all NEGO-tranthu98
B
25. A tactic that is ignored is essentially a tactic A) pressed. B) defeated. C) converted. D) exchanged. E) reserved.
B
32. A coalition is determined by the commitment of its members to A) meet on a regular basis. B) collectively focus their action on an intended target. C) the formal hierarchy of the coalition. D) maintain regular and accurate communication. E) A coalition is determined by the commitment of its members to all of the above.
D
44. Projection occurs when A) attributes are assigned to an individual solely on the basis of his or her membership in a particular social or demographic group. B) people generalize about a variety of attributes based on the knowledge of one attribute of an individual. C) the perceiver singles out certain information that supports or reinforces a prior belief, and filters out information that does not confirm that belief. D) people ascribe to others the characteristics or feelings that they possess themselves. E) All of the above describe projection.
C
45. Frames are important in negotiation because A) they allow parties to develop separate definitions of the issues B) they can be avoided C) disputes are often nebulous and open to different interpretations D) do not allow negotiators to articulate an aspect of a complex social situation E) all of the above
A
46. Communal sharing is a relationship of A) unity, community, collective identity, and kindness. B) asymmetric differences. C) one-to-one correspondence. D) balanced reciprocity. E) None of the above describes a relationship of communal sharing.
A
54. The objective of both parties in distributive bargaining is to obtain as much of which of the following as possible? A) bargaining range B) resistance point C) target point D) bargaining mix E) None of the above.
C
56. Arbitration typically involves A) high levels of negotiator control over outcomes and high levels of negotiator control over procedure. B) low levels of negotiator control over outcomes and low levels of negotiator control over procedure. C) low levels of negotiator control over outcomes and high levels of negotiator control over procedure. D) high levels of negotiator control over outcomes and low levels of negotiator control over procedure. E) Arbitration typically involves none of the above.
D
A situation in which solutions exist so that both parties are trying to find a mutually acceptable solution to a complex conflict is known as which of the following? A) mutual gains B) win-lose C) zero-sum D) win-win E) None of the above
A
The less concrete and measurable goals are: A) the harder it is to communicate to the other party what we want B) the easier it is to understand what your opponent wants C) the easier it is to determine whether a particular outcome satisfies our goals D) the harder it is to restate what the initial goal was E) all of the above
B
To most people the words "bargaining" and "negotiation" are A) mutually exclusive. B) interchangeable. C) not related. D) interdependent. E) None of the above
C
Which is not a characteristic of a negotiation or bargaining situation? A) conflict between parties B) two or more parties involved C) an established set of rules D) a voluntary process E) None of the above is a characteristic of a negotiation
C
21. Negotiators always run the risk of encountering other parties who, for any number of reasons, are difficult negotiators. That difficulty may be intentional or due to A) inexperience B) philosophical differences C) inadequate skill D) lack of sophistication E) a psychological imbalance
C
21. Research on gender characteristics in negotiation A) has shown a strength in the use of sex as the independent variable. B) has yielded consistent findings to document significant differences between male and female negotiators. C) has found there are differences in how males and females negotiate, but these differences are difficult to detect. D) has a generalized influence on the dependent variables in a negotiation. E) All of the above are results of research on gender characteristics in negotiation.
B
22. It is important negotiators consider the shadow negotiation carefully before meeting with the other party so they A) understand where the boundaries of the current negotiations are and should be. B) are clear in their own minds about the scope of the negotiations. C) understand how they would ideally like to work with the other party. D) determine what ground the negotiation is going to cover and how the negotiators are going to work together.
B
22. Which theoretical finding about the role of women in negotiations is not true? A) Women may place a greater emphasis on interaction goals (the interpersonal aspects of the negotiations). B) Women's conceptualization of power may make them less comfortable than men with integrative versus distributive negotiation. C) Women were more likely to perceive conflict episodes in relationship terms. D) Women in negotiations are often treated worse than men during negotiations. E) Women using the same negotiation tactic that men used were less successful than men.
A
23. According to Kolb and Coolidge, during a negotiation men tend to A) demarcate negotiating from other behaviors that occur in the relationship. B) perceive negotiation as part of the larger context within which it takes place. C) seek empowerment when there is interaction among all parties in the relationship. D) to engage the other in a joint exploration of ideas. E) None of the above.
B
23. Strategic levers available to help people navigate the shadow negotiation include power moves, appreciative moves and one other of the following. A) collaborative moves B) process moves C) pressure moves D) social moves E) perspective moves
C
24. According to Kolb and Coolidge, during a negotiation women tend to A) use dialogue to convince the other party that their position is correct. B) demarcate negotiating from other behaviors that occur in the relationship. C) seek empowerment when there is interaction among all parties in the relationship. D) use power to achieve their own goals. E) All of the above.
E
24. As a party managing a negotiation mismatch, you can respond using which of the following ways? A) Ignore them. B) Respond in kind. C) Call them on it. D) Offer to change to more productive methods. E) Do all of the above.
B
25. Using dialogue to convince the other party that their position is correct and to support various tactics and ploys that are used to win points during the discussion is a characteristic of A) female negotiators. B) male negotiators. C) both male and female negotiators. D) neither male nor female negotiators. E) Either male or female negotiators, but not during the same negotiation.
B
26. Responding when the other side has more power, negotiators can utilize all but one of the following alternatives. A) Correct the power imbalance. B) Introduce ultimatums. C) Cultivate their best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA). D) Formulate a "trip wire alert system." E) Protect themselves.
E
26. Which of the following statements about the important factors that affect how women and men approach negotiations is untrue? A) Women are more aware of the complete relationship among the parties who are negotiating and are more likely to perceive negotiation as part of the larger context within which it takes place than to focus only on the content of the issues being discussed. B) Women tend not to draw strict boundaries between negotiating and other aspects of their relationships with other people but instead see negotiation as a behavior that occurs within relationships without large divisions marking when it begins and ends. C) Men can be characterized as using power to achieve their own goals, or to force the other party to capitulate to their point of view. D) Men use dialogue in two ways: (a) to convince the other party that their position is the correct one and (b) to support various tactics and ploys that are used to win points during the discussion. E) Negative stereotypes about female bargainers do not shape expectations and behaviors by both men and women at the negotiating table.
A
31. In which of the following examples is the communication model listed in the correct order? A) sender encodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver decodes the message, receiver provides feedback to the sender B) message is transmitted, sender encodes the message, receiver decodes the message, receiver provides feedback to the sender C) sender encodes the message, receiver decodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver provides feedback to the sender D) sender encodes the message, message is transmitted, receiver provides feedback to the sender, receiver decodes the message E) None of the above list the communication process in the correct order.
E
31. Multiparty negotiations differ from two-party deliberations in which of the following ways? A) Multiparty negotiations have more negotiators at the table. B) More issues and more information are introduced than when two parties negotiate. C) The environment changes from a one-on-one dialogue to small group discussion. D) The process for multiparty negotiators is more complex than two-party ones. E) All of the above statements about multiparty negotiations are true.
C
31. Tactics designed to create power equalization are often employed as a way to A) gain advantage in a distributive bargaining situation. B) block the other's power moves. C) level the playing field. D) diminish the expert power of the other party. E) Tactics designed to create power equalization are often employed to accomplish all of the above.
D
31. Which of the following is not a property of a coalition? A) A coalition is an interacting group of individuals. B) A coalition is independent of the formal structure of the organization. C) A coalition consists of mutually perceived membership. D) A coalition is focused on a goal or goals internal to the coalition. E) All of the above are properties of coalitions.
C
32. Encoding can be defined as A) the facts, ideas, feelings, reactions, or thoughts that exist within individuals and act as a set of filters for interpreting the decoded messages. B) the process by which messages are put into symbolic form. C) the process of translating messages from their symbolic form into a form that makes sense. D) the process by which the receiver reacts to the sender's message. E) Decoding can be defined as all of the above.
C
32. Lytle and her colleagues found that most negotiators cycled through three strategies during the same encounters. Which are the three strategies? A) interests, information, effectiveness. B) effectiveness, coercion, deception. C) interests, rights, power. D) deception, reward, position. E) information, position, rights.
E
32. One of the most fundamental consequences of increasing the number of parties in a negotiation is that A) the negotiation situation tends to become less lucid. B) the negotiation situation tends to become more complex. C) the negotiation situation tends to become more demanding. D) there will be more values, interests, and perceptions to be integrated or accommodated. E) All of the above are fundamental consequences of increasing the number of parties in a negotiation.
A
33. Nearly 50 years ago there were five major types of sources of power that could be exercised. All but one of the following is part of that group. Which one is not? A) Personal power. B) Reward power. C) Coercive power. D) Legitimate power. E) Referent power.
D
33. What is the result of procedural complexity in multiparty negotiations? A) The fewer the number of parties, the more complex the decision making process becomes. B) The increased number of negotiators will streamline the decision making process. C) Negotiators can ignore the problem of multiple related issues. D) Negotiators will probably have to devote discussion time to how they will manage the process to arrive at the type of solution or agreement they want. E) All of the above are the result of procedural complexity in multiparty negotiations.
A
33. Which of the following lists three of the major types of coalitions? A) potential coalitions, operating coalitions, and recurring coalitions B) external coalitions, operating coalitions, and recurring coalitions C) latent coalitions, established coalitions, and potential coalitions D) established coalitions, operating coalitions, and temporary coalitions E) None of the above lists three major types of coalitions.
D
33. Which of the following would be likely to distort messages and their meaning, preventing them from being understood completely? A) shared or common goals between the sender and receiver B) the elimination of distraction and confusion in the communication environment C) the avoidance of symbolic communication D) the congruence or incongruence between multiple transmission channels E) All of the above would be likely to distort messages and their meaning.
C
34. "Interpretation" can be defined as A) the process by which the receiver reacts to the sender's message. B) the process of screening, selecting, and interpreting stimuli so that they have meaning to the individual. C) the facts, ideas, feelings, reactions, or thoughts that exist within individuals and act as a set of filters for interpreting the decoded messages. D) small amounts of perceptual information that are used to draw large conclusions about individuals. E) None of the above define "interpretation."
B
34. In multiparty negotiations, research shows that parties who approached multiple issues simultaneously: A) achieved lower quality agreements. B) increased the likelihood of achieving agreement. C) exchanged less information. D) have less insight into the preferences and priorities of the other parties at the table. E) Research shows that parties who approached multiple issues simultaneously achieved all of the above.
C
34. Which of the following is not a major source of power from one of the five different groupings? A) Informational sources of power. B) Personal sources of power. C) Organizational sources of power. D) Relationship-based sources of power. E) Contextual sources of power.
C
34. ____________ ____________ are emergent interest groups that have not yet formed into an operating coalition. A) Informal coalitions B) Formal coalitions C) Latent coalitions D) Dormant coalitions E) All of the above are emergent interest groups that have not yet formed into an operating coalition.
A
35. Information as a source of power is A) the accumulation and presentation of data to change the other person's point of view or position on an issue. B) an acknowledged accumulation of information, or mastery of a body of information, on a particular problem or issue. C) the accumulation of money, raw material, manpower, time or equipment which can by used to create incentives for other people to comply, or as threats and punishments if they do not comply. D) power derived from being located in a particular position in an organizational or communication structure. E) Information as a source of power is all of the above.
C
35. One-on-one negotiations in full view of all group members would have all but one of the following consequences on negotiators. Which one would not be a consequence? A) Negotiators who have some way to control the number of parties at the table (or even in the room) may begin to act strategically. B) Since the exchanges are under surveillance negotiators will be sensitive to being observed and may feel the need to be tough. C) Negotiators can simply choose to ignore the complexity of the three or more parties and proceed strategically as a two-party negotiation. D) Negotiators can explicitly engage in coalition building as a way to marshal support. E) Negotiators will have to find satisfactory ways to explain modification of their positions.
E
35. The presence of feedback can A) distort communication in negotiation. B) lead negotiators to change the way that they negotiate or evaluate negotiation outcomes. C) influence the offers that negotiators make. D) motivate the sender to change his or her behavior, either in a positive or negative direction. E) The presence of feedback can cause all of the above to occur.
A
35. What is the "paradox" of being a coalition founder? A) Early in the coalition building process, the founder may have to give away a lot in order to apparently gain a little. B) The founder's position shifts from strength to weakness as the coalition grows. C) The founder is usually not a part of the leadership of the coalition. D) The founder's early share in the coalition is large, and grows as more members are added. E) None of the above describes the paradox of being a coalition founder.
B
36. Coalitions build by A) organizing members through formal meetings . B) adding one member at a time. C) mobilizing departments or divisions. D) unification in a single, defining event. E) Coalitions are built by all of the above.
C
36. There are five ways in which the complexity increases as three or more parties simultaneously engage in negotiation. One of those listed below is not a correct statement. Which one? A) There are simply more parties involved in the negotiation. B) More parties bring more issues and positions to the table, and thus more perspectives must be presented and discussed. C) When negotiations become socially more complex, the social norms emerge that affect member participation, which reduces the stronger pressures to conform and suppress disagreement. D) As the negotiations become procedurally more complex, the parties may have to negotiate a new process that allows them to coordinate their actions more effectively. E) As the negotiations become more strategically complex, the parties must monitor the moves and actions of several other parties in determining what each will do next.
D
41. An audience can be defined as A) parties on the same side that are working together and collectively advocating the same positions and interests. B) negotiators representing the interests of other parties. C) one or more parties that have designated someone else to represent their positions and interests in a negotiation. D) any individual or group of people who are not directly involved in or affected by a negotiation, but who have a chance to observe and react to the ongoing events and who may be drawn into the negotiation. E) An audience can be defined as all of the above.
E
41. Laboratory controlled research is much easier to conduct than field research because studying live negotiators in the middle of an often complex negotiation causes them to object to all but one of the following? A) to conduct interviews. B) to ask questions. C) to publicly report actual successes. D) to publicly report actual failures. E) they object to all the above.
E
41. Perception is A) the process by which individuals connect to their environment. B) strongly influenced by the receiver's current state of mind, role and understanding or comprehension of earlier communications. C) a factor that can affect how meanings are ascribed. D) a complex physical and psychological process. E) All of the above describe perception.
A
41. Persuasion occurring through the peripheral route is A) likely to last a shorter time than central route persuasion. B) integrated into existing cognitive structures. C) used to determine if the position taken by the source has any merit. D) involves thought and integration of the message into the individual's previously existing cognitive structures. E) None of the above occurs through the peripheral route of persuasion.
D
41. We use the term "culture" to refer to the A) religious beliefs of a group of people. B) ethnicity of a group of people. C) geographic nationality of a group of people. D) shared values and beliefs of a group of people. E) Culture refers to none of the above.
B
41. Which of the following results can occur when a negotiation becomes derailed? A. The parties share interests and opinions. B. Perceptions become distorted and judgments are biased. C. Integrative negotiation is effectively used by both parties. D. The parties maintain open lines of communication. E. All of the above situations occur when negotiations become derailed.
A
42. A constituency is A) one or more parties whose interests, demands, or priorities are being represented by the focal negotiator at the table. B) a negotiator representing the interests of another party. C) any individual or group of people who are not directly involved in or affected by a negotiation, but who have a chance to observe and react to the ongoing events. D) two or more parties on the same side who are working together and collectively advocating the same positions and interests. E) A constituency can be defined by all of the above.
C
42. According to Salacuse, which of the following is not a factor in the environmental context of negotiations? A) political and legal pluralism B) foreign governments and bureaucracies C) relative bargaining power D) international economic factors E) All of the above are factors in the environmental context of negotiations.
B
42. In a transactional negotiation, the most important issue is usually the A) enhancing the relationship. B) better deal. C) dependence dynamics. D) inventory questions. E) all of the above.
A
42. Intransigence can be defined as A. an unwillingness to move to any fall-back position through concession or compromise. B. the use of concession or compromise to deceive an opponent. C. a propensity to use distributive bargaining in all negotiation situations. D. the escalation of power in international negotiations. E. Intransigence can be defined as all of the above.
D
42. Which of the following is not an aspect that contributes to persuasion through the central route? A) One- and two-sided messages. B) Message components. C) Repetition. D) Motivations. E) Conclusions.
C
42. Which of the following lists the stages of the perceptual process in the correct order? A) stimulus, translation, attention, recognition, behavior B) stimulus, behavior, translation, attention, recognition C) stimulus, attention, recognition, translation, behavior D) behavior, stimulus, recognition, attention, translation E) None of the above lists the stages of the perceptual process in the correct order.
B
43. Halo effects occur when A) attributes are assigned to an individual solely on the basis of his or her membership in a particular social or demographic group. B) people generalize about a variety of attributes based on the knowledge of one attribute of an individual. C) the perceiver singles out certain information that supports or reinforces a prior belief, and filters out information that does not confirm that belief. D) people ascribe to others the characteristics or feelings that they possess themselves. E) All of the above describe halo effects.
D
43. There are many different types of audiences and audience effects. A type of audience comprised of one or more parties whose interests, demands, or priorities are being represented by the focal negotiator at the table is part of one of the following. A) team member B) bystander C) neutral D) constituent E) observer
E
43. Two-sided messages tend to be most effective A) with better educated audiences. B) when the other party initially disagrees with the position. C) when the other party will be exposed to people who will argue points of view different from the position advocated. D) when the issue discussed is already familiar. E) Two-sided messages are effective in all of the above situations.
D
43. Which of the following is an immediate context factor in cross-cultural negotiations? A) external stakeholders B) instability C) international economic factors D) relationship between negotiators E) All of the above are immediate context factors in cross-cultural negotiations.
C
43. Which of the following parameters shapes our understanding of relationship negotiation strategy and tactics? A) Negotiating within relationships takes place at a single point in time. B) Negotiation in relationships is only about the issue. C) Negotiating within relationships may never end. D) Parties never make concessions on substantive issues. E) All of the above parameters shape our understanding of relationship negotiation strategy and tactics.
B
44. Because relationship negotiations are never over, A) parties generally tackle negotiations over tough issues first in order to "get off on the right foot." B) it is often impossible to anticipate the future and negotiate everything "up front." C) issues on which parties truly disagree will go away with the conclusion of the negotiation. D) parties should never make concessions on substantive issues. E) All of the above are consequences of relationship negotiations.
C
44. In a negotiator's relationship with a constituency A) the constituency delegates all power and authority to the negotiator. B) constituents expect that the negotiator will report back only when the negotiation is complete. C) constituents expect to directly profit (or lose) as a result of the negotiator's effectiveness. D) the negotiator presents his or her view of what he or she expects to achieve in the negotiation, and the constituency must agree to support it or find another negotiator. E) All of the above occur in a negotiator's relationship with a constituency.
E
44. Political and legal pluralism can make cross cultural negotiations more complex because A) there may be implications for the taxes that the organization pays. B) there may be implications for the labor codes or standards that the organization must meet. C) there may be different codes of contract law and standards of enforcement. D) political considerations may enhance or detract from the conduct of business negotiations in various countries at different times. E) Political and legal pluralism can make cross cultural negotiations more complex because of all of the above.
C
44. Which of the following makes a negotiation more intractable? A. The parties themselves are well organized B. The conflict frequently de-escalates C. The parties themselves are unorganized, loosely connected, and lacking structure D. The social system from which the parties come is clearly structured E. There is general consensus on underlying values, but a disagreement on how resources are to be allocated
B
44. Which of the following statements about persuasive style is false? A) People learn better and are more likely to change their attitudes and beliefs for the long term when they are actively involved in the process of learning and understanding new material. B) Metaphors should not be used as persuasion tools because they can lead the other party to believe that you're filled with "hot air". C) People who argue positions that are thought to be counter to their self-interest are generally more persuasive. D) Language of relatively low intensity seems to be more effective than highly intense language. E) All of the above statements about persuasive style are true.
D
45. All but one of the following is an aspect of messages that foster the peripheral route. Which one is not? A) Message order. B) Format. C) Distractions. D) Source Credibility. E) All of the above are aspects of the messages of the peripheral route.
D
45. Babcock, Wang and Loewenstein found that A. negotiators compare themselves to others whose positions are similar in scope and position to their own. B. negotiation breakdown or impasses are negatively correlated with perceived differences between the disputants chosen comparison groups. C. the smaller the perceived differences between comparison groups, the greater the likelihood of a breakdown. D. negotiators choose comparison groups to reflect a supportive, self-serving bias for their positions. E. Babcock, Wang and Loewenstein found support for all of the above hypothesis.
B
45. Jeswald Salacuse suggests which rule for negotiating a relationship? A) minimize the prenegotiation stage of the relationship B) recognize a long-term business deal as a continuing negotiation C) eliminate the need for mediation or conciliation D) end all discussions when the contract is signed E) Salacuse suggests all of the above rules for negotiating a relationship.
E
45. When audiences become directly involved in the negotiation process, the complexity of the interaction increases depending on A) who the audience is. B) what issues are at stake. C) how much power the audience has. D) what kind of role the audience chooses to play. E) The complexity of the interaction depends on all of the above.
C
45. Which of the following factors most influences relative bargaining power? A) the extent to which negotiators frame the negotiation differently B) tangible and intangible factors C) management control D) personal motivations of external stakeholders E) None of the above factors influence relative bargaining power.
C
46. Smyth suggests that the most intractable situations occur A. when a change in the power balance is at stake, and for which there are firmly agreed-upon social institutions for dealing with the power change. B. when the power relationship does not change, and for which there are firmly agreed-upon social institutions for dealing with the power change. C. the perceived need to negotiate simultaneously about change in power and the applicable, appropriate institutions for maintaining that power shift. D. when the power relationship does not change, and for which there are no agreed-upon social institutions for dealing with the power change. E. Smyth suggests that the most intractable situations occur in all of the above circumstances.
B
46. Which of the following is not an example of major characteristics of audiences? A) Audiences vary according to whether they are physically present at or absent from the negotiation. B) Audiences try harder when they are under surveillance. C) Audiences affect negotiations is by the degree of their involvement in the process. D) Audiences also give periodic feedback to the negotiators, evaluating their effectiveness and letting them know how they are doing. E) Audiences who are outcome-dependent derive their payoffs as a direct result of the negotiator's behavior and effectiveness.
B
46. Which of the following is not one of Janosik's four ways that culture is used in international negotiation? A) culture as learned behavior B) culture as economic indicator C) culture as shared values D) culture as dialectic E) Each of the above is one of Janosik's four ways that culture is used in international negotiation.
D
51. Distributive bargaining strategies A) are the most efficient negotiating strategies to use. B) are used in all interdependent relationships. C) are useful in maintaining long term relationships. D) can cause negotiators to ignore what the parties have in common. E) None of the above describes distributive bargaining strategies.
B
51. The concept of "duty ethics" states that A) the rightness of an action is determined by evaluating the pros and cons of its consequences. B) the rightness of an action is determined by existing laws and contemporary social standards that define what is right and wrong and where the line is. C) the rightness of an action is based on the customs and norms of a particular society or community. D) the rightness of an action is based on one's conscience and moral standards. E) None of the above defines "duty ethics."
C
51. Third-party intervention should be avoided A) when passions are high. B) when the parties are at am impasse on the issues. C) when progress is occurring or is likely to occur. D) when the parties are unable to move the process beyond a particular sticking point. E) Third party intervention should be avoided in all of the above situations.
B
51. Which of the following is not an element of integrative negotiations? A) a focus on commonalties B) an attempt to address positions C) a required exchange of information and ideas D) the use of objective criteria for standards of performance E) All of the above are elements of integrative negotiations.
C
52. Ethical criteria for judging appropriate conduct define A) what is wise based on trying to understand the efficacy of the tactic and the consequences it might have on the relationship with the other. B) what a negotiator can actually make happen in a given situation. C) what is appropriate as determined by some standard of moral conduct. D) what the law defines as acceptable practice. E) All of the above are defined by ethical criteria for judging appropriate conduct.
A
52. The target point is the A) point at which a negotiator would like to conclude negotiations. B) negotiator's bottom line. C) first offer a negotiator quotes to his opponent. D) initial price set by the seller. E) None of the above describes the target point.
D
52. Which of the following is not a benefit of third-party intervention? A) creating breathing space or a cooling off period B) refocusing on the substantive issues C) salvaging the sunk cost of stalled negotiations D) decreased levels of negotiator satisfaction with and commitment to the conflict resolution process and its outcomes
B
53. Intervention by a third party may signal that A) the parties have built a successful relationship. B) the parties have failed to build a relationship or manage their interdependence positively. C) the parties have grown into negotiation partners. D) the parties have successfully resolved a dispute.
A
53. Only one of the approaches to ethical reasoning has as its central tenet that actions are more right if they promote more happiness, more wrong as they produce unhappiness. Which approach applies? A) End-result ethics. B) Duty ethics. C) Social context ethics. D) Personalistic ethics. E) Reasoning ethics.
A
53. Starting points A) are usually contained in the opening statements each negotiator makes. B) are usually learned or inferred as negotiations get under way. C) are not known to the other party. D) are given up as concessions are made. E) None of the above describes starting points.
E
53. Which of the following is a major step in the integrative negotiation process? A) identifying and defining the problem B) understanding the problem and bringing interests and needs to the surface C) generating alternative solutions to the problem D) choosing a specific solution E) All of the above are major steps in the integrative negotiation process.
B
54. A doctor facing the moral dilemma between a mandate to save lives and the mandate to relieve undue suffering for those whose lives cannot be saved is an example of: A) end-result ethics. B) duty ethics. C) social contract ethics. D) personalistic ethics. E) utilitarian ethics.
B
54. In which major step of the integrative negotiation process of identifying and defining the problem would you likely find that if the problem is complex and multifaceted the parties may not even be able to agree on a statement of the problem? A) define the problem in a way that is mutually acceptable to both sides. B) state the problem with an eye toward practicality and comprehensiveness. C) state the problem as a goal and identify the obstacles to attaining this goal. D) depersonalizing the problem. E) separate the problem definition from the search for solutions.
A
54. The dominant purpose of mediation and process consultation is to A) enhance the parties' dispute resolution skills. B) encourage the parties to "agree to disagree." C) encourage the parties to surrender control over the outcome of their dispute to the third party's best judgment. D) achieve a satisfactory dispute resolution at any cost. E) None of the above states the dominant purpose of mediation and process consultation.
D
55. Proponents of personalistic ethics argue that A) the best way to achieve the greatest good is to closely follow a set of rules and principles. B) the worth of a particular action is judged on the basis of the consequences it produces. C) societies, organizations and cultures determine what is ethically appropriate and acceptable within that group. D) everyone ought to decide for themselves what is right based on their conscience. E) Rule utilitarians argue all of the above
B
55. The resistance point is established by the ____________ expected from a particular outcome, which is in turn the product of the ____________ and ____________ of an outcome. A) cost, value, worth B) value, worth, cost C) value, cost and timeliness D) cost, importance, value E) None of the above.
E
55. Under what conditions might negotiators seek third-party involvement? A) Intense emotions appear to preventing a settlement. B) Misperceptions or stereotypes hinder productive exchanges. C) There is disagreement as to the number or type of issues under dispute. D) There is an absence of a clear, agreed-to negotiation procedure or protocol. E) Negotiators might seek third-party involvement under all of the above conditions.
C
55. Which of the following processes is central to achieving almost all integrative agreements? A) moderating the free flow of information to ensure that each party's position is accurately stated B) exchanging information about each party's position on key issues C) emphasizing the commonalties between the parties D) searching for solutions that maximize the substantive outcome for both parties E) All of the above processes are central to achieving integrative agreements.
B
56. An interest is instrumental if A) the parties value it because it helps them derive other outcomes in the future. B) the parties value the interest in and of itself. C) it relates to "tangible issues" or the focal issues under negotiation. D) the relationship is valued for both its existence and for the pleasure that sustaining the relationship creates. E) All of the above relate to instrumental interests.
D
A negotiator's goals: A) are intrinsically in conflict with his opponent's goals B) have no boundaries or limits C) are explicitly stated wishes D) must be reasonably attainable E) all of the above
A
Tangible factors A) include the price and terms of agreement. B) are psychological motivations that influence the negotiations. C) include the need to look good in negotiations. D) cannot be measured in quantifiable terms. E) None of the above statements describe tangible factors
A
What are the most critical precursors for achieving negotiation objectives? A) Effective strategizing, planning and preparation B) goal setting and target planning C) defining frames and setting goals D) framing and strategizing E) none of the above
B
Which is not a difference between strategy and tactics? A) Scale B) Goals C) Perspective D) Immediacy
E
Which of the following are dynamics of highly polarized, unproductive conflict? A. The atmosphere is charged with anger, frustration, and resentment. B. Channels of communication are closed or constrained. C. The original issues at stake have become blurred and ill-defined. D. The parties tend to perceive great differences in their respective positions. E. All of the above characterize a highly polarized, unproductive conflict.
C
Which of the following is not a reason that negotiations fail? A) Allowing insufficient time for planning B) Failing to set clear objectives C) Understanding the strengths and weaknesses of their and the other party's positions D) Depending on being quick and clever during negotiations
B
Which of the following is not an intangible factor in a negotiation? A) the need to look good B) final agreed price on a contract C) the desire to book more business D) fear of setting a precedent E) All of the above are intangible factors
E
Which perspective can be used to understand different aspects of negotiation? A) economics B) psychology C) anthropology D) law E) All of the above perspectives can be used to understand different aspects of negotiation.
