Air Traffic Basics Online Assessment

How is a time of 6:42 a.m. stated as UTC time? A. "Zero six four two zulu" B. "Zero six for two local" C. "Zero six four two alfa mike" D. "oh six four two zulu"

A. "Zero six four two zulu"

The En Route Low Altitude charts are for use below ____. A. 18,000 feet MSL B. 18,000 feet AGL C. 12,500 feet MSL D. 14,000 feet MSL

A. 18,000 feet MSL

The minimum terminal radar separation for two IFR aircraft less than 40 miles from the antenna is___ miles. A. 3 B. 10 C. 5 D. 20

A. 3

Where an operational ATCT is located, an area of an airport not under the control of ATC is ___. A. A non-movement area B. An active runway C. The non-landing portion of the active runway D. A ramp designated as a movement area

A. A non-movement area

"A line or narrow zone along which there is an abrupt change of wind direction" defines ____. A. A sudden wind shift B. A variable wind C. The jet stream D. A crosswind

A. A sudden wind shift

What type of air mass produces stable air that is associated with smooth air, poor visibility, and stratiform clouds? A. A warm air mass moving over a cold surface B. A cold air mass moving over a warm surface C. Any warm air mass D. Any cold air mass

A. A warm air mass moving over a cold surface

Which condition is responsible for the most weather-related aviation accidents? A. Adverse wind B. Instrument C. Turbulence D. Thunderstorms

A. Adverse wind

What is the minimum required information for handling an emergency? A. Aircraft identification and type, nature of the emergency, and pilot's desires B. Aircraft identification, altitude, and fuel remaining in time C. Aircraft identification and type, altitude, and color of aircraft D. Aircraft identification, airspeed, and number of people on board

A. Aircraft identification and type, nature of the emergency, and pilot's desires

Helicopters fall into which aircraft category? A. None, because they are not fixed-wing aircraft. B. CAT I C. CAT II D. CAT III

A. CAT I

Class D airspace on a sectional aeronautical chart is depicted by a ____ line. A. Dashed blue B. Solid blue C. Solid magenta D. Dashed magenta

A. Dashed blue

A ____ wing increases the total wing area and decreases the wing loading. A. Dirty configured B. Delta C. High D. Low

A. Dirty configured

What is not a characteristic of a NDB? A. It is more accurate than a VOR B. It provides a bearing to be flown during an approach C. It is adversely affected by lightning D. It is used to establish non-precision approaches

A. It is more accurate than a VOR

The Chicago police and ORD Tower have decided the police helicopters can operate freely below 1,500 ft. until October 5, 2013. This arrangement is located in a(n) ___. A. LOA B. NOTAM C. SOP D. Supplement

A. LOA

Positions on the earth's surface are described in terms of ____. A. Latitude and longitude B. Latitude and parallels C. Degrees and arcs D. Longitude and meridians

A. Latitude and longitude

The definition of "wake turbulence" includes a number of phenomena affecting flight safety. Which of the four choices are not included in the definition? A. Mach buffet B. Rotor wash C. Propeller wash D. Jet blast

A. Mach buffet

The primary function of the Traffic Management Unit (TMU) is to____. A. Monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management directives B. Ensure maximum efficiency in the utilization of the total National Airspace System, thereby producing safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic C. Manage the flow of air traffic throughout the National Airspace System to achieve optimum use of the navigable airspace minimize the effect of air traffic delays D. Manage the flow of Tower traffic by ensuring that traffic demand does not exceed operationally minimal levels of traffic

A. Monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responisbility in accordance with traffic management directives

In FAA Order 7110.65, the word used to specify that a procedure is mandatory is____. A. Must B. May not C. Should D. Normally

A. Must

A NOTAM that is widely disseminated and applies to civil components of the NAS is classified as a ____. A. NOTAM D B. Military NOTAM C. Pointer NOTAM D. FDC NOTAM

A. NOTAM D

Which FAR specifies medical requirements for ATC specialists? A. Part 67 B. Part 91 C. Part 121 D. Part 135

A. Part 67

Which of the following is an example of typical SOP content? A. Procedure for food/beverages in control areas B. Inter-facility handoff procedures C. Prescribed phraseology for all air traffic controllers D. Information concerning pilot health and medical facts

A. Procedure for food/beverages in control areas

An aircraft on an IFR flight plan is in VFR conditions when a two-way radio failure occurs. The pilot must ___. A. Proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable B. Return IFR to point of departure C. Squawk code 7500 D. Proceed to nearest airport and execute an IFR approach

A. Proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable

When used in FAA Orders JO7110.10, JO7110.65, and JO7210.3, the word "should" means that a procedure is____. A. Recommended B. Optional C. Approved D. Mandatory

A. Recommended

Movement around the longitudinal axis is called ____? A. Roll B. Yaw C. Crab D. Pitch

A. Roll

The ARTCC Radar Associate position____. A. Scans and manages flight progress strips B. Is not responsible for ensuring separation C. Is in direct communication with the pilot D. Does not initiate control instructions

A. Scans and manages flight progress strips

Standard Instrument Departures (SID) have been established at certain airports to ____. A. Simplify clearance deliver, expedite traffic flow, and reduce pilot/controller workload B. Eliminate the need for clearance delivery procedures C. Ensure all aircraft depart on exactly the same route D. Relieve airport congestion and increase pilot/controller workload

A. Simplify clearance delivery, expedite traffic flow, and reduce pilot/controller workload

Do not allow a departing aircraft to begin takeoff roll with a preceding arriving aircraft on an intersection runway unless: A. The arriving aircraft has passed the intersection B. The arriving aircraft has reached the intersection C. The departing aircraft has the arriving aircraft in sight D. The controller has both aircraft in sight

A. The arriving aircraft has passed the intersection

The average vertical depth of this layer of the atmosphere is 36,000 feet, but varies from about 65,000 feet at the equator to 20,000 feet at the poles. A. Troposhere B. Tropopause C. Stratoshere D. Mesoshere

A. Troposhere

Each PIREP reporting turbulence must include the ____. A. Turbulence intensity B. Remarks C. Sky conditions D. Temperature

A. Turbulence intensity

Controllers may use visual separation____. A. Up to, but not including, FL180 B. At FL180 and below C. Up to and including 18,000 feet MSL D. Up to, but not including, 18,000 feet AGL

A. Up to, but not including, FL180

The World Aeronautical Chart and the Sectional Aeronautical Chart are alike because they both ___. A. Use similar symbols in the chart legends B. Depict minimum IFR altitudes C. Are used primarily by high speed aircraft D. Provide the pilot with information about services available at various airports

A. Use similar symbols in the chart legends

The Wind and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB) is used by Air Traffic Control to ___. A. Vector Aircraft B. Determine density altitude C. Determine where aircraft turbulence will occur D. Determine where aircraft icing will occur

A. Vector Aircraft

Most CAT I aircraft will generally operate within which speed range? A. 0-90 Knots B. 100-160 Knots C. 160-250 Knots D. 300-550 Knots

B. 100-160 Knots

The local standard time in Greenwich, England is 2 P.M. What is the Zulu (UTC) time in Oklahoma City? A. 0200 B. 1400 C. 2000 D. Insufficient data to calculate

B. 1400

A pilot requesting Lake Reporting Service will report every 10 minutes. Search and rescue must be initiated if no report is received in ____ minutes. A. 10 B. 15 C. 30 D. 60

B. 15

At what rate does temperature decrease with height (lapse rate) in the standard atmosphere? A. 1 degree C/1,000 feet B. 2 degrees C/1,000 feet C. 4 degrees C/1,000 feet D. 8 degrees C/ 1,000 feet

B. 2 degrees C/1,000 feet

The minimum vertical separation required for aircraft above FL600 is___feet. A. 10,000 B. 5,000 C. 2,000 D. 1,000

B. 5,000

Which of the following statements is not true regarding SVFR clearance to fixed wing aircraft? A. The pilot must request SVFR clearance B. A SVFR flight plan must be filed C. Flight visibility myst be at least 1SM D. SVFR must only be approved below 10,000 MSL

B. A SVFR flight plan must be filed

Which facility is responsible for receiving and relaying all pertinent ELT signal information to the appropriate authorities? A. AFSS B. ARTCC C. RCC D. ATCT

B. ARTCC

Which statement about a pressure system and cloud creation is TRUE? A. Air in a high pressure system will rise, cool, and create clouds. B. Air in a low pressure system will rise, cool, and create clouds. C. Air in a high pressure system will descend, warm, and create clouds. D. Air in a low pressure system will descend, warm, and dissipate clouds.

B. Air in a low pressure system will rise, cool, and create clouds.

Which document would you use to determine type of fuel available at an airport? A. US Terminal Procedures Charts B. Airport/Facility Directory C. Sectional Chart D. IFR Area Chart

B. Airport/Facility Directory

A method of navigation that utilizes ground, space-based (GPS), or self-contained NAVAIDs, permitting aircraft operation on any desired flight path is known as ____. A. Radio navigation B. Area navigation (RNAV) C. Dead reckoning D. Magnetic navigation

B. Area navigation (RNAV)

Hyperventilation is a condition which ___. A. Causes several deaths every year B. Can result when a stressful situation is encountered C. Can be corrected by breathing 100% oxygen D. Results from excessive carbon dioxide in the body

B. Can result when a stressful situation is encountered

Which airspace generally extends from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation's busiest airports? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D

B. Class B

Bernoulli's Principle states: "The internal pressure of a fluid ___ at points where the speed of the fluid___." A. Increases; increases B. Decreases; increases C. Increases; decreases D. Decreases; decreases

B. Decreases; increases

A pilot reports smoke in the cockpit and requests immediate assistance to land at the closest available airpot. What condition best describes this aircraft's situation? A. Routine emergency B. Distress C. Urgency D. Flight assistance

B. Distress

An aircraft threatened by serious and/or imminent danger which requires immediate assistance is considered as a(n) ____ condition. A. Urgent B. Distress C. Concerned D. Lost

B. Distress

Which contraction is used to identify General Notices issued by Washington Headquarters? A. GANOT B. GENOT C. GENNOT D. GNOT

B. GENOT

All of the following represent uses of non-movement area EXCEPT: A. Loading Passengers B. Landing C. Maintenance D. Parking

B. Landing

When used in FAA Orders JO7110.10, JO7110.65, and JO7210.3, the word "will" means____. A. Recommended B. Not a requirement for application of a procedure C. Optional D. Mandatory

B. Not a requirement for application of a procedure

Obstructions are depicted in which of the following sections of an Instrument Approach Chart? A. Margin B. Planview C. Profile View D. Minimums

B. Planview

The purpose of TCAS is to ____. A. Assist the controller in maintaining separation B. Prevent mid-air collisions C. Document unsafe incidents D. Allow a pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance

B. Prevent mid-air collisions

What are the weight classes of aircraft? A. Small, Medium, Large, Heavy B. Small, Large, Heavy C. Category I, II and III D. Small, Large, Heavy, Jumbo

B. Small, Large, Heavy

Which of the following is a true statement concerning TRACONs? A. A TRACON's area always contains Class B airspace B. TRACONs may serve more than one airfield C. TRACONs are never collocated with an ATCT D. All airports in the NAS are provided approach control service by a TRACON

B. TRACONs may serve more than one airfield

Which of the following statements regarding wingtip vortices is true? A. They drift inward and sink. B. They drift outward and sink. C. They drift inward and rise. D. They drift outward and rise.

B. They drift outward and sink.

The purpose of a "change" is ____. A. A temporary direction for a situation requiring immediate action B. To add, delete, or modify information or instructions within an order C. To make one-time announcements D. To consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive

B. To add, delete, or modify information or instructions within an order

Generally, what are the two basic types of landing gear? A. Bicycle and tricycle B. Tricycle and conventional C. Bicycle and conventional D. Tricycle and nose dagger

B. Tricycle and conventional

Convective currents are most active on ___ when winds are light. A. Warm, spring afternoons B. Warm, summer afternoons C. Cold, autumn nights D. Cold, winter nights

B. Warm Summer afternoons ??

Actual atmospheric pressure at a given time and place does not depend on which of the following? A. Temperature B. Wind C. Density of the Air D. Altitude

B. Wind

+TSRAGR A. "Heavy thunderstorm, rain, snow grains" B. "Severe thunderstorm, rain showers, hail" C. "Thunderstorm, heavy rain, hail" D. "Thunderstorm, heavy rain showers, snow grains"

C. "Thunderstorm, heavy rain, hail"

One minute of latitude is equal to ___ any place on the Earth's surface. A. 60 nautical miles (NM) B. 60 statue miles (SM) C. 1 nautical mile (NM) D. 1 statue mile (SM)

C. 1 nautical mile (NM)

A nautical mile equals ___SM. A. 1.76 B. .87 C. 1.15 D. 1.05

C. 1.15

The standard minimum non-radar separation between two aircraft using DME is____. A. 20 minutes or 10 miles B. 5 minutes or 10 miles C. 10 minutes or 20 miles D. 10 minutes or 5 miles

C. 10 minutes or 20 miles

An aircraft travels 300 nautical miles over the ground in three hours while experiencing a tailwind of 25 knots. The aircraft's ground speed is ___ knots. A. 150 B. 125 C. 100 D. 90

C. 100

In a non-radar environment, how many miles either side of the center line, when more than 51 miles from the NAVAID, must be protected? A. 4NM B. 4.5NM C. 10NM D. 51NM

C. 10NM

A pilot has determined the true heading (TH) from New York City to Washington, D.C. is 225 degrees. The magnetic variation (VAR) is 13 degrees W. What magnetic heading should be flown? A. 212 degrees B. 225 degrees C. 238 degrees D. 283 degrees

C. 238 degrees

Which of the following is operated and staffed by the NWS? A. ARTCC B. AFSS C. CWSU D. NASA

C. CWSU

Which product might the Kansas City Center Weather Service Unit (CWSU) issue in response to pilot weather reports of severe clear icing in the Kansas City area below 6,000 feet? A. AIRMET Tango B. AIRMET Zulu C. Center Weather Advisory D. AIRMET Sierrra

C. Center Weather Advisory

Which type of special use airspace is NOT charted? A. Alert areas B. National security areas C. Controlled firing areas D. Terminal radar service areas

C. Controlled firing areas

What is the requirement for supplemental oxygen above 15,000 MSL? A. Only the pilot is provided supplemental oxygen B. No requirement C. Each occupant of aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen D. Pilot and co-pilot are provided supplemental oxygen

C. Each occupant of aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen

Airmen's information can be disseminated via aeronautical charts and ____. A. Satellite Communications B. Facility directives C. Flight information publications D. FAA orders

C. Flight information publications

A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury and stated in three digits that represent hundreds of feet reference a(n) ___. A. Mean sea level B. Above ground level C. Flight level D. Altimeter

C. Flight level

A civilian aircraft designator ____. A. Is always 4 alpha-numerics B. Indicates the mission C. Generally indicates the manufacturer D. May be 1 to 4 characters

C. Generally indicates the manufacturer

Jet Engine exhaust is called ____. A. Prop-wash B. Wake turbulence C. Jet blast D. Counter control

C. Jet blast

When used in FAA Orders JO7110.10, JO7110.65, and JO7210.3, the words "may" and "need not" mean that the procedure is____. A. Recommended B. Approved C. Optional D. Mandatory

C. Optional

Flight progress strips are used for ____. A. Traffic count only B. Traffic sequencing only C. Posting current data on air traffic D. Traffic metering

C. Posting current data on air traffic

The purpose of an ATC clearance is to ____. A. Specify routing in uncontrolled airspace B. Provide classified instructions to pilots C. Prevent collision between known aircraft D. Provide for emergency situations

C. Prevent collision between known aircraft

When changes to the NAS occur and time does not permit issuance in an appropriate publication they are ____. A. Held until the next edition of the publication B. Emailed to affected personnel C. Publicized as NOTAMs D. Sent to all facility managers via teletype

C. Publicized as NOTAMs

Which lighting system consists of in-pavement yellow lights across a taxiway or a pair of flight lights on either side of a taxiway? A. Taxiway centerline lights B. Runway End Identifier Lights C. Runway guard lights D. Taxiway edge lights

C. Runway guard lights

Which radar system uses both a ground-based interrogator and an aircraft- based transponder? A. Primary radar B. Airport radar C. Secondary radar D. Global position radar

C. Secondary radar

What intensity of turbulence causes occupants to be forced violently against seat belts or shoulder straps, unsecured objects to be tossed about, and make food service and walking impossible. A. Light B. Moderate C. Severe D. Trace

C. Severe

What document is used to consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive to avoid having instructions scattered among several directives? A. FAA Order JO7110.65 B. Notices C. Supplements D. Changes

C. Supplements

The blades of a helicopter are shaped like airfoils and act as ____. A. Ailerons B. Elevators C. Wings D. Stabilizers

C. Wings

Generally, the vertical dimensions of a low altitude VOR airway are from ____. A. The surface up to, but not including, 18,000 feet AGL B. The surface up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL C. 12,000 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL D. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL

D. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL

The universal emergency frequencies are _____. A. 121.0 VHF and 243.5 UHF B. 119.5 VHF and 245.0 UHF C. 121.5 VHF and 243.5 UHF D. 121.5 VHF and 243.0 UHF

D. 121.5 VHF and 243.0 UHF

Regarding helicopter aerodynamics, which of the following is not true? A. Lift, thrust, weight, and drag act on helicopters the same as fixed wing aircraft. B. Rotor blades are shaped like airfoils. C. Bernoulli's Principle applies. D. Ailerons control the roll of a helicopter.

D. Ailerons control the roll of a helicopter.

What condition cause the aircraft airspeed to decrease? A. A decrease in altitude or temperature B. A decrease in altitude or an increase in temperature C. An increase in altitude or a decrease in temperature D. An increase in altitude or temperature

D. An increase in altitude or temperature

During which step of the position relief does the specialist being relieved release the position? A. Verbal briefing B. Cross check of the position C. Review the position D. Assumption of position responsibility

D. Assumption of position responsibility

TAFs are used by air traffic controllers to anticipate weather changes that will affect aircraft operations ___. A. Within an Air Route Traffic Control Center's (ARTCC) airspace B. Within a Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) facility's airspace C. Along specified routes of flight D. At specified Terminals

D. At specified Terminals

What does the clearance abbreviation "PD" represent? A. Cleared to depart from the fix B. Cleared to the airport C. Cleared to execute a procedure turn D. Cleared to climb/descend at pilot's discretion

D. Cleared to climb/descend at pilot's discretion

A pilot would most likely be issued a STAR from a(n) ____ controller. A. Tower B. Approach C. Ground D. En Route

D. En Route

On all En Route strips, Block 5 is used for what purpose? A. Aircraft ID B. Equipment suffix C. Aircraft type D. Filed true airspeed

D. Filed true airspeed

Precipitation that freezes on contact with the ground or exposed objects is known as ____. A. Snow B. Ice Pellets C. Sleet D. Freezing Rain

D. Freezing Rain

The horizontal situation indicator is a combination of three instruments: the glide slope indicator, the VOR/LOC indicator, and the ____. A. Magnetic compass B. Attitude indicator C. Automatic direction finder D. Heading indicator

D. Heading indicator

The aircraft pictured is a ____. Oval windows, Emergency exit around 5th window, T-tail, Engines on fuselage A. BE40 B. CRJ7 C. MD80 D. LJ35

D. LJ35

A high density altitude indicates ____. A. You are at an airport in the mountains B. Very dense air C. Pilots may expect increased aircraft performance D. Low density (thin) air

D. Low density (thin) air

When used in FAA Orders JO7110.10, JO7110.65, and JO7210.3, the word "must" means that the procedure is ___. A. Recommended B. Optional C. Approved D. Mandatory

D. Mandatory

The basic marker beacons normally associated with an ILS approach are ____. A. Outer and locator B. Inner and outer C. Middle and inner D. Outer and middle

D. Outer and middle

When operating an aircraft at an airport in Class G airspace that has an operating control Tower, unless otherwise authorized, the pilot must have ___. A. A transponder with Mode C B. A transponder only C. Radar contact and two-way communications D. Two-way radio communication with the Tower

D. Two-way radio communication with the Tower

The date and time report element reports time according to which reference? A. Standard time B. Daylight time C. Local time D. UTC

D. UTC

A standard holding pattern____. A. Uses left turns B. Is used only in En Route operations C. Always includes Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) leg lengths D. Uses right turns

D. Uses right turns