An. Diseases Orange Boxes & McCurnin Exercises Chp 8 (FINAL)

Immune competence is when an animal is capable of mounting an active immune response in the face of declining maternal antibody levels. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

True

Preventative medicine is important in livestock species to maintain herd productivity. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

True

The barber pole worm causes anemia in sheep by attaching to their abomasum and this parasitism is a major issue in small ruminants. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

True

Thrush occurs on the sole of the horse foot as a result of a moist environment and dirt accumulation allowing bacterial growth. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

True

How can you examine sheep for anemia?

Sheep may be evaluated for anemia by examining the conjunctiva of the eyes. If it is white, not pink, the animal is likely to be anemic and heavily parasitized.

Cats should test negative before vaccination against... a. feline immunodeficiency virus b. feline panleukopenia c. Chlamydophila felis d. calicivirus

feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV)

Core vaccines for the cat are... a. feline leukemia, panleukopenia, calicivirus, and rabies b. feline leukemia, feline immunodeficiency virus, panleukopenia, and rabies c. feline viral rhinotracheitis, calicivirus, panleukopenia, and rabies d. feline viral rhinotracheitis, Chalmydophila felis, panleukopenia, and rabies

feline viral rhinotracheitis, calicivirus, panleukopenia, and rabies (FVRCP + Rabies)

Heavy parasite loads in horses lead to decreased ________________ and ________________ performance plus weight loss and colic.

to decreased athletic and reproductive performance

Serum thyroxine levels are frequently measured in senior pets to rule out hyperthyroidism in dogs and hypothyroidism in cats. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

False. Serum thyroxine levels are frequently measured in senior pets to rule out hypothyroidism in dogs and hyperthyroidism in cats.

Minor side effects to vaccines include lethargy, soreness at injection site, and decreased appetite. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

True

Noninfectious vaccines are more likely to cause hypersensitivity reactions than infectious vaccines. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

True

Thrush is treated by frequently cleaning of the sole of the foot and application of... a. copper- or iodine-based solutions b. moxidectin or ivermectin c. praziquantel d. fenbendazole or oxibendazole

copper or iodine based solutions

Vaccines recommended for all animals to protect against highly contagious pathogens are called ________________ ________________.

core vaccines

Bovine leukosis virus in cattle causes... a. cancer b. reproductive failure c. respiratory disease d. corkscrew hooves

cancer

Kittens that are infected with feline panleukopenia can develop ________________ ________________ in utero or shortly after birth.

cerebellar hypoplasia

Piglet tails are docked to prevent... a. chewing by other piglets b. fecal contamination c. maggot infestation d. increased price of meat

chewing by other piglets

Diarrhea in sheep and goats is caused by single-celled parasites called... a. Leptospira pomona b. Clostridium perfringens type C and D c. Haemonchus contortus d. Coccidia

coccidia

Feline rhinotracheitis virus and calicivirus are common causes of what in cats?

common causes of upper respiratory disease in cats

Sheep and goats can be rapidly screen for anemia by checking the... a. conjunctiva b. red blood cell count c. mouth d. capillary refill time

conjunctiva

What are the "1-2-3" recommendations for biopsy or removal of a postvaccinal mass?

1. The mass is still growing after 1 month 2. The mass is greater than 2 cm in diameter 3. The mass persists for longer than 3 months

Foals born to unvaccinated mares are routinely vaccinated at what age? a. 1 to 2 months b. 3 to 4 months c. 5 to 6 months d. 7 to 8 months

3 to 4 months

Many of the core feline combination and canine combination vaccines are administered every... a. year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 5 years

3 years

The trivalent vaccine for equine encephalomyelitis protects against ________________, ________________, and ________________ viruses.

Eastern, Western, and Venezuelan viruses.

To prevent disease transmission, newly acquired pigs are not introduced to the rest of the herd for... a. 10 days b. 14 days c. 21 days d. 30 days

30 days

How often should wellness visits be schedule for senior and geriatric dogs?

Every 6 months

How are vaccines doses decided for animals?

All dogs and cats should receive the same designated vaccine dose, per manufacturer recommendations, regardless of the age or size of the animal.

How does an FIV-negative cat receiving an FIV vaccine affect future FIV screening tests?

An FIV-negative cat who receives the FIV vaccine will test positive on the antibody-based FIV screening test.

Why do swine in modern production system not always require deworming?

Because swine in modern production systems may never be outdoors, many pigs do not require deworming.

Why are intranasal Bordetella bronchiseptica vaccines often preferred over injectable forms of the vaccine?

Because they stimulate both local and systemic immunity.

Beef calves are weaned at ________________ months of age by removing the calf from the dam, whereas dairy calves are raised away from their dams so weaning is a ________________ adjustment and not as stressful.

Beef calves are weaned at 6 months of age by removing the calf from the dam, whereas dairy calves are raised away from their dams so weaning is a dietary adjustment and not as stressful.

Disease process in dogs that manifests as a dry honking cough and that is transmitted dog to dog through respiratory secretions is caused by... a. Canine distemper virus b. Canine coronavirus c. Bordetella bronchiseptica d. Canine parvovirus

Bordetella bronchipseptica

One of the causes of canine infectious tracheobronchitis that gives cross-immunity for infectious canine hepatitis.

CAV-2

Paramyxovirus that causes fever, respiratory disease, vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, dehydration, seizures, ataxia, and paresis in dogs.

CDV

Highly contagious virus in dogs that produces vomiting, diarrhea, leukopenia, and fever.

CPV-2

Cattle vaccines are administered in the ________________ region to preserve ________________ quality.

Cattle vaccines are administered in the neck region to preserve meat quality

Cattle vaccines should only be administered where?

Cattle vaccines should be administered as labeled (IM or SQ) only in the neck region to maintain meat quality.

Which noncore feline vaccination is recommended for multicat households with a past history of bacterial upper respiratory infections?

Chlamydophila felis

Core vaccination in sheep and goats protects against... a. rabies b. Haemonchus contortus c. Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium tetani d. contagious ecthyma

Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium tetani

Combination vaccine for dogs, including distemper, parvovirus, adenovirus type 2, and parainfluenza.

DA2PP (aka DHPP)

Deficiency of ________________ causes white muscle disease in lambs.

Deficiency of selenium causes white muscle disease in lambs.

How should you develop deworming protocols in order to be most cost-effective?

Developing deworming protocols based on fecal egg counts is usually more cost-effective than "blanket deworming" all horses at set time periods.

"________________ of ________________" is the length of time an animal is considered to be immune from developing disease after exposure to a pathogen.

Duration of immunity

Dairy cows are vaccinated against mastitis caused by... a. Clostridium perfringens b. Escherichia coli c. Strepotococcus equi d. Campylobacter fetus

Escherichia coli

What is the typical schedule for initial wellness visits for puppies and kittens?

Every 3 to 4 weeks until the animal is approximately 16 weeks of age and usually coincide with the animal's vaccine schedule.

Upper respiratory disease in cats that causes oral ulcerations.

FCV

Herpesvirus that causes sneezing, ocular, and nasal discharge and fever.

FHV-1

Lentivirus that causes immunosuppression in cats.

FIV

Parvovirus in cats that causes leukopenia, fever, lethargy, anorexia, dehydration, vomiting, and diarrhea.

FPV

Combination vaccine for cats, including herpesvirus, calicivirus, and panleukopenia.

FVRCP

Active immunity can only be stimulated by an antigen injected in the form of a vaccine. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

False. Active immunity can be stimulated by an antigen injected in the form of a vaccine or by antigens from natural exposure.

Cats will test positive on the antibody-based FeLV screening test after vaccination. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

False. Cats will test positive on the antibody-based FIV screening test, but not on FeLV because it is an antigen based screening test.

Clostridium tetani causes muscular weakness and horses should be vaccinated for it annually. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

False. Clostridium tetani causes muscular rigidity leading to respiratory arrest, convulsions and death. Horses should be vaccinated for it annually.

Core vaccination in cattle protects them from leptospirosis, campylobacteriosis, rotavirus, and coronavirus. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

False. Core vaccination in cattle protects them from leptospirosis, IBR, BVD, P13, BRSV, brucellosis, and clostridial disease. (I don't understand this question because I thought cattle didn't have core vaccines)

Sites for canine vaccination are not standardized, but the rabies vaccination is frequently administered in the left hind leg and the DA2PP in the left front leg in keeping with feline recommendations. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

False. Sites for canine vaccination are not standardized, but the rabies vaccination is frequently administered in the right hind leg and the DA2PP in the left front leg in keeping with feline recommendations. (this question confuses me because DA2PP has nothing to do with felines)

Wolf teeth are removed under general anesthesia at 6 months of age in the horse to avoid problems with the bit when the training regime is begun. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

False. Wolf teeth are removed with the horse sedated and standing at 12 to 18 months to avoid problems with the bit when the training regime is begun.

Retrovirus that causes immunosuppression, anemia, and lymphoma in the cat.

FeLV

Fecal examinations in horses that show ova after deworming indicate that ________________ has developed to the agent and egg counts of ________________ eggs per gram before deworming, indicate that treatment intervals are too long.

Fecal examinations in horses that show ova after deworming indicate that resistance has developed to the agent and egg counts of 7150 eggs per gram before deworming, indicate that treatment intervals are too long.

Diseases caused by bacteria of the genus Clostridium are especially dangerous in what species?

In sheep and goats. Pregnant ewes and does should be vaccinated against clostridial diseases to protect their offspring.

Canine parvoviral enteritis is a highly contagious disease, therefore animals that are infected must be housed where when hospitalized?

Infected animals must be housed in isolation areas

What is the first step in keeping calves healthy?

Making sure they receive an adequate amount of colostrum shortly after birth

Is the rabies vaccine required in commercial sheep and goat flocks?

No, it is not practiced for all animals in commercial sheep and goat flocks but is recommended for pet sheep and goats.

What vaccines do nearly all adult cattle receive?

Nearly all adult cattle receive vaccines against viral respiratory and reproductive pathogens (IBR, BVD, PI3, and BRSV) at least once per year.

What often causes anemia in sheep?

Parasitism with Haemonchus contortus

Core vaccines in the dog protect against... a. parvovirus, adenovirus-2, leptospirosis, and rabies b. distemper, parvovirus, Bordetella, and rabies c. distemper, parvovirus, leptospirosis, and rabies d. parvovirus, distemper, adenovirus-2, and rabies

Parvovirus, distemper, adenovirus-2, and rabies and parainfluenza DHPP aka DA2PP

Puppies and kittens are vaccinated every 3 to 4 weeks until they are 16 weeks old to stimulate an ________________ immune response once ________________ immunity declines.

Puppies and kittens are vaccinated every 3 to 4 weeks until they are 16 weeks old to stimulate an active immune response once passive immunity declines.

What are adjuvants?

Substances that, when added to a noninfectious vaccine, stimulate a stronger immune response in the animal.

Serum hormone that may be high in senior cats and low in senior dogs.

T4

What vaccine can provide some temporary cross-protection against canine distemper virus in young puppies?

The measles vaccine

Conditions that may be adverse reactions to vaccination include immune-mediate thrombocytopenia, immune-mediated hemolytic anemia, and thyroiditis. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

True

To minimize the risk that disease will spread, the ________________ pigs are worked with before the ________________ pigs.

To minimize the risk that disease will spread, the younger pigs are worked with before the older pigs.

Administering an intranasal vaccine subcutaneously or intramuscularly may cause serious side effects. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

True

What horses should have their teeth examine bianually?

Young horses (under the age of 5) or horses with a history of dental problems.

During the first few weeks of life, either tail docking or castration in sheep can be performed by... a. using a hot metal instrument to burn tissue off b. applying a tight elastic band around the tail or to the scrotum c. surgical removal d. using an emasculatome

applying a tight elastic band around the tail or to the scrotum

To dehorn goats at a young age, the horn bud is destroyed by a ________________ ________________ instrument.

by a hot iron instrument.

Passive immunity in the puppy and kitten primarily occurs... a. when antibodies pass to the offspring in utero via the placenta b. by vaccination within 24 hours of birth c. by ingestion of colostrum within 24 hours of birth d. with intravenous infusion of antibody-rich plasma at birth

by ingestion of colostrum within 24 hours of birth

Older dogs may require more frequent nail trims because of decreased exercise associated with... a. kidney disease b. cognitive dysfunction c. degenerative joint disease d. hyperthyroidism

degenerative joint disease

Head tossing, excessive chewing of the bit, and bucking in the horse can be signs of... a. tick infestation b. internal parasitism c. nutritional deficiency d. dental issues

dental issues

To maximize the chance of successful treatment in the event that a vaccine-induced sarcoma develops, it is now recommended that feline vaccines be administered... a. distal to the shoulder or hip b. proximal to the shoulder or hip c. in the intrascapular region d. intranasally

distal to the shoulder or hip

Young horses and horses with dental issues should have dental exams... a. every 6 months b. once a year c. every 2 years d. every 3 years

every 6 months

To maintain proper balance and avoid problems with lameness in the horse, hooves should be trimmed... a. every 2 to 4 weeks b. every 4 to 6 weeks c. every 6 to 8 weeks d. every 8 to 10 weeks

every 6 to 8 weeks

Veterinary assistance should be sough if, following vaccination, the animal exhibits... a. mild fever and decreased appetite b. soreness at injection site c. sneezing after an intranasal vaccine d. facial swelling and difficulty breathing

facial swelling and difficulty breathing

Anemia is prevented in piglets with supplementation of... a. selenium b. magnesium c. iron d. calcium

iron

A virus that causes reproductive failure, respiratory disease, and chronic infections in pigs is called porcine ________________ and ________________ syndrome virus.

is called porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome virus.

Spaying before the second heat cycle inc ats and dogs decreases... a. aggression b. vaccine induced sarcoma c. lymphoma d. mammary carcinoma

mammary carcinoma

Upper cheek teeth in the horse can be removed by driving the tooth root into the oral cavity from the... a. frontal sinus b. nasal sinus c. maxillary sinus d. orbit

maxillary sinus

Before entering the breeding herd, pigs are vaccinated for...

parvovirus, erysipelas, and leptospirosis

Tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid should never...

never be mixed in the same syringe.

________________ vaccines are recommended for animals at high risk to develop disease.

noncore vaccines

Diary cows should have their hooves trimmed... a. every 3 months b. every 6 months c. once a year d. every 2 years

once a year

Vaccines should be injected within ________________ ________________ of reconstitution.

one hour

Swine operations do not routinely deworm because pigs are not housed ________________.

outdoors

Passive immunity blocks active immune response in calves that are vaccinated when younger than...

when younger than 3 months of age

Neutering eliminates intermale aggression, separation anxiety, enlargement of the prostate, and testicular cancer. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

False. It may eliminate it sometimes, but not always.

Dogs that regularly swim are prone to excessive nail growth and will need more frequently nail trims. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

False. Dogs that regularly swim are prone to ear infections and will need more frequent ear cleaning.

Foals that fail to ingest colostrum at birth are vaccinated with core vaccines within 24 hours of birth. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

False. Foals that fail to ingest colostrum at birth are administered IV infusions of antibody-rich plasma.

Kids and lambs born to unvaccinated does and ewes are vaccinated at 6 to 10 weeks of age. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

False. Kids and lambs born to unvaccinated does and ewes are vaccinated at birth and 2 to 3 weeks of age.

Horses are wormed for bots and tapeworms in the spring with either moxidectin or ivermectin and with praziquantel. (true or false? if the statement is false, correct it to make it true)

False. Horses are wormed for bots and tapeworms in the winter with either moxidectin or ivermectin and with praziquantel.

For most core vaccines, a recommended length of time between initial and booster vaccines during the initial vaccine series in dogs, cats, livestock, and horses is generally... a. 2 weeks b. 4 weeks c. 6 weeks d. 8 weeks

4 weeks

Cattle vaccinated against brucellosis are identified with a(n) ________________ ear tag and tattoo in the ________________ ear.

identified with an orange ear tag and tattoo in the right ear.

Young children exposed to roundworm eggs from puppies and kittens may develop ________________ _______________ ________________.

ocular larval migrans