain.

When applying a bandage to hold a dressing in place, stretch the bandage tight enough to control the bleeding. You should still be able to ________ after the bandage is secure.

palpate a distal pulse

A term referring to the number of successful live births the patient has had is:

para.

______ is the circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs for oxygen, nutrients, and waste removal.

perfusion

A trauma patient who presents with shock, jugular venous distention, and bilaterally equal breath sounds has most likely experienced a:

pericardial tamponade.

The presence of gastric juices and bacteria in the abdominal cavity causes an intense inflammatory reaction called:

peritonitis.

In the blood, which component is largely responsible for the formation of blood clots?

platelets

Often EMRs are:

police officers

During an explosion, a metal worker sustained a large laceration to the left side of his neck by flying debris. He is conscious, but restless; the wound is moderately bleeding. Appropriate care for this patient's injury includes:

preventing air from entering the wound and applying a pressure dressing.

When an AEMT is driving an ambulance using lights and​ sirens, most states DO NOT permit the AEMT​ to:

proceed through a red light without stopping.

In addition to providing the framework for the human body, bones also:

produce blood cells in the marrow.

When responding to a roadway​ scene, you should always position the ambulance so​ that:

providers do not have to cross traffic

A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is:

rapidly transporting her to the hospital.

A burn occurs when the soft tissue of the skin:

receives more energy than it can absorb without injury

During times of decreased perfusion, the autonomic nervous system:

redirects blood to the most vital organs of the body.

If blood glucose exceeds 180 mg/dL, the kidneys will:

release excess glucose in the urine.

During your rapid assessment of a patient with a gunshot wound to the chest, you located an open wound to the right anterior chest and sealed it with the appropriate dressing. A few minutes later, the patient's respirations are increasingly labored and his heart rate has significantly increased. You should:

relieve pleural tension by lifting a corner of the dressing.

If bleeding continues after applying a pressure dressing, you should do all of the following Except:

remove the dressing and apply another sterile dressing

Chest trauma is a common cause of respiratory acidosis and rapidly leads to death because the:

renal system cannot compensate quickly enough.

Addressing your patient as Mrs. Smith rather than "Sweetie" is an example of:

respect

Regardless of the cause, hyperventilation may cause:

respiratory alkalosis.

The term automaticity refers to a cell's capability of:

responding to electrical stimuli

An appropriately sized cervical collar should:

rest on the shoulder and provide support under the mandible

In addition to causing local tissue destruction, the venom from a pit viper also causes:

spontaneous bleeding due to interference with the blood-clotting mechanisms.

An injury that may result in complete separation of a joint due to stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments is called a:

sprain.

A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is most important for you to:

stabilize her entire spine.

You arrive at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash in which a 30-year-old male was ejected from his truck. The patient, who is unconscious, not moving, you can see that he has gross deformity to both of his femurs and an angulated left humerus. You should:

stabilize his head and open his airway.

In addition to providing 100% oxygen and controlling external bleeding, the most appropriate management for a patient with a knife impaled in the abdomen includes:

stabilizing the knife in place and infusing crystalloids to maintain adequate perfusion.

Your crew arrives at a home for a medical call. As you begin to exit the​ ambulance, a large dog charges​ you, barking and showing his teeth. You​ should:

stay in the ambulance and call dispatch for additional resources

Frequent reassessments of patients with face or neck injuries are most important because:

such injuries can affect the respiratory system.

Frequent reassessments of the patient with face or neck injuries are MOST important because:

such injuries can affect the respiratory system.

A patient is very dizzy and has an altered mental status. Vital signs are pulse, 84; respirations, 16 breaths/min; blood pressure, 74/32 mmHg; and SpO2, 93%. Medical direction has ordered the paramedic to start an IV infusion of a medication that causes blood vessel constriction. You would recognize that the medication is benefiting the patient when you observe:

the blood pressure increase to 110/64 mmHg

Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because:

the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body.

Any injury at the nipple line should be considered a thoracic and abdominal injury because:

the diaphragm may elevate as high as the nipple line upon exhalation.

You are by the side of a patient who complains of severe chest pain that radiates into his right arm and neck. He is alert and oriented, with an open airway and adequate breathing. His radial pulse is strong, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. Your partner reports his pulse rate is 84, respirations are 18 breaths/min, blood pressure is 86/62 mmHg, and SpO2 is 98% on room air. You have obtained a medical history and performed the secondary assessment. The patient states that he has had two heart attacks in the past and is allergic to aspirin and sulfa medications. What should you do next?

transfer him to the stretcher and transport

A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should:

transport her to the emergency department.

A 22-year-old male with blunt thoracic trauma presents with severely labored respirations. His level of consciousness is decreased, and his heart rate is 140 beats/min and thready. Further assessment reveals absent breath sounds on the entire left side of his chest and jugular venous distention. After appropriately managing his airway and immobilizing his spine, you should:

transport immediately, start a large-bore IV en route, and request a paramedic rendezvous.

A 54-year-old male impacted the steering wheel with his chest when his truck struck another vehicle head-on. He complains of retrosternal chest pain, dysphagia, and dyspnea. Although his blood pressure is 160/90, his femoral pulses are weakly palpable. You should suspect:

traumatic aortic disruption.

Blood enters the right atrium from the:

vena cava

You are dispatched to a construction site, where a 30-year-old male fell approximately 30 feet and landed on his head. He is unresponsive, has irregular respirations of 38 breaths/min, and exhibits decerebrate posturing. Further assessment reveals that his pupils are fixed and dilated and his blood pressure is 190/120 mm Hg. In addition to spinal immobilization, the most appropriate treatment for this patient includes:

ventilation at a rate of 20 breaths/min with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen, followed by insertion of an advanced airway device.

On an ECG, the QRS represents:

ventriclar depolariztion

Failure to promptly treat ventricular tachycardia can result in myocardial cell hypoxia and ischemia, which then contributes to the rhythm deteriorating to:

ventricular fibrillation

You have an obese patient who cannot walk and must be carried down several flights of stairs. You are worried that you are not strong enough but you know your partner is very strong. Which of the following statements indicates the BEST way to safely move this patient without risking injury to you or your​ partner?

​"We will have to call for assistance to move him from his​ house."

An AEMT shows that she understands the concept of driving with due regard when she​ states:

​"When proceeding through a red​ light, I always stop until all traffic has yielded the right of​ way."

A patient has fallen in his upstairs bathroom and is on the floor when you arrive. Your assessment shows no immediate threat to his​ airway, breathing or circulatory​ status, however, he does have deformity and bruising to his left hip. He complains of excruciating pain to the same area. In this​ situation, you should recognize the need for what category of​ move?

​Non-urgent

When assessing a​ patient, what symptom might be present to help determine that the patient has​ Cushing's syndrome versus​ Addison's disease?

​​"Moon face" appearance

Which of the following are common complications of​ diabetes?

​​Blindness, peripheral​ neuropathy, and kidney failure

Which of the following blood glucose reading would you MOST likely see in patient with nonketotic hyperosmolar coma?

≥ 1,000 mg/dL