All 2

Federal legislation concerning patient confidentiality is known as: A. HIPAA B. NAACS C. EMTALA D. FLCPC

A

Which of the following is NOT true of medical control? A. It is determined by the dispatcher B. It may be written or "standing orders" C. It may require online radio or phone consultation D. It describes the care authorized by the medical director

A

8. _____________ is defined as the ability to reach the patient. A. Access B. Rescue C. Extrication D. Disentanglement

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1370

21. Disentanglement involves: A. removing a patient from a dangerous position. B. the use of simple access tools such as a pry bar. C. extrication techniques that EMTs are trained in. D. gaining access to a patient in a crashed vehicle.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1374

25. Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team? A. a patient trapped in a cave or a confined space B. a patient in a badly damaged car, not entrapped C. an obese patient who must be moved to the ambulance D. a patient found floating facedown in a swimming pool

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1376

6. Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies? A. oral glucose B. vacuum splint C. snake bite kit D. bronchodilator

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1335

What type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe? A. radio B. online C. off-line D. direct

C

All of the following are components of continuous quality improvement (CQI) except: A. periodic run reviews B. remedial training C. internal reviews and audits D. public seminars and meetings

D

Which of the following is a unique function of the emergency medical dispatcher (EMD)? A. relaying relevant information to the EMTs B. directing the ambulance to the correct address C. obtaining patient information from the caller D. providing callers with life-saving instructions

D

28. Drawing in of the muscles between the ribs or of the sternum during inspiration is called: A. tenting. B. retracting. C. hyperpnea. D. accessory muscle use.

28. Drawing in of the muscles between the ribs or of the sternum during inspiration is called: A. tenting. B. retracting. C. hyperpnea. D. accessory muscle use.

"I think she's drunk!" A bystander yells as you & your partner arrive on the scene of an unknown medical aid. You observe an approximately 45-year-old woman stumbling between several cars in the parking lot of a grocery store. As you catch up to the woman you ask her clearly if she is diabetic. She nods clumsily & leans against one of the cars. You test her blood glucose & obtain a reading of 49 mg/dL. What should you do? A) Administer glucose gel orally B) Ask the bystanders if anyone knows her medical history C) Restrain her onto the gurney to keep her from hurting herself or others D) Request an ALS response so glucose can be administered intravenously

A

"Why did you call for EMS today?" helps to determine the: A. chief complaint. B. past medical history. C. medications. D. provocation of pain.

A

A 12-year-old boy told his grandmother he was going to collect the day's mail, located on the opposite side of the street, for her. As he was returning with the mail, he was struck by a vehicle and was found lying lifeless in the middle of the street. When should you begin protecting yourself with standard precautions on this call? a. as soon as you are dispatched b. as soon as you arrive c. after you assess the victim and know what you need d. after speaking with the grandmother

A

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: A. 13. B. 10. C. 12. D. 14.

A

A 33-year-old female presents with lower abdominal quadrant pain. She is conscious and alert, but in moderate pain. While your partner is asking her questions about her medical history, you take her vital signs. When you assess her radial pulse, you are unable to locate it. You should: A. assess the rate, regularity, and quality of her carotid pulse. B. immediately take her blood pressure to see if she is hypotensive. C. advise your partner that the patient's blood pressure is low. D. conclude that she is perfusing adequately since she is conscious.

A

A 37-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named Alupent, which he found in the backseat of the patient's car. This medication suggests that the patient has a history of: A. asthma. B. heart disease. C. hypertension. D. allergic reactions.

A

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: A. apply direct pressure to the wound. B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. C. ensure that his airway is patent. D. elevate his legs and keep him warm.

A

A 4-year-old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: A. consider asking the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother. B. give the child a favorite toy or blanket to hold onto and perform your assessment to the best of your ability. C. reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about. D. attempt to calm the child's mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase her anxiety.

A

A 50-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. There were no witnesses to the event. When gathering medical history information for this patient, the EMT should: A. determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card. B. wait for family members to arrive before asking any questions. C. ask law enforcement officials if they are familiar with the patient. D. defer SAMPLE history questions until you arrive at the hospital.

A

A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should: A. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases. C. perform a secondary assessment and then begin treatment. D. assist her breathing with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen.

A

A 56-year-old female is found supine in a narrow hallway of her mobile home. She complains of severe weakness and dizziness, and states that she is unable to walk. There is no evidence of trauma and the patient states that she did not fall. How should you and your partner move this patient to a more spacious area? A. extremity lift B. emergency move C. direct carry D. scoop stretcher

A

A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg. Her skin is warm and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing: A. septic shock. B. pump failure. C. a local infection. D. decompensated shock.

A

A 75-year-old male with a terminal illness has died at home. As you and your partner enter the residence, a family member becomes verbally abusive, pushes you, and states that you took too long to get there. You should: A. retreat and notify law enforcement personnel. B. tell the family member that it is not your fault. C. subdue the family member until the police arrive. D. ignore the family member and assess the patient.

A

A blood pressure cuff that's too large for the patient: A) May result in a falsely low reading B) May result in a falsely high reading C) Will not affect the reading D) Should be used in patients with arm pain

A

A critical aspect of the rapid extrication technique is to: A. maintain stabilization of the spine at all times. B. extricate the patient with one coordinated move. C. apply a vest-style device before moving the patient. D. move the patient as quickly as you possibly can.

A

A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a: A. distal humerus fracture. B. proximal elbow fracture. C. distal forearm fracture. D. proximal humerus fracture.

A

A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: A. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare. B. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum. C. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare. D. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose.

A

A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: A. without assistance. B. without difficulty. C. at a normal rate. D. with shallow depth.

A

A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions regarding: A. date and event. B. event and person. C. person and place. D. time and place.

A

Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed: A. until he or she loses consciousness. B. in sets of five followed by reassessment. C. about 1″ below the xiphoid process. D. until he or she experiences cardiac arrest.

A

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to: A. assist a patient with certain prescribed medications. B. insert a peripheral intravenous (IV) line and infuse fluids. C. administer epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. D. interpret a basic electrocardiogram (ECG) rhythm and treat accordingly.

A

According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT would require special permission from the medical director and the state EMS office in order to: A. perform blood glucose monitoring. B. apply and interpret a pulse oximeter. C. use an automatic transport ventilator. D. give aspirin to a patient with chest pain.

A

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: A. take standard precautions. B. contact medical control. C. notify law enforcement. D. quickly access the patient.

A

After stocking the ambulance this morning, you and your partner go out for breakfast. While entering the restaurant, you see an older gentleman clutch his chest and collapse to the floor. When you get to him, he has no pulse and is not breathing. While you checked the patient's airway breathing, and circulation, your partner considered the benefits of requesting a(n) ______ ambulance to assist with patient care. A. ALS B. CQI C. PSA D. EMD

A

An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. You assess her level of consciousness as unresponsive using the AVPU scale. Your initial care should focus on: A. airway, breathing, and circulation. B. gathering medical history data. C. obtaining baseline vital signs. D. providing immediate transport.

A

An increase in heart rate and contractility occurs due to stimulation of: A. beta-1 receptors. B. beta-2 receptors. C. alpha-1 receptors. D. alpha-2 receptors.

A

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: A. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body. B. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. C. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. D. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.

A

An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? A. opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain B. opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion C. eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension D. opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain

A

An insufficient concentration of _______ in the blood can produce shock as rapidly as vascular causes. A. oxygen B. hormones C. epinephrine D. histamine

A

An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she: A. requires cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). B. begins to vomit. C. regains consciousness. D. has increased tidal volume.

A

An unrestrained patient is sitting in his car after an automobile crash. He is conscious and alert, has no visible trauma, and is complaining of neck and back pain. Before removing him from his car, you should: A. apply a cervical collar and immobilize him with a vest-style device. B. slide a scoop stretcher under his buttocks and rotate him laterally. C. maintain manual stabilization of his head and grasp him by the clothes. D. perform a detailed head-to-toe assessment and apply a cervical collar.

A

At 2:00 AM, a 17-year-old boy, accompanied by his 19-year-old girlfriend, had driven to the bar to give his father (who had been drinking large amounts of alcohol) a ride home. On the way back, they were involved in a motor vehicle collision. The boy has a large laceration with profuse bleeding on his forehead. His girlfriend is unconscious in the front passenger floor. The father is standing outside the vehicle, appearing heavily intoxicated, and is refusing care. As you progress in your care for the patients, the father becomes unconscious. Can you begin/continue care for him now? A. Yes. Consent is now implied. B. No. He made his wishes known before he fell unconscious. C. No. He just needs to sleep it off. D. Yes. Unconsciousness indicates informed consent.

A

At 2:00 AM, a 17-year-old boy, accompanied by his 19-year-old girlfriend, had driven to the bar to give his father (who had been drinking large amounts of alcohol) a ride home. On the way back, they were involved in a motor vehicle collision. The boy has a large laceration with profuse bleeding on his forehead. His girlfriend is unconscious in the front passenger floor. The father is standing outside the vehicle, appearing heavily intoxicated, and is refusing care. Why is it permissible for you to begin treatment on the girlfriend? A. Consent is implied. B. Consent has been expressed. C. Consent was informed. D. None of the above.

A

Breathing is often more labor intensive in older adults because the: A. elasticity of the lungs decreases. B. surface area of the alveoli increases. C. overall size of the airway decreases. D. diaphragm and intercostal muscles enlarge.

A

Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: A. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. B. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. C. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient. D. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital.

A

Capillary sphincter closure during internal or external bleeding is detrimental because: A. waste products are not removed and nutrients are not delivered to the cells. B. available blood is shunted off to another venule while still carrying oxygen. C. high levels of oxygen remain in the cell and can cause significant damage. D. carbon dioxide and other waste can enter the cell, but oxygen cannot enter.

A

Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense: A. slight elevations in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. slight decreases in carbon dioxide and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. increased levels of oxygen in the blood and a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

A

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: A. decreased blood oxygen. B. venous vasoconstriction. C. increased blood oxygen. D. peripheral vasodilation.

A

Definitive or conclusive signs of death that are obvious and clear to even nonmedical persons include all of the following except: a. profound cyanosis b. dependent lividity c. rigor mortis d. putrefaction

A

Depending on how the protocols are written, you may need to call medical control for direct orders to: a. administer certain treatments b. transport a patient c. request assistance from other agencies d. immobilize a patient

A

During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by assessing: A. pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition. B. skin quality, blood pressure, and capillary refill. C. blood pressure, pulse rate, and external bleeding. D. external bleeding, skin condition, and capillary refill.

A

Early signs and symptoms of viral hepatitis include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. jaundice and abdominal pain. B. pain in the muscles and joints. C. vomiting, fever, and fatigue. D. loss of appetite and a cough.

A

End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with: A. respiratory distress. B. high blood pressure. C. a headache. D. abdominal pain.

A

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: A. adequate amounts of surfactant. B. water or blood within the alveoli. C. surfactant-destroying organisms. D. pulmonary capillary constriction.

A

How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? A. It forces the alveoli open and pushes more oxygen across the alveolar membrane. B. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung tissue. C. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for the lungs to expand. D. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during the inhalation phase.

A

How the EMT is required to act or behave is called: a. the standard of care b. competency c. the scope of practice d. certification

A

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: A. plasma. B. platelets. C. whole blood. D. red blood cells.

A

If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately: A. reevaluate his or her airway status. B. auscultate his or her breath sounds. C. begin assisting his or her breathing. D. determine his or her respiratory rate.

A

If an average-sized patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if his or her respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: A. minute volume is decreased. B. inspiratory reserve is increased. C. overall tidal volume is increased. D. expiratory reserve volume is decreased.

A

If an injury distracts an EMT from assessing a more serious underlying illness, he has suffered from: A. tunnel vision. B. index of suspicion. C. virulence. D. a trauma emergency.

A

If gastric distention is so severe that is makes positive-pressure ventilation extremely difficult or impossible, you may have to: A. apply manual pressure to the abdomen. B. suction the airway for up to 45 seconds. C. insert an oropharyngeal airway adjunct. D. increase the force of your ventilations.

A

Immediately after being dispatched to a residence for an elderly patient with diabetic complications, you should: A. confirm with dispatch that you received the call information. B. ask the dispatcher to obtain a medical history from the caller. C. ask the dispatcher if the patient is conscious or unconscious. D. request that law enforcement secure the scene before you arrive.

A

In an unresponsive adult patient, the primary location to assess the pulse is the ____ artery. A) carotid B) femoral C) radial D) brachial

A

In anaphylactic shock, the combination of poor oxygenation and poor perfusion is a result of? A. widespread vasodialation. B. low volume. C. massive vasoconstriction. D. pump failure.

A

In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include: A. increased stability due to a wider wheelbase. B. a collapsible undercarriage. C. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher. D. a weight capacity of up to 650 lb.

A

In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the: A. lips. B. back of the neck. C. dorsum of the hand. D. forehead and face.

A

In the eyes of the court, an incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates: A. that inadequate patient care was administered. B. potential falsification of the patient care form. C. that thorough documentation was not required. D. that the EMT was too busy providing patient care.

A

In what age range do toddlers and preschoolers fit into? A. 1 to 6 years B. 2 to 8 years C. 2 to 7 years D. 0 to 5 years

A

In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the MOST appropriate method of moving a patient? A. a conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain B. an unconscious patient with a possible ischemic stroke C. a pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car D. a patient who complains of hip pain following a fall

A

Infants are often referred to as "belly breathers" because: A. their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally. B. an infant's ribs are brittle and are less able to expand. C. their intercostal muscles are not functional. D. their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain.

A

It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. A. decontaminate B. burn C. throw out D. store

A

Kory, a 16-year-old boy, attempted to jump down a flight of stairs on his skateboard but landed face down on his chest and stomach, where he stayed until found. He was not wearing a helmet, and he hit the pavement with his head. Two bones were protruding from his right ankle. If the patient were to develop pain in his upper-right quadrant, what organ may be causing the pain? A. Liver B. Stomach C. Spleen D. Appendix

A

Kory, a 16-year-old boy, attempted to jump down a flight of stairs on his skateboard but landed face down on his chest and stomach, where he stayed until found. He was not wearing a helmet, and he hit the pavement with his head. Two bones were protruding from his right ankle. Kory was found in what position? A. Prone B. Supine C. Shock D. Lateral recumbent

A

Kory, a 16-year-old boy, attempted to jump down a flight of stairs on his skateboard but landed face down on his chest and stomach, where he stayed until found. He was not wearing a helmet, and he hit the pavement with his head. Two bones were protruding from his right ankle. What part of his spinal column do you want to keep immobilized, so as not to move any of its seven vertebrae? A. Cervical B. Thoracic C. Sacrum D. Coccyx

A

Medical control guides the treatment of patients in the system through all of the following except: a. hands-on care b. protocols c. direct orders d. postcall review

A

Neurogenic shock is caused by: A. a radical change in the size of the vascular system. B. massive vasoconstriction. C. low volume. D. fluid collecting around the spinal cord causing compression of the cord.

A

Neurogenic shock occurs when: A. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. B. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. C. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. D. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.

A

Neurogenic shock usually results from damage to the spinal cord at the: A. cervical level. B. thoracic level. C. lumbar level. D. sacral level

A

Nitroglycerin relieves pain because its purpose is to increase blood flow by relieving the spasms or causing the arteries to: A) dilate B) constrict C) thicken D) contract

A

Nitroglycerin relieves the squeezing or crushing pain associated with angina by: A) dilating the arteries to increase the oxygen supply to the heart muscle B) causing the heart to contract harder and increase cardiac output C) causing the heart to beat faster to supply more oxygen to the heart D) all of the above

A

Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. pulse strength. B. appearance. C. level of distress. D. race and gender.

A

Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the: A. individual EMT. B. State Bureau of EMS. C. EMS training officer. D. EMS medical director.

A

One consequence of the loss of neurons among elderly persons is a(n): A. change in sleep patterns. B. steady decline in intelligence. C. inability to reproduce. D. loss of physical skills

A

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: A. radiating. B. referred. C. provoking. D. palliating.

A

Patients develop septic shock secondary to: A. poor vessel function and severe volume loss. B. an infection that weakens cardiac contractions. C. failure of the blood vessels to adequately dilate. D. weak vessel tone due to nervous system damage.

A

Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they: A. cough. B. have a fever. C. vomit. D. are bleeding.

A

Presumptive signs of death would not be adequate in cases of sudden death due to: a. hypothermia b. acute poisoning c. cardiac arrest d. severe trauma

A

Shock is the result of: A. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. B. the body's maintenance of homeostasis. C. temporary dysfunction of a major organ. D. widespread constriction of the blood vessels.

A

Shock: A. refers to a state of collapse and failure of the cardiovascular system. B. results in adequate flow of blood to the body's cells. C. creates an excess of cellular nutrients. D. all of the above.

A

Shortly after loading your patient, a 50-year-old man with abdominal pain, into the ambulance, he tells you that he changed his mind and does not want to go to the hospital. He is conscious and alert and has no signs of mental incapacitation. You are suspicious that the man has a significant underlying condition and feel strongly that he should go to the hospital. Which of the following statements regarding this situation is correct? A. A mentally competent adult can withdraw his or her consent to treat at any time. B. Any patient who refuses EMS treatment must legally sign a patient refusal form. C. Because of your suspicions, the best approach is to transport him to the hospital. D. Once a patient is in the ambulance, he or she cannot legally refuse EMS treatment.

A

The AED should be used on pediatric medical patients who are at least ____ year(s) old & who have been assessed to be unresponsive, apneic, & pulseless. A) 1 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10

A

The MOST appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the: A. basket stretcher. B. stair chair. C. wheeled stretcher. D. scoop stretcher.

A

The ____ is the most serious thing that the patient is concerned about, the reason why they called 9-1-1: A) chief complaint B) pertinent negatives C) severity D) past medical history

A

The __________ cartilage is a firm ring that forms the inferior part of the larynx. A. cricoid B. thyroid C. laryngeal D. pyriform

A

The ____________ deals with the well-being of the EMT, career progression, and EMT compensation. A. human resources department B. office of the medical director C. EMS administrator or chief D. local public health department

A

The backup system of respiratory control, which is based on low concentrations of oxygen in the blood, is called the: A. hypoxic drive. B. pneumotaxic drive. C. hypocarbic drive. D. oxyhemoglobin drive.

A

The brain stem normally triggers breathing by increasing respirations when: a. carbon dioxide levels increase b. oxygen levels increase c. carbon dioxide levels decrease d. nitrogen levels decrease

A

The brand name that a manufacturer gives to a medication is the ____ name. A) trade B) generic C) chemical D) prescription

A

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: A. after the primary assessment has been completed. B. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment. C. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known. D. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.

A

The determination that prompt surgical care in the hospital is more important than performing time-consuming procedures in the field on a major trauma patient is based MOSTLY on: A. EMS research. B. local protocols. C. the lead EMT's decision. D. regional trauma guidelines.

A

The diaphragm functions as an involuntary muscle when a person: A. sleeps. B. coughs. C. takes a deep breath. D. holds his or her breath.

A

The direct carry is used to transfer a patient: A. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher. B. with multiple long bone injuries. C. with a possible cervical spine injury. D. who cannot be placed on a backboard.

A

The electrical impulse of the heart normally begins at the: A. sinoatrial node. B. bundle of His. C. Purkinje fibers. D. atrioventricular node.

A

The extremity lift would NOT be appropriate to use on a patient: A. with a deformed humerus. B. who complains of nausea. C. with forearm lacerations. D. without a spinal injury.

A

The fastest way to deliver a chemical substance is by the ____ route. A) intravenous B) oral C) sublingual D) intramuscular

A

The leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the: A. epiglottis. B. vallecula. C. cricoid ring. D. thyroid cartilage

A

The left side of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs through the: A. pulmonary veins. B. pulmonary arteries. C. inferior venae cavae. D. superior venae cavae.

A

The maximum life expectancy for humans is estimated to be _______ years. A. 120 B. 78 C. 67 D. 56

A

The nasal cannula is MOST appropriately used in the prehospital setting: A. when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask. B. if the patient's nasopharynx is obstructed by secretions. C. if long-term supplemental oxygen administration is required. D. when the patient breathes primarily through his or her mouth.

A

The patient report commonly includes all of the following except: a. a list of the patient's medications b. the patient's age and gender c. a brief history of the patient's current problem d. your estimated time of arrival

A

The physical examination consists of all of the following EXCEPT: A) puncture B) inspection C) palpation D) auscultation

A

The primary function of the right atrium is to: A. receive blood from the vena cava. B. pump blood to the pulmonary artery. C. receive blood from the pulmonary veins. D. pump blood to the lungs for reoxygenation.

A

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called: A. external respiration. B. cellular metabolism. C. pulmonary ventilation. D. alveolar ventilation.

A

The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is: A. one third the diameter of the chest or about 1½". B. one half to two thirds the diameter of the chest. C. one half the diameter of the chest or about 1½″. D. two thirds the diameter of the chest or about 2″.

A

The purpose of the pin-indexing system that has been established for compressed gas cylinders is to: A. ensure that the correct regulator is used for the cylinder. B. help you determine what type of oxygen regulator to use. C. prevent destroying or stripping the threads on the cylinder. D. reduce the cylinder pressure to a safe and more useful range.

A

The quickest source of energy is ___________; however, this supply will last less than a day and is consumed in greater quantities during stress. a. glucose b. carbohydrate c. protein d. fat

A

The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to: a. careless handling of sharps b. improper use of standard precautions c. not wearing PPE d. sexual interaction with infected persons

A

The stage of the grieving process that involves refusal to accept diagnosis or care is known as: a. denial b. acceptance c. bargaining d. depression

A

The transmission range of a(n) _________ is more limited than that of mobile or base station radios. a. portable radio b. 800-MHz radio c. cellular phone d. UHF radio

A

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the: A. corner of the mouth to the earlobe. B. center of the mouth to the posterior ear. C. corner of the mouth to the superior ear. D. angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth.

A

Typical chief complaints in patients with an infectious disease include: A. fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing. B. crushing chest pain, vomiting, and weakness. C. joint pain, muscle aches, and blurred vision. D. headache, low back pain, and arm numbness.

A

Unstable patients should be reassessed every ___ minutes. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20

A

Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should: A. attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient. B. squeeze the trapezius muscle to see if the patient responds. C. assess breathing depth and determine the respiratory rate. D. direct your partner to apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

A

What is the function of platelets? A. initial formation of a blood clot B. transport of oxygen and nutrients C. defense against invading organisms D. transport of cellular waste materials

A

What is the minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min? A. 5,600 mL B. 6,000 mL C. 7,400 mL D. 8,000 mL

A

What is the minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min? A. 5,600 mL B. 6,000 mL C. 7,200 mL D. 8,000 mL

A

When assessing & treating a patient who is visually impaired, it's important that you do all of the following EXCEPT: A) speak loudly into the patient's ear, because he or she can't see you B) announce yourself when entering the residence C) put items that were moved back into their previous position D) explain to the patient what is happening

A

When assessing a patient with an infectious disease, what is the first action you should perform? A. Size up the scene and take standard precautions. B. Obtain a SAMPLE history. C. Hand the patient off to a paramedic. D. Cover your mouth and nose with your hand.

A

When attempting to communicate with non-English-speaking patients, you should: a. use short, simple questions and simple words whenever possible b. always use medical terms c. shout d. position yourself so the patient can read your lips

A

When completing the narrative section, be sure to: a. describe what you see and what you do b. include only positive findings c. record your conclusions about the incident d. use appropriate radio codes

A

When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should: A. allow surfaces to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions. B. use a bleach and water solution at a 1:2 dilution ratio to thoroughly wipe all surfaces. C. clean all surfaces and patient contact areas with a mixture of alcohol and water. D. spray the contaminated areas and then immediately wipe them dry with a towel.

A

When given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain, nitroglycerin: A. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries. B. increases myocardial contraction force. C. increases blood return to the right atrium. D. constricts the veins throughout the body.

A

When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should: A. focus on his or her chief complaint. B. examine him or her from head to toe. C. only palpate tender areas of the abdomen. D. prepare the patient for transport first.

A

When perfusion to the core of the body decreases: A. blood is shunted away from the skin. B. decreased cardiac contractility occurs. C. blood is diverted to the gastrointestinal tract. D. the voluntary nervous system releases hormones.

A

When providing support for a grieving person, it is okay to say: a. "I'm sorry." b. "Give it time." c. "I know how you feel." d. "You have to keep on going."

A

When there are low levels of oxygen in the blood, the lips & mucous membranes appear blue or gray. This condition is called: A) cyanosis B) pallor C) jaundice D) ashen

A

When you begin an oral report, you should state the patient's age, sex, and: A. chief complaint. B. any known allergies. C. past medical history. D. the emergency care given.

A

Which of the following are central pulses? A. femoral and carotid B. brachial and radial C. temporal and pedal D. popliteal and ulnar

A

Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant? A. places objects in the mouth, pulls himself or herself up B. knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance C. responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently D. walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions

A

Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem? A. jugular venous distention B. palpable pain to the epigastrium C. use of the accessory muscles D. unequal breath sounds

A

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? A. substance abuse B. depression C. schizophrenia D. Alzheimer's disease

A

Which of the following factors will cause a decreased minute volume in an adult? A. shallow breathing B. increased tidal volume C. respirations of 20 breaths/min D. slight decrease in respiratory rate

A

Which of the following is NOT considered a sign? A) dizziness B) marked deformities C) external bleeding D) wounds

A

Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the adolescent age group? A. Secondary sexual development begins. B. Muscle and bone growth both decrease. C. The normal pulse rate steadily increases. D. The systolic blood pressure decreases.

A

Which of the following is an example of a brand (trade) name of a drug? A. Tylenol B. ibuprofen C. furosemide D. nitroglycerin

A

Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy? A. community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving B. the construction of a guardrail on a dangerous curve following a fatal motor vehicle crash C. protecting a patient's spine from further injury after a fall from a significant height D. teaching a group of new parents how to perform one- and two-rescuer infant CPR

A

Which of the following is considered an obvious sign of death and would not require the initiation of CPR? A. dependent blood pooling B. pulselessness and apnea C. agonal respiratory effort D. severe cyanosis to the face

A

Which of the following is not a sign of abnormal breathing? a. warm, dry skin b. speaking in two- or three-word sentences c. unequal breath sounds d. skin pulling in around the ribs during inspiration

A

Which of the following is the preferred method of assisting ventilations? a. mouth-to-mask with one-way valve b. two-person bag-mask device with reservoir and supplemental oxygen c. flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device d. one-person bag-mask device with oxygen reservoir and supplemental oxygen

A

Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient's airway when a spinal injury is suspected? A. jaw-thrust B. tongue-jaw lift C. head tilt-neck lift D. head tilt-chin lift

A

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen? A. muscle B. heart C. liver D. kidneys

A

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? A. a conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin B. a conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations C. a conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume D. an unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin

A

Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock? A. a 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils B. a 23-year-old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia C. a 28-year-old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations D. a 32-year-old male with anxiety and a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg

A

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is typically unique to infants and children? A. seesaw respirations B. unequal breath sounds C. unequal chest expansion D. irregular breathing pattern

A

Which of the following statements about tuberculosis is FALSE? A. It is found in open, uncrowded living spaces. B. It can be found in crowded environments with poor ventilation. C. It is spread through the air via droplets. D. The primary infection is typically not serious.

A

Which of the following statements regarding assessment of the airway is TRUE? A) The body will not be supplied the necessary oxygen if the airway is not managed B) You should use the head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway in trauma patients C) The tongue is generally not a cause of airway obstruction D) A conscious patient who cannot speak or cry is most likely hyperventilating

A

Which of the following statements regarding middle adults is correct? A. Cardiovascular health becomes an issue in this age group, as does the greater incidence of cancer. B. Women in the middle adult age group typically experience menopause in their late 50s or early 60s. C. Significant impairments in hearing and vision begin to occur in persons between the ages of 41 and 44 years. D. Increased cholesterol levels in the middle adult age group often do not respond to exercise and diet.

A

Which of the following statements regarding the H1N1 virus is correct? A. It is only one type of influenza among the many other strains of influenza that exist and infect humans. B. H1N1 has caused more deaths worldwide than all of the other strains of influenza combined. C. H1N1, also known as the "swine flu," is a newly discovered strain of influenza for which no vaccine exists. D. Unlike other strains of the influenza virus, H1N1 is primarily transmitted via the fecal-oral route.

A

Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness? A. asking questions related to the chief complaint B. focusing solely on how the call is dispatched C. trending of the patient's vital signs over time D. refraining from asking open-ended questions

A

With increasing age, the heart must work harder to move the blood effectively because: A. the blood vessels become stiff. B. the arteries dilate significantly. C. diastolic blood pressure decreases. D. the blood thickens as a person ages.

A

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should: A. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit. B. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly. C. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital. D. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible.

A

You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-mask device. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should: A. begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique. B. hyperextend the patient's head and reattempt ventilations. C. continue attempted ventilations and transport immediately. D. suction the patient's airway for 30 seconds and reattempt ventilations.

A

You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60-year-old woman who suddenly collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: A. perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) for about 2 minutes and then apply the AED. B. immediately apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm. C. begin CPR at a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2. D. apply the AED if there is no response after 10 cycles of CPR.

A

You are assessing a woman who was thrown from her horse. She is located in a large field and you can see that a thunderstorm is rapidly approaching. Suddenly, you feel your skin begin to tingle and the hair on your arms stands on end. The ambulance is located about 30 yards away. You should: A. crouch down in a position so that only your feet are touching the ground. B. sit down, bend your knees, and hold your crossed arms close to your body. C. quickly cover the patient with a blanket and then lie down flat on the ground. D. immediately lie down on your side and draw your knees into your abdomen.

A

You are called to a home of a known 34-year-old man with diabetes. When you arrive, you find the patient supine & unconscious on the living room floor with snoring respirations. The government publication listing all drugs in the United States is called the: A) United States Pharmacopeia B) Department of Transportation Reference Guide C) US Pharmacology D) Nursing Drug Reference

A

You are caring for a 35-year-old female with pregnancy-related complications. She is clearly experiencing significant stress and is crying uncontrollably. Your MOST appropriate action would be to: A. demonstrate courtesy and speak with a professional tone of voice. B. discourage her from expressing fears until a counselor is available. C. explain to her that "everything will be all right" in order to calm her down. D. restrain her if she is extremely emotional and will not calm down.

A

You are dispatched to a call for a 4-month-old infant with respiratory distress. While you prepare to take care of this child, you must remember that: A. small infants are nose breathers and require clear nasal passages at all times. B. assisted ventilations in infants often need to be forceful to inflate their lungs. C. the infant's proportionately small tongue often causes an airway obstruction. D. an infant's head should be placed in a flexed position to prevent obstruction.

A

You are dispatched to a middle school for a 16-year-old female experiencing an asthma attack. She is conscious and alert, but in severe respiratory distress. The school nurse informs you that she has tried several times to contact the patient's parents but has not been successful. You should: A. provide treatment up to your level of training and transport the child at once. B. recognize that you cannot begin treatment without expressed parental consent. C. transport the child to the closest hospital and let them provide any treatment. D. administer oxygen only until you receive parental consent for further treatment.

A

You are dispatched to a public park in the middle of a sprawling for an arm injury. You arrive to find a crying 8-year-old boy cradling his swollen deformed left forearm. His friends tell you that he was holding onto the bars of the play structure and that his arm 'snapped' when he jumped into the sand below. An adult bystander tells you that the boy kept trying to impress his friends with more and more dangerous stunts on the play structure prior to the injury. This is an indication of ________ reasoning. A. conventional B. preconventional C. unconventional D. postconventional

A

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: A. determine if she was injured when she fainted. B. provide emotional support regarding her sister. C. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. D. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history.

A

You are dispatched to the scene of a crash involving a large tanker truck. While you are en route, dispatch advises you that there are multiple patients and that the fire department is en route as well. As you approach the scene, you should: A. maintain a safe distance and try to read the placard with binoculars. B. cordon off the area and quickly remove all of the injured patients. C. immediately begin evacuating residents that live near the crash site. D. don PPE and quickly triage all patients.

A

You are interviewing a 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate to say? A. "It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow." B. "I notice that you are a retired paramedic, so I'm sure you will understand all of the things that we will be doing to you." C. "This is nothing to worry about. Please try to stay calm. The physician at the hospital will probably not find any signs of a heart problem." D. "We need to take you to the ED stat. We will give you ASA and NTG en route and then reassess your vitals. Do you have any questions?"

A

You are transporting a 40-year-old male with respiratory distress. The patient tells you that he recently had a positive tuberculosis (TB) skin test and is currently being evaluated for possible TB. You should: A. apply a nonrebreathing mask on the patient and a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirator on yourself. B. remain at least 3 feet away from the patient and apply a surgical mask on him. C. apply a sterile surgical mask on yourself and a HEPA respirator on the patient. D. apply a nasal cannula on the patient and a sterile surgical mask on yourself.

A

You are treating a middle-aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart attacks and takes nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain. You have standing orders to administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac-related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is preparing to give oxygen to the patient, you should: A. confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given. B. contact medical control, apprise him or her of the patient's chief complaint and vital signs, and request permission to give him aspirin. C. ensure that the patient's systolic blood pressure is at least 100 mm Hg since aspirin dilates the blood vessels and can cause a drop in blood pressure. D. assist the patient in taking one of his prescribed nitroglycerin, assess his vital signs, and give him aspirin if he is still experiencing chest discomfort.

A

You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, he notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You elevate the patient's legs, but this action has no effect. You should: A. reevaluate the rate and volume of your ventilations. B. perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for bleeding. C. increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure. D. ensure that you are delivering one breath every 3 to 5 seconds.

A

You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-mask device. She has dentures, which are tight-fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should: A. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise. B. attempt to replace her dentures so that they fit tightly and resume ventilations. C. leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her for an airway obstruction. D. remove her dentures at once and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations.

A

You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle versus pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13-year-old male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in approximately 15 minutes. What should you do? A. Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital. B. Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parents to arrive and give consent. C. Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital. D. Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment.

A

You have just finished an ambulance run where a 45-year-old man had run his SUV into a utility pole. The driver was found slumped over the steering wheel, unconscious. A large electrical wire was lying across the hood of the vehicle. After securing scene safety, you were able to approach the patient and complete a primary assessment, in which you found a 6" laceration across his forehead. The patient regained responsiveness, was alert and oriented, and refused care. While writing the report you made an error how should this be corrected A. Drawl a single line through it. B. Erase the mistake. C. Cover up the mistake with correction fluid. D. All of the above.

A

You respond to a construction site and find a worker lying supine in the dirt. He has been hit by a heavy construction vehicle and flew more than 15' before landing in his current position. There is discoloration and distention of his abdomen about the RUQ. He is unconscious and his respirations are 10 breaths/min and shallow, with noisy gurgling sounds. The correct ventilation rate for assisting this adult patient is: a. one breath every 5-6 seconds b. one breath every 3-5 seconds c. one breath every 10-12 seconds d. there is no need to assist with ventilations for this patient

A

You respond to the home of a 59-year-old man who is unconscious, has slow, shallow breathing, and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient; however, they are unable to locate it. You should: A. begin treatment and contact medical control as needed. B. honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment. C. transport the patient without providing any treatment. D. decide on further action once the DNR order is produced.

A

You should suspect shock in all of the following except: A. a mild allergic reaction. B. multiple severe fractures. C. a severe infection. D. abdominal or chest injury.

A

You suspect that a 75-year-old man has internal injuries after he fell and struck his ribs and abdomen on the corner of a table. When assessing and treating an injured patient of this age, you must recall that: A. his ability to physiologically compensate for his injury may be impaired due to an inability to increase cardiac output. B. it is not uncommon to observe heart rates in excess of 150 beats/min in elderly patients with internal injuries. C. blood pressure is usually adequately maintained because the blood vessels of older people can contract easily. D. functional blood volume in patients of this age steadily increases due to increased production of red blood cells.

A

You're called to the residence of a 67-year-old man who is complaining of chest pain. He's alert and oriented. During your assessment, the patient tells you he has had two previous heart attacks. He is taking medication for fluid retention. As you listen to his lungs, you notice that he has fluid in his lungs. This is known as pulmonary ____. A. edema. B. overload. C. cessation. D. failure.

A

Your primary safety concern is for: A) yourself B) your partner C) your patient D) the bystanders

A

____ cause the pupils to constrict to a pinpoint. A) Opiates B) Antidepressants C) Antihypertensive Medications D) Diabetic Medications

A

23. A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing scant vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. place her in a left lateral recumbent position. B. position her supine and elevate her legs 12″. C. carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina. D. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1112

41. During your visual inspection of a 19-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? A. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers. B. Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately. C. Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord. D. Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1120

52. You have just delivered a premature baby. Your assessment reveals that he is breathing adequately; however, his heart rate is 90 beats/min. You should: A. keep him warm and provide ventilatory assistance. B. begin chest compressions and reassess in 30 seconds. C. clamp and cut the umbilical cord and keep him warm. D. assess his skin color and give free-flow oxygen as needed.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1126

58. Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes: A. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated. B. gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery. C. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting. D. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1128

49. A child who has no recent history of illness suddenly appears cyanotic and cannot speak after playing with a small toy. You should: A. perform abdominal thrusts. B. visualize the child's airway. C. perform a blind finger sweep. D. give oxygen and transport at once.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1171

50. An 8-year-old female with a history of asthma continues to experience severe respiratory distress despite being given multiple doses of her prescribed albuterol by her mother. She is conscious, but clearly restless. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min. She is receiving high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. You should: A. be prepared to assist her ventilations, transport at once, and request an ALS intercept en route to the hospital. B. continue high-flow oxygen therapy, contact medical control, and request permission to administer more albuterol. C. begin immediate ventilation assistance and ensure that you squeeze the bag forcefully in order to open her bronchioles. D. begin chest compressions if she becomes unresponsive and her heart rate falls below 80 beats/min.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1171

13. You are dispatched to a skilled nursing care facility for an 80-year-old female with abnormal behavior. The patient is clearly confused and asks you if you are her husband. As your partner administers oxygen to the patient, you should: A. determine the patient's baseline mental status. B. inquire about a history of Alzheimer disease. C. obtain a complete list of the patient's medications. D. ask an attendant for the patient's medical records.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1219

40. A 73-year-old female experienced a syncopal episode while watching TV. She is now conscious, but is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. Your assessment reveals abdominal tenderness and a pulsating mass to the left of her umbilicus. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. an aortic aneurysm. B. acute appendicitis. C. a strangulated bowel. D. myocardial infarction.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1232

54. You are dispatched to a residence for an 80-year-old female who fell. When you arrive, you find the patient conscious, lying in a recumbent position on the floor in her living room. In addition to providing the appropriate treatment, you should ask the patient if: A. she became dizzy or fainted before falling. B. she attempted to catch herself before falling. C. a family member regularly checks up on her. D. she takes medications for Alzheimer disease.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1240

34. After assessing your patient, you determine that his condition is stable. You provide the appropriate treatment and then load him into the ambulance. While en route to the hospital, you should: A. turn your emergency lights off and obey all traffic laws. B. keep your emergency lights on but avoid using the siren. C. use your lights and siren but drive slowly and defensively. D. drive slowly and remain in the far left-hand lane, if possible.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1348

36. Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should: A. turn your headlights off. B. quickly access the patient. C. place a flare near the crash. D. turn all warning lights off.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1348

12. The rescue team is in the process of extricating a 40-year-old male from his truck. The patient's wife, who was uninjured in the crash, is calmly observing the extrication and asks you if her husband will be all right. You should: A. ensure that she is in a safe area, away from the scene. B. allow her to observe the extrication and keep her calm. C. ask her follow-up questions about the crash. D. allow her to talk to her husband during the extrication.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1371

19. A 50-year-old female is entrapped in her passenger car after it struck a tree. As the rescue team is preparing to extricate her, you quickly assess her and determine that she is breathing shallowly and that her radial pulse is absent. You should: A. maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated. B. secure her with a short backboard or vest device. C. stabilize her condition before extrication begins. D. begin CPR as the rescue team begins extrication.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1373-1374

27. A hiker was injured when he fell approximately 20′ from a cliff. When you arrive at the scene, a member of the technical rescue group escorts you to the patient, who is positioned on a steep incline. The MOST appropriate method of immobilizing and moving the patient to the ambulance is to: A. immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher. B. immobilize him to a long backboard and use the four-person carry to move him. C. apply a vest-style immobilization device and move him using a stair chair device. D. immobilize him with a short backboard and place him on the ambulance stretcher.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1377

4. The term "bloody show" is defined as: A. the small amount of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged from the vagina after expulsion of the mucous plug. B. mild vaginal bleeding that occurs within the first 30 minutes after the onset of the second stage of the labor process. C. the normal amount of vaginal bleeding that occurs within the first 24 hours following delivery of the baby and placenta. D. any volume of blood that is expelled from the vagina after the amniotic sac has ruptured and contractions have begun.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108

5. Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is correct? A. The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus. B. The placental barrier consists of two layers of cells and allows the mother's blood that contains high concentrations of oxygen to directly mix with the blood of the fetus. C. The placenta, also referred to as the afterbirth, provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus and is expelled from the vagina about 30 minutes before the baby is born. D. The placenta allows for the transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the mother and fetus but prevents most medications from passing between the mother and fetus.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108

20. Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include: A. headache and edema. B. marked hypoglycemia. C. dyspnea and bradycardia. D. dysuria and constipation.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111

26. Abruptio placenta occurs when: A. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. B. a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage. C. the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus. D. the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112

36. During delivery, it is MOST important to position your partner at the mother's head because: A. the mother may become nauseated and vomit. B. the mother needs to be apprised of the situation. C. she may need emotional support during the delivery. D. mothers often need assisted ventilation during delivery.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1119

40. During delivery of the baby's head, you should suction the mouth before the nose because: A. suctioning the nose first may cause the baby to gasp and aspirate fluid. B. it is easier to suction larger volumes of fluid from the baby's oropharynx. C. babies are primarily mouth breathers and do not breathe through their nose. D. the mucosa of the nose is fragile and is easily damaged by vigorous suctioning.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1120

45. After a baby is born, it is important to: A. ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed. B. position it so that its head is higher than its body. C. cool the infant to stimulate effective breathing. D. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1123

51. Vigorous suctioning of a newborn's airway is indicated if: A. there is meconium in the amniotic fluid. B. positive-pressure ventilations are indicated. C. the newborn presents with labored breathing. D. his or her heart rate is less than 60 beats/min.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1126

57. Which of the following statements regarding a breech presentation is MOST correct? A. A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part. B. There is minimal risk of trauma to the infant with a breech presentation. C. It is impossible to deliver a breech presentation in the prehospital setting. D. Breech deliveries occur rapidly, so the EMT should deliver at the scene.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1128

59. The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are: A. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord. B. limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage. C. vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta. D. nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1128-1129

62. An abortion occurs when the fetus and placenta deliver before: A. 20 weeks. B. 24 weeks. C. 26 weeks. D. 28 weeks.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1129

66. In contrast to a full-term infant, a premature infant: A. has an even proportionately larger head. B. is often covered with excess vernix material. C. is one who is born before 38 weeks' gestation. D. retains heat better because of excess body hair.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1131

1. The first month of life after birth is referred to as the: A. neonatal period. B. toddler period. C. start of infancy. D. premature phase.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1149

3. A child may begin to show signs of separation anxiety as early as: A. 6 months. B. 12 months. C. 18 months. D. 24 months.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1149

4. Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler: A. at the feet. B. at the head. C. in the ambulance. D. en route to the hospital.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1150

7. When assessing or treating an adolescent patient, it is important to remember that: A. they usually do not wish to be observed during a procedure. B. it is generally not necessary to explain procedures in advance. C. they often request medication to help in the relief of severe pain. D. they cannot understand complex concepts and treatment options.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1153

10. Compared to an adult, the diaphragm dictates the amount of air that a child inspires because the: A. intercostal muscles are not well developed. B. rib cage is rigid and provides little flexibility. C. abdominal organs force the diaphragm upward. D. upper airway is smaller and easily collapsible.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1154

14. Compared to adults, the liver and spleen of pediatric patients are more prone to injury and bleeding because they are: A. proportionately larger and situated more anteriorly. B. more vascular despite the fact that they are proportionately smaller. C. spaced further apart, which causes them to shift following trauma. D. lower in the abdominal cavity, where the muscles are not as strong.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1155

17. The components of the PAT are: A. appearance, work of breathing, and skin circulation. B. mental status, heart rate, and systolic blood pressure. C. skin condition, respiratory rate, and level of alertness. D. activity, respiratory quality, and level of consciousness.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1158

21. Early signs of respiratory distress in the pediatric patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. cyanosis. B. tachypnea. C. retractions. D. abnormal airway noise.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1159

29. A high-pitched inspiratory sound that indicates a partial upper airway obstruction is called: A. stridor. B. rhonchi. C. grunting. D. wheezing.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162

32. After squeezing the end of a child's finger or toe for a few seconds, blood should return to the area within: A. 2 seconds. B. 3 seconds. C. 4 seconds. D. 5 seconds.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162

36. If the situation allows, a child should be transported in a car seat if he or she weighs less than _____ lb. A. 40 B. 50 C. 60 D. 70

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1164

37. Which of the following inquiries should you make in private when obtaining a SAMPLE history from an adolescent patient? A. sexual activity B. past medical history C. change in bladder habits D. duration of symptoms

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1165

39. Blood pressure is usually not assessed in children younger than _____ years. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1167

40. Which of the following represents a low normal systolic blood pressure for a 6-year-old child? A. 82 mm Hg B. 88 mm Hg C. 90 mm Hg D. 98 mm Hg

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1167

42. An infant or child with respiratory distress will attempt to keep his or her alveoli expanded at the end of inhalation by: A. grunting. B. wheezing. C. assuming a tripod position. D. retracting the intercostal muscles.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1168

44. A viral infection that may cause obstruction of the upper airway in a child is called: A. croup. B. asthma. C. bronchitis. D. epiglottitis.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1169

46. Signs of an upper airway obstruction in an infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. wheezing. B. a weak cough. C. a cough that resembles the bark of a seal. D. stridorous breathing.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1170

54. Which of the following statements regarding the use of nasopharyngeal airways in children is correct? A. They are rarely used in infants younger than 1 year. B. It is the recommended adjunct for children with head trauma. C. They are usually not well tolerated in children with a gag reflex. D. Blanching of the nares after insertion indicates correct placement.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1175

58. When administering oxygen to a frightened child, it would be MOST appropriate to: A. place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup. B. tightly secure the oxygen mask straps to the face. C. have a parent restrain the child as you give oxygen. D. use a nasal cannula instead of a nonrebreathing mask.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1176

59. When ventilating a pediatric patient with a bag-mask device, the EMT should: A. block the pop-off valve if needed to achieve adequate chest rise. B. squeeze the bag 40 times/min when ventilating an infant. C. ensure that he or she uses a neonatal device for children younger than 12 months. D. ventilate the child with sharp, quick breaths at the appropriate rate.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1177

72. Signs and symptoms of meningitis in the infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. sunken fontanelles. B. headache and fever. C. a stiff or painful neck. D. an altered mental status.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1183

73. Children with N meningitides would MOST likely present with: A. cherry-red spots or a purplish rash. B. a low-grade fever and tachycardia. C. hypothermia and an irregular pulse. D. a generalized rash with intense itching.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1183

74. The signs and symptoms of poisoning in children: A. vary widely, depending on the child's age and weight. B. are more obvious than in the adult population. C. usually present within the first 10 minutes of ingestion. D. are most severe if the child ingested a poisonous substance.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1184

84. Submersion injuries in the adolescent age group are MOST commonly associated with: A. alcohol. B. child abuse. C. hyperthermia. D. swimming pools.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1186

89. Padding underneath the torso when immobilizing an injured child is generally not necessary if he or she is: A. older than 8 to 10 years. B. complaining of severe back pain. C. immobilized on a long backboard. D. experiencing cardiopulmonary arrest.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1188

90. The pediatric patient should be removed from his or her car seat and secured to an appropriate spinal immobilization device if: A. the car seat is visibly damaged. B. he or she has no visible injuries. C. his or her vital signs are stable. D. he or she even has a minor injury.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1189

92. When a child experiences a blunt injury to the abdomen: A. he or she can compensate for blood loss better than adults. B. his or her blood pressure falls with as little as 5% blood loss. C. your assessment will most often reveal bruising to the abdomen. D. delayed capillary refill indicates a state of decompensated shock.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1192

98. Bruising to the _________ is LEAST suggestive of child abuse. A. shins B. back C. face D. buttocks

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1195

99. Death caused by shaken baby syndrome is usually the result of: A. bleeding in the brain. B. multiple open fractures. C. intra-abdominal hemorrhage. D. fracture of the cervical spine.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1195

3. When explaining the need for a particular procedure to an elderly patient, you should: A. use plain language and simple terms. B. use the appropriate medical terminology. C. be complex so the patient fully understands. D. realize that he or she will not understand you.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216

6. Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to: A. pneumonia. B. osteoporosis. C. heart failure. D. ischemic stroke.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1217

12. Which of the following statements regarding a decreased level of consciousness in the elderly patient is correct? A. A decreased level of consciousness is not a normal part of the aging process. B. Most elderly patients have some deterioration in their level of consciousness. C. A decreased level of consciousness is most often the result of chronic dementia. D. The AVPU scale is an ineffective tool when assessing an elderly patient's level of consciousness.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1219

15. The purpose of the GEMS diamond is to: A. help EMS personnel remember what is different about elderly patients. B. provide the EMT with a standard format for assessing elderly patients. C. replace the typical ABC approach to patient care when caring for the elderly. D. provide clues about an elderly patient's problem by observing his or her home.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1221

19. Which of the following statements regarding the aging process is correct? A. Aging is a linear process; the rate at which a person loses functions does not increase with age. B. Because he or she is younger and healthier, a 35-year-old person ages slower than a 75-year-old person. C. Human growth and development peaks in the late 40s or early 50s, at which point the aging process sets in. D. The older a person gets, the slower the decline in the function of vital organs, such as the kidneys and liver.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1223

20. During the natural process of aging, the number of functional cilia in the respiratory system decreases, resulting in: A. a decreased ability to cough. B. baseline respiratory distress. C. an increased risk of COPD. D. air-trapping within the alveoli.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1223

28. When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, it is MOST important to: A. determine the onset of the patient's symptoms. B. ascertain about a history of atrial fibrillation. C. administer 324 mg of aspirin as soon as possible. D. determine if the patient has risk factors for a stroke.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1227

33. In contrast to delirium, dementia: A. is usually considered irreversible. B. is the result of an acute condition. C. is reversible with certain treatment. D. often develops over a period of days.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1229

36. Syncope in the older patient is: A. caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain. B. generally of no concern unless the patient was injured. C. most commonly caused by a silent myocardial infarction. D. rarely life threatening but should be evaluated by a physician.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1230

42. The stooped posture of some older people, which gives them a humpback appearance, is called: A. kyphosis. B. arthritis. C. scoliosis. D. miosis.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1234

46. When an elderly patient presents you with multiple over-the-counter medications that he or she is taking, it is MOST important to: A. recall that the patient is at risk for negative medication interactions. B. ask the patient to explain what each of the medications is used for. C. look up all of the medications before providing care to the patient. D. contact each of the physicians whose names are on the medications.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1235

49. Which of the following statements regarding suicide in the older patient is correct? A. Older patients tend to use more lethal means than younger patients. B. Older females have a higher rate of suicide than any other group. C. Depression and hopeless feelings are often not predisposing factors. D. Most suicidal patients readily seek care and do not deny the problem.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1236

50. Which of the following is the MOST common mechanism of injury in older patients? A. falls B. burns C. abuse D. suicide

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1237

55. An older woman with osteoporosis presents with pain and deformity to her left hip after she shifted her weight onto her other foot. She has MOST likely experienced a(n): A. pathologic fracture. B. idiopathic fracture. C. compression fracture. D. comminuted fracture.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1240

56. Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of: A. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma. B. increased bone density and car crashes. C. arthritic joints and high-energy trauma. D. acetabular separation and severe falls.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1240

64. Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of ____________ elder abuse. A. physical B. financial C. emotional D. psychological

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1244

31. A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a: A. shunt. B. G-tube. C. CS tube. D. cerebral bypass.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1268

36. Because a tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth: A. secretions can build up in and around the tube. B. the risk of a local infection is significantly high. C. bleeding or air leakage may occur around the tube. D. severe swelling of the trachea and bronchi can occur.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1269

3. Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, EXCEPT: A. emergency care provided at the scene. B. transport of the patient to the hospital. C. checking equipment on the ambulance. D. transferring the patient to the ambulance.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1332

12. A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients on runs longer than: A. 1 hour. B. 2 hours. C. 3 hours. D. 4 hours.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1336

13. Which of the following items would MOST likely require special protocols in order to be carried on the ambulance? A. PASG B. pediatric nonrebreathing masks C. automated external defibrillator (AED) D. devices for restraining a patient

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1337

16. When working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you should NOT use: A. road flares. B. reflective vests. C. portable floodlights. D. intermittent flashing devices.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1339

17. Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes: A. at least one EMT. B. at least two EMTs. C. an EMT and a paramedic. D. an EMT and an AEMT.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1340

23. The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to: A. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash. B. facilitate a route for the media to access the scene. C. prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene. D. get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1344

28. As soon as you leave the hospital and are en route back to your station, you should inform the dispatcher: A. whether you are back in service. B. that you are prepared for another call. C. of the name of the accepting physician. D. about the patient's clinical condition.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1345

40. When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should: A. slow down and allow the driver to pass you. B. increase your speed to create more distance. C. slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater. D. stop the ambulance and confront the driver.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1349

42. The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: A. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. B. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way. C. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance. D. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1350

3. The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident: A. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated. B. should be performed by the most experienced EMT. C. is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry. D. determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1369

10. Common duties and responsibilities of EMS personnel at the scene of a motor vehicle crash include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. keeping bystanders at a safe distance. B. assigning all patients a triage category. C. preparing all patients for transportation. D. continual assessment of critical patients.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1370

35. You are assessing a 440-lb man who complains of shortness of breath and lower back pain. The patient is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 148/98 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 120 beats/min. Your MOST immediate action should be to: A. avoid placing him in a supine position if possible and administer oxygen. B. notify the receiving facility and advise them of the patient's weight and status. C. perform a secondary assessment, focusing on his respiratory system and back. D. ask a member of your team to locate the best route to move him to the ambulance.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1269

9. By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's: A. belly button. B. pubic bone. C. xiphoid process. D. superior diaphragm.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1109

3. Patients with autism: A. have extreme difficulty with complex tasks that require many steps. B. prefer to maintain eye contact with whomever is talking with them. C. often speak with speech patterns that alternate in tone and speed. D. use and understand nonverbal means of communicating messages.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1262

8. Airway management can be challenging in patients with Down syndrome because their: A. teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue. B. occiput is round, which causes flexion of the neck. C. tongue is relatively small and falls back in the throat. D. mandible is large, which inhibits a mask-to-face seal.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1263

20. When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to: A. report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary. B. voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient. C. document the answers to the questions that the patient has responded to. D. avoid any kind of lip movement while he or she is signing with the patient.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1265

25. Cerebral palsy is a condition that results from damage or injury to the: A. brain. B. spinal cord. C. voluntary muscles. D. peripheral nervous system.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1266

26. Which of the following statements regarding cerebral palsy is correct? A. Conditions such as brain injury at birth, postpartum infections, and fetal hypoxia can cause cerebral palsy. B. Most cases of cerebral palsy develop within the first 10 years of life and are typically caused by meningitis. C. Approximately 25% of patients with cerebral palsy possess some varying degrees of developmental delay. D. A key clinical feature of cerebral palsy is paralysis of the respiratory muscles, which confines the patient to a ventilator.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1266

32. Which of the following does NOT usually contribute to or cause obesity? A. rapid metabolism B. high caloric intake C. low metabolic rate D. genetic predisposition

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1268

42. In contrast to an automated implanted cardioverter/defibrillator, an internal cardiac pacemaker: A. regulates the patient's heart rate if it falls below a preset value. B. delivers a shock to the heart if the rate becomes exceedingly fast. C. is implanted under the skin in the left upper abdominal quadrant. D. will only activate if it detects rhythms such as ventricular fibrillation.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1271

44. The tip of a central venous catheter rests in the: A. vena cava. B. left atrium. C. right ventricle. D. pulmonary vein.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1272

49. Vagal nerve stimulators may be an alternative treatment to medication for patients with: A. chronic seizure disorders. B. inherently slow heart rates. C. certain psychiatric conditions. D. chronic muscle pain and fatigue.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1273

50. A surgical procedure that creates an opening between the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n): A. colostomy. B. gastrostomy. C. gastric stoma. D. intestinal shunt.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1273

1. A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. A. I B. II C. III D. IV

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1332

25. When transporting a patient who is secured to a backboard, it is important to: A. place deceleration straps over the patient's shoulders. B. routinely elevate the head of the backboard 12″. C. use at least eight straps to secure the patient to the board. D. place a folded towel or blanket under his or her head.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1344

30. The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: A. cleaning. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. high-level disinfection.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1345

47. Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the ambulance is correct? A. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand. B. If the patient is stable, you may use the warning lights without the siren. C. Warning lights and siren should be avoided, even if the patient is unstable. D. It is generally acceptable to increase your speed if lights and siren are in use

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1352

53. When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should: A. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas. B. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5′ to 6′ from the ground. C. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise. D. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1356

17. In contrast to simple access, complex access: A. involves forcible entry into a vehicle. B. is a skill commonly taught to EMTs. C. does not involve the breaking of glass. D. often involves simply unlocking a door.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1373

42. Upon delivery of the baby's head, you note that its face is encased in the unruptured amniotic sac. You should: A. give the mother 100% oxygen and transport at once. B. puncture the sac and suction the baby's mouth and nose. C. leave the amniotic sac intact until arrival at the hospital. D. note the color of the amniotic fluid before breaking the sac.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1122

46. Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should: A. elevate her legs 6″ to 8″ and cover her with a blanket. B. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion. C. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina. D. place her legs together and position her on her left side.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1124

60. While examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should: A. carefully push the cord back into the vagina. B. push the infant's head away from the cord. C. cover the umbilical cord with a dry dressing. D. gently pull on the cord to facilitate delivery.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1129

23. You are dispatched to a local elementary school for an injured child. As you approach the child, you note that he is lying at the base of the monkey bars. He is unresponsive and there are no signs of breathing. You should: A. begin immediate rescue breathing. B. stabilize his head and check for a pulse. C. perform a head tilt-chin lift maneuver. D. open his airway and look in his mouth.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1160

47. A 6-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. His mother states that she saw him put a small toy into his mouth shortly before the episode began. The child is conscious, obviously frightened, and is coughing forcefully. You should: A. carefully look into his mouth and remove the object if you see it. B. encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport. C. deliver a series of five back blows and then reassess his condition. D. place the child in a supine position and perform abdominal thrusts.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1170

70. A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should: A. allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital. B. attempt cooling measures, offer oxygen, and transport. C. place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever. D. suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1182

76. A 4-year-old female ingested an unknown quantity of liquid drain cleaner. Your assessment reveals that she is conscious and alert, is breathing adequately, and has skin burns around her mouth. You should: A. place her supine and elevate her legs. B. monitor her airway and give oxygen. C. determine why the ingestion occurred. D. give 12.5 to 25 g of activated charcoal.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1184

81. A 6-month-old male presents with 2 days of vomiting and diarrhea. He is conscious, but his level of activity is decreased. The infant's mother tells you that he has not had a soiled diaper in over 12 hours. The infant's heart rate is 140 beats/min and his anterior fontanelle appears to be slightly sunken. You should suspect: A. mild dehydration. B. moderate dehydration. C. severe dehydration. D. hypovolemic shock.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1185

34. A 77-year-old female presents with an acute onset of altered mental status. Her son is present and advises that she has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, type 2 diabetes, and glaucoma. He further advises that she takes numerous medications and that she is normally alert. When you assess this patient, it is important to note that: A. because of her age and medical history, you should suspect Alzheimer disease. B. the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem. C. her mental status is likely the result of hypoglycemia and you should give her sugar. D. dementia typically presents as an acute onset of deterioration of cognitive function.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1229

58. You receive a call for a sick person. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 75-year-old male, lying unresponsive in his bed. His respirations are slow and irregular and his pulse is slow and weak. His daughter tells you that he fell the day before, but refused to allow her to call 9-1-1. His past medical history is significant for hypothyroidism, deep vein thrombosis, heavy alcohol use, and liver cirrhosis. His medications include blood thinners and vitamins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: A. acute hyperglycemia. B. a subdural hematoma. C. acute ischemic stroke. D. diabetic ketoacidosis.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1240-1241

40. A 13-year-old child is on a home ventilator. The parents called because the ventilator is malfunctioning and the child has increasing respiratory distress. You should: A. attempt to troubleshoot the ventilator problem. B. disconnect the ventilator and use a bag-mask device. C. place a call to the home health agency treating this patient. D. reset the ventilator by unplugging it for 30 to 60 seconds.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1270

29. You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should: A. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder. B. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit. C. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call. D. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1345

48. You are dispatched to a residence for a patient with chest pain; however, you are unfamiliar with the address and cannot find the location in your map book. A nearby police officer radios you and tells you that he knows how to get to the scene. You should: A. ask the dispatcher to call the residence and obtain driving directions. B. turn off your lights and carefully follow the police officer to the scene. C. follow the police officer in emergency mode until you get near the scene. D. keep your lights on and ask the police officer to guide you to the scene.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1352

52. It is 10:30 pm and you have requested air medical transport for a critically injured patient. When you arrive at the designated landing zone, you should: A. mark the proposed landing area with road flares. B. survey the area for power lines or other hazards. C. provide the flight crew with a patient status update. D. mark the landing site using personnel with flashlights.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1355

16. You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: A. break the window and unlock the door. B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door. C. request the rescue team to extricate him. D. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1372

22. A 33-year-old restrained driver of a motor vehicle crash is awake and alert, complaining only of neck pain. The vehicle is stable and no hazards are present. When removing this patient from his vehicle, you should: A. use the rapid extrication technique. B. immobilize him with a vest-style device. C. maintain slight traction to his neck area. D. adequately secure him to a long backboard.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1374

2. From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? A. vagina B. uterus C. cervix D. perineum

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108

7. The amniotic fluid serves to: A. transfer oxygen to the fetus. B. insulate and protect the fetus. C. remove viruses from the fetus. D. assist in fetal development.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108

16. Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by: A. regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity. B. alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions. C. pink or red bloody show in conjunction with the contractions. D. a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111

22. Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when: A. a supine position kinks the ascending aorta. B. the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava. C. the superior vena cava is compressed by the uterus. D. blood pressure decreases as a result of hypovolemia.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112

31. The presence of thick meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: A. an expected finding in full-term infants. B. that the baby's airway may be obstructed. C. that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature. D. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1116-1117

33. Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth? A. rupture of the amniotic sac B. crowning of the baby's head C. irregular contractions lasting 10 minutes D. expulsion of the mucus plug from the vagina

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1118

43. A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that: A. has separated from the placenta. B. is wrapped around the baby's neck. C. is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery. D. has abnormally developed blood vessels.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1122

54. If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at: A. 7:53. B. 7:57. C. 7:59. D. 8:00.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1127

64. Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. low birth weight. B. profound tachycardia. C. premature delivery. D. respiratory depression.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1130

68. General treatment guidelines when caring for a woman with traumatic vaginal bleeding include: A. carefully removing impaled objects. B. transporting to an appropriate facility. C. packing the vagina with sterile dressings. D. cleaning external wounds with sterile water.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1132

6. When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should: A. refrain from taking a blood pressure. B. talk to the child, not just the caregiver. C. use a toe-to-head assessment approach. D. rely solely on the parent for information.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1152

9. The normal respiratory rate for a newborn should not exceed ______ breaths/min. A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. 80

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1154

12. Signs of vasoconstriction in the infant or child include: A. warm, dry skin. B. weak distal pulses. C. a rapid heart rate. D. brisk capillary refill.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1155

16. The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to: A. determine if the child's vital signs are within the age-appropriate limits. B. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child. C. facilitate a rapid head-to-toe assessment of the child by visualization only. D. gather critical data by performing a rapid hands-on assessment of the child.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1158

22. Before assessing the respiratory adequacy of an semiconscious infant or child, you must: A. routinely suction the mouth to remove oral secretions. B. ensure that the airway is patent and clear of obstructions. C. insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway adjunct. D. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1160

25. To ensure that the airway of an infant or small child is correctly positioned, you may have to: A. place bulky padding behind his or her occiput. B. place a towel or folded sheet behind the shoulders. C. slightly flex the neck to prevent tracheal kinking. D. hyperextend the neck to ensure adequate alignment.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1160

31. After determining that an infant or child has strong central pulses, you should: A. assume the child is hypertensive. B. not rule out compensated shock. C. conclude that the child is stable. D. assess his or her respiratory effort.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162

33. Capillary refill time is MOST reliable as an indicator of end-organ perfusion in children younger than: A. 4 years. B. 6 years. C. 8 years. D. 10 years.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162-1163

45. Infection should be considered a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with: A. extreme restlessness. B. drooling or congestion. C. skin that is cool and dry. D. acute respiratory distress.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1170

51. The MOST efficient way to identify the appropriately sized equipment for a pediatric patient is to: A. estimate the child's weight based on age. B. use a length-based resuscitation tape measure. C. estimate the child's weight based on appearance. D. ask a relative if he or she knows the child's weight.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1173

52. An oropharyngeal airway should not be used in children who have ingested a caustic or petroleum-based product because it may: A. depress the gag reflex. B. cause the child to vomit. C. result in airway swelling. D. result in a soft-tissue injury.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1173

56. Use of a nonrebreathing mask or nasal cannula in a child is appropriate ONLY if: A. an oral airway has been inserted. B. his or her tidal volume is adequate. C. his or her respirations are shallow. D. he or she is breathing inadequately.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1176

61. Cardiac arrest in the pediatric population is MOST commonly the result of: A. a complete airway obstruction. B. respiratory or circulatory failure. C. a congenital cardiovascular defect. D. lethal cardiac rhythm disturbances.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1179

65. Which of the following is the LEAST reliable assessment parameter to evaluate when determining the presence of shock in infants and children? A. heart rate B. blood pressure C. skin condition D. capillary refill

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1180

66. Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. infection. B. hyperglycemia. C. electrolyte imbalances. D. poisonings or ingestion

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182

67. Febrile seizures are MOST common in children between: A. 3 months and 4 years. B. 6 months and 6 years. C. 8 months and 8 years. D. 18 months and 10 years.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182

71. Which of the following groups of people is associated with the lowest risk of meningitis? A. newborns B. females C. geriatrics D. children with shunts

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182

77. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate dose of activated charcoal for a 20-kg child? A. 12.5 g B. 20 g C. 25 g D. 50 g

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1184

80. Signs of severe dehydration in an infant include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. profound tachycardia. B. slowed level of activity. C. delayed capillary refill. D. dry mucous membranes.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1185

82. The EMT should be MOST concerned when a child presents with fever and: A. chills. B. a rash. C. ear pain. D. a headache.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1186

86. When a child is struck by a car, the area of greatest injury depends MOSTLY on the: A. speed at which the car was traveling when impact occurred. B. size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact. C. age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her. D. height of the child and the speed at which the car was traveling.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1187

91. When a child experiences a blunt chest injury: A. the flexible rib cage protects the vital thoracic organs. B. the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking. C. the sudden force against the ribs causes them to fracture. D. there is usually obvious injury to the external chest wall.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1190

94. Critical burns in children include: A. any superficial or partial-thickness burn that involves the legs or arms. B. partial-thickness burns covering more than 20% of the body surface. C. second-degree burns covering more than 10% of the body surface. D. superficial burns covering more than 10% to 15% of the body surface.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1192

96. Effective methods for providing pain relief to a child with an extremity injury include: A. separating the child from his or her parents. B. positioning, ice packs, and emotional support. C. avoiding the placement of a splint, if possible. D. heat compresses and lowering the injured extremity.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1193-1194

100. With regard to the legal implications of child abuse: A. child abuse must be reported only if it can be proven. B. EMTs must report all suspected cases of child abuse. C. you should document your perceptions on the run form. D. a supervisor can forbid you from reporting possible abuse.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196

101. When caring for a female child who has possibly been sexually abused, you should: A. encourage the child to urinate and take a shower. B. have a female EMT remain with her if possible. C. carefully examine the genitalia for signs of injury. D. immediately report your suspicions to the parents.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196

105. During the attempted resuscitation of an infant with suspected SIDS: A. discourage the family from observing. B. allow the family to observe if they wish. C. a law enforcement officer must be present. D. give detailed updates to the infant's parents.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1197

1. To minimize distractions and confusion when assessing an older patient, you should: A. dismiss the family members from the room or area. B. have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time. C. elevate your voice and speak directly to the patient. D. perform a physical exam and then talk to the patient.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216

4. Talking about an elderly patient in front of him or her to other members of the family: A. often causes the patient to become paranoid and untrusting of your help. B. may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions. C. will anger the patient and result in his or her refusal to accept care or transport. D. is usually beneficial because the patient's cognitive skills are typically impaired.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216

10. When transporting a stable older patient to the hospital, the MOST effective way to reduce his or her anxiety is to: A. allow at least two family members to accompany the patient. B. transport him or her to a hospital that he or she is familiar with. C. avoid the use of a long backboard, even if trauma is suspected. D. perform frequent detailed assessments to gain the patient's trust.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1219

16. Upon entering the residence of a geriatric patient with a medical or trauma complaint, the EMT should: A. immediately seek out a family member or other caregiver. B. observe for conditions that may make the residence unsafe. C. begin his or her assessment after gathering any medication bottles. D. talk to the patient after performing his or her primary assessment.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1221

17. Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS diamond? A. Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect. B. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. C. A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living. D. The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1221-1222

22. An older patient with significant dehydration would MOST likely present with: A. an increase in blood pressure upon standing. B. dizziness or fainting upon standing. C. weakness to one side of the body. D. a drop in heart rate upon standing.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1224

25. A "silent" heart attack occurs when: A. sweating is the only presentation. B. the usual chest pain is not present. C. a sudden dysrhythmia causes death. D. the patient minimizes the chest pain.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1226

26. The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with: A. fever and a cough that produces green sputum. B. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. C. jugular venous distention and peripheral edema. D. swelling of the lower extremities and weakness.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1227

30. Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: A. retinitis. B. cataracts. C. glaucoma. D. conjunctivitis.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1228

35. Causes of delirium in the older patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. acute hypovolemia. B. Alzheimer disease. C. low blood sugar level. D. decreased cerebral perfusion

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1229-1230

38. Common causes of syncope in older patients include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. venous pooling. B. vasoconstriction. C. acute hypotension. D. blood volume loss.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1231

45. Blood levels of medications may rise in the elderly, sometimes to toxic levels. This is MOST likely due to: A. pancreatic failure. B. renal insufficiency. C. intentional overdose. D. splenic dysfunction.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1235

47. The use of multiple prescription drugs by a single patient, causing the potential for negative effects such as overdosing or drug interaction, is called: A. potentiation. B. polypharmacy. C. drug tolerance. D. drug dependency.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1235

53. When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT would MOST likely have to: A. force the head into a neutral alignment. B. place blankets behind the patient's head. C. secure the patient's head before the torso. D. use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1240

59. Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries should be suspected of having a brain injury, especially if they: A. have minor abrasions to the head area. B. are taking blood-thinning medications. C. do not have deformities to the skull. D. have a history of Alzheimer disease.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1241

61. In contrast to a living will, a "do not resuscitate" (DNR) order becomes valid when: A. the patient has a terminal illness. B. the patient develops cardiac arrest. C. the patient is in a health care setting. D. it is signed by three or more physicians.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1243

62. When faced with a situation in which an older patient with a terminal illness is in cardiac arrest, but written documentation regarding the patient's wishes cannot be located, the EMT should: A. try to locate the documentation. B. attempt to resuscitate the patient. C. allow the patient to die in peace. D. contact medical control for advice.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1243

66. When assessing an older patient who has multiple bruises in various stages of healing, the EMT should do all of the following, EXCEPT: A. factually document all findings. B. accuse a caregiver of physical abuse. C. ask the patient how the bruises occurred. D. review the patient's activities of daily living.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1245

2. The six-pointed Star of Life® emblem identifies vehicles that: A. are staffed by a minimum of one certified advanced EMT (AEMT). B. meet federal specifications as licensed or certified ambulances. C. are equipped with supplies to manage a mass-casualty situation. D. have complied with state regulations for ambulance certification.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1332

4. Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: A. as directed by the EMS system's medical director. B. according to the urgency and frequency of their use. C. based on recommendations of the health department. D. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1333

7. Minimum airway and ventilation equipment that should be carried on every ambulance include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. various sizes of oral and nasal airways. B. Combitubes or laryngeal mask airways. C. mounted and portable suctioning units. D. adult and pediatric bag-mask devices.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1336

15. Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. face shields. B. hazardous materials gear. C. safety goggles. D. turnout gear.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1339

20. Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. observe the scene for safety hazards. C. determine if additional units are needed. D. carefully assess the mechanism of injury.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1342

21. When parking your ambulance at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you should position the ambulance: A. 50′ past the scene on the opposite side of the road. B. 100′ past the scene on the same side of the road. C. 50′ before the scene on the same side of the road. D. alongside the scene to rapidly access the patient(s).

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1343

31. Upon returning to your station following a run, you should disinfect the ambulance as needed. Disinfection is MOST accurately defined as: A. using heat as a means of removing all microbial contaminants. B. killing pathogenic agents with a chemical made for that purpose. C. removing dirt, dust, blood, or other grossly visible contaminants. D. destroying pathogenic agents by using potent disinfection means.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1345

32. Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include: A. the ability to operate an ambulance at a high rate of speed. B. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers. C. realizing that lights and siren will be effective traffic tools. D. an offensive attitude about driving during an emergency call.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1347

33. When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in emergency mode, you should: A. pass other drivers on the right side. B. remain in the extreme left-hand lane. C. remain in the extreme right-hand lane. D. drive in the center lane of the highway.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1348

41. If you properly assess and stabilize a patient at the scene, driving to the hospital with excessive speed: A. is allowable according to state law. B. will decrease the driver's reaction time. C. is often necessary if the patient is critical. D. increases the patient's chance for survival.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1350

54. When a helicopter must land on a grade (uneven ground), you should: A. approach the aircraft from the uphill side. B. approach the aircraft from the downhill side. C. attempt to approach the aircraft from behind. D. move the patient to the aircraft as soon as it lands.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1357

15. Which of the following is the BEST example of gaining simple access to a patient? A. using a pry bar to open a damaged door B. entering a vehicle through an open window C. breaking glass to gain access to the patient D. removing the roof to access a critical patient

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1372

18. Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: A. allow extrication to commence. B. perform a primary assessment. C. administer high-flow oxygen. D. begin treating his or her injuries.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1373

29. Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot. A. 50 lb B. 100 lb C. 150 lb D. 200 lb

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1378

32. Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then: A. begin immediate triage of any injured personnel. B. report to the incident commander for instructions. C. locate all injured personnel and begin treatment. D. apprise medical control of the tactical situation.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1379

63. A common cause of shock in an infant is: A. a cardiac arrhythmia. B. dehydration from vomiting and diarrhea. C. excessive tachycardia. D. cardiovascular disease.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1180

35. You and your partner are standing by at the scene of a residential fire when you hear the incident commander state "We have located a victim" over the radio. You should: A. notify the hospital that you will be transporting a burn patient to their facility. B. remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you. C. immediately locate the incident commander and ask where the victim is located. D. locate the victim and provide initial care while your partner stays with the ambulance.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1379

10. Which of the following is a normal physiologic change that occurs in the mother's respiratory system during pregnancy? A. decreased respiratory rate and increased minute volume B. increased respiratory rate and decreased respiratory reserve C. increased respiratory reserve and decreased oxygen demand D. increased respiratory depth and decreased respiratory rate

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1109

30. If a pregnant patient requires spinal immobilization, you should secure her to the backboard and then: A. tilt the board 30° to the right to prevent hypotension. B. elevate the right side of the board with rolled towels or blankets. C. raise the foot of the board 12″ in order to maintain blood pressure. D. elevate the head of the board 6″ to prevent breathing impairment.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1116

1. Which of the following statements regarding patients with developmental disabilities is correct? A. Speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands. B. Patients with developmental disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients. C. A developmental disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality. D. Most patients with developmental disabilities have normal cognitive function, but abnormal physical features.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1262

6. Characteristic anatomic features of Down syndrome include: A. a proportionately small tongue. B. a round head with a flat occiput. C. bulging eyes and a large face. D. long hands with wide fingers.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1262

11. When assessing or providing care to a patient with a developmental disability, you should: A. explain procedures while in the process of performing them. B. be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient. C. move swiftly and deliberately to quickly accomplish the task. D. frequently reassure him or her that everything will be okay.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1264

16. In contrast to conductive hearing loss, sensorineural hearing loss is caused by: A. barotrauma. B. nerve damage. C. earwax accumulation. D. eardrum perforation.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1265

17. Which of the following would be the MOST practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located? A. attempting to use body language to determine the problem B. using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions C. using a high-pitched voice while speaking directly into the ear D. contacting dispatch and requesting a sign language interpreter

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1265

21. By placing one hand on top of your head and the other hand over your abdomen, you are asking a hearing-impaired patient if he or she: A. is hurt. B. is sick. C. needs help. D. is nauseated.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1265

28. When caring for patients with cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that: A. they are unable to walk and are totally dependent upon you. B. their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury. C. hearing aids are usually ineffective for patients with hearing loss. D. most patients have the ability to walk, but have an unsteady gait.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1267

29. Spina bifida is MOST accurately defined as: A. congenital inflammation of the spinal cord, usually in the neck. B. a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column. C. a birth defect in which the child is born without spinal vertebrae. D. chronic pressure on the brain caused by excess cerebrospinal fluid.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1268

30. Common associated conditions in patients with spina bifida include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hydrocephalus. B. spastic limb movement. C. extreme latex allergy. D. loss of bladder control.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1268

38. General care for a patient with a tracheostomy tube includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation at all times. B. removing the tube if the area around it appears to be infected. C. suctioning the tube as needed to clear a thick mucous plug. D. maintaining the patient in a position of comfort when possible.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1269

43. Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used? A. to permanently replace the function of one or both of the ventricles B. as a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located C. to reduce ventricular pumping force in patients with aortic aneurysms D. to ensure that the ventricles contract at an adequate and consistent rate

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1272

47. For which of the following conditions would you MOST likely encounter a ventricular peritoneum shunt? A. heart failure B. hydrocephalus C. cerebral palsy D. subdural hematoma

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1272

53. According to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA): A. all health care facilities are legally obligated to provide assessment and care only if the patient is critically ill or injured. B. all health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay. C. a health care facility has the right to refuse assessment and treatment to a patient, but only if his or her condition is not deemed critical. D. a patient maintains the legal right to recant his or her consent to emergency treatment, even after signing in to the emergency department.j

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1275

10. A portable oxygen cylinder should have a capacity of a minimum of ____ of oxygen. A. 250 L B. 500 L C. 750 L D. 1,000 L

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1336

44. If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should: A. slowly move the steering wheel back and forth. B. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes. C. slowly pump the brakes until he or she regains vehicle control. D. quickly jerk the steering wheel.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1351

4. Situational awareness is MOST accurately defined as: A. an ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics. B. the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact. C. predicting the presence of certain hazards at the scene after receiving initial information from the dispatcher. D. performing an initial scan of the scene in order to identify hazards that will pose an immediate threat to you and your crew.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1369

6. In order to evaluate hazards present at the scene and determine the number of patients, you should: A. request the fire department at all scenes. B. perform a 360° walk-around of the scene. C. use the information provided by dispatch. D. interview bystanders present at the scene.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1369-1370

26. If a technical rescue team is required at the scene, but is not present when you arrive, you should: A. don personal protective equipment and begin the rescue process. B. check with the incident commander to ensure that the team is en route. C. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene. D. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1376

30. Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct? A. Rescue vehicles should park at least 250′ from the scene. B. Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse. C. A trench deeper than 10′ should be shored prior to entry. D. Most deaths involving cave-ins are caused by head injury.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1378

34. You are assessing a 25-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant. She is experiencing regular contractions that are approximately 3 minutes apart and states that her amniotic sac broke 2 hours ago. After taking the standard precautions, you should: A. apply 100% oxygen. B. place her on her left side. C. assess her for crowning. D. transport her immediately.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1118

55. You have just delivered a baby boy. His body is pink, but his hands and feet are blue. His heart rate is approximately 110 beats/min and his respirations are rapid and irregular. He has a weak cry when stimulated and resists attempts to straighten his legs. His Apgar score is: A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1127

56. You have just delivered a full-term infant. His respirations are rapid and irregular, and he has a strong cry. What should you do next? A. Allow the mother to hold her baby. B. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord. C. Assess the brachial or umbilical pulse. D. Begin assisting the newborn's breathing.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1127

20. You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18-month-old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retractions, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry, and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. The MOST appropriate treatment for this child includes: A. requesting a paramedic ambulance to insert an advanced airway device. B. separating the child from her mother and providing ventilatory assistance. C. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother. D. allowing the child to remain with her mother and applying a nasal cannula.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1158-1159

14. A 69-year-old female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She is semiconscious with a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 74 beats/min that is weak. Her daughter, who was uninjured in the crash, tells you that her mother has a history of hypertension and takes beta-blockers. Considering the fact that this patient is probably in shock, what is the MOST likely explanation for the absence of tachycardia? A. deterioration of the cardiac conduction system B. intrathoracic bleeding and cardiac compression C. the effects of her antihypertensive medication D. failure of the parasympathetic nervous system

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1220

41. You are assessing a 70-year-old female who complains of intense thirst, frequent urination, and dizziness. She has a history of type 2 diabetes, heart disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout. Her blood glucose level is 450 mg/dL. She is conscious, but confused. Her blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min and shallow. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. diabetic ketoacidosis. B. hyperglycemia with moderate dehydration. C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNC). D. acute renal failure with associated hyperglycemia.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1233

52. Upon arriving at the residence of an elderly female who apparently fainted, you find the patient lying supine on her living room floor. She is not moving and her eyes are closed. A neighbor tells you that she found the patient this way, but did not move her. When you gently tap the patient, she does not respond. You should: A. suction her airway, apply a cervical collar, administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and perform a rapid assessment. B. open her airway with the head tilt-chin lift maneuver, insert an oral or nasal airway, and assess her blood glucose level to rule out hypoglycemia. C. direct your partner to manually stabilize her head while you quickly visualize her chest for signs of breathing. D. begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device while your partner auscultates her lung sounds to ensure adequate positive-pressure ventilation.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1238

22. When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: A. park downhill from the scene. B. ask the driver to exit the vehicle. C. position the ambulance upwind. D. quickly gain access to the patient.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1343

50. Your unit and a fire department vehicle are responding to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest. As you approach an intersection that is highly congested, you should: A. turn off your lights and siren and proceed with safety. B. advise the fire department vehicle to follow you closely. C. use a different siren tone than the fire department vehicle. D. ask the fire department vehicle to remain 1,000′ behind you.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1353

5. Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients, one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should: A. begin triage to determine injury severity. B. call medical control for further direction. C. immediately request additional resources. D. request law enforcement for traffic control.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1369

23. As you and your team are removing an unconscious patient from her wrecked car, you note that she has closed deformities to both of her legs and a deformity to her left humerus. You should: A. realign the deformed extremities before continuing. B. splint the deformities before moving her any further. C. support the injured extremities and continue removal. D. assess distal neurovascular functions in her extremities.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1374

31. You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should: A. limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only. B. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place. C. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety. D. perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1379

6. The umbilical cord: A. separates from the placenta shortly after birth. B. carries blood away from the baby via the artery. C. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein. D. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108

14. The term primigravida refers to a woman who: A. has never been pregnant. B. has had only one live birth. C. is pregnant for the first time. D. has had more than one live baby.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1110

15. Which of the following occurs during true labor? A. Uterine contractions decrease in intensity. B. The uterus becomes very soft and movable. C. Uterine contractions become more regular. D. Uterine contractions last about 10 seconds.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111

21. Eclampsia is MOST accurately defined as: A. high levels of protein in the patient's urine. B. hypertension in the 20th week of pregnancy. C. seizures that result from severe hypertension. D. a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111

24. The leading cause of maternal death during the first trimester of pregnancy is: A. massive brain damage secondary to a prolonged seizure. B. unrecognized or untreated supine hypotensive syndrome. C. internal bleeding caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. D. blunt trauma to the abdomen during a motor vehicle crash.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112

29. A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: A. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate. B. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure. C. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume. D. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1113

32. Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver her baby within the next few minutes? A. "When are you due?" B. "Is this your first baby?" C. "Have you had a sonogram?" D. "Do you feel the urge to push?"

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1117

39. When the mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct her to: A. hold her breath. B. push for 30 seconds. C. take quick short breaths. D. rest and breathe deeply.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1119

47. Which of the following is NOT generally considered an obstetrical emergency? A. failure of the placenta to deliver after 30 minutes B. significant bleeding after delivery of the placenta C. return of contractions following delivery of the baby D. more than 500 mL of blood loss before placental delivery

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1124

48. A newborn infant will usually begin breathing spontaneously within _______ seconds following birth. A. 3 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 15 to 30 D. 30 to 60

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1124

49. Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. suctioning of the upper airway. B. thorough drying with a towel. C. positive-pressure ventilations. D. some form of tactile stimulation.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1124

63. Which of the following statements regarding twins is correct? A. Twins are typically larger than single infants. B. Identical twins are typically of different gender. C. Most twins are born within 45 minutes of each other. D. Fraternal twins have two cords coming from one placenta.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1130

67. Following delivery of a pulseless and apneic infant who has a foul odor, skin sloughing, and diffuse blistering, you should: A. begin full resuscitation and transport. B. report the case to the medical examiner. C. provide emotional support to the mother. D. dry the infant off to stimulate breathing.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1131

8. Which of the following statements regarding a pediatric patient's anatomy is correct? A. The tracheal rings of a child are more rigid than an adult's. B. A child's tongue is proportionately smaller than an adult's. C. Children have a larger, rounder occiput compared to adults. D. The child's epiglottis is less floppy and smaller than an adult's.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1153-1154

11. Pale skin in a child indicates that the: A. child is in severe decompensated shock. B. oxygen content in the blood is decreased. C. blood vessels near the skin are constricted. D. child's core body temperature is elevated.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1155

18. After using the PAT to form your general impression of a sick or injured child, you should: A. evaluate the child's baseline vital signs. B. obtain a SAMPLE history from the parents. C. perform a hands-on assessment of the ABCs. D. assess the child's heart rate and skin condition.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1158

26. When assessing an infant's ventilation status, you should: A. observe the chest for rise and fall. B. rule out hypoxia if cyanosis is absent. C. palpate the abdomen for rise and fall. D. give oxygen if the SpO2 is less than 90%.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1160

30. When assessing the heart rate of a 6-month-old infant, you should palpate the brachial pulse or ________ pulse. A. radial B. carotid C. femoral D. popliteal

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162

38. The secondary assessment of a sick or injured child: A. is a rapid head-to-toe exam to detect life threats. B. should be performed, regardless of the circumstances. C. may not be possible if the child's condition is critical. D. is most appropriate when your transport time is short.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1166

41. Early signs of respiratory distress in the child include: A. cyanosis. B. bradycardia. C. restlessness. D. decreased LOC.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1168

48. Signs of a severe airway obstruction in an infant or child include: A. pink, dry skin. B. crying and anxiety. C. an ineffective cough. D. mild respiratory distress.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1171

55. If a nasopharyngeal airway is too long, it may: A. result in tachycardia. B. push the tongue anteriorly. C. stimulate the vagus nerve. D. become obstructed by mucus.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1176

57. Which of the following children would benefit the LEAST from a nonrebreathing mask? A. a conscious 4-year-old male with adequate tidal volume B. a responsive 6-year-old male who responds appropriately C. an unresponsive 5-year-old male with shallow respirations D. a semiconscious 7-year-old female with normal ventilation

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1176

62. In contrast to adults, deterioration to cardiac arrest in infants and children is usually associated with: A. irritability of the left ventricle. B. a sudden ventricular arrhythmia. C. severe hypoxia and bradycardia. D. acute hypoxia and tachycardia.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1180

68. In most children, febrile seizures are characterized by: A. a blank stare, a duration of between 15 and 30 minutes, and a prolonged postictal phase. B. unresponsiveness, complete body relaxation, a fever greater than 105°F, and a short postictal phase. C. generalized tonic-clonic activity, a duration of less than 15 minutes, and a short or absent postictal phase. D. isolated tonic-clonic activity, a duration of greater than 15 minutes, and a short postictal phase.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182

75. When questioning the parent of a child who ingested a poisonous substance, which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence? A. What time did the ingestion occur? B. Have you noticed any signs or symptoms? C. Why did your child ingest the poison? D. Do you know what substance was ingested?

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1184

78. The MOST common cause of dehydration in pediatric patients is: A. high fever. B. internal blood loss. C. vomiting and diarrhea. D. refusal to drink fluids.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1185

85. Which of the following statements regarding pediatric trauma is correct? A. Children are less likely than adults to be struck by a car. B. A child's head is less frequently injured than an adult's. C. Children are more likely to experience diving-related injuries. D. Inexperience and poor judgment are rare causes of pediatric trauma.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1187

95. Greenstick fractures occur in infants and children because: A. the growth plate is commonly injured. B. their bones are more brittle than an adult's. C. their bones bend more easily than an adult's. D. twisting injuries are more common in children.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1193

97. Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of child abuse? A. evidence of alcohol consumption or drug use at the scene B. burns to the hands or feet that involve a glove distribution C. consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver D. an unexplained delay in seeking medical care after the injury

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1195

102. Which of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is correct? A. Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable. B. SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection. C. Most cases of SIDS occur in infants younger than 6 months. D. The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196

103. Which of the following is NOT a known risk factor of SIDS? A. mother younger than 20 years B. low birth weight C. putting a baby to sleep on his or her back D. mother smoked during pregnancy

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196

2. General communication techniques with the elderly include: A. using medical terms to ensure patient understanding. B. explaining procedures while you are performing them. C. frequently asking the patient if he or she understands. D. having at least two EMTs talk to the patient at a time.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216

8. When caring for a geriatric patient with a traumatic injury, it is important to consider that: A. geriatric patients usually present with little to no pain. B. decreased bone density often results in incomplete fractures. C. the injury may have been preceded by a medical condition. D. geriatric patients typically present with classic signs of shock.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1218

9. Because of the complexity of the older patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should: A. limit your physical examination to the area of pain or injury. B. rely exclusively on family members for the medical history. C. attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems. D. perform a rapid assessment on all geriatric patients you treat.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1218

18. Findings during the social assessment of an older patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. interaction with others. B. daily activity assistance. C. outdated medications. D. delays in obtaining meals

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1221-1222

23. Which of the following patients is at highest risk for a pulmonary embolism? A. 59-year-old male who is recovering from pneumonia B. 66-year-old active female with a history of hypertension C. 71-year-old male with recent surgery to a lower extremity D. 78-year-old female who takes blood thinning medications

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1224

24. In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in blood pressure upon standing because: A. their red blood cells are destroyed at a faster than normal rate. B. the aging process results in an overall increase in blood volume. C. the baroreceptors have become less sensitive to blood pressure. D. any change in position causes blood to be shunted to the brain.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1226

27. When assessing a 78-year-old female who complains of shortness of breath, the EMT should: A. give oxygen only if the patient has labored breathing. B. conclude that the patient is experiencing a heart attack. C. ask her how many pillows she uses when she sleeps. D. place the patient supine to see if the problem worsens.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1227

37. Motor nerve neuropathy is characterized by: A. numbness, tingling, and severe muscle pain. B. loss of bladder control and sensitivity to touch. C. loss of balance, muscle weakness, and spasms. D. constipation, low blood pressure, and bradycardia.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1230

39. An abdominal aortic aneurysm: A. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early. B. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders. C. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis. D. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1232

43. Osteoporosis is MOST accurately defined as: A. increased flexibility of bone mass. B. decreased bone marrow production. C. a decrease in bone mass and density. D. an abnormality near the growth plate.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1234

48. Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. chronic medical conditions. B. prescription medication use. C. an acute onset of dementia. D. alcohol abuse and dependence.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1236

51. When performing your secondary assessment on an older patient who has been injured, it is important to: A. routinely perform a focused exam to minimize time at the scene. B. perform an in-depth physical exam prior to initiating any treatment. C. recall that it will take a less severe mechanism of injury to cause significant injuries. D. focus your assessment just on the area(s) of pain or obvious injury.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1238

63. Which of the following is NOT a reason why the exact extent and prevalence of elder abuse is unknown? A. It has been largely hidden from society. B. The definitions of abuse and neglect vary. C. Human resource agencies fail to investigate. D. Victims of elder abuse are hesitant to report it.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1243

8. The LEAST practical place to store a portable oxygen cylinder is: A. inside the jump kit. B. near the side or rear door. C. in the driver's compartment. D. on the ambulance stretcher.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1336

19. Common activities that occur while you and your partner are en route to the scene of an emergency call include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. assigning tasks to each member of the response team. B. obtaining additional information from the dispatcher. C. apprising the medical director of the nature of the call. D. fastening your seatbelts before the ambulance departs.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1342

26. During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is MOST important to: A. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates. B. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. C. converse with the patient and provide reassurance. D. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1345

35. General guidelines for safe ambulance driving include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. avoiding one-way streets whenever possible. B. assuming that other drivers will not see you. C. regularly using the siren as much as possible. D. avoiding routes with heavy traffic congestion.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1348

37. Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because: A. they may become enraged and attempt to run you off the road. B. they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible. C. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle. D. they often freeze when they see the lights in the rearview mirror.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1348

45. While using lights and siren, most state laws permit an ambulance to: A. disregard all traffic control signals. B. drive as fast as the department allows. C. carefully exceed the posted speed limit. D. proceed through red lights without stopping.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1352

49. The MOST common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: A. stop signs. B. stop lights. C. intersections. D. railroad crossings.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1352

55. Typically medivac helicopters fly between: A. 100 and 120 mph. B. 120 and 140 mph. C. 130 and 150 mph. D. 150 and 200 mph.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1358

1. Extrication is MOST accurately defined as: A. using heavy equipment to access a patient. B. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim. C. removal from a dangerous situation or position. D. immobilizing a patient before moving him or her

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1368

13. When determining the exact location and position of the patient(s) in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the position of the crashed vehicle. B. hazards that pose a risk to rescuers. C. the make and model of the vehicle. D. the possibility of vehicle instability.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1372

24. When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: A. remove him or her using a short backboard. B. move him or her in one fast, continuous step. C. protect the cervical spine during the entire process. D. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1375

64. Blood loss in a child exceeding _____ of his or her total blood volume significantly increases the risk of shock. A. 5% B. 15% C. 25% D. 35%

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1180

23. A 70-year-old male complains of shortness of breath. During your assessment, you note that he has bilateral hearing aids. When you ask him questions related to his chief complaint, he does not answer you. You can hear a whistling sound coming from his hearing aids. You should: A. recognize that the batteries in his hearing aids are probably depleted. B. remove his hearing aids, turn up the volume, and replace them in his ears. C. try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume. D. remove both of his hearing aids and use pencil and paper to communicate.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1266

1. Which of the following processes occurs during ovulation? A. Certain female hormone levels decrease significantly in quantity. B. The endometrium sheds its lining and is expelled from the vagina. C. The inner lining of the uterus thickens in preparation for implantation. D. Numerous follicles mature and release eggs into the fallopian tubes.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1107

28. Which of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is correct? A. Gestational diabetes results in permanent diabetes mellitus after delivery. B. The onset of gestational diabetes typically manifests with hypoglycemia. C. In some cases, women with gestational diabetes require insulin injections. D. Diet and exercise are typically ineffective in controlling gestational diabetes.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1113

37. A precipitous labor and delivery is MOST common in women who: A. have gestational diabetes. B. are younger than 30 years of age. C. have delivered a baby before. D. are pregnant for the first time.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1119

4. Which of the following statements regarding autism is correct? A. Autism affects females four times greater than males. B. The majority of patients with autism do not speak at all. C. Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age. D. Impairment of motor activity is a classic sign of autism.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1262

5. Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of: A. an extra pair of chromosomes. B. a separation of chromosome 21. C. a triplication of chromosome 21. D. a sperm that contains 24 chromosomes.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1262

10. When interacting with a developmentally disabled patient, the best approach is to: A. speak primarily with the patient's family to establish the degree of disability. B. approach the patient as a team to reassure him or her that you are there to help. C. ask your team members to wait until you can establish a rapport with the patient. D. position yourself slightly above the patient's level to reduce his or her anxiety.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1263

15. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely cause a patient to slur words, speak very slowly, or speak in a monotone? A. advanced age B. cerebral palsy C. Parkinson disease D. visual impairment

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1265

19. Because hearing-impaired patients typically have more difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds, it is important for you to: A. try basic sign language first. B. speak in a monotone voice. C. lower the pitch of your voice. D. increase the pitch of your voice.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1265

22. Which of the following statements regarding hearing aids is correct? A. Over time, hearing aids can restore normal hearing. B. In-the-canal hearing aids fit in the outer part of the ear. C. Hearing aids cannot restore hearing to normal levels. D. A whistling sound indicates correct hearing aid placement.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1266

24. Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled ________ movement. A. eye B. neck C. body D. extremity

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1266

33. A person is said to be obese when he or she is ________ over his or her ideal weight. A. 5% to 10% B. 10% to 15% C. 20% to 30% D. 40% to 50%

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1268

37. According to the "E" in the DOPE mnemonic, which of the following actions should you perform to troubleshoot inadequate ventilation in a patient with a tracheostomy tube? A. Look for blood or other secretions in the tube. B. Attempt to pass a suction catheter into the tube. C. Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction. D. Listen to breath sounds to assess for a pneumothorax.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1269

39. If suctioning of the tracheostomy tube is necessary, the EMT should: A. attach a bag-mask device to the tracheostomy tube and hyperventilate the patient for 2 minutes. B. instill 20 mL of saline into the tracheostomy tube and suction for no longer than 20 seconds. C. attempt to use the patient's suction device first because it is probably already sized correctly. D. insert the suction catheter to a depth of no more than 15-cm and set the suction unit to 140 mm Hg.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1269

46. Which of the following statements regarding gastrostomy (gastric) tubes is correct? A. Gastrostomy tubes are placed directly into the small intestine. B. Most gastrostomy tubes are temporary and are not sutured in place. C. Patients with a gastrostomy tube may still be at risk for aspiration. D. Gastrostomy tubes are used for patients who cannot digest food.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1272

52. EMS personnel would MOST likely be called to the residence of a patient receiving home health care when the home care provider: A. needs simple assistance in providing patient care. B. must confirm that a specific intervention is required. C. has recognized a change in the patient's health status. D. has a question that is specific to the patient's condition.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1273

9. Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least ____ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 400

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1336

7. When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient: A. only if the patient has experienced a major injury. B. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables. C. after receiving approval from the extrication officer. D. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1370

9. Which of the following is a typical function of the rescue team? A. initial triage and patient prioritization B. shutting off power to downed electrical lines C. providing safe entry and access to patients D. providing emergency care during extrication

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1370

33. The reasons for rescue failure can be referred to by the mnemonic FAILURE. According to this mnemonic, the "U" stands for: A. underutilizing personnel at the scene. B. unprepared to effectively manage the scene. C. underestimating the logistics of the incident. D. undertrained to correctly utilize equipment.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1379

44. Upon delivery of an infant's head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. You should: A. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord. B. give 100% oxygen to the mother and transport at once. C. provide free-flow oxygen to the infant and transport. D. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head.

Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1122

35. You respond to a skate park where a 10-year-old male fell from his skateboard and struck his head on the ground; he was not wearing a helmet. He is responsive to painful stimuli only and has a large hematoma to the back of his head. After your partner stabilizes his head and opens his airway, you assess his breathing and determine that it is slow and irregular. His pulse is slow and bounding. You should: A. apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, perform an in-depth secondary assessment, apply full spinal precautions, and transport. B. insert an oral airway, hyperventilate him with a bag-mask device, apply full spinal precautions, and transport to the closest trauma center. C. apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, obtain baseline vital signs, apply full spinal precautions, and perform a secondary assessment. D. assist his ventilations, be prepared to suction his mouth if he vomits, apply full spinal precautions, and prepare for immediate transport to a trauma center.

Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1164

38. You are en route to an emergency call when you approach a slow-moving vehicle on a two-way road. You can see oncoming traffic in the other lane. The driver has his windows up and does not realize that you are behind him. You should: A. use your public address (PA) system to alert the driver. B. quickly pass the vehicle on the left side. C. pass the driver on the right-hand shoulder. D. remain at a safe distance until it is safe to pass.

Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1349

46. While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: A. pass the bus only after all the children have exited. B. back up and take an alternate route to the scene. C. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. D. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.

Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1352

20. A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unconscious, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should: A. stabilize her legs with the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG). B. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once. D. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.

Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1373-1374

34. Your unit has been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a structure fire. There are no injuries of which you are aware. Upon arriving at the scene, you should: A. contact medical control and apprise him or her of the situation. B. park your ambulance behind the incident commander's vehicle. C. set up a staging area where fire fighters can be treated if necessary. D. ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged.

Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1379

3. The vagina and the neck of the uterus comprise the: A. womb. B. cervix. C. fundus. D. birth canal.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108

12. A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately: A. 4 hours. B. 8 hours. C. 10 hours. D. 16 hours.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1110

13. The onset of labor begins with: A. thinning of the uterus. B. full dilation of the cervix. C. increased fetal movement. D. contractions of the uterus

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1110

18. The third stage of labor begins when the: A. placenta is fully delivered. B. cervix is completely dilated. C. umbilical cord has been clamped. D. baby is expelled from the vagina.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111

25. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for: A. preeclampsia. B. placenta previa. C. gestational diabetes. D. an ectopic pregnancy.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112

27. Placenta previa is MOST accurately defined as: A. delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby. B. premature placental separation from the uterine wall. C. abnormal development and functioning of the placenta. D. development of the placenta over the cervical opening

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112

35. When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: A. in a supine position with her legs spread. B. on her left side with the right leg elevated. C. in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12″. D. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2″ to 4″.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1118

38. When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: A. end of one to the start of the next. B. start of one to the end of the next. C. end of one to the end of the next. D. start of one to the start of the next.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1119

53. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Apgar score? A. pulse B. activity C. grimace D. body size

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1126-1127

65. An infant is considered to be premature if it: A. is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 lb. B. weighs less than 5.5 lb or is born before 37 weeks' gestation. C. is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 lb. D. weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1131

2. Which of the following statements regarding a 3-month-old infant is correct? A. The infant is unable to turn his or her head and focus. B. The infant should be aroused easily from a sleeping state. C. At this age, the infant typically sleeps for up to 8 hours a day. D. A 3-month-old infant can distinguish a parent from a stranger.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1149

5. Which of the following statements regarding preschool-age children is correct? A. They realize that injuries are not a form of punishment. B. Preschoolers are usually not fearful of pain or separation. C. The preschool age begins after the child turns 2 years old. D. They can usually identify painful areas when questioned.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1151

13. Which of the following statements regarding spinal injuries in pediatric patients is correct? A. Because of a child's proportionately large head, they are more prone to spinal cord injuries than adults. B. The majority of cervical spine injuries in children are partial transections of the spinal cord, resulting in partial paralysis. C. Most cervical spine fractures in infants and children occur between the first and second cervical vertebrae. D. If the cervical spine is injured, it is most likely to be an injury to the ligaments because of rapid movement of the head.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1155

15. The suture of the anterior fontanelle is typically closed by _____ months of age, and the suture of the posterior fontanelle is typically closed by _____ months of age. A. 2, 4 B. 6, 12 C. 12, 4 D. 18, 6

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1156

19. A normal level of consciousness in an infant or child is characterized by: A. normal interactiveness, awareness to time, and pink skin color. B. awareness to place, pink and dry skin, and consistent eye contact. C. crying or combativeness, good muscle tone, and awareness to time. D. age-appropriate behavior, good muscle tone, and good eye contact.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1158

24. Before positioning an infant or child's airway, you should: A. put padding behind his or her head. B. thoroughly suction his or her airway. C. rule out an injury to the spinal cord. D. place him or her on a firm surface.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1160

27. All of the following are normal findings in an infant or child, EXCEPT: A. quiet breathing. B. fear or anxiety. C. belly breathing. D. head bobbing.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1161

34. Immediate transport is indicated for a child when he or she: A. is experiencing mild to moderate pain. B. falls from a height greater than 5′. C. has a possible closed fracture of the radius. D. has a history suggestive of a serious illness.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1164

43. The MOST ominous sign of impending cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is: A. pallor. B. retractions. C. nasal flaring. D. bradycardia.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1169

53. When inserting an oropharyngeal airway in an infant or child, you should: A. place padding under the child's head. B. ensure that his or her neck is hyperextended. C. insert it until the flange rests on the teeth. D. depress the tongue with a tongue depressor.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1174

60. The MOST accurate method for determining if you are delivering adequate tidal volume to a child during bag-mask ventilations is to: A. monitor the child's heart rate. B. observe the child's skin color. C. monitor the pulse oximeter reading. D. observe the chest for adequate rise.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1178

69. Febrile seizures in a child: A. typically last less than 30 minutes. B. occur after a week of a febrile illness. C. are usually caused by viral meningitis. D. may indicate a serious underlying illness.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182

79. An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: A. excessive tearing. B. moist oral mucosa. C. bulging fontanelles. D. absent urine output.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1185

83. Hyperthermia differs from fever in that it is an increase in body temperature: A. of more than 2°F to 3°F per hour. B. secondary to a severe bacterial infection. C. caused by inflammation of the spinal cord. D. caused by the inability of the body to cool itself.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1186

87. Which of the following is MORE common in children than in adults following a head injury? A. spinal cord injury B. loss of consciousness C. seizures and hypoxia D. nausea and vomiting

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1187

88. When immobilizing an injured child in a pediatric immobilization device, you should: A. secure the head before the torso. B. slide the device under the child. C. pad underneath the child's head. D. secure the torso before the head.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1188

93. Burns in children are commonly caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hot items on a stovetop. B. scalding water in a bathtub. C. exposure to caustic chemicals. D. entrapment in a structural fire.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1192

104. Causes of infant death that may be mistaken for SIDS include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. child abuse. B. meningitis. C. severe infection. D. hyperglycemia.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196

5. Which of the following statements regarding communications with the elderly is correct? A. The majority of elderly patients are hearing or visually impaired. B. Attempt to calm the elderly patient by using his or her first name. C. Explain the justification for a procedure after it has been completed. D. Older patients have difficulty understanding when they are stressed.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216

7. The leading cause of death in the geriatric patient is: A. hypertension. B. altered mental status. C. arthritis. D. heart disease.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1217

11. An elderly patient may understate or minimize the symptoms of his or her illness because: A. the nervous system has deteriorated. B. of decreased perception of pain. C. of conditions such as dementia. D. he or she fears hospitalization.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1219

21. A productive cough, fever, and chills in an 80-year-old patient with a compromised immune system should make you MOST suspicious for: A. heart failure. B. bronchitis. C. emphysema. D. pneumonia.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1223-1224

29. A 10% to 20% reduction in brain weight and volume would MOST likely increase an older person's risk for: A. stroke. B. delirium. C. dementia. D. head trauma.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1228

31. When caring for an elderly patient who is hearing-impaired, you should: A. speak directly into his or her ear with an elevated tone. B. remember that most hearing-impaired patients can read lips. C. request that he or she communicates with you by writing on paper. D. recall that elderly patients have difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1228

32. The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function is known as: A. delirium. B. delusion. C. paranoia. D. dementia.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1229

44. The chief component of connective tissues and bones that deteriorates as people age is called: A. fibrin. B. elastin. C. sebum. D. collagen.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1234

57. With age, the spine stiffens as a result of shrinkage of the intervertebral disc spaces, and the vertebrae become brittle. This increases the risk of: A. severe kyphosis. B. distracting injuries. C. spinal cord tearing. D. compression fractures.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1240

60. A specific legal document that directs relatives and caregivers regarding the medical treatment that may be given to patients who cannot speak for themselves is called a(n): A. statute of care. B. power of attorney. C. physician directive. D. advance directive.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1242

65. Many older victims of physical abuse may make false statements or lie about the origin of their injuries because: A. they are protective of the abuser. B. they do not want to be bothersome. C. most elderly patients have dementia. D. they fear retribution from the abuser.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1244

67. When documenting a case of suspected elder abuse, it is MOST important for the EMT to: A. theorize as to why the patient was abused. B. document his or her perceptions of the event. C. list the names of all of the suspected abusers. D. avoid documenting any unsupported opinions.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1245

45. Common complications associated with central venous catheters include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a local infection. B. clotting of the line. C. bleeding around the line. D. rupture of a central vein

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1272

5. Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the MOST readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance? A. emergency childbirth kit B. stethoscope and penlight C. pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) and traction splint D. bleeding control supplies

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1333

11. Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must: A. undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis. B. hold a minimum capacity of 1,500 L of oxygen. C. be easily identifiable by their bright green color. D. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1336

14. The purpose of a jump kit is to: A. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact. B. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance. C. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director. D. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1338

18. For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, EXCEPT the: A. nature of the call. B. caller's phone number. C. location of the patient(s). D. patient's medical history.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1341-1342

24. When transporting a patient to the hospital, you should: A. generally exceed the posted speed limit by 10 to 20 mph. B. place the patient on a long backboard, even if no trauma is involved. C. secure the patient to the ambulance stretcher with at least two straps. D. be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1344

27. Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT: A. completing a detailed written report. B. informing the dispatcher of your arrival. C. restocking any disposable items you used. D. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1345

39. Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means: A. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side. B. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. C. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph. D. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirror's blind spots.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1349

2. Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is: A. gaining access to the patient(s). B. requesting additional resources. C. immediately beginning triage. D. surveying the area for hazards.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1368

14. Which of the following statements regarding the rapid extrication technique is correct? A. The only indication for performing a rapid extrication is if the patient is not entrapped and is in cardiac arrest. B. Rapid extrication involves the use of heavy equipment to disentangle a patient from his or her crashed vehicle. C. It involves rapidly removing a patient from his or her vehicle after immobilizing him or her with a short backboard. D. The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1372

28. The EMT's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to: A. accompany search team members and provide care. B. reassure the family members of the missing person. C. report to a location where the patient will be carried. D. stand by at the command post until the person is located.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1377

9. You respond to a residence for a 9-year-old female with Down syndrome who is sick. When you arrive at the scene and assess the patient, you determine that she is unresponsive and has gurgling respirations. You should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway and begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. open her airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver and assess the rate and depth of her breathing. C. immediately apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and then assess her pulse rate. D. open her airway with a manual maneuver, suction her oropharynx, and insert a simple airway adjunct.

Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1263

41. You receive a call to a residence for an apneic 2-month-old male. When you arrive at the scene, the infant's mother tells you that her son was born prematurely and that his apnea monitor has alarmed 4 times in the past 30 minutes. Your assessment of the infant reveals that he is conscious and active. His skin is pink and dry, and he is breathing at an adequate rate and with adequate tidal depth. His oxygen saturation reads 98% on room air. You should: A. request an ALS ambulance to transport the infant to the hospital. B. advise the mother to observe her son and call 9-1-1 again if necessary. C. administer high-flow oxygen and observe for a drop in oxygen saturation. D. transport the infant to the hospital and bring the apnea monitor with you.

Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1271

11. Pregnant women are advised to take iron supplements, such as prenatal vitamins, because: A. iron makes the blood clot faster, which protects the mother from excessive bleeding during delivery. B. the blood naturally thins during pregnancy, which predisposes the mother to severe bleeding. C. white blood cells decrease during pregnancy, which increases the mother's risk of an infection. D. pregnancy causes a decreased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1109

8. Most medical models base a pregnant woman's due date: A. two weeks after her last menstrual cycle. B. on the last day of her last menstrual cycle. C. two weeks before her last menstrual cycle. D. on the first day of her last menstrual cycle

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1109

17. After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mothers experience: A. midback pain. B. a bloated feeling. C. an urge to push. D. easier breathing.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111

19. Preeclampsia MOST commonly occurs after the ____ week of gestation. A. 12th B. 20th C. 24th D. 30th

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111

50. If a newborn's heart rate is less than 60 beats/min following delivery, you should: A. flick the soles of its feet. B. begin chest compressions. C. resuction the mouth only. D. provide ventilations for 30 seconds.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1125

61. Spina bifida is a developmental defect in which: A. an excessive amount of cerebrospinal fluid damages the spinal cord. B. nerve fibers that arise from the spinal cord do not function properly. C. the spinal column is severely deformed, resulting in permanent paralysis. D. a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1129

2. Autism is MOST accurately defined as a: A. psychiatric condition related to an imbalance of serotonin in the brain. B. mental disability caused by insufficient cognitive development of the brain. C. congenital condition caused by factors such as malnutrition or birth complications. D. pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1262

7. Two thirds of children born with Down syndrome have: A. diabetes mellitus. B. intracranial bleeding. C. unilateral paralysis. D. congenital heart disease.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1263

12. An important aspect **********essment of a patient who experienced a previous brain injury involves: A. presuming that he or she has cognitive impairment until proven otherwise. B. contacting the patient's physician to determine the extent of the brain injury. C. recalling that most patients with a brain injury have other organ dysfunction. D. speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1264

13. A service dog is easily identified by its: A. size. B. breed. C. color. D. harness.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1264

14. When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: A. allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill. B. stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired. C. leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney. D. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1264

18. General techniques for communicating with hearing-impaired patients include: A. exaggerating your lip movements to ensure the patient understands. B. speaking directly into the patient's ear with an increased voice pitch. C. removing any hearing aids and using pen and paper to ask questions. D. positioning yourself approximately 18″ directly in front of the patient.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1265

27. A significant number of patients with cerebral palsy also have: A. paralysis. B. brain tumors. C. type 2 diabetes. D. a seizure disorder.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1267

34. When caring for a morbidly obese patient, you should: A. leave him or her in a supine position, as this often facilitates breathing. B. ask the patient if he or she knows what led to his or her obesity problem. C. call for ALS backup because obese patients are at high risk for heart attack. D. establish his or her chief complaint and then communicate your plan to help.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1268

48. The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to: A. divert excess cerebrospinal fluid to the ventricles of the brain. B. monitor pressure within the skull in patients with a head injury. C. remove fluid from the abdomen of patients with right heart failure. D. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1273

51. Which of the following statements regarding interaction with the caregiver of a child or adult with special health care needs is correct? A. In most cases, it is more appropriate for the EMT to contact medical control prior to speaking with the patient's primary caregiver. B. Before performing an assessment of the patient's ABCs, the EMT should ask the caregiver about the patient's medical condition. C. In general, the EMT should only speak with a certified home health care provider because he or she is the expert on the patient's illness. D. Communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1273

43. Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would MOST likely occur at speeds of greater than _____ mph. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1351

51. In general, medivac helicopters should be utilized when: A. ground transport would leave your service area without an ambulance for greater than 30 minutes. B. ground transport to the hospital exceeds 30 to 45 minutes, even if the patient's present condition is stable. C. a patient has been in cardiac arrest for more than 15 minutes and has not responded to CPR and defibrillation. D. a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1354

11. A unique consideration when dealing with a hybrid vehicle is that: A. you must locate the ignition switch and cut it to prevent a fire. B. cutting the battery cables often results in an explosion or fire. C. rescue teams should disconnect the positive battery cable first. D. the battery has higher amperes than a traditional vehicle battery.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1371

A 12-year-old boy told his grandmother he was going to collect the day's mail, located on the opposite side of the street, for her. As he was returning with the mail, he was struck by a vehicle and was found lying lifeless in the middle of the street. You or your partner may develop _________ after experiencing this call. a. critical incident stress management b. posttraumatic stress disorder c. critical stress debriefing d. none of the above

B

A 16-year-old female complains of vaginal bleeding and abdominal cramping that began several hours ago. During your assessment interview, you should: A. obtain the majority of your information from one of her parents. B. inquire about the possibility of pregnancy in private, if possible. C. avoid asking questions that she will feel uncomfortable answering. D. recall that patients in this age group prefer not to be treated as adults.

B

A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: A. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx. B. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. C. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. D. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it.

B

A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should: A. tilt the patient's head back and lift up on his chin. B. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. C. apply a cervical collar and suction his airway. D. apply a pressure dressing to the patient's arm.

B

A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect: A. renal insufficiency. B. liver dysfunction. C. gallbladder disease. D. acute pancreatitis.

B

A 50-year-old male presents with an altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" 3 years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen, you should: A. perform a head-to-toe assessment. B. prepare for immediate transport. C. repeat the primary assessment. D. inquire about his family history.

B

A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is: A. acute myocardial infarction. B. cardiogenic hypoperfusion. C. severe septic hypoperfusion. D. a ruptured aortic aneurysm.

B

A 62-year-old male presents with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering 100% oxygen and contacting medical control, you should: A. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit. B. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. C. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure. D. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours.

B

A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious and alert and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate for this patient? A. performing a full-body scan B. gentle palpation of the pelvis C. treating her for possible shock D. 100% supplemental oxygen

B

A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway. B. perform oropharyngeal suctioning. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-mask device.

B

A construction worker fell approximately 30 feet. He is semiconscious with rapid, shallow respirations. Further assessment reveals deformity to the thoracic region of his spine. His blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, his pulse is 66 beats/min and weak, and his skin is warm and dry. In addition to spinal immobilization and rapid transport, the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, blankets for warmth, and elevation of his head. B. assisted ventilation, thermal management, and elevation of the lower extremities. C. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, thermal management, and elevation of his legs. D. assisted ventilation, preventing hyperthermia, and elevating his lower extremities.

B

A full-body scan should be performed on: A. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport. B. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients. C. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI. D. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened.

B

A normal respiratory rate for an adult is typically: A) 5-10 breaths/min B) 12-20 breaths/min C) 15-30 breaths/min D) 20-30 breaths/min

B

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a: A. nasal cannula. B. nonrebreathing mask. C. bag-mask device. D. mouth-to-mask device.

B

A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when: A. ventilation is inadequate due to a traumatic injury or medical condition, which results in an impairment in pulmonary gas exchange. B. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen. C. ventilation is compromised, resulting in the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream, alveoli, and the tissues and cells of the body. D. a traumatic injury or medical condition impairs the body's ability to effectively bring oxygen into the lungs and remove carbon dioxide from the body.

B

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid scan of the body should be performed in order to: A. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion. B. identify less obvious injuries that require immediate transport. C. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. D. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.

B

After stocking the ambulance this morning, you and your partner go out for breakfast. While entering the restaurant, you see an older gentleman clutch his chest and collapse to the floor. When you get to him, he has no pulse and is not breathing. While you performed CPR on this patient, your partner retrieved the ________ which will deliver an appropriate electrical shock. A. EMD B. AED C. PSA D. GPS

B

All of the following are signs of hypoxia except: a. tachycardia b. dehydration c. cyanosis d. weak pulse

B

An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n): A. EMT. B. paramedic. C. advanced EMT (AEMT). D. EMR.

B

An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A. the EMT's prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched. B. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness. C. determining the underlying cause of a patient's medical condition based on signs and symptoms. D. ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms.

B

An integral part of the rapid scan is evaluation using the mnemonic: A) AVPU B) DCAP-BTLS C) OPQRST D) SAMPLE

B

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than: A. 200 psi. B. 500 psi. C. 1,000 psi. D. 1,500 psi.

B

At 2:00 AM, a 17-year-old boy, accompanied by his 19-year-old girlfriend, had driven to the bar to give his father (who had been drinking large amounts of alcohol) a ride home. On the way back, they were involved in a motor vehicle collision. The boy has a large laceration with profuse bleeding on his forehead. His girlfriend is unconscious in the front passenger floor. The father is standing outside the vehicle, appearing heavily intoxicated, and is refusing care. Should the father be allowed to refuse care? A. Yes. Consent is required before care can be started. B. No. He is under the influence of drugs/alcohol and therefore mentally incompetent. C. Yes, under implied consent. D. No. You would be guilty of abandonment.

B

At the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you identify a patient as an organ donor. When triaging the other patients, you: A. should transport the donor patient before critical patients. B. may have to assign the donor patient a lower triage priority. C. should use a separate ambulance to transport the donor patient. D. must assign the donor the highest priority regardless of injuries.

B

At what age can an infant normally start tracking objects with his or her eyes and recognizing familiar faces? A. 7 months B. 2 months C. 4 months D. 10 months

B

Blood flow through the capillary beds is regulated by: A. systolic pressure. B. the capillary sphincters. C. perfusion. D. diastolic pressure.

B

Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the: A. EMT. B. paramedic. C. AEMT. D. EMR.

B

Clingy behavior and the fear of unfamiliar people or places are normal among 10-to 18-month-old children and are commonly caused by _______ anxiety. A. bonding B. separation C. avoidant D. mistrust

B

Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. cool and clammy skin. B. absent peripheral pulses. C. restlessness or anxiety. D. rapid, shallow breathing.

B

Contol of external bleeding, oxygen administration, and CPR are included in the "scope of practice" of the: A. paramedic B. EMT C. AEMT D. EMR

B

Crackling sounds produce by air bubbles under the skin are known as: A) subcutaneous ecchymosis B) subcutaneous emphysema C) subcutaneous erythema D) subcutaneous emboli

B

Digital signals are also used in some kinds of paging and tone-alerting systems because they transmit __________ and allow for more choices and flexibility. a. numerically b. faster c. alphanumerically d. encoded messages

B

Drug and alcohol use in the workplace can result in all of the following except: a. increased absenteeism from work b. enhanced treatment decisions c. an increase in accidents and tension among workers d. lessened ability to render emergency medical care because of mental or physical impairment

B

During two-rescuer CPR, the compressor and ventilator switch positions. While rescuer one is finishing his or her cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: A. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds. B. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest. C. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions. D. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations.

B

During your assessment of a 20-year-old man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when his headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: A. repeat your question because he probably did not hear you. B. allow him time to think about the question and respond to it. C. ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea. D. tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions.

B

Epinephrine acts as a specific antidote to: A) adrenaline B) histamine C) asthma D) bronchitis

B

Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) include: A. prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B. prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit. C. failure to be vaccinated against any strain of hepatitis. D. a history of a respiratory illness within the past 6 to 8 weeks.

B

For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between: A. 50 and 60 beats/min. B. 60 and 100 beats/min. C. 50 and 70 beats/min. D. 70 and 110 beats/min.

B

Good Samaritan laws generally are designed to offer protection to persons who render care in good faith. They do not offer protection from: a. properly performed CPR b. acts of negligence c. improvising splinting materials d. providing supportive BLS to a DNR patient

B

HIPAA is the acronym for the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996. This act: a. makes ambulance services accountable for transporting patients in a safe manner b. protects the privacy of health care information and safeguards patient confidentiality c. allows health insurers to transfer an insurance policy to another carrier if a patient does not pay his or her premium d. enables emergency personnel to transfer a patient to a lower lever of care when resources are scarce

B

Hypovolemic shock is a result of: A. widespread vasodilation. B. low volume. C. massive vasoconstriction. D. pump failure.

B

If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should: A. avoid purchasing the device because this claim is unrealistic. B. recognize that this does not mean it will save more lives. C. purchase the device based solely on the manufacturer's claim. D. determine which device the American Heart Association suggests.

B

If it is not possible to adequately clean your ambulance at the hospital following a call, you should: A. quickly wipe down all high contact surfaces with an antibacterial solution. B. clean the ambulance at your station in a designated area that is well ventilated. C. wait until the end of your shift and then disinfect the entire patient compartment. D. thoroughly wash the back of the ambulance at a local car wash or similar facility.

B

If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient, you should: A. assess for adequate breathing. B. immediately begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). C. attach an automated external defibrillator (AED) at once. D. palpate at another pulse site.

B

If you have been exposed to an HIV-positive patient's blood, you should: A. not worry about it, because transmission rates are low. B. seek medical advice as soon as possible. C. wait until your next doctor visit to seek evaluation. D. wash the area thoroughly and get an updated tetanus shot.

B

In MOST cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: A. a drug overdose. B. respiratory arrest. C. severe chest trauma. D. a cardiac dysrhythmia.

B

In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the conscious patient should involve: A. palpating the carotid pulse to determine the approximate rate and checking capillary refill time. B. checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of his or her skin. C. applying a pulse oximeter probe to the finger to determine if peripheral perfusion is adequate. D. taking a blood pressure and determining if the patient is alert and oriented or confused.

B

In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint, what else should you inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease? A. HIV status B. recent travel C. drug allergies D. sexual practices

B

In contrast to inhalation, exhalation: A. requires muscular effort to effectively expel air from the lungs. B. is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure. C. occurs when the diaphragm lowers and expels air from the lungs. D. is an active process caused by decreased intrathoracic pressure.

B

In infants and children, a capillary refill time (CRT) that is greater than ______ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

B

In infants and small children, skin color should be assessed on the: A. forehead. B. palms and soles. C. underside of the arms. D. chest and abdomen.

B

In most areas, medical control is provided by the _________ who work at the receiving hospital. a. nurses b. physicians c. interns d. staff

B

In order for a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must: A. be dated within the previous 24 months. B. clearly state the patient's medical problem. C. be updated a minimum of every 6 months. D. be signed by the local justice of the peace.

B

In order to facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: A. never become involved in the move, just direct the move. B. use preparatory commands to initiate any moves. C. speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient. D. be positioned at the feet so the team can hear.

B

In the _____ position, the patient sits leaning forward on outstretched arms with the head & chin thrust slightly forward. A) Fowler's B) Tripod C) Sniffing D) Lithotomy

B

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min. A. 40, 120 B. 60, 100 C. 30, 130 D. 50, 110

B

In the prehospital setting, a(n) ____ is the preferred method of giving oxygen to patients who have sufficient tidal volume and can provide up to 90% inspired oxygen. A) nasal cannula B) nonrebreathing mask C) bag-mask device D) endotracheal tube

B

In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway? A. a 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree B. a 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed C. a 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet D. a 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma

B

Information given to the responding unit(s) should include all of the following except: a. the number of patients b. the time the unit will arrive c. the exact location of the incident d. responses by other public safety agencies

B

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. A. endocrine B. neurologic C. cardiac D. respiratory

B

Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is: A. in a supine position. B. sitting up at a 45° angle. C. in a recumbent position. D. in a full Fowler's position.

B

Key hormones of the sympathetic nervous system include: A. acetylcholine and insulin. B. epinephrine and norepinephrine. C. glucagon and noradrenaline. D. norepinephrine and acetylcholine.

B

Kidney function declines by _______ between the ages of 20 and 90 years. A. 10% B. 50% C. 45% D. 20%

B

Kory, a 16-year-old boy, attempted to jump down a flight of stairs on his skateboard but landed face down on his chest and stomach, where he stayed until found. He was not wearing a helmet, and he hit the pavement with his head. Two bones were protruding from his right ankle. To keep his spinal column straight, in what position would you place him on the cot? A. Prone B. Supine C. Fowler's position D. Trendelenburg's position

B

Liver disease or dysfunction may cause ____, resulting in the patient's skin & sclera turning yellow. A) cyanosis B) jaundice C) diaphoresis D) lack of perfusion

B

Medical control gives you an order that seems inappropriate for the patient's condition. After confirming that you heard the physician correctly, you should: A. carry out the order and then carefully document it on the run form. B. advise the physician that the order is unclear and ask for clarification. C. state that you will not carry out the order because it is inappropriate. D. obtain consent from the patient and then carry out the order as usual.

B

Negative forms of stress include all of the following except: a. long hours b. exercise c. shift work d. frustration of losing a patient

B

Negative pressure breathing involves: A. relaxing the respiratory muscles. B. a drop in pressure within the chest cavity. C. pushing or forcing air into the lungs. D. increasing airway resistance during breathing.

B

On which of the following patients would it be MOST appropriate to use the flow- restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device? A. an 8-year-old female with respiratory failure B. a 21-year-old male with traumatic cardiac arrest C. a 38-year-old apneic female with blunt chest trauma D. a 59-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

B

One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is: A. lactic acid. B. carbon dioxide. C. pyruvic acid. D. carbon monoxide.

B

Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes: A. continuously suctioning patients with copious oral secretions. B. suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx. C. removing large, solid objects with a tonsil-tip suction catheter. D. suctioning for up to 1 minute if the patient is well oxygenated.

B

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by: A. taking another set of vital signs. B. repeating the primary assessment. C. reassessing the nature of illness. D. reviewing all treatment performed.

B

Regarding the maintenance of the airway in an unconscious adult, which of the following is false? a. insertion of an oropharyngeal airway helps keep the airway open b. the head tilt-chin lift maneuver should always be used to open the airway c. secretions should be suctioned from the mouth, as necessary d. inserting a rigid suction catheter beyond the tongue may cause gagging

B

Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should: A. try opening the airway by lifting up on the chin. B. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. C. tilt the head back while lifting up on the patient's neck. D. suction the airway and reattempt the jaw-thrust maneuver.

B

Signs of anxiety include all of the following except: a. diaphoresis b. comfort c. hyperventilation d. tachycardia

B

Signs of cardiogenic shock include all of the following EXCEPT: A. cyanosis. B. strong, bounding pulse. C. nausea. D. anxiety.

B

The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is: A. oral abrasions from vigorous suctioning. B. hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts. C. clogging of the catheter with thick secretions. D. vomiting from stimulating the anterior airway.

B

The _______ is your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illnesses. A. nature of illness B. index of suspicion C. general impression D. clinical impression

B

The __________ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered. A. type B. form C. class D. name

B

The __________ officially occurs during your oral report at the hospital, not as a result of your radio report en route. a. patient report b. transfer of care c. termination of services d. all of the above

B

The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the: A. bronchioles. B. alveolar sacs. C. apex of the lung. D. pulmonary capillaries.

B

The circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' current needs is called: A. respiration. B. perfusion. C. metabolism. D. cardiac output.

B

The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to: A. provide punitive action to EMTs who do not follow local protocols. B. identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed. C. ensure that all EMTs maintain licensure through the state EMS office. D. focus specifically on the quality of emergency care provided to the patient.

B

The criteria to be licensed and employed as an EMT include: A. demonstration of the ability to lift and carry at least 200 pounds. B. proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases. C. a minimum of 60 college credit hours that focus on health care. D. successful completion of a recognized bystander cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) course.

B

The first set of vital signs that you obtain is called the: A) original vital signs B) baseline vital signs C) actual vital signs D) real vital signs

B

The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of: A. 18 and 22 years. B. 19 and 25 years. C. 21 and 30 years. D. 25 and 35 years.

B

The hypoxic drive—the primary stimulus to breathe for patients with certain chronic respiratory diseases—is influenced by: A. high blood oxygen levels. B. low blood oxygen levels. C. low blood carbon dioxide levels. D. high blood carbon dioxide levels.

B

The initial assessment includes evaluation of all of the following EXCEPT: A) mental status B) pupils C) airway D) circulation

B

The kidneys and pancreas are called retroperitoneal organs because they: A. are protected by the anterior rib cage. B. are located behind the abdominal cavity. C. sit in front of the liver, spleen, and stomach. D. lie just anterior to the costovertebral angle.

B

The leaf-shaped flap of tissue that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea is called the: A. uvula. B. epiglottis. C. laryngopharynx. D. cricothyroid membrane.

B

The main advantage of the Venturi mask is: A. the ability to adjust the percentage of inspired oxygen when caring for a critically ill or injured patient. B. the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients. C. that it does not contain an oxygen reservoir, so the same percentage of oxygen can consistently be administered. D. the ability to adjust the amount of oxygen administered to the patient by increasing the flow rate on the regulator.

B

The main benefit of using a mechanical piston or load-distributing band device for chest compressions is: A. the minimal training required to correctly operate the devices. B. the elimination of rescuer fatigue that results from manual compressions. C. the elimination of the need to place a firm, flat device under the patient. D. its ability to be used with any patient, regardless of age, weight, or body size.

B

The normal respiratory rate for an adult is: a. about equal to the person's heart rate b. 12 to 20 breaths/min c. faster when the person is sleeping d. the same as in infants and children

B

The patient information that is included in the minimum data set includes all of the following except: a. the chief complaint b. the time that the EMS unit arrived at the scene c. respirations and effort d. skin color and temperature

B

The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: A. diffusion. B. ventilation. C. respiration. D. oxygenation.

B

The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies: A. focuses on definitive care because a diagnosis can usually be made. B. addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process. C. involves transport only until treatment can be performed at the hospital. D. typically does not require the EMT to contact medical control.

B

The pulse rate of a child from ages 6 to 12 years is approximately: A. 60 to 100 beats/min. B. 70 to 120 beats/min. C. 90 to 140 beats/min. D. 100 to 150 beats/min.

B

The safest, most reliable sources for long-term energy production are: a. sugars b. carbohydrates c. fats d. proteins

B

The stage of grieving where the person is ready to die is known as: a. denial b. acceptance c. bargaining d. depression

B

The topographic term used to describe the location of an injury that is toward the midline center of the body is: A. lateral. B. medial. C. midaxillary. D. midclavicular.

B

Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that: A. is moved through the lungs in a single minute. B. moves into or out of the lungs in a single breath. C. remains in the lungs following a complete exhalation. D. is forced into the lungs as a result of positive pressure.

B

Two EMTs witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The EMTs ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMTs is considered: A. legal and ethical. B. legal but unethical. C. illegal but ethical. D. illegal and unethical.

B

What are agonal gasps? a. occasional gasping breaths, but adequate to maintain life b. occasional gasping breaths, unable to maintain life c. painful respirations due to broken ribs d. another name for ataxic respirations

B

What does the "P" on the AVPU scale represent? A) Responsive to palpation B) Responsive to pain C) Responsive to provocation D) Responsive to palliation

B

What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient? A. vomitus B. the tongue C. blood clots D. aspirated fluid

B

What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant? A. 90 B. 100 C. 110 D. 120

B

What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? A. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. B. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. C. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. D. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar- capillary membrane.

B

What section of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? A. controlling insurance cost B. protecting patient privacy C. preventing insurance fraud D. ensuring access to insurance

B

What should you do if you are exposed to a patient who is found to have pulmonary tuberculosis? A. Get the BCG vaccine. B. Get a tuberculin skin test. C. Undergo serious therapy. D. No precautions need to be taken.

B

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is MOST important to remember that: A. the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock. B. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. C. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock. D. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion.

B

When assessing an 80-year-old patient in shock, it is important to remember that: A. it is common to see a more significant increase in heart rate than what would be expected in younger adults. B. age-related changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion. C. the patient's cardiac output is able to increase by nearly 200% in response to the decrease in perfusion. D. in older adults, it is especially common to observe a significant decrease in heart rate in response to shock.

B

When caring for a patient who takes numerous medications, it is best to: A. send the patient's medications to the hospital with a family member or other person who will safeguard them. B. take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report. C. let the hospital staff retrieve the patient's medical records, which should show a list of his or her current medications. D. document the medications on your patient care report, but leave them at home so they do not get misplaced.

B

When communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: A. your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem. B. most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions. C. hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age. D. speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you.

B

When considering the need for additional resources, which of the following is NOT a question you should ask? A) How many patients are there? B) Is it raining? C) Who contacted EMS? D) Does the scene pose a threat to you or your patient's safety?

B

When encountering a patient with depressed fontanelles, you should suspect: A. respiratory distress. B. dehydration. C. atherosclerosis. D. nephrosis.

B

When examining the abdomen, you should palpate for all of the following EXCEPT: A) guarding B) crepitation C) tenderness D) rigidity

B

When gathering a patient's medications, you find the following: Isordil, Lasix, Motrin, and Digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained over-the-counter (OTC)? A. Lasix B. Motrin C. Isordil D. Digoxin

B

When palpating the chest and abdomen, you are attempting to identify areas of: A. bruising. B. tenderness. C. crepitus. D. nausea.

B

When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: A. until a radial pulse is felt. B. with one or two hands. C. to a depth of 1″ to 2″. D. 70 to 80 times per minute.

B

When the body senses a state of hypoperfusion, the sympathetic nervous system releases epinephrine, the effects of which include: A. tachypnea. B. tachycardia. C. vasodilation. D. restlessness.

B

When treating a suspected-shock patient, vital signs should be recorded approximately every _______ minutes. A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15

B

When ventilating an apneic adult with a simple barrier device, you should deliver each breath: A. over a period of about 1 to 2 seconds. B. while watching for adequate chest rise. C. with a tidal volume of about 500 mL. D. quickly to ensure adequate ventilation.

B

Which of the following descriptions MOST accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)? A. a vast network of advanced life support (ALS) providers who provide definitive emergency care in the prehospital setting B. a team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured C. a system composed exclusively of emergency medical responders (EMRs) and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) who are responsible for providing care to sick and injured patients D. a team of paramedics and emergency physicians who are responsible for providing emergency care to critically injured patients

B

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? A. liver laceration B. cardiac tamponade C. simple pneumothorax D. spinal cord injury

B

Which of the following is NOT a function of the urinary system? A. Fluid control B. Hormone regulation C. pH balancing D. Waste filtration

B

Which of the following is NOT considered a type of breath sound? A) Rhonchi B) Vibration C) Wheeze D) Stridor

B

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? A. anxiety B. cyanosis C. tachycardia D. restlessness

B

Which of the following is an anatomic difference between children and adults? A. The ribcage of an infant is less flexible than an adult's. B. An infant's tongue is proportionately larger than an adult's. C. The trachea of an infant is proportionately longer than an adult's. D. An infant's head accounts for less body weight than an adult's.

B

Which of the following is the MOST rapidly acting medication administration route? A. sublingual (SL) B. intravenous (IV) C. subcutaneous (SC) D. intramuscular (IM)

B

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? A. vertical-position flowmeter B. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter C. ball-and-float flowmeter D. pressure-compensated flowmeter

B

Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway? A. a 33-year-old semiconscious patient with reduced tidal volume B. a 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations C. a 51-year-old confused patient with severely labored respirations D. a 64-year-old conscious patient with rapid and deep respirations

B

Which of the following questions should you ask yourself when dealing with a patient who is not answering your questions? A) Is the patient hungry? B) Is there a language problem? C) Is the patient tired? D) Is the patient angry with me?

B

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts informed consent? A. A patient advises an EMT of why he or she is refusing care. B. An EMT advises a patient of the risks of receiving treatment. C. An EMT initiates immediate care for an unconscious adult. D. A patient is advised by an EMT of the risks of refusing care.

B

Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? A. oral glucose for hypoglycemia B. AED C. intranasal medication administration D. use of a manually triggered ventilator

B

Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct? A. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase. B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries. C. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries. D. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has a low carbon dioxide content.

B

Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct? A. Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body. B. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. C. To prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive- pressure ventilation. D. Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure.

B

Which of the following systems is responsible for releasing chemicals that regulate body activities? A. Nervous B. Endocrine C. Cardiovascular D. Skeletal

B

Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock? A. severe vomiting B. liver laceration C. excessive sweating D. repeated diarrhea

B

Which of the following would NOT cause a decrease in tidal volume? A. shallow breathing B. deep respirations C. irregular breathing D. agonal respirations

B

Which statement regarding HIV is FALSE? A. It is not easily transmitted in your work environment. B. It is not considered a hazard when deposited on mucous membranes. C. You should always wear gloves when treating a patient with HIV. D. Many patients with HIV do not show symptoms.

B

While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to: A. give the patient nitroglycerin to increase his blood pressure. B. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect. C. give the patient activated charcoal to rule out a drug overdose. D. withhold drug therapy until an intraosseous catheter is in place.

B

Why does the incidence of diabetes mellitus increase with age? A. decreased food intake, decreased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels B. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased insulin production C. increased physical activity, increased food intake, and increased insulin production D. decreased physical activity, increased weight gain, and decreased blood sugar levels

B

With _____, the force of the injury occurs over a broad area, & the skin is usually not broken. A) motor vehicle collisions B) blunt trauma C) penetrating trauma D) gunshot wounds

B

Worn out blood cells, foreign substances, and bacteria are filtered from the blood by the: A. liver. B. spleen. C. kidney. D. pancreas.

B

You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene with a critically injured patient involved. The scene is safe. Your first priority is to: A. notify medical control for advice. B. provide immediate patient care. C. wait for law enforcement to arrive. D. determine why the patient was injured.

B

You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old man who experienced a sudden onset of respiratory distress. He is conscious but is unable to follow simple verbal commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored and his oxygen saturation is 80%. You should: A. attempt to insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device and monitor his breathing. D. apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

B

You and your partner respond to the residence of a 66-year-old male with shortness of breath. As you are assessing the patient, his wife tells you that he was recently diagnosed with lung cancer. The patient is verbally abusive and tells you that failure of the health care system caused his disease. What stage of the grieving process is this patient's behavior consistent with? A. denial B. anger C. bargaining D. depression

B

You are assessing a 13-month-old female who is running a fever and has been vomiting. While you are performing your physical examination on this child, you will MOST likely find that she: A. is unable to track your movements with her eyes. B. responds to her name but is fearful of your presence. C. will readily allow you to separate her from her mother. D. has bulging fontanelles secondary to severe dehydration.

B

You are assessing a 75-year-old woman with mild shortness of breath. As you are asking her questions regarding her chief complaint and medical history, you progressively move closer and closer to her. In doing this, it is important to remember that: A. placing yourself in the patient's personal space is relaying to her that you can be trusted. B. as you physically get closer to the patient, a greater and greater sense of trust must be established. C. it is necessary to enter an older person's intimate space because the elderly are typically hearing impaired. D. a patient's personal space should not be violated, regardless of any barriers that may hamper communication.

B

You are called to a home of a known 34-year-old man with diabetes. When you arrive, you find the patient supine & unconscious on the living room floor with snoring respirations. Oral glucose is ____ for this patient. A) indicated B) contraindicated C) not normally given D) prescribed

B

You are called to a home of a known 34-year-old man with diabetes. When you arrive, you find the patient supine & unconscious on the living room floor with snoring respirations. Oxygen: A) is a controlled substance B) should be applied to this patient C) is not flammable D) is considered a suspension

B

You are called to the beach for a 15-year-old boy who is having trouble breathing. He tells you between gasps that he was stung by something & that his body feels "swollen." Just then, a woman runs up to you & puts an EpiPen into your hand. "Here," she says breathlessly. "He needs this!" Would you administer epinephrine to this patient? A) Yes, by pushing the EpiPen firmly against the patient's thigh for several seconds B) Not until you determine if it was prescribed for the patient C) Yes, using the sublingual route D) No, his signs & symptoms contraindicate an epinephrine injection

B

You are dispatched to a movie theater for a 39-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction. As you are assessing her, she pulls an epinephrine auto-injector out of her purse and hands it to you. After administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. administer the drug. B. contact medical control. C. verify the medication name. D. check the drug's expiration date.

B

You are dispatched to a public park in the middle of a sprawling for an arm injury. You arrive to find a crying 8-year-old boy cradling his swollen deformed left forearm. His friends tell you that he was holding onto the bars of the play structure and that his arm 'snapped' when he jumped into the sand below. You would expect to find a respiratory rate of between _______ and _______ breaths/min with this patient. A. 12; 20 B. 15; 20 C. 10; 15 D. 20; 30

B

You are dispatched to a residence where a middle-aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to: A. palpate for the presence of a carotid pulse. B. log roll him as a unit to a supine position. C. assess the rate and quality of his breathing. D. open his airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver.

B

You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient high-flow oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should: A. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient. B. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital. C. elevate the patient's legs 6″ to 12″, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route. D. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal.

B

You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving? A. 45% B. 55% C. 65% D. 75%

B

You are transporting a 54-year-old male in cardiac arrest. An EMR is driving the ambulance as you and your partner attempt to resuscitate the patient. What is the MOST logical way of notifying the hospital? A. Call the receiving hospital with your cellular phone as you attempt resuscitation. B. Have the driver contact dispatch and relay the patient information to the hospital. C. Request that a police officer respond to the hospital to apprise them of your arrival. D. Wait until you arrive at the hospital and then quickly apprise them of the situation.

B

You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should: A. reassure her that after proper treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time. B. acknowledge that she is scared and tell her that you are going to take good care of her. C. maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared. D. tell her that you understand why she is scared and that everything will likely be okay.

B

You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should: A. thrust the jaw forward. B. seal the mouth and nose. C. ventilate with less pressure. D. thoroughly suction the stoma.

B

You can us a solution of bleach and water at a ________ dilution to clean the unit. a. 1:1 b. 1:10 c. 1:100 d. 1:1000

B

You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for 8 hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is MOST effectively managed by: A. providing large amounts of caffeine to the rescue workers. B. requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support. C. conducting a critical incident stress debriefing the next day. D. allowing each worker to sleep in 15- to 30-minute increments.

B

You respond to a construction site and find a worker lying supine in the dirt. He has been hit by a heavy construction vehicle and flew more than 15' before landing in his current position. There is discoloration and distention of his abdomen about the RUQ. He is unconscious and his respirations are 10 breaths/min and shallow, with noisy gurgling sounds. What airway technique will you use to open his airway? a. head tilt-neck lift maneuver b. jaw thrust c. head tilt-chin lift maneuver d. none of the above

B

You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: A. immediately evaluate his airway. B. apply direct pressure to the wound. C. assess the rate and quality of his pulse. D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.

B

You respond to a single-vehicle crash on the highway west of town. Upon arrival you find a 33-year-old man with an open forearm fracture who has self-extricated from his pickup, which is down the roadside embankment. He does not appear to have suffered any other injuries, is fully coherent, and refuses all medical care. In an effort to obtain consent to treat this patient, you should: A. summon law enforcement and request that the patient be placed into protective custody. B. clearly explain the consequences of not accepting medical treatment. C. proceed with treatment; consent is not required because the patient is not being rational. D. properly document the refusal of care.

B

You should deliver chest compressions to an unconscious adult patient in cardiac arrest by: A. compressing quickly and releasing slowly. B. compressing the sternum between the nipples. C. placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid. D. depressing the sternum 2″ to 2½″.

B

You suspect that a 6-year-old girl has broken her leg after falling from a swing at a playground. Shortly after you arrive, the child's mother appears and refuses to allow you to continue treatment. You should: A. use your authority under the implied consent law. B. try to persuade the mother that treatment is needed. C. ask the mother to sign a refusal form and then leave. D. tell the mother that her refusal is a form of child abuse.

B

You're called to a motor vehicle collision. Your patient is a 19-year-old woman who was not wearing her seatbelt. She is conscious but confused. Her airway is open & respirations are within normal limits. Her pulse is slightly tachycardic but regular. Her blood pressure is within normal limits. She is complaining of being thirsty and appears very anxious. You know that the last measurable factor to change to indicate shock is _______. A. mental status. B. blood pressure. C. pulse rate. D. respirations.

B

Your EMS system uses a computerized PCR in which you fill in the information electronically and then send it to the emergency department via a secure Internet server. The PCR has a comprehensive series of drop-down boxes, which are used to identify your assessment findings and specify the treatment that you provided; it also has a section for your narrative. When completing your PCR after a call, you should: A. defer the narrative only if the information in the drop-down boxes accurately reflects the assessment and treatment that you performed. B. complete a thorough and accurate narrative because drop-down boxes cannot provide all of the information that needs to be documented. C. enter all of the pertinent information of the electronic PCR, but then print it out and provide a copy to the emergency department staff. D. avoid documenting personally identifiable information, such as the patient's name, because the PCR could be intercepted during transmission.

B

Your patient is having respiratory difficulty and is not responding to your treatment. What is the best method of transport? A. Without lights and sirens, to the closest hospital B. With lights and sirens, to the closest hospital C. Air transport, to a special facility located 30 miles away D. The patient does not need to be transported.

B

Your responsibility to provide patient care is called: a. scope of practice b. duty to act c. DNR d. standard of care

B

____ is the measure of the amount of air that's moved into & out of the lungs in one breath. A) Residual volume B) Tidal volume C) Vital capacity D) Minute volume

B

_______ develops when the heart muscle can no longer generate enough pressure to circulate the blood to all organs. A. Pump failure B. Cardiogenic shock C. A myocardial infarction D. Congestive heart failure

B

________ is/are contact with blood, body fluids, tissues, or airborne droplets by direct or indirect contact. a. transmission b. exposure c. handling d. all of the above

B

_________ occur(s) when insignificant stressors accumulate to a larger stress-related problem. a. negative stress b. cumulative stress c. psychological stress d. severe stressors

B

____________ are helpful when you are away from the ambulance and need to communicate with dispatch, another unit, or medical control. a. base stations b. portable radios c. mobile radios d. cellular phones

B

A 12-year-old boy told his grandmother he was going to collect the day's mail, located on the opposite side of the street, for her. As he was returning with the mail, he was struck by a vehicle and was found lying lifeless in the middle of the street. Which of the following would be appropriate to say to the grandmother? a. "Don't worry. I'm sure he'll be fine." b. "What were you thinking? You will be reported!" c. "We're placing him on a backboard to protect his back, and we'll take him to the Columbus Community Hospital. Do you know who his doctor is?" d. It's best not to spend time talking to the grandmother.

C

A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer 100% oxygen and give him epinephrine via subcutaneous injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should: A. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route. B. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack. C. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control. D. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away.

C

A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway? A. Suction his oropharynx with a rigid catheter until all secretions are removed. B. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and provide suction and assisted ventilations. C. Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation. D. Provide continuous ventilations with a bag-mask device to minimize hypoxia.

C

A 27-year-old male was stabbed in the chest during a disagreement at a poker game. As you approach him, you see that a knife is impaled in his chest. Before you make physical contact with the patient, it is MOST important to: A. form a general impression. B. call for an ALS ambulance. C. follow standard precautions. D. ask bystanders what happened.

C

A _________ is any event that causes anxiety and mental stress to emergency workers. a. disaster b. mass-casualty incident c. critical incident d. stressor

C

A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called: A. rhonchi. B. crepitus. C. subcutaneous emphysema. D. Korotkoff sounds.

C

A low ETCO2 reading, as measured by capnography, would MOST likely be observed if: A. an endotracheal (ET) tube is correctly placed in the trachea. B. the cells produce large amounts of CO2 and return it to the lungs. C. there is an absence or decrease in the level of CO2 in the lungs. D. a patient in cardiac arrest is receiving high-quality CPR.

C

A palpable pulse is created by: A. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart. B. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction. C. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction. D. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries.

C

A patient suffering from a heart attack should be transported to: A. a local clinic, 5 minutes away. B. a community hospital with no catheterization lab, 10 minutes away. C. a university hospital with a catheterization lab, 15 minutes away. D. a trauma center, 20 minutes away.

C

A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is: A. cyanotic and dry. B. mottled and cool. C. pale and moist. D. flushed and red.

C

A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: A. edematous. B. flushed. C. diaphoretic. D. plethoric.

C

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover: A. one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. B. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. C. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease in the elbow. D. one half the length between the armpit to the crease in the elbow.

C

A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be: A. strong. B. weak. C. regular. D. irregular.

C

A seizure patient is having what kind of medical emergency? A. Respiratory B. Cardiovascular C. Neurologic D. Immunologic

C

After stocking the ambulance this morning, you and your partner go out for breakfast. While entering the restaurant, you see an older gentleman clutch his chest and collapse to the floor. When you get to him, he has no pulse and is not breathing. Which of the following authorizes you, as an EMT, to provide emergency care to this patient? A. City council B. Medical control C. The medical director D. The fire chief

C

An EMT would MOST likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she: A. refused to care for a violent patient who is armed with a knife. B. remained at the hospital for 30 minutes to give a patient report. C. did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient. D. terminated care of a competent adult patient at his or her request.

C

An adolescent is a person between the ages of: A. 6 and 12 years. B. 3 and 6 years. C. 12 and 18 years. D. 10 and 19 years.

C

An adult at rest should have a respiratory rate that ranges between: A. 8 and 15 breaths/min. B. 10 and 18 breaths/min. C. 12 and 20 breaths/min. D. 16 and 24 breaths/min.

C

An apneic infant or child should be ventilated a maximum of _______ times per minute. A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 30

C

An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? A. dorsal B. supine C. prone D. recumbent

C

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: A. guide your partner while moving the chair backwards. B. reposition your hands and continue to move the patient. Incorrect C. stop the move and request additional lifting assistance. D. stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs.

C

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: A. look in the ears for gross bleeding. B. assess the rest of the body for bleeding. C. maintain stabilization of the head. D. prepare the immobilization equipment.

C

At 2:00 AM, a 17-year-old boy, accompanied by his 19-year-old girlfriend, had driven to the bar to give his father (who had been drinking large amounts of alcohol) a ride home. On the way back, they were involved in a motor vehicle collision. The boy has a large laceration with profuse bleeding on his forehead. His girlfriend is unconscious in the front passenger floor. The father is standing outside the vehicle, appearing heavily intoxicated, and is refusing care. With the son being a minor, what is the best way to gain consent to begin care when his father has an altered mental status or is unconscious? A. Phone his mother for consent. B. Call his grandparents for consent. C. It is a true emergency, so consent is implied. D. You are covered under the Good Samaritan laws.

C

At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to: A. 24%. B. 35%. C. 44%. D. 52%.

C

CPAP is indicated for patients who: A. have signs of pneumonia but are breathing adequately. B. are unresponsive and have signs of inadequate ventilation. C. have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands. D. are hypotensive and have a marked reduction in tidal volume.

C

Cardiac output (CO) is affected by: A. heart rate only. B. stroke volume only. C. stroke volume and heart rate. D. the patient's blood pressure.

C

Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: A. heart attack. B. increased afterload. C. increased preload. D. poor contractility.

C

Despite your attempts to coach a conscious young female's respirations, she continues to hyperventilate with a marked reduction in tidal volume. You should: A. restrain her and provide ventilatory assistance. B. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen. C. explain to her that you will assist her ventilations. D. ventilate her at the rate at which she is breathing.

C

Diastolic blood pressure tends to _______ with age. A. decrease B. compensate C. increase D. decompensate

C

During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions: A. immediately after completion of your primary assessment. B. any time before you load the patient into the ambulance. C. upon exiting the ambulance, but before actual patient contact. D. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.

C

During your monthly internal quality improvement (QI) meeting, you review several patient care reports (PCRs) with the staff of your EMS system. You identify the patient's name, age, and sex, and then discuss the treatment that was provided by the EMTs in the field. By taking this approach to the QI process, you: A. acted appropriately but must have each EMT sign a waiver stating that he or she will not discuss the cases with others. B. adequately safeguarded the patient's PHI because the cases were discussed internally. C. are in violation of HIPAA because you did not remove the PHI from the PCR beforehand. D. violated the patient's privacy because you should have only discussed the information with the EMTs who provided it.

C

Each cell of the body combines nutrients and oxygen and produces energy and waste products through a process called: A. respiration. B. ventilation. C. metabolism. D. oxygenation.

C

External bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled by a combination of: A. elevation and pressure point control. B. elevation and chemical ice packs. C. direct pressure and elevation. D. direct pressure and a tourniquet.

C

From birth to 1 month old, a person is called a(n): A. infant. B. toddler. C. neonate. D. newborn.

C

From the age of 1 to the age of 40, _________ is the leading cause of death. a. cardiac arrest b. congenital disease c. trauma d. AIDS

C

Hazardous materials in vehicles and buildings should be clearly identified using: a. manifests b. MSDS sheets c. placards d. beacons

C

Hypotension in a child with blunt or penetrating trauma is particularly significant because: A. it typically develops earlier in children than it does in adults. B. the most likely cause of the hypotension is respiratory failure. C. it often indicates the loss of half of his or her blood volume. D. most children with hypotension die in the prehospital setting.

C

If a "frequent flier" calls 9-1-1 because of a suspected head injury, you should NEVER: A. take the call seriously; don't waste your time or resources on such a caller. B. perform a primary assessment; he called for a head injury last week, and it wasn't serious. C. assume you know what the problem is; every case is different, and you don't want to miss a potentially serious problem. D. treat the patient with respect; he is probably lying.

C

If the patient is hearing impaired, you should: a. stand on the patient's left side b. shout c. speak clearly and distinctly d. use baby talk

C

If your patient is alone and unresponsive, in order to obtain some form of medical history, you should: A. ask people in the neighborhood. B. go through the patient's wallet. C. search the scene for medication containers or medical devices. D. search through the patient's bedroom drawers for hidden illegal drugs.

C

In most instances, you should move a patient on a wheeled ambulance stretcher by: A. retracting the undercarriage and carrying the stretcher to the ambulance. B. pushing the foot of the stretcher while your partner guides the head. C. pushing the head of the stretcher while your partner guides the foot. D. slightly lifting the stretcher to prevent unnecessary patient movement.

C

In the absence of light, pupils will: A) constrict B) stay fixed C) dilate D) become unequal

C

In the presence of oxygen, the mitochondria of the cells convert glucose into energy through a process called: A. perfusion. B. respiration. C. aerobic metabolism. D. anaerobic metabolism.

C

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service? A. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away B. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs C. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and your ground transport time is 50 minutes D. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration

C

Inhalation occurs when the: A. diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. B. diaphragm and intercostal muscles ascend and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. D. diaphragm ascends and the intercostal muscles contract, causing a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.

C

Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when: A. the presence of pulmonary surfactant causes a decrease in alveolar surface tension, thus impairing the exchange of gases in the lungs. B. a decrease in respiratory rate and depth causes carbon dioxide accumulation in the alveoli and an overall decrease in blood oxygen levels. C. blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state. D. any impairment in circulatory function causes a reduced ability for oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

C

Kory, a 16-year-old boy, attempted to jump down a flight of stairs on his skateboard but landed face down on his chest and stomach, where he stayed until found. He was not wearing a helmet, and he hit the pavement with his head. Two bones were protruding from his right ankle. His open wound would be known as a(n): A. ulna/radial fracture. B. acromion/humerus fracture. C. tibia/fibula fracture. D. patella/fibula fracture

C

Laypeople are often trained to perform all of the following skills, EXCEPT: A. one- or two-rescuer CPR. B. splinting of a possible fracture. C. insertion of an oropharyngeal airway. D. control of life-threatening bleeding.

C

Noncardiovascular causes of shock include respiratory insufficiency and: A. sepsis. B. metabolism. C. anaphylaxis. D. hypovolemia.

C

Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in children and _______ breaths per minute in infants. A. 20, 30 B. 18, 28 C. 30, 50 D. 24, 45

C

Patients who are being treated with penicillin for a syphilis infection are considered: A. communicable for the rest of their life. B. noncommunicable in about 4 weeks. C. noncommunicable within 28 to 48 hours. D. noncommunicable right from the initial infection.

C

Physiologic manifestations of stress include: A. flushed skin, decreased muscle control, and vomiting. B. slow heart rate, low blood pressure, and severe headaches. C. perspiration, increased blood glucose levels, and dilated pupils. D. increased blood pressure, decreased blood glucose levels, and chest pain.

C

Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask on a patient, you must ensure that the: A. one-way valve is sealed. B. flow rate is set at 6 L/min. C. reservoir bag is fully inflated. D. patient has reduced tidal volume.

C

Prior to applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should: A. advise the patient that medical restraint is necessary, but can be removed if he or she cooperates with you during transport. B. have at least three rescuers present, one for the upper extremities, one for the lower extremities, and one for the head. C. evaluate the patient for potentially correctible cause of combativeness, such as head injury, hypoxia, or hypoglycemia. D. place the patient in a prone position to avoid airway and breathing compromise once restrained and placed onto the stretcher.

C

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: A. septic shock. B. neurogenic shock. C. cardiogenic shock. D. anaphylactic shock.

C

Regulation of blood flow is determined by: A. oxygen intake. B. systolic pressure. C. cellular need. D. diastolic pressure.

C

Shortly after assisting a 65-year-old female with her prescribed nitroglycerin, she begins complaining of dizziness and experiences a drop of 30 mm Hg in her systolic blood pressure. The patient remains conscious and her breathing is adequate. You should: A. transport her in a sitting position. B. wait 5 minutes and reassess her blood pressure. C. place her supine and elevate her legs. D. assist ventilations with a bag-mask device.

C

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. alveoli. B. trachea. C. epiglottis. D. bronchioles.

C

Suctioning the oral cavity of an adult should be accomplished within: a. 5 seconds b. 10 seconds c. 15 seconds d. 20 seconds

C

Syphilis is a: A. high-risk disease to the EMT, especially through a needlestick. B. bacterial infection that is typically resistant to antibiotic medications. C. bloodborne disease that can successfully be treated with penicillin. D. sexually transmitted disease that is only found in vaginal secretions.

C

Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes: A. vasovagal shock. B. neurogenic shock. C. psychogenic shock. D. neurologic shock.

C

The FIRST rule of safe lifting is to: A. always lift with your palms facing down. B. spread your legs approximately 20″ apart. C. keep your back in a straight, vertical position. D. keep your back in a slightly curved position.

C

The Golden Period refers to the first 60 minutes after: A. medical help arrives on scene. B. transport begins. C. the injury occurs. D. 9-1-1 is called.

C

The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes: A. performing five back blows and five abdominal thrusts. B. visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction. C. administering oxygen and transporting immediately. D. advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough.

C

The MOST important thing to consider in patients with multiple injuries in various stages of healing is that: A) The patient is rather clumsy B) The patient could have an underlying cancer C) The patient might be a victim of abuse D) The patient has a high tolerance for pain

C

The MOST serious complication associated with using a nasopharyngeal airway in a patient with trauma to the head or face is: A. fracturing the septum. B. damaging the turbinates. C. penetrating the cranium. D. causing severe bleeding.

C

The autonomic nervous system controls all of the following functions, EXCEPT: A. digestion. B. breathing. C. breath holding. D. vessel dilation.

C

The best indicator of brain function is the patient's: A) pulse rate B) pupillary response C) mental status D) respiratory rate & depth

C

The care that an EMT is able to provide is most commonly defined as a: a. duty to act b. competency c. scope of practice d. certification

C

The descending aorta branches into the: A. deep femoral arteries. B. internal carotid arteries. C. common iliac arteries. D. external carotid arteries.

C

The four items used to assess the orientation of a patient's mental status include all of the following EXCEPT: A) person B) place C) history D) events

C

The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically: A. 1 to 2 weeks. B. 5 to 10 weeks. C. 4 to 12 weeks. D. 1 to 10 weeks.

C

The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected: A. mandibular fractures. B. upper airway swelling. C. cervical spine injuries. D. copious oral secretions.

C

The major goal of quality improvement is to ensure that: A. quarterly audits of the EMS system are performed B. EMTs have received BLS/CPR training C. the public receives the highest standard of care D. the proper information is received in the billing department

C

The most important aspect of the scene size-up is: A. determining the number of patients. B. calling for additional resources. C. ensuring scene safety. D. determining the nature of illness.

C

The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is: A. lactic acid. B. pyruvic acid. C. carbon dioxide. D. adenosine triphosphate.

C

The proper dose of a medication depends on all of the following EXCEPT: A) the patient's age B) the patient's size C) generic substitutions D) the desired action

C

The proper technique for sizing an oropharyngeal airway before insertion is to measure the device from: a. the tip of the nose to the earlobe b. the bridge of the nose to the tip of the chin c. the corner of the mouth to the earlobe d. the center of the jaw to the earlobe

C

The scene size-up consists of all of the following EXCEPT: A) Determining the mechanism of injury B) Requesting additional assistance C) Determining level of responsiveness D) PPE/standard precautions

C

The stage of the grieving process where an attempt is made to secure a prize for good behavior or promise to change one's lifestyle is known as: a. denial b. acceptance c. bargaining d. depression

C

The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as: A. the study of drugs that are produced illegally. B. the study of how medications affect the brain. C. the study of drugs and their actions on the body. D. the study of drug excretion from the human body.

C

To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions during one-rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient's chest at a rate of about _______ per minute. A. 80 B. 90 C. 100 D. 110

C

Topographically, the term distal means: A. near the trunk. B. associated with a point of reference. C. near the free end of extremity. D. toward the center of the body.

C

Twelve pairs of ribs attach to what section of the spinal column? A. sacral B. lumbar C. thoracic D. coccyx

C

Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury. B. important medical history not previously given. C. the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. D. the patient's response to treatment you provided.

C

Vaccinations are NOT available for which form of hepatitis? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. None of the above

C

What do middle adults tend to focus their time and energy on? A. Raising a family B. Excelling in a career C. Achieving life goals D. Creating a self-image

C

What is 'vital capacity'? A. The volume of blood moved by each contraction of the heart B. The maximum thickness of the meninges C. The volume of air moved during the deepest points of respiration D. The amount of air left in the lungs following exhalation

C

When a person goes __________ minutes without oxygen, brain damage is very likely. a. 0-4 b. 4-6 c. 6-10 d. more than 10

C

When caring for a 65-year-old male with respiratory distress, you place him in a comfortable position but do not apply oxygen. The patient's condition continues to deteriorate and he develops cardiac arrest and dies at the hospital. This scenario is an example of: A. assault. B. battery. C. negligence. D. abandonment.

C

When caring for a visually impaired patient, you should: a. use sign language b. touch the patient only when necessary to render care c. try to avoid sudden movements d. never walk him or her to the ambulance

C

When determining the initial general impression, you should note all of the following EXCEPT: A) the patient's age B) the level of distress C) the events leading up to the incident D) the patient's sex

C

When obtaining a blood pressure by palpation in the arm, you should place your fingertips on the ____ artery. A) carotid B) brachial C) radial D) posterior tibial

C

When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than: A. 100 mm Hg. B. 200 mm Hg. C. 300 mm Hg. D. 400 mm Hg.

C

When ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device, you should: a. look for inflation of the cheeks b. look for signs of the patient breathing on his or her own c. look for rise and fall of the chest d. listen for gurgling

C

Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? A. bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation B. widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection C. bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation D. viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction

C

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock? A. pallor B. dizziness C. wheezing D. hypotension

C

Which of the following components are needed to prove negligence? A. abandonment, breach of duty, damages, and causation B. duty to act, abandonment, breach of duty, and causation C. duty to act, breach of duty, injury/damages, and causation D. breach of duty, injury/damages, abandonment, and causation

C

Which of the following conditions often requires transport to a hospital with specialized capabilities that may not be available at the closest hospital? A. cardiac arrest and shock B. diabetes and migraines C. stroke and heart attack D. seizures and infection

C

Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention? A. abdominal thrusts B. chest compressions C. cardiac monitoring D. automated defibrillation

C

Which of the following is NOT a common factor that would affect a 75-year-old patient's vital signs? A. medications B. overall health C. increased weight D. medical conditions

C

Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of airway obstruction? A. relaxation of the tongue B. aspirated vomitus C. shallow breathing D. foreign objects

C

Which of the following is NOT considered a method for controlling external bleeding? A) Direct pressure B) Tourniquet C) Cold water D) Elevation

C

Which of the following is NOT considered to be protected health information (PHI)? A. patient history B. treatment rendered C. location of the call D. assessment findings

C

Which of the following is false with regard to simplex mode? a. when one party transmits, the other must wait to reply b. you must push a button to talk c. it is called a "pair of frequencies" d. radio transmissions can occur in either direction, but not simultaneously in both

C

Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position? A. a 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations B. a 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume C. a 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing D. a 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations

C

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the assessment of patients with a language barrier? A) You should find an interpreter B) Determine whether the patient understands you C) Questioning should be lengthy & complex D) Be aware of the language diversity in your community

C

Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is MOST correct? A. A patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment. B. Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented. C. A mentally competent adult has the legal right to refuse EMS care and transport. D. Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment.

C

Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? A. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation. B. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate. C. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. D. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume.

C

Which of the following statements regarding communication with a child is MOST correct? A. Most children are intrigued by strangers wearing uniforms. B. Give the child minimal information to avoid scaring him or her. C. Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety. D. Unlike adults, children cannot see through lies or deceptions.

C

Which of the following statements regarding nervous system control of the cardiovascular system is correct? A. When stimulated, the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for increasing the heart rate. B. Alpha-adrenergic receptors are located exclusively in the heart and are stimulated by epinephrine. C. Baroreceptors located throughout the body provide information to the brain regarding the blood pressure. D. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems work together to perform the same function.

C

Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct? A. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position. B. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure. C. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. D. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.

C

Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct? A. In carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, ventilation is impaired because CO binds to oxygen very quickly. B. Oxygenation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, whereas ventilation is the exchange of gases. C. In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite inadequate oxygenation. D. Oxygenation without adequate ventilation can occur in climbers who quickly ascend to an altitude of lower atmospheric pressure.

C

Which of the following statements regarding severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is correct? A. Although SARS can cause pneumonia and other respiratory infections, it rarely causes death, even in immuno compromised patients. B. Most cases of SARS are caused by a bacterium that is spread from person to person via direct contact with infected blood. C. SARS is caused by a virus and usually starts with flulike symptoms that deteriorate to pneumonia and respiratory failure. D. SARS is caused by a virus that occurs naturally in the bird population, although it usually does not cause illness in humans.

C

Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct? A. The adult auto-injector delivers 0.5 to 1 mg of epinephrine. B. The auto-injector delivers epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. C. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug. D. EMTs do not need physician authorization to use the auto-injector.

C

Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-mask device technique is correct? A. Bag-mask ventilations should be delivered every 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person. B. The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device. C. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-mask device. D. The bag-mask device delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique.

C

Which of the following statements regarding the use of the AED in children is MOST correct? A. AEDs should never be used on children younger than 8 years or less than 55 pounds. B. AEDs are only effective in pediatric patients if severe trauma is the cause of their cardiac arrest. C. AED use in children between 1 and 8 years of age involves pediatric pads and an energy reducer. D. AEDs are not used in pediatric patients because they do not experience ventricular fibrillation.

C

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? A. larynx B. pharynx C. bronchus D. oropharynx

C

Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese? A. back blows B. finger sweeps C. chest thrusts D. abdominal thrusts

C

While en route to and from the scene, you should report all of the following to the dispatcher except: a. any special hazards b. traffic delays c. abandoned vehicles in the median d. road construction

C

While transporting a woman with diabetes, you inadvertently give her oral glucose even though her blood glucose level was high. You reassess the patient and note that her condition did not change; she remained stable. You should: A. document the error and report it to your supervisor. B. notify law enforcement so they can file an incident report. C. contact medical control and notify him or her of the error. D. exclude this from the PCR since it did not harm the patient.

C

While treating a patient with a suspected head injury, he becomes verbally abusive and tells you to "leave him alone." If you stop treating him you may be guilty of: a. neglect b. battery c. abandonment d. slander

C

With _____, the force of the injury occurs at a small point of contact between the skin & the object piercing the skin. A) motor vehicle collisions B) blunt trauma C) penetrating trauma D) falls

C

With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen. A. 70 B. 80 C. 90 D. 100

C

You are assessing a middle-aged man with chest pain that you suspect is caused by a cardiac problem. The patient tells you that he does not want to go to the hospital and insists that you leave him alone. You should: A. reassure him that he will not receive a bill for the EMS call if he cannot pay. B. tell him that he is having a heart attack and that he needs to go to the hospital. C. explain the seriousness of the situation to him, but avoid causing undue alarm. D. proceed to treat him because the stress of the situation has impaired his thinking.

C

You are called to a home of a known 34-year-old man with diabetes. When you arrive, you find the patient supine & unconscious on the living room floor with snoring respirations. Medications most EMTs carry in the ambulance that would pertain to this call include: A) insulin, oxygen, & oral glucose B) nitroglycerin, oxygen, & oral glucose C) activated charcoal, oxygen, & oral glucose D) none of the above

C

You are called to a home of a known 34-year-old man with diabetes. When you arrive, you find the patient supine & unconscious on the living room floor with snoring respirations. Oral glucose: A) Is a suspension B) Should be given to this patient C) Is placed between the patient's cheek & gum D) Is not carried by EMTs

C

You are caring for a 40-year-old female who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. Her husband, who was driving the vehicle, was killed. When the patient asks you if her husband is all right, you should: A. tell her that he is being resuscitated by other EMTs. B. immediately tell her of his death so that she may grieve. C. let clergy or hospital staff relay the bad news if possible. D. avoid answering her questions and focus on her injuries.

C

You are dispatched to a public park in the middle of a sprawling for an arm injury. You arrive to find a crying 8-year-old boy cradling his swollen deformed left forearm. His friends tell you that he was holding onto the bars of the play structure and that his arm 'snapped' when he jumped into the sand below. You would expect this boy's pulse to be: A. between 60 and 80 beats/min. B. higher than 150 beats/min. C. most likely above 90 beats/min. D. around 70 beats/min.

C

You are dispatched to the residence of an Asian family for a child with a high fever. When you assess the child, you note that he has numerous red marks on his back. The child's parents explain that these marks represent coining—a traditional Asian healing practice in which hot coins are rubbed on the back. You should: A. advise the child's parents that this is a harmful practice and is considered a form of child abuse in the United States. B. acknowledge and respect this practice as a cultural belief, but advise the child's parents that it has no healing power. C. document this on your patient care report and advise the emergency department staff of what the child's parents told you. D. advise the emergency department physician that you feel as though the child was intentionally abused by his parents.

C

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: A. take his vital signs in 15 minutes. B. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. C. reassess his condition in 5 minutes. D. repeat your secondary assessment.

C

You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control? A. Administer her epinephrine, reassess her condition, and transport her promptly. B. Begin immediate transport and request an intercept with a paramedic ambulance. C. Give her oxygen, transport her to the hospital, and monitor her condition en route. D. Give her half the dose of her epinephrine in case her allergic reaction is delayed.

C

You come upon an unresponsive patient who is not injured and is breathing on her own with a normal rate and an adequate tidal volume. What would be the advantage of placing her in the recovery position? a. it's the preferred position of comfort for patients b. it helps to protect their cervical spine when injuries are hidden c. it helps to maintain a clear airway d. it's easier to load them onto the cot from this position

C

You have inserted an oral airway and are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag- mask device. She suddenly begins regurgitating large amounts of vomit. You should: A. perform a finger sweep of her mouth. B. insert a nasal airway and then suction her mouth. C. roll her onto her side and remove the oral airway. D. remove the oral airway and suction her oropharynx.

C

You have just completed your primary assessment of a 48-year-old man with crushing chest pain. The patient has been given 324 mg of aspirin and is receiving high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. As you begin your secondary assessment, you note that his mental status has deteriorated and he is now bradycardic. You should: A. continue with your secondary assessment. B. insert a nasal airway and assist his breathing. C. prepare the patient for immediate transport. D. request an ALS unit to respond to the scene.

C

You have just finished an ambulance run where a 45-year-old man had run his SUV into a utility pole. The driver was found slumped over the steering wheel, unconscious. A large electrical wire was lying across the hood of the vehicle. After securing scene safety, you were able to approach the patient and complete a primary assessment, in which you found a 6" laceration across his forehead. The patient regained responsiveness, was alert and oriented, and refused care. If the patient refuses to sign the refusal form: A. Sign it yourself and state: "Patient refused to sign." B. You cannot let the man leave the scene until he either goes with you or signs the form. C. Have a credible witness sign the form testifying that he or she witnessed the patient's refusal of care. D. If the patient refuses care, you don't have to document it.

C

You have just finished an ambulance run where a 45-year-old man had run his SUV into a utility pole. The driver was found slumped over the steering wheel, unconscious. A large electrical wire was lying across the hood of the vehicle. After securing scene safety, you were able to approach the patient and complete a primary assessment, in which you found a 6" laceration across his forehead. The patient regained responsiveness, was alert and oriented, and refused care. Should an EMT document this call, even though the patient refused care? A. No. You only need to document when you have actually provided care. B. No. This was not a billable run. C. Yes. It is best signed by the patient as "refusal of care." D. Both A and B.

C

You respond to a construction site and find a worker lying supine in the dirt. He has been hit by a heavy construction vehicle and flew more than 15' before landing in his current position. There is discoloration and distention of his abdomen about the RUQ. He is unconscious and his respirations are 10 breaths/min and shallow, with noisy gurgling sounds. What method will you use to keep his airway open? a. nasal cannula b. jaw thrust c. oropharyngeal airway d. any of the above

C

You respond to the local nursing home for an 85-year-old woman who has altered mental status. During your assessment you notice that the patient has an elevated body temperature. She is hypotensive & her pulse is tachycardic. The nursing staff tells you that she has been sick for several days & that they called because her mental status continued to decline. You suspect the patient is in septic shock. The shock is due to _______. A. pump failure. B. massive vasoconstriction. C. widespread dilation. D. increased volume.

C

You should assess pulse, motor, and sensation in all of the extremities and check for pupillary reactions if you suspect a _______ problem. A. cardiovascular B. endocrine C. neurologic D. psychological

C

You should begin protecting yourself: a. as soon as you arrive on the scene b. before you leave the scene c. as soon as you are dispatched d. before any patient contact

C

You're called to a construction site where a 27-year-old worker has fallen from the 2nd floor. He landed on his back and is drifting in and out of consciousness. A quick assessment reveals no bleeding or blood loss. His BP is 90/60 mm Hg with a pulse rate of 110 beats/min. His airway is open and breathing is within normal limits. You realize the patient is in shock. The patient's shock is due to an injury to the _______. A. cervical vertebrae. B. skull. C. spinal cord. D. peripheral nerves.

C

You're dispatched to the county fair for a 54-year-old woman complaining of chest pain. You arrive to find her pressing on the center of her chest & presenting with pale, clammy skin. You ask if she has any cardiac history & she tells you, "No, I just have asthma & my doctor says that I am prediabetic." Would you give this patient aspirin? A) No, nitroglycerin would be more appropriate B) Yes, her signs & symptoms indicate cardiac compromise & aspirin could help C) No, aspirin is contraindicated for asthmatics D) Yes, its analgesic properties may help with the discomfort

C

Your first consideration when assessing a pulse is to determine: A) How fast the rate is B) the quality C) if one is present D) if the rhythm is regular

C

Your initial attempt to ventilate an unresponsive apneic 30-year-old man is met with resistance and you do not see the chest rise. Your second ventilation attempt is also unsuccessful. You should: A. suction the airway. B. perform a blind finger sweep. C. perform 30 chest compressions. D. ventilate again with greater force.

C

Your partner, a veteran EMT who you have worked with regularly for the past 4 years, seems unusually agitated during a call involving an elderly patient. Upon arrival back at your station, you note the obvious smell of alcohol on his breath. What should you do? A. Remain quiet and simply request another partner. B. Report the incident to your EMS medical director. C. Discreetly report your suspicions to your supervisor. D. Tell your partner that he must seek professional help.

C

Your patient believes he has hepatitis and is now exhibiting signs of cirrhosis of the liver. He most likely has: A. hepatitis A. B. hepatitis B. C. hepatitis C. D. hepatitis D.

C

____ is an assessment tool used to evaluate the effectiveness of oxygenation: A) Capnography B) Capnometry C) Pulse oximetry D) Blood glucose

C

___________ is a response to the anticipation of danger. a. rage b. anger c. anxiety d. despair

C

___________ is equipment that blocks entry of an organism into the body. a. vaccination b. body substance isolation c. personal protective equipment d. immunization

C

A 12-year-old boy told his grandmother he was going to collect the day's mail, located on the opposite side of the street, for her. As he was returning with the mail, he was struck by a vehicle and was found lying lifeless in the middle of the street. As an EMT, you know these types of calls are coming. How can you prepare to meet such stressful situations? a. eat a balanced diet b. go for walks or other forms of exercise c. cut down on caffeine and sugars d. all of the above

D

A 12-year-old boy told his grandmother he was going to collect the day's mail, located on the opposite side of the street, for her. As he was returning with the mail, he was struck by a vehicle and was found lying lifeless in the middle of the street. What signs of stress may you or your partner exhibit? a. irritability toward coworkers, family, and friends b. loss of interest in work c. guilt d. all of the above

D

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? A. 100% oxygen administration B. full immobilization of her spine C. application of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) D. rapid transport to a trauma center

D

A 37-year-old male has an apparent foreign body airway obstruction. He is conscious and alert and is coughing forcefully. His skin is pink, warm, and moist. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. a series of back blows and chest thrusts. B. finger sweeps to remove the obstruction. C. performing a series of abdominal thrusts. D. encouraging him to cough and transporting.

D

A 49-year-old male with an extensive cardiac history presents with 2 hours of crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. He is pale and diaphoretic and tells you that he feels like he is going to die. His medications include nitroglycerin, sildenafil (Viagra), and enalapril (Vasotec). His blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. obtain physician approval to give the nitroglycerin. B. place him in a supine position and transport at once. C. administer one nitroglycerin and call medical control. D. ask him if he took his Viagra within the past 24 hours.

D

A 58-year-old man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. Your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction and he tells you that he does. You should: A. administer his nitroglycerin and then reassess his blood pressure. B. avoid giving him nitroglycerin and transport him at once. C. recall that erectile dysfunction drugs can cause hypertension if given with nitroglycerin. D. ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it.

D

A 59-year-old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea of 3 days' duration. He is confused and diaphoretic, and his radial pulses are absent. His blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg. After applying 100% supplemental oxygen, you should: A. perform a head-to-toe exam. B. allow him to drink plain water. C. obtain a repeat blood pressure in 5 minutes. D. prepare for immediate transport.

D

A 60-year-old man complains of chest pain. He is conscious and alert and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following questions would be the MOST appropriate to ask him? A. "Were you exerting yourself when the chest pain began?" B. "Does the pain in your chest move to either of your arms?" C. "Does the pain in your chest feel like a stabbing sensation?" D. "Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?"

D

A 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should: A. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. B. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions. C. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. D. recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs.

D

A CISD meeting is an opportunity to discuss your: a. feelings b. fears c. reactions to an event d. all of the above

D

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: A. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading. B. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading. C. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading. D. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

D

A decrease in the blood pressure may indicate: A. arterial constriction. B. increased blood volume. C. forceful cardiac contraction. D. a loss of vascular tone.

D

A folding or portable stretcher is MOST beneficial when: A. an injured patient cannot be placed on a long board due to severe back pain. B. a patient requires full spinal immobilization when spinal injury is suspected. C. a conscious, alert patient must be carried down several flights of steep stairs. D. a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.

D

A good patient care report documents: a. the care that was provided b. the patient's condition on arrival c. any changes d. all of the above

D

A patient regains consciousness en route from his office to the emergency department. The patient tells you that he feels fine and does not want to go to the hospital. Under these circumstances, you should: A. document the patient's request but continue to transport him. B. have the patient sign a refusal form and return him to his office. C. request that the police place the patient under protective custody. D. assess whether or not the patient's mental condition is impaired.

D

A patient who does not respond to your questions but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be: A. conscious and alert. B. responsive to verbal stimuli. C. completely unresponsive. D. responsive to painful stimuli.

D

A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having: A. hantavirus. B. hepatitis. C. tuberculosis. D. meningitis.

D

A patient who was bitten by a mosquito and presents with signs and symptoms of illness should be suspected of having: A. hantavirus. B. avian flu. C. lyme disease. D. West Nile virus.

D

After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient, you should: A. assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity. B. place him or her in the recovery position. C. provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance. D. suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

D

After receiving online orders from medical control to perform a patient care intervention, you should: A. perform the intervention as ordered. B. confirm the order in your own words. C. ask the physician to repeat the order. D. repeat the order to medical control word for word.

D

After stocking the ambulance this morning, you and your partner go out for breakfast. While entering the restaurant, you see an older gentleman clutch his chest and collapse to the floor. When you get to him, he has no pulse and is not breathing. To treat this patient, you will follow: A. off-line medical control B. online medical control C. protocols D. all of the above

D

After stocking the ambulance this morning, you and your partner go out for breakfast. While entering the restaurant, you see an older gentleman clutch his chest and collapse to the floor. When you get to him, he has no pulse and is not breathing. What level of training would allow you to perform an electrocardiogram and advanced life support on this patient? A. EMR B. EMT C. AEMT D. Paramedic

D

After the first 60 minutes of experiencing a significant injury: A. most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding. B. the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly. C. the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable. D. the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases.

D

After the patient's airway is intubated during two-rescuer CPR, you should: A. pause compressions to deliver ventilations. B. increase rescue breathing to a rate of 12 breaths/min. C. decrease the compression rate to about 80 per minute. D. deliver one rescue breath every 6 to 8 seconds.

D

All of the following are conditions not related to the body's circulation that may slow capillary refill EXCEPT: A) local circulatory compromise B) hypothermia C) age D) abdominal pain

D

All of the following are factors that increase the risk for developing MRSA, EXCEPT: A. antibiotic therapy. B. prolonged hospital stays. C. exposure to an infected patient. D. close contact with wild birds.

D

All of the following conditions would make you suspect shock, EXCEPT: A. anaphylaxis. B. heart attack. C. severe infection. D. tachycardia.

D

All of the following will help minimize the risk of gastric distention when ventilating an apneic patient with a bag-mask device, EXCEPT: A. delivering each breath over 1 second. B. ensuring the appropriate airway position. C. ventilating the patient at the appropriate rate. D. increasing the amount of delivered tidal volume.

D

An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the MOST appropriate method of immobilizing this patient? A. Immobilize her in a supine position on a long backboard and secure her with straps. B. Apply a cervical collar and place her in a sitting position on the wheeled stretcher. C. Move her to a supine position and immobilize her with a scoop stretcher and padding. D. Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.

D

An EMT may injure his or her back, even if it is straight, if the: A. hands are held close to the legs. B. shoulder is aligned over the pelvis. C. force is exerted straight down the spine. D. back is bent forward at the hips.

D

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: A. have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min. B. assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing. C. exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs. D. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.

D

An important safeguard against legal implication is: a. responding to every call with lights and siren b. checking ambulance equipment c. transporting every patient to an emergency department d. writing a complete and accurate run report

D

An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because: A. the infant's total blood volume decreases with age. B. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age. C. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate. D. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.

D

An unstable patient should be reassessed at least every: A. 10 minutes. B. 15 minutes. C. 20 minutes. D. 5 minutes.

D

As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the: A. mouth-to-mouth technique. B. one-person bag-mask device. C. manually triggered ventilation device. D. mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve.

D

As with all repeater-based systems, a cellular telephone is useless if the equipment: a. fails b. loses power c. is damaged by severe weather or other circumstances d. all of the above

D

Base stations: a. usually have more power than mobile or portable radios b. have higher, more efficient antenna systems c. allow for communication with field units at much greater distances d. all of the above

D

Basic causes of shock include: A. poor pump function. B. blood or fluid loss. C. blood vessel dilation. D. all of the above.

D

Be sure that you report all patient information in a(n) ________ manner. a. objective b. accurate c. professional d. all of the above

D

Capillary sphincters are: A. under complete control of the voluntary portion of the nervous system. B. capable of dilating in order to increase perfusion to crucial body organs. C. responsible for constricting to compensate for decreased cell perfusion. D. circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries.

D

Characteristics of epinephrine include: A) dilating passages of the lungs B) constricting blood vessels C) increasing the heart rate and blood pressure D) all of the above

D

Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. supraclavicular retractions. B. gasping attempts to breathe. C. use of accessory muscles. D. shallow chest movement.

D

Components of the CISM system include: a. preincident stress education b. defusings c. spouse and family support d. all of the above

D

Despite numerous, sincere efforts to convince a 40-year-old man to consent to EMS treatment and transport, he refuses. After explaining the potential consequences of his refusal and determining that he has decision-making capacity, you ask him to sign an EMS refusal form, but he refuses to do that as well. You should: A. sign the refusal form, include the date and time, and have your partner witness it with his or her signature. B. document the patient's refusal, but leave the refusal form blank because only the patient can legally sign it. C. advise the patient that unless he signs the refusal form, he cannot legally refuse EMS treatment or transport. D. ask a family member, law enforcement officer, or bystander to sign the form verifying that the patient refused to sign.

D

Distributive shock occurs when: A. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. B. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. C. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

D

During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least ________ times. A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 2

D

During your assessment of a 6-month-old male with vomiting and diarrhea, you note that his capillary refill time is approximately 4 seconds. From this information, you should conclude that his: A. respiratory status is adequate. B. systolic blood pressure is normal. C. skin temperature is abnormally cold. D. peripheral circulation is decreased.

D

EMT training in nearly every state meets or exceeds the guidelines recommended by the: A. National Registry of EMTs. B. individual state's EMS protocols. C. National Association of EMTs. D. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).

D

Effective communication between the EMT and health care professionals in the receiving facility is an essential cornerstone of ___________ patient care. a. efficient b. effective c. appropriate d. all of the above

D

End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) is defined as the: A. total amount of CO2 that remains in the lungs between breaths. B. amount of CO2 that a person breathes in during a single inhalation. C. maximum amount of CO2 that remains in the lungs at all times. D. maximal concentration of CO2 at the end of an exhaled breath.

D

Events that can trigger critical incident stress include: a. mass-casualty incidents b. serious injury or traumatic death of a child c. death or serious injury of a coworker in the line of duty d. all of the above

D

Factors to take into consideration for potential violence include: a. poor impulse control b. substance abuse c. depression d. all of the above

D

Fear may be expressed as: a. anger b. bad dreams c. restlessness d. all of the above

D

For __________ reasons, the delivery of sophisticated care, such as assisting patients in taking medications, must be done in association with physicians. a. logical b. ethical c. legal d. all of the above

D

For children younger than 1 year old, you should palpate the ___ artery when assessing the pulse. A) carotid B) radial C) femoral D) brachial

D

Functional age relates to the person's: a. ability to function in daily activities b. mental state c. activity pattern d. all of the above

D

Functions of the patient care report include: a. continuity of care b. education c. research d. all of the above

D

General guidelines for carrying a patient on a stretcher include: A. leaning back from your waist when lifting. B. slightly twisting your body when carrying. C. maintaining slight flexion of your back. D. constant communication with your partners.

D

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: A. is less resistant to treatment. B. is a more contagious type of disease. C. leads to chronic infection after exposure. D. has a greater ability to produce disease.

D

How does positive-pressure ventilation affect cardiac output? A. There is no effect on cardiac output because positive-pressure ventilation is the act of normal breathing. B. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which facilitates venous return to the heart and increases cardiac output. C. It causes pressure in the chest to decrease, which increases stroke volume and cardiac output. D. It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output.

D

How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT? A. orally B. inhaled C. injected D. sublingually

D

Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as: A. low venous oxygen levels. B. a decrease in arterial oxygen levels. C. an increase in carbon dioxide in the blood. D. inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells.

D

If an EMT candidate has been convicted of a felony or misdemeanor, he or she should: A. wait at least 24 months before taking another state-approved EMT class. B. send an official request to the National Registry of EMT (NREMT) to seek approval to take the EMT exam. C. recognize that any such conviction will disqualify him or her from EMT licensure. D. contact the state EMS office and provide them with the required documentation.

D

If ventilation is impaired, carbon dioxide levels in the bloodstream will increase. This condition is called: A. acidosis. B. hypoxia. C. hypoxemia. D. hypercarbia.

D

If you and your partner were out past the end of your scheduled shift and driving the ambulance back to base to go home when you came upon this accident, would you have a legal duty to act? A. No. If you were not specifically dispatched to the crash, you do not have an obligation to assist. B. Yes. As a trained and licensed EMT you must assist with every medical emergency that you encounter. C. No. Because it is past the end of your scheduled shift, you can decide whether you want to stop and help. D. Yes. As a trained EMT still on-duty for an EMS system, you would have a legal and ethical obligation to stop and assist.

D

If you find that you are the target of the patient's anger, make sure that you: a. are safe b. do not take the anger or insults personally c. are tolerant and do not become defensive d. all of the above

D

If your medical patient is not in critical condition, how long should you spend on scene? A. 10 minutes or less B. 30 minutes C. 2 hours D. However long it takes to gather as much information as possible

D

If your partner, while examining a patient, states that the patient's lungs are equal and bilateral, you would understand your partner to mean that: a. both lungs have labored breathing b. both lungs are equally bad c. the patient is not breathing d. there are clear and equal lung sounds on both sides

D

In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by: A. hypovolemia. B. tachycardia. C. diaphoresis. D. hypothermia.

D

In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient: A. is not as complex for the EMT because most patients typically present with classic symptoms. B. requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems. C. almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem. D. is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms.

D

In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis: A. can be prevented with a vaccination. B. typically does not cause yellow skin. C. is a far more transmittable disease. D. is not a communicable disease.

D

In deeply pigmented skin, you should look for changes in color in areas of the skin that have less pigment, including: A) the sclera B) the conjunctiva C) the mucous membranes of the mouth D) all of the above

D

In responsive patients that are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery. A. femoral B. carotid C. brachial D. radial

D

In septic shock: A. there is an insufficient volume of fluid in the container. B. the fluid that has leaked out often collects in the respiratory system. C. there's a larger-than-normal vascular bed to contain the smaller-than-normal volume of intravascular fluid. D. all of the above.

D

In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified? A. A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse. B. A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times. C. A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts every time she takes a deep breath. D. A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.

D

In which of the following situations is an emergency patient move indicated? A. A significant mechanism of injury is involved. B. A patient has an altered mental status or is in shock. C. The EMT has to gain access to lesser-injured patients in a vehicle. D. The EMT is unable to protect the patient from scene hazards.

D

Instances in which you may be required to file special reports with appropriate authorities include: a. gunshot wounds b. dog bites c. suspected physical, sexual, or substance abuse d. all of the above

D

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: A. ataxic respirations. B. agonal respirations. C. eupneic respirations. D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

D

Maturation of the reproductive system usually takes place during: A. early adulthood. B. preschool. C. middle adulthood. D. adolescence.

D

Medical examiners' cases include: a. violent death b. suicide c. suspicion of a criminal act d. all of the above

D

Modes of transmission for infectious diseases include: a. blood or fluid splash b. surface contamination c. needle stick exposure d. all of the above

D

Negligence is based on the EMT's duty to act, cause, breach of duty, and: a. expressed consent b. termination of care c. mode of transport d. real or perceived damages

D

Nitroglycerin affects the body in the following ways: A) It decreases blood pressure B) It relaxes veins throughout the body C) It often causes a mild headache after administration D) All of the above

D

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: A. pale, cool, and moist. B. flushed, cool, and dry. C. pink, warm, and moist. D. pink, warm, and dry.

D

Patients who become dependent upon EMS personnel or other health care providers often feel: A. relieved. B. superior. C. hopeful. D. shamed.

D

Patients with altered mental status should be considered _______ when determining transport options. A. nonemergency B. low priority C. moderate priority D. high priority

D

Perfusion requires having a working cardiovascular system as well as: A. adequate oxygen exchange in the lungs. B. adequate nutrients in the form of glucose in the blood. C. adequate waste removal. D. all of the above.

D

Prolonged or excessive exposure to stress is known as: a. posttraumatic stress b. delayed stress c. critical incident stress d. cumulative stress

D

Prolonged or excessive stress has been proven to be a strong contributor to: a. heart disease b. hypertension c. cancer d. all of the above

D

Recommended immunizations include the: a. MMR vaccine b. hepatitis B vaccine c. influenza vaccine d. all of the above

D

Sexual harassment is defined as: a. any unwelcome sexual advance b. unwelcome requests for sexual behaviors c. unwelcome verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature d. all of the above

D

Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. acute cyanosis. B. inability to speak. C. grasping the throat. D. forceful coughing.

D

Situations in which you should use the rapid extrication technique include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a patient whose condition requires immediate transport to the hospital. B. a patient who blocks access to another seriously injured patient. C. a patient who needs immediate care that requires a supine position. D. a patient who can be properly assessed while still in the vehicle.

D

Situations that might require special preparation on the part of the hospital include: a. HazMat situations b. mass-casualty incidents c. rescues in progress d. all of the above

D

Solutions may be given: A) orally B) intramuscularly C) rectally D) all of the above

D

Standard radio operating procedures are designed to: a. reduce the number of misunderstood messages b. keep transmissions brief c. develop effective radio discipline d. all of the above

D

Stealing from a parent's wallet and denying it when caught is an example of _______ reasoning. A. postconventional B. psychosocial C. conventional D. preconventional

D

Stimulation of alpha-adrenergic receptors results in: A. increased heart rate. B. dilation of the blood vessels. C. increased cardiac contractility. D. constriction of the blood vessels.

D

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would result in: A. tachycardia. B. a strong pulse. C. vasoconstriction. D. a slow heart rate.

D

Stress management strategies include: a. changing work hours b. changing your attitude c. changing partners d. all of the above

D

Stressors include ___________ situations or conditions that may cause a variety of physiologic, physical, and psychological responses. a. emotional b. physical c. environmental d. all of the above

D

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: A. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions. B. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms. C. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. D. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

D

The BEST way to reduce your risk of contracting a work-related disease following exposure is to: A. vigorously wash the affected area with an antimicrobial solution. B. be evaluated by a physician within 72 hours following the exposure. C. get vaccinated against the disease you think you were exposed to. D. activate your department's infection control plan as soon as possible.

D

The MOST important consideration at the scene of a hazardous material incident is: A. identifying the material. B. calling the hazardous materials team. C. evacuating the bystanders. D. ensuring your personal safety.

D

The _______ is connected to the intestine by the bile ducts. A. stomach B. spleen C. appendix D. liver

D

The action of hormones such as epinephrine and norepinephrine stimulates _______ to maintain pressure in the system and, as a result, perfusion of all vital organs. A. an increase in heart rate B. an increase in the strength of cardiac contractions C. vasoconstriction in nonessential areas D. all of the above

D

The autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary functions such as: A. sweating. B. digestion. C. constriction & dilation of capillary sphincters. D. all of the above.

D

The base station may be used: a. in a single place by an operator speaking into a microphone that is connected directly to the equipment b. remotely through telephone lines c. by radio from a communication center d. all of the above

D

The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is MOST often related to: A. hypotension. B. medication use. C. kidney failure. D. atherosclerosis.

D

The form the manufacturer chooses for a medication ensures: A) the proper route of the medication B) the timing of the medication's release into the bloodstream C) the medication's effects on target organs or body systems D) all of the above

D

The goal of the primary assessment is to: A. determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment. B. determine if the patient's problem is medical or trauma. C. identify patients that require transport to a trauma center. D. identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.

D

The greatest danger in displaying a personal bias or "labeling" a patient who frequently calls EMS is: A. demeaning or humiliating the patient and his family. B. discouraging the patient from calling EMS in the future. C. making the entire EMS system look unprofessional. D. overlooking a potentially serious medical condition.

D

The low normal systolic blood pressure for a 30-year-old is: A. 60 mm Hg. B. 70 mm Hg. C. 80 mm Hg. D. 90 mm Hg.

D

The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it: A. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly. B. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex. C. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest. D. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.

D

The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT: A. gives a radio report to the receiving medical facility. B. notifies the admitting clerk of their arrival at the hospital. C. informs dispatch of their arrival at the emergency department. D. gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse.

D

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg, while the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg. A. 70, 28 B. 88, 30 C. 90, 50 D. 104, 40

D

The pressure felt along the wall of the artery when the ventricles of the heart contract is referred to as the: A) asystolic pressure B) diastolic pressure C) idiopathic pressure D) systolic pressure

D

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi). A. 500 B. 1,000 C. 1,500 D. 2,000

D

The principal EMS-related responsibilities of the FCC include: a. monitoring radio operations b. establishing limitations for transmitter power output c. allocating specific radio frequencies for use by EMS providers d. all of the above

D

The process by which an individual, an institution, or a program is evaluated and recognized as meeting certain standards is called: a. the standard of care b. competency c. the scope of practice d. certification

D

The risk of bleeding in the skull, which increases with age, is MOST directly related to: A. blood vessel dilation. B. a decrease in neurons. C. meningeal deterioration. D. shrinkage of the brain.

D

The secondary assessment of a medical patient: A. should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill. B. is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious. C. should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe. D. is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short.

D

The stage of the grieving process that involves an open expression of grief, internalized anger, hopelessness, and/or the desire to die is: a. denial b. acceptance c. bargaining d. depression

D

To obtain the pulse rate in most patients, you should count the number of pulses felt in a ______. A) 15-second B) 20-second C) 25-second D) 30-second

D

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should: A. quickly begin the triage process. B. assist with vehicle stabilization. C. report to the incident commander. D. put on high-visibility safety vests.

D

What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR? A. 3:1 B. 5:1 C. 30:2 D. 15:2

D

What is the most common problem you may encounter when using a bag-mask device? a. volume of the bag-mask device b. positioning of the patient's head c. environmental conditions d. maintaining an airtight seal

D

What percentage of the air we breathe is made up of oxygen? a. 78% b. 12% c. 16% d. 21%

D

When acknowledging the death of a child, reactions vary, but _________ is/are common. a. shock b. disbelief c. denial d. all of the above

D

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of his or her problem? A. rapid body scan B. primary assessment C. baseline vital signs D. history taking

D

When assessing breathing, you should obtain all of the following EXCEPT: A) respiratory rate B) depth of breathing C) quality/character of breathing D) breath odor

D

When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ________ artery. A. radial B. carotid C. temporal D. brachial

D

When blood pressure drops, the body compensates to maintain perfusion to the vital organs by: A) decreasing the pulse rate B) dilating the arteries C) decreasing the respiratory rate D) decreasing the blood flow to the skin & extremities

D

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: A. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. B. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. C. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. D. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.

D

When caring for critically ill or injured patients, ________ will be decreased if you can keep the patient informed at the scene. a. confusion b. anxiety c. feelings of helplessness d. all of the above

D

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Choose one answer. A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. B. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. C. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. D. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

D

When grieving, family members may express: a. rage b. anger c. despair d. all of the above

D

When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: A. compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume. B. the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock. C. medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate. D. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting.

D

When you and your partner arrive at the residence of a man in cardiac arrest, you immediately recognize the patient as the drunk driver who killed your brother several years earlier. A backup ambulance is en route to the scene. You should: A. advise your partner that you cannot provide care to this patient. B. wait for the backup ambulance while your partner performs CPR. C. obtain permission from medical control to not attempt resuscitation. D. begin two-rescuer CPR and apply the automated external defibrillator (AED) as soon as possible.

D

When you encounter a patient who is angry, you should be mindful of your: a. tone of voice b. attitude c. body language d. all of the above

D

Which of the following components must be included in the oral report during transfer of care? a. the patient's name b. any important history c. vital signs assessed d. all of the above

D

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epinephrine? A. secreted naturally by the adrenal glands B. dilates passages in the lungs C. constricts blood vessels D. decreases heart rate and blood pressure

D

Which of the following is an example of a scene hazard? a. electricity b. vehicle collision c. fire d. all of the above

D

Which of the following is generally NOT considered confidential? a. assessment findings b. a patient's mental condition c. a patient's medical history d. the location of the emergency

D

Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag- mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse? A. 20 breaths/min being delivered to the adult B. decreased compliance when squeezing the bag C. an adult's heart rate that is consistently increasing D. adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag

D

Which of the following medications would the EMT LEAST likely administer to a patient with a medical complaint? A. albuterol B. oral glucose C. aspirin D. naloxone (Narcan)

D

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS? A. a 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multilumen device B. a 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia C. a 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle D. a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED)

D

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is MOST correct? A. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. B. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. C. Anaphylactic shock is the result of immune system failure due to a toxic exposure. D. Each subsequent exposure following sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.

D

Which of the following statements regarding hepatitis A is correct? A. Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted via contact with blood or other body fluids. B. Infection with hepatitis A causes chronic illness with a high mortality rate. C. Although there is no vaccine against hepatitis A, treatment is usually successful. D. Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection.

D

Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? A. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected. B. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick. C. Studies have shown that less than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers. D. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics.

D

Which of the following statements regarding the EMS medical director and an EMT's scope of practice is correct? A. The EMS medical director can expand the EMT's scope of practice but cannot limit it without state approval. B. The EMS medical director can expand or limit an individual EMT's scope of practice without state approval. C. An EMT's scope of practice is exclusively regulated by the state EMS office, not the EMS medical director. D. An EMT's scope of practice may be expanded by the medical director after proper training and state approval.

D

Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? A. The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with your intact skin. B. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care setting. C. Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in duration and severity. D. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream

D

Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) is MOST correct? A. It is an uncommon dysrhythmia in patients with sudden cardiac arrest. B. AEDs should not be used to defibrillate patients in V-fib. C. The only indication for immediate defibrillation is V-fib. D. Survival rates decrease by 7% to 10% for each minute that V-fib persists.

D

Which of the following structures is contained within the mediastinum? A. lungs B. larynx C. bronchioles D. esophagus

D

Which of the following vessels does NOT carry blood to the heart? A. Inferior vena cava B. Superior vena cava C. Pulmonary vein D. Pulmonary artery

D

While at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you determine that there are two critically injured patients and that another ambulance is needed. You attempt to contact the dispatcher with your portable radio but are unsuccessful. You should: A. reattempt to contact dispatch from an area of higher terrain. B. place both patients in the ambulance and transport at once. C. ask a police officer to call dispatch with his portable radio. D. use the mobile radio in the ambulance to contact dispatch.

D

While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should: A. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can. B. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him. C. place him in a supine position and open his airway. D. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.

D

Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: A. rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate (ATP). B. cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood. C. begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids. D. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.

D

Work, family, and stress best describe the life stage known as: A. middle adulthood. B. adolescence. C. late adulthood. D. early adulthood.

D

You & your partner are dispatched to a home on the east side of town for a possible poisoning. Upon arrival, you are met by a frantic mother who carries her crying 4-year-old boy up to your truck. "Please help him!" She pleads. "I was cleaning the garage & before I could stop him he drank a jar of gasoline that my husband uses to clean car parts." Your partner puts the truck in park & sets the parking brake. "I'll grab that activated charcoal," he says, climbing out of the cab. You should: A) administer the activated charcoal & transport the child immediately B) ask to see the jar to determine how much gasoline was swallowed C) contact online medical direction while administering the activated charcoal D) not administer activated charcoal

D

You are summoned to a convalescent center for an 88-year-old female with an altered mental status. A staff nurse advises you that the patient has terminal cancer and her physician stated that she would probably die within the next few hours; a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order is presented to you. When caring for this patient, you should: A. depart the scene and allow her to die with dignity. B. start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) if she experiences cardiopulmonary arrest. C. provide no interventions and transport to the hospital. D. make her comfortable and provide emotional support.

D

You arrive at a residence approximately 20 minutes after a 7-year-old boy, who weighs 22 kg, ingested a bottle of Advil. He is conscious and alert and has stable vital signs. Medical control orders you to administer activated charcoal and oxygen and then transport the child at once. The appropriate maximum dose of activated charcoal for this child is: A. 11 g. B. 22 g. C. 36 g. D. 44 g.

D

You arrive at the scene of a domestic violence situation. As you approach the doorway of the apartment, you hear screaming and the statement "He has a gun!" Your MOST appropriate action should be to: A. continue into the apartment using extreme caution. B. proceed into the apartment and apprehend the gunman. C. get in your ambulance and leave the scene immediately. D. seek a safe place and request law enforcement assistance.

D

You have just finished an ambulance run where a 45-year-old man had run his SUV into a utility pole. The driver was found slumped over the steering wheel, unconscious. A large electrical wire was lying across the hood of the vehicle. After securing scene safety, you were able to approach the patient and complete a primary assessment, in which you found a 6" laceration across his forehead. The patient regained responsiveness, was alert and oriented, and refused care. What are the consequences of falsifying a report? A. It may result in a suspension and or a revocation of your license. B. It gives other healthcare providers a false impression of assessment/findings. C. It results in poor patient care. D. All of the above.

D

You have just finished an ambulance run where a 45-year-old man had run his SUV into a utility pole. The driver was found slumped over the steering wheel, unconscious. A large electrical wire was lying across the hood of the vehicle. After securing scene safety, you were able to approach the patient and complete a primary assessment, in which you found a 6" laceration across his forehead. The patient regained responsiveness, was alert and oriented, and refused care. Which of the following would it be important to document? A. That the scene needed to be made safe B. That ensuring scene safety delayed care C. That you completed a rapid physical assessment D. All of the above

D

You must consult with medical control to: a. notify the hospital of an incoming patient b. request advice or orders from medical control c. advise the hospital of special situations d. all of the above

D

You respond to a 17-year-old football player who was hit by numerous opponents and while walking off the field became unconscious. He's currently unconscious. You take c-spine control & start your assessment. You know that in the treatment of shock you must: A. secure & maintain an airway. B. provide respiratory support. C. assist ventilations. D. all of the above.

D

You respond to a construction site and find a worker lying supine in the dirt. He has been hit by a heavy construction vehicle and flew more than 15' before landing in his current position. There is discoloration and distention of his abdomen about the RUQ. He is unconscious and his respirations are 10 breaths/min and shallow, with noisy gurgling sounds. After opening the airway, your next priority is to: a. provide oxygen at 6L/min via nonrebreathing mask b. provide oxygen at 15L/min via nasal cannula c. assist respirations d. suction the airway

D

You respond to a construction site and find a worker lying supine in the dirt. He has been hit by a heavy construction vehicle and flew more than 15' before landing in his current position. There is discoloration and distention of his abdomen about the RUQ. He is unconscious and his respirations are 10 breaths/min and shallow, with noisy gurgling sounds. While assisting with respirations, you note gastric distention. In order to prevent or alleviate the distention, you should: a. ensure that the patient's airway is appropriately positioned b. ventilate the patient at the appropriate rate c. ventilate the patient at the appropriate volume d. all of the above

D

Your __________ are critically important in gaining the trust of both the patient and family. a. gestures b. body movements c. attitude toward the patient d. all of the above

D

Your patient is a 73-year-old man who was struck with severe chest pressure with radiating pain while having dinner at a local diner. Has has a small vial of nitroglycerin in his pocket but says through clenched teeth that he has not taken any in several days & needs you to help him to get the vial open. After administering oxygen, what is the first thing that you should do? A) Obtain the patient's blood pressure & ensure that his specific pressure is not below 110 mmHg B) Begin assisting the patient's ventilations C) Place him in a position of comfort for transport D) Ask if he has taken any erectile dysfunction medications in the last 24 hours

D

Your patient is complaining of fever, headache, stiffness of the neck, and red blotches on his skin. He most likely has: A. tuberculosis. B. hepatitis B. C. SARS. D. meningitis.

D

Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to: A. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport. B. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure. C. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment. D. administer oxygen with the appropriate device.

D

_______ is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. A. Meningitis B. Tuberculosis C. Hepatitis C D. MRSA

D

_______ is a sudden reaction of the nervous system that produces temporary vascular dilation and fainting. A. Neurogenic shock B. Psychogenic shock C. Vascular shock D. Cardiogenic shock

Psychogenic Shock