AH 2 questions
The physician prescribes your patient to have a 1000mL NSS IV bag to infuse over 10 hours. How many mL/hr would you set the infusion pump? ______mL/hr
100
13. The prescription reads "levothyroxine 0.1 mg PO every morning." You have on hand levothyroxine 50 mcg per tablet. How many tablets would you administer? _______ tablet(s) 2
2
26. phenytoin 12mg/kg/day is prescribed to be given in 3 divided doses. The patient weighs 143 lbs. The medication arrives on the unit and you notice the strength is 50mg/4mL. How many mLs would be administered per dose? _______________mL 20.8
20.8
45. Your patient receives a prescription of esomeprazole 100 mg in 100mL of D5W to be administered over 30 minutes. Calculate the mL/hr. _______________mL/hr
200
39. The recommended dose of liquid amoxicillin is 20 - 40 mg/kg/day in four divided doses. The child weighs 32.7 kg. Calculate the maximum dose. _______mg
327
12. A patient is admitted with an infected leg and the nurse notes an increase in his WBC count. The nurse is aware that WBCs will be transported to the area of injury by chemical mediators. What is this process known as? A. Chemotaxis B. Phagocytosis C. Apoptosis D. Ataxic response
A
38. Which of the following food items act as lubricants for the person with stomatitis? A. Butter, Cheese Sauce, Vegetable Bullion and Mashed Potatoes with Gravy B. Vegetable Soup, Lasagna, and Mashed Potatoes with Butter C. Cream of Mushroom Soup, Spaghetti with Tomato Sauce and Biscuits D. Macaroni and Cheese, Stewed Tomatoes and Applesauce
A
42. The school health nurse is presenting a health promotion class to a group of high-school students. Which is the best primary preventative strategy to address related to the leading cause of cancer deaths in both genders? A. Smoking cessation B. Monthly self-breast and self-testicular exams C. Annual colonoscopies D. Proper diet ad adequate exercise
A
44. An ER nurse has provided care for many patients who have primary and secondary diagnoses of immune dysfunction. Which of the following patients likely has the highest risk of a disruption to normal immune functioning? A. A man who has recently completed chemotherapy for his bladder cancer B. A woman who presented for care because of a chief complaint of objective vertigo C. A child who has just been treated for a open, compound fracture of her radius D. A woman who was motivated to come to the ER due to a severe migraine
A
What test is used to monitor the effectiveness of treating HIV with HAART? A. Viral load B. C-reactive protein C. CD4:CD8 ratio D. CD4 counts
A
What type of disease is affected by the Type III or Immune-Complex Hypersensitivity? A. Rheumatoid Arthritis B. Gout C. Scleroderma D. Myasthenia Gravis
A
. Which of the following immunoglobulins is responsible for allergic reactions and eradicating parasitic infections? A. IgM B. IgE C. IgA D. IgG
B
11. A male patient has come into the free clinic asking to be tested for HIV infection. The patient asks the nurse how the test works. The nurse responds that if the testing shows antibodies to the AIDS virus are present, this indicates the patient: A. Has developed immunity to the disease B. Has been infected with HIV C. May have unprotected sex since they are not contagious D. Has active acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
B
34. What is the oncologic manifestation that is associated with the human herpes virus 8 and exhibits as localized brownish-pink to deep-purple cutaneous lesions and can also involve the epithelial layer of blood and lymph vessels? A. Candidiasis B. Kaposi's Sarcoma C. Cytomegalovirus D. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
B
The nurse is performing the initial assessment of a patient who has been diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). What skin manifestation would the nurse expect to find on this patient? A. Petechiae B. Malar Rash C. Swan Neck Deformities D. Bouchards Nodes
B
10. A patient has recently been diagnosed in the early stages of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). What medication classification would the nurse expect to be ordered for this patient? A. Antiviral agents B. Uricosuric agents C. NSAIDs D. Antibacterial agents
C
Your patient has been complaining of nausea and vomiting which has led to anorexia due to the treatment of her cancer. In order to increase her caloric intake at meals, the nurse should suggest: A. Offering a variety of nutrient-dense supplements between meals. B. Allowing adequate time between meals to become hungry. C. Limiting high-fat foods to promote gastric emptying. D. Providing adequate fluid intake during meals to prevent dehydration
C
23. During a mumps outbreak at a local school, a teacher is exposed. She had been previously immunized for mumps. What type of immunity does she possess? A. Humoral immunity B. Phagocytic Immunity C. Passive acquired immunity D. Active Acquired Immunity
D
37. A nurse on a medical unit is providing care for a patient who has been admitted because of the simultaneous development of several complications of AIDS. For the past several days, the patient has been experiencing six to eight watery bowel movements each day. The nurse should consequently assess the patient's: A. Oral mucous membranes B. White blood cell count C. Abdominal girth D. Electrolyte levels
D
A 48-year-old patient has had multiple sclerosis for 15 years and she is receiving interferon injections. What is the purpose of these injections? A. Give rise to numerous cell types able to form tissues in three germ layers B. Release proteins, prostaglandins, leukotrienes and other inflammatory mediators C. Complement receptors in order to play an important role in the clearance of antigens D. Modify the immune response by suppressing antibody production and cellular immunity
D
The patient has been told by his oncologist that his tumor has developed the growth of new blood vessels to enhance his ability to survive and multiply. This tumor activity is referred to as what term and occurs in what phase of carcinogenesis? A. Proliferation; Promotion Phase B. Apoptosis; Metastatic Phase C. Differentiation; Initiation Phase D. Angiogenesis; Progression Phase
D
18. In addition to cooking beef or pork in the oven using glassware, which of the following would also be effective in minimizing the metallic taste that chemotherapeutic drugs can cause? A. Using plastic utensils B. Bake the meat instead of broiling C. Offer small, frequent meals D. Make sure meat is served warm to hot
A
9. The clinic nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with fibromyalgia. When developing a care plan for this patient, what would be a priority nursing diagnosis for this patient? A. Fatigue B. Constipation C. Altered nutrition D. Impaired skin integrity
A
Following an extensive diagnostic workup, a 40-year-old woman's complaints of fatigue and muscle pain have been attributed to systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). When performing health education with this patient, what should the nurse emphasize? A. "It is important to limit your exposure to sunlight and to use a good sunscreen." B. "It is best to keep your activity level as low as possible, to preserve energy and promote healing." C. "You will need to be very conscientious with your diet and avoid fats, salt and sugar." D. "Many patients who are diagnosed in mid-life recover from SLE in a few years."
A
Which of the following cells is histamine mainly released? A. Lymphocytes B. Mast cells C. Neutrophils D. Macrophages
B
25. A patient in the intensive care unit (ICU) has a diagnosis of immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and has been treated with an infusion of intravenous immunoglobulin G (IVIG). The therapeutic effects of IVIG are an example of: A. Passive innate immunity B. Active innate immunity C. Passive acquired immunity D. Active acquired immunity
C
31. A patient with a diagnosis of late-stage bladder cancer has experienced a steady decline in his platelet counts which are currently 18,000. Which of the following nursing interventions best accommodates the health risks associated with this laboratory finding? A. Encouraging the patient to eat as many protein sources as possible and providing multivitamins B. Organizing the patient's activities to allow for frequent rest periods C. Encourage the patient to use toothbrushes with soft bristles and provide daily stool softeners D. Reminding the patient of the importance of diligent hand washing and the need to avoid common areas that are high risk for infection
C
14. The nurse is caring for a 69-year-old patient with a history of osteoarthritis (OA) who has just been admitted to the medical unit. The patient asks the nurse what the difference is between OA and RA. What is the best response by the nurse? A. "OA and RA are very similar. OA affects the smaller joints and RA affects the larger, weight-bearing joints." B. "OA affects joints on both sides of the body and RA is usually unilateral." C. "OA is more common in women and RA is more commonly seen in men." D. "OA is considered a noninflammatory joint disease and RA is characterized by inflamed, swollen joints."
D
15. A 33-year-old man with AIDS is being treated for cytomegalovirus retinitis and has been prescribed foscarnet. The nurse who is participating in this patient's care should recognize that this treatment necessitates which of the following assessments? A. Close monitoring of the patient's CBC with differential B. Daily assessment of the patient's orientation and cognition C. Urinary output and monitoring serum Creatinine D. Auscultating patient's apical pulse rate before and after administration
D
40. Which of the following interventions can be used in patients with stomatitis to enhance dietary intake? ("select all that apply") A. Use of prescribed oral anesthetics before meals B. Change the texture of the food from solid to soft C. Promote use of mouthwash before and after meals D. Encouraging eating cold foods for a numbing effect E. Use of straws to bypass the painful ulcerations
A,B,D,E
16. A clinic nurse is caring for a patient with suspected gout. While explaining the pathophysiology of gout to the patient, the nurse would include which of the following as a causative agent? A. Hyperuricemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypocalcemia D. Hypernatremia
A
A patient is being tested for HIV using Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA). The EIA shows antibodies. The nurse expects the healthcare provider to order what test to confirm the EIA test results? A. Western Blot B. ESR C. Viral Load D. Homocyseine
A
28. A patient with a recent diagnosis of an autoimmune disease has expressed to the nurse that he is motivated to learn as much as possible about his disease. The patient has heard there are a variety of T-cells, but is unclear of their roles in the immune response. Which roles related to T-cells should the nurse discuss with the patient? ("select all that apply") A. Suppresses B-cell production B. Causes lysis in viral infected cells C. Directly kills the foreign pathogen or malignant cell D. Produces antibodies to destroy antigens E. Assists in stimulating the immune response
A,B,C,E
8. Your patient has a diagnosis of small cell carcinoma of the lung. You notice that he is frequently complaining of thirst, is irritable and states he has been experiencing a headache for the past 2 days. What lab results will you expect to observe? A. Hypernatremia and Decreased Urine Sodium Levels B. Hyponatremia and Increased Urine Sodium Levels C. Hypocalcemia and Hyperphosphatemia D. Hyperkalemia and Hypomagnesemia
B
A 62-year-old male patient has been prescribed allopurinol for the treatment of gout. When providing health education to this patient about his new medication, the nurse should know that this drug achieves a therapeutic effect by: A. Increasing renal excretion of uric acid. B. Interrupting the breakdown of purines. C. Buffering the presence of uric acid in joints. D. Inhibiting the inflammatory process.
B
17. A 58-year-old woman was diagnosed with osteoarthritis (OA) by her primary care provider several months ago. She claims that she is achieving acceptable control of her symptoms by taking acetaminophen several times per day. The nurse should perform further assessment to ensure that the patient is doing which of the following? A. Not exceeding 2000mg/day B. Having her liver enzymes checked daily C. Drinking sufficient amounts (2L per day )of fluid D. Taking her acetaminophen with food
C
Which of the following immunoglobulins is the first antibody to be produced by the developing fetus? A. IgG B. IgE C. IgM D. IgA
C
20. 16-year-old female patient experiences alopecia from her chemotherapy, prompting the nursing diagnosis of disturbed body image and situational low self-esteem. What action by the patient would best indicate that she is meeting the goal of improved body image and self-esteem? The patient: A. Cries openly when discussing her disease. B. Reports less disruption from pain and discomfort. C. Begins to discuss the future with her family. D. Requests that her family bring her makeup and a wig
D
21. At an office party, one of the executives ate a piece of cake that he was unaware had been made with peanut oil. He begins wheezing, with an inspiratory stridor and is using his accessory muscle to help him with his breathing. The occupational nurse is called to come see this executive. She recognizes he is suffering from which type of hypersensitivity? A. Anaphylactic (Type I) B. Delayed Type (Type IV) C. Immune Complex (Type III) D. Cytoxic (Type II)
A
29. A computed tomography (CT) scan has detected a "spot" on a patient's liver and a subsequent liver biopsy has revealed cancer and been admitted for staging and grading. The patient asks you the purpose of staging. How could you best respond to this patient's question? "The main purpose of staging is to determine: A. How large and extensive the tumor is to help guide the treatment." B. How closely it resembles cells of healthy ones." C. The site where your cancer most likely originated." D. The classification of a tumor according to the type of tissue."
A
3. You are a nurse who works in a public health setting. As such, you participate in many health promotion activities that are ultimately aimed at reducing the high incidence and prevalence of cancer in American society. Which of the following activities is an example of secondary prevention? A. Teaching older adults why and hot to perform fecal occult blood tests B. Encouraging patients to apply sunscreen to their young children when outdoors C. Educating middle school students about the important of wearing bike helmets D. Teaching workers at a factory about possible carcinogens in their workplace
A
32. The nurse is preparing a patient with a suspected latex allergy for intradermal skin testing. Which of the following precautionary steps is most important for the nurse to follow? A. Emergency equipment must be readily available in case of anaphylaxis B. Scratch tests are performed after the intradermal injections C. Test should be performed during bronchospasm for more effective results D. The use of the upper thigh and chest are the preferred sites to permit multiple tests
A
An adult patient with a recent diagnosis of HIV is soon to begin highly active antiretroviral treatment (HAART). When performing health education related to the patient's new medication regimen, the nurse should prioritize interventions relevant to which of the following nursing diagnoses? A. Ineffective Adherence B. Risk for Caregiver Role Strain C. Delayed Growth and Development D. Social Isolation
A
7. Your patient has recently been diagnosed with a benign tumor in her left breast. She asks you the difference between benign and malignant neoplasms. You will be correct if you tell her that benign neoplasms have which of the following characteristics? ("select all that apply") A. Well-Differentiated B. Slow Growing C. Tumor cells gain access to blood and lymph to form secondary tumors D. Grow without invading other tissues E. Cluster together and are often encapsulated
A,B,D,E
35. You are conducting a class presentation as part of your course requirements and you have been given the assignment of discussing the difference between natural and acquired immunity. Which statements will you include in your presentation that relates to natural immunity? ("select all that apply") A. Provides protection to a disease one has never been exposed B. Maintains a broad spectrum of defense C. Not as rapid as acquired immunity D. Involves cell-mediated immunity and effector mechanisms E. The basis is the ability to distinguish between "self" vs. "nonself"
A,B,E
5. Which of the following are characteristic of osteoarthritis? ("Select all that apply") A. Ankylosis B. Swan neck deformity C. Morning stiffness that usually resolves in 10-30 mins D. Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes
A,C,D
19. A female patient with a diagnosis of AIDS has experienced a recent acceleration in the progression of her disease. The nurse is documenting the patient's memory lapses and increasing slow, uncoordinated movements. The nurse is justified in suspecting that this patient may be exhibiting the signs and symptoms of what complication of AIDS? A. Wasting syndrome B. HIV Encephalopathy C. Kaposi's Sarcoma D. Candidiasis
B
24. The nurse in an allergy clinic is assessing a new patient. The nurse is aware that histamine plays an important role in the immune response and that the effects of histamine can manifest in assessment findings. What response can occur as a result of histamine release? A. Decrease secretion of gastric and mucosal cells B. Contraction of bronchial smooth muscle C. Enhances the transmission of pain D. Constriction of small venules
B
30. You are presenting a class on reducing the risk of prostate, bladder and lung cancers. You tell the class that certain types of vegetables, noted as cruciferous, can help reduce this risk. Which of the following types of vegetables below are considered cruciferous? A. Broccoli and Green Beans B. Cauliflower and Cabbage C. Brussel Sprouts and Peas D. Carrots and Sweet Potatoes
B
36. A child with a severe chocolate allergy has just been brought to the ER in apparent anaphylaxis after accidently eating chocolate. What action should the ER nurse prioritize in the care of this patient? A. Try to relieve the boy's anxiety to keep him calm B. Protect the boy's airway C. Check a pulse oximetry to get an oxygen saturation level D. Obtain a full set of vital signs
B
4. Your patient is receiving antineoplastic agents for his prostate cancer. A common complication of this medication is leukopenia. What symptoms would the nurse assess for in this patient at risk for this complication? A. Extreme fatigue and shortness of breath B. Sore throat and dysuria C. Epistaxis and black tarry stools D. Insomnia and weight loss
B
43. An occupational nurse is assessing a woman who experienced an anaphylactic reaction to a dip that contained crabmeat. Because the woman promptly self-administered epinephrine, her status has normalized and she is now resting in a chair. What action should the nurse perform next? A. Provide reassurance that all is alright in order to limit her anxiety B. Have the woman transported to a nearby emergency room C. Encourage the woman to rest for an hour then drive home D. Contact the woman's family and arrange for them to pick her up
B
6. An individual's exposure to an airborne pathogen has prompted an immune response that includes both cellular and humoral components. Which of the following activities is most closely associated with the humoral immune response? A. Granulocytes and macrophages engulfing the invading pathogen B. Plasma cells producing antibodies that are specific to the pathogen C. Agranulocytes carrying out phagocytosis to eliminate the pathogen D. Cytoxic T-lymphocytes directly attacking the foreign pathogen
B
41. A public health nurse has identified that a community's HIV education strategy does not address the educational needs of older adults, even though this population is vulverable to infection with the virus. Which of the following factors puts older adults at risk for HIV infection? ("select all that apply") A. Older adults are genetically vulnerable to airborne transmission B. Rates of condom use are low among older adults C. Increased risk of having received HIV-infected blood through transfusions in the past D. Overall immune function is diminished as a result of age-related changes E. Many older adults do not consider themselves at risk
B,C,D,E
A 66-year-old man who originally sought care because of increasing pain in his great toe has subsequently been diagnosed with gout. In addition to pharmacological interventions, what dietary regimen should the nurse recommend to this patient? A. High calcium intake and low fat intake B. High simple CHO intake and no dairy products C. High fluid intake and low protein intake D. Low complex CHO intake and high potassium intake
C
A nurse on a medical unit is caring for a patient who has experienced a recent exacerbation of HIV. The nurse is being vigilant in assessments and preventative measures related to the common complications of HIV infection. What assessment addresses the most common fungal opportunistic infection related to HIV? A. Inspecting the patient's skin and monitoring for signs of skin breakdown B. Palpating the patient's pedal pulses and monitoring for peripheral edema C. Auscultating the patient's lungs and monitoring their oxygen saturation D. Gauging the patient's orientation, insight and judgment on a daily basis
C
27. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is related to a cell-mediated response rather than antibody-mediated response? A. II B. III C. I D. IV
D
33. A middle-aged female patient has received a diagnosis of scleroderma with a chronic course and has been informed that the disease has no cure. When considering the characteristic signs and symptoms of scleroderma, what nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize? A. Chronic Pain r/t Musculoskeletal effects B. Acute Confusion r/t Neurologic effects C. Spiritual Distress r/t the clinical course D. Disturbed Body Image r/t Integumentary effects
D
A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has fibromyalgia and is aware of the damaging effect that the disease has had on the patient's quality and quantity of sleep. When discussing strategies to manage this problem with the patient, the nurse should recommend: A. Maintaining the room at as high a temperature as the patient can comfortably tolerate B. Daily use of over-the-counter sleep aids C. Performing vigorous exercise in the late evening D. Setting consistent times for going to bed and getting up in the morning
D