anesthesia
Epinephrine: Select one: a. Increases the heart rate b. Should be used to reverse the effects of acepromazine c. Decreases the heart rate d. Decreases the blood pressure
a. Increases the heart rate
What would the approximate tidal volume be for a 40-kg canine patient? Select one: a. 40-80 mL b. 400-800 mL c. 10 mL d. 4-8 mL
b. 400-800 mL
Which of the following is the most common form of heart disease seen in cats? Select one: a. Mitral valve insufficiency b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy c. Low blood pressure d. Dilated cardiomyopathy
b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Activated charcoal devices absorb all inhalation agents except: Select one: a. Isoflurane b. Nitrous oxide c. Halothane d. Sevoflurane
b. Nitrous oxide
What is the American Society of Anesthesiologists (ASA) Physical Status Classification system rating for a patient that is anemic or moderately dehydrated? Select one: a. Class P2 b. Class P4 c. Class P3 d. Class P1
c. Class P3
Which of the following drugs may not be the best choice in a diabetic patient undergoing surgery because of its effect of increasing glucose and then a decrease in insulin that can last several hours? Select one: a. Isoflurane b. Fentanyl c. Dexmedetomidine d. Morphine
c. Dexmedetomidine
Which of the following is not a recommended method of actively warming a patient during the recovery period? Select one: a. Circulating warm water blankets b. Commercial bubble wrap c. Electric heating blankets d. Convective warm air devices
c. Electric heating blankets
How can a technician reduce the amount of waste anesthetic gases? Select one: a. Use uncuffed endotracheal tubes b. Use high fresh gas flows c. Ensure that the anesthetic machine has been tested for leaks d. Use a mask or chamber
c. Ensure that the anesthetic machine has been tested for leaks
Epidural anesthesia could be appropriately used for all procedures except: Select one: a. Tail amputation b. Cesarean section c. Eye enucleation d. Femur fracture repair
c. Eye enucleation
Which of the following opioid analgesics is often used as a continuous rate infusion because of its short duration of action (approximately 30 minutes)? Select one: a. Ketamine b. Buprenorphine c. Fentanyl d. Morphine
c. Fentanyl
Which of the following drugs is used to treat bradycardia in the anesthetized patient? Select one: a. Doxapram b. Alfaxalone c. Glycopyrrolate d. Ketamine
c. Glycopyrrolate
In nonbrachycephalic breeds of dogs recovering from anesthesia, the endotracheal tube should be removed when: Select one: a. Palpebral reflex returns b. The eyes resume a central position c. Animal shows voluntary movement of the limbs d. Swallowing reflex returns
d. Swallowing reflex returns
You are monitoring a 12-year-old dog for a humeral fracture repair. You notice that the complexes on the ECG are intermittently wide and bizarre; otherwise, the rhythm is normal. Which arrhythmia is most likely occurring? Select one: a. Atrial premature complexes b. Ventricular fibrillation c. Atrial fibrillation d. Ventricular premature complexes
d. Ventricular premature complexes
To avoid the risk of GI ulceration, NSAIDs should be stopped for how many days before starting a different NSAID? Select one: a. 4-10 days b. 1-3 days c. 30 days d. 15-30 days
a. 4-10 days
To help prevent artificially low or high blood pressure readings, the blood pressure cuff width should be approximately what percentage of the circumference of the limb where it will be placed? Select one: a. 40 percent b. 30 percent c. 25 percent d. 50 percent
a. 40 percent
Which drug is most likely to cause hypotension in normal doses? Select one: a. Acepromazine b. Diazepam c. Butorphanol d. Flunixin meglumine
a. Acepromazine
Which of the following statements defines balanced anesthesia? Select one: a. Administration of multiple drugs concurrently in smaller quantities than would be required if each were administered alone b. The administration of a local and general anesthetic concurrently c. The administration of two or more agents in equal volume d. General anesthesia in which the patient's physiological status remains stable
a. Administration of multiple drugs concurrently in smaller quantities than would be required if each were administered alone
Which of the following would be considered a complication of recovery for a patient that had a foreign body removed from the trachea? Select one: a. Airway obstruction resulting from swelling b. Severe pain c. Hypovolemic shock d. Aspiration
a. Airway obstruction resulting from swelling
Which of the following is an example of an alpha-2 adrenoreceptor agonist? Select one: a. All of these b. Dexmedetomidine c. Xylazine d. Medetomidine
a. All of these
All inhalant anesthetic machines should have: Select one: a. An anesthetic waste gas scavenging system b. Blood pressure monitors c. A nitrous oxide flowmeter d. Respiratory monitors
a. An anesthetic waste gas scavenging system
Which of the following drugs is not generally suggested for use in ruminants? Select one: a. Atropine b. Ketamine c. Butorphanol d. Propofol
a. Atropine
During CPCR what is the preferred order of routes for drug administration? Select one: a. Central venous, peripheral venous, intraosseous, intratracheal b. Peripheral venous, central venous, intraosseous, intratracheal c. Central venous, intraosseous, peripheral venous, intratracheal d. Peripheral venous, central venous, intratracheal, intraosseous
a. Central venous, peripheral venous, intraosseous, intratracheal
Of the following drugs listed, which one does not have analgesic properties? Select one: a. Diazepam b. Morphine c. Methadone d. Dexmedetomidine
a. Diazepam
Because of the increase in cerebral oxygen demand, which of the following drugs is no longer recommended to stimulate respiration in the newborn after cesarean section? Select one: a. Doxapram b. Dopamine c. Dobutamine d. Naloxone
a. Doxapram
Which of the following is not an effect associated with atropine administration? Select one: a. Excessive salivation b. Mydriasis c. Decreased gastrointestinal motility d. Tachycardia
a. Excessive salivation
A patient undergoing which of the following procedures would likely benefit from an epidural? Select one: a. Femoral head osteotomy b. Glossectomy c. Total ear canal ablation d. Humeral fracture repair
a. Femoral head osteotomy
Which of the following drugs is classified as a full mu opioid? Select one: a. Hydromorphone b. Buprenorphine c. Butorphanol d. Dexmedetomidine
a. Hydromorphone
Which of the following opioids would be the best choice for a surgery that is anticipated to be moderately to severely painful? Select one: a. Hydromorphone b. Propofol c. Naloxone d. Butorphanol
a. Hydromorphone
Which of the following drug combinations is considered neuroleptanalgesia? Select one: a. Hydromorphone and acepromazine b. Atropine and morphine c. Midazolam and etomidate d. Butorphanol and oxymorphone
a. Hydromorphone and acepromazine
NSAIDs should not be administered in conjunction with corticosteroids because of: Select one: a. Increased risk of GI ulceration b. Increased risk of liver failure c. Effects of the two drugs cancel each other d. Increased risk of renal failure
a. Increased risk of GI ulceration
Where does atropine block the release of acetylcholine? Select one: a. Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system b. Nicotinic receptors of the parasympathetic system c. Nicotinic receptors of the sympathetic system d. Muscarinic receptors of the sympathetic system
a. Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system
What will pulse oximetry often allow you to estimate? Select one: a. Percent saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen b. Pulse pressure c. PaO2 d. Arterial blood pressure
a. Percent saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen
What is the function of an esophageal stethoscope? Select one: a. Perform cardiac and lung auscultation via the esophagus b. Measures central venous pressure c. Measures exhaled end tidal carbon dioxide d. Temperature readings via the esophagus
a. Perform cardiac and lung auscultation via the esophagus
Hypoventilation that occurs in the anesthetized patient is characterized by: Select one: a. Reduced tidal volume and respiratory rate followed by increased carbon dioxide levels b. Increased tidal volume and oxygen levels followed by decreased carbon dioxide levels c. Increased respiratory rate and hypocarbia followed by hypotension d. Decreased carbon dioxide levels and decreased oxygen levels
a. Reduced tidal volume and respiratory rate followed by increased carbon dioxide levels
Common side effects of acepromazine include all of the following except: Select one: a. Respiratory depressant b. Antiemetic properties c. Antiarrhythmic d. Decreasing body temperature
a. Respiratory depressant
What is the indication for induction with etomidate in dogs? Select one: a. Severe cardiac disease b. Orthopedic disease c. Renal failure d. Pediatric (younger than 4 weeks)
a. Severe cardiac disease
If an oxygen flowmeter uses a ball for oxygen readings, where is the reading taken from to determine flow of oxygen in the system? Select one: a. The center of the ball b. The bottom of the ball c. The top of the ball d. None of these
a. The center of the ball
The normal respiratory rate in the anesthetized dog and cat ranges between: Select one: a. 4-6 breaths/min b. 8-12 breaths/min c. 10-15 breaths/min d. 6-10 breaths/min
b. 8-12 breaths/min
Which of the following types of pain is most associated with trauma or surgery? Select one: a. Maladaptive pain b. Adaptive pain c. Neuropathic pain d. Chronic pain
b. Adaptive pain
Why is placing alcohol onto ECG leads contraindicated in patients requiring CPCR? Select one: a. Alcohol can cool the patient b. Alcohol can cause a fire if defibrillation is performed c. Alcohol can cause skin irritation d. Alcohol is actually not contraindicated in these patients
b. Alcohol can cause a fire if defibrillation is performed
Which of the following is a neuroactive steroid anesthetic? Select one: a. Telazol b. Alfaxalone c. Propofol d. Etomidate
b. Alfaxalone
Which of the following factors can cause an increase in intracranial pressure? Select one: a. Pressure on the jugular vein b. All of these c. Ketamine administration d. Hypercapnia
b. All of these
Which of the following is an example of a monitoring parameter that would be useful during the recovery process? Select one: a. Postoperative pain scoring b. All of these c. Continuous ECG monitoring d. Temperature monitoring
b. All of these
Which of the following would be a cause of spontaneous ventilations not being active enough, therefore requiring controlled ventilation? Select one: a. Deep level of anesthesia b. All of these c. During intrathoracic surgery d. Use of neuromuscular blockers
b. All of these
What is a Doppler device used to measure? Select one: a. End-tidal carbon dioxide b. Blood pressure c. Patient oxygenation d. Temperature
b. Blood pressure
Nitrous oxide cylinders are painted what color? Select one: a. Green b. Blue c. Yellow d. Gray
b. Blue
Which of the following can profoundly affect cardiac output and blood pressure in the neonate? Select one: a. Hyperthermia b. Bradycardia c. Apnea d. Tachycardia
b. Bradycardia
What is the main component of soda lime (a substance used to absorb carbon dioxide from the breathing system)? Select one: a. Carbon dioxide b. Calcium hydroxide c. Baking soda d. Potassium hydroxide
b. Calcium hydroxide
When is airway obstruction most likely to occur in a surgical patient? Select one: a. During recovery as the patient is awakening b. During the preanesthetic and recovery period c. During surgery and postoperatively d. During the surgical procedure
b. During the preanesthetic and recovery period
How can a technician reduce the amount of waste anesthetic gases? Select one: a. Use a mask or chamber b. Ensure that the anesthetic machine has been tested for leaks c. Use uncuffed endotracheal tubes d. Use high fresh gas flows
b. Ensure that the anesthetic machine has been tested for leaks
Which of the following is not a characteristic of alpha-2 agonists? Select one: a. Analgesia b. Increased heart rate c. Muscle relaxation d. Sedation
b. Increased heart rate
Which of the following drugs when administered alone produces minimal sedation in healthy dogs and cats? Select one: a. Acepromazine b. Midazolam c. Dexmedetomidine d. Morphine
b. Midazolam
Where does atropine block the release of acetylcholine? Select one: a. Nicotinic receptors of the sympathetic system b. Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system c. Muscarinic receptors of the sympathetic system d. Nicotinic receptors of the parasympathetic system
b. Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system
Diazepam is used to produce: Select one: a. Hypnosis b. Muscle relaxation c. Vomiting d. Analgesia
b. Muscle relaxation
What will pulse oximetry often allow you to estimate? Select one: a. Arterial blood pressure b. Percent saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen c. PaO2 d. Pulse pressure
b. Percent saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen
Which phase of anesthesia is the greatest risk for horses? Select one: a. Induction b. Recovery c. Preanesthesia d. Maintenance
b. Recovery
Hypoventilation that occurs in the anesthetized patient is characterized by: Select one: a. Increased tidal volume and oxygen levels followed by decreased carbon dioxide levels b. Reduced tidal volume and respiratory rate followed by increased carbon dioxide levels c. Increased respiratory rate and hypocarbia followed by hypotension d. Decreased carbon dioxide levels and decreased oxygen levels
b. Reduced tidal volume and respiratory rate followed by increased carbon dioxide levels
What is the desired anesthetic plane for surgical procedures? Select one: a. Stage III, plane 4 b. Stage III, plane 2 c. Stage III, plane 3 d. Stage III, plane 1
b. Stage III, plane 2
If you want to transport a high-pressure O2 tank, what is the safest way? Select one: a. Dragging it by the neck b. Using a handcart c. Carrying it d. Rolling it along the floor
b. Using a handcart
What is considered anatomic dead space? Select one: a. Air within the alveoli b. Room air within the breathing circuit c. Air within the trachea, pharynx, larynx, bronchi, and nasal passages d. Air within the digestive tract
c. Air within the trachea, pharynx, larynx, bronchi, and nasal passages
Which of the following are considered adjuncts for pain management? Select one: a. Weight loss b. Laser therapy c. All of these d. Physical rehabilitation
c. All of these
Butorphanol is best described as a/an: Select one: a. Anti-inflammatory b. Anesthetic c. Analgesic d. Diuretic
c. Analgesic
If you position the head of an anesthetized ruminant with the pharynx higher than the mouth, what can this help to prevent? Select one: a. Hypoxemia b. Hyperventilation c. Aspiration d. Hypotension
c. Aspiration
Which of the following drugs should be avoided when premedicating the cat with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy because of its likelihood of causing tachycardia and tachyarrhythmia? Select one: a. Hydromorphone b. Midazolam c. Atropine d. Etomidate
c. Atropine
Which of the following terms describes a state in which patients are in a trancelike state and unaware of their surroundings? Select one: a. Sleeping b. Sedation c. Catalepsy d. Nystagmus
c. Catalepsy
Hypothermia in the anesthetized patient can cause all of the following complications except: Select one: a. Decreased tissue perfusion b. Bradycardia c. Hypertension d. MAC reduction
c. Hypertension
Which of the following is a potential problem with maintaining a patient on room air during an anesthetic procedure?ct Select one: a. Hypertension b. Hyperthermia c. Hypoxemia d. Apnea
c. Hypoxemia
Which drug is a narcotic antagonist? Select one: a. Pancuronium b. Atropine c. Naloxone d. Droperidol
c. Naloxone
In a pug, the endotracheal tube should be removed: Select one: a. When the animal is taken off of the anesthesia machine b. As soon as the surgery or diagnostic technique is completed c. Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway d. As soon as the animal begins to swallow and cough
c. Only after the animal is fully conscious and able to maintain a free airway
Anesthetic drugs that cause vasoconstriction often cause the mucous membranes to become: Select one: a. Pink b. Blue c. Pale d. Red
c. Pale
What does the term hypostatic congestion mean? Select one: a. Pooling of ingesta in one area of the gastrointestinal tract b. Accumulation of mucus in the trachea c. Pooling of blood in the dependent lung d. Leakage of fluid into the chest
c. Pooling of blood in the dependent lung
What is the stage of anesthesia when you see breath holding, vocalization, and involuntary movement of the limbs? Select one: a. Stage III, plane 2 b. Stage III, plane 1 c. Stage II C d. Stage I
c. Stage II C
Anesthesia machines function to deliver all of the following, except: Select one: a. To remove carbon dioxide and waste gases b. To deliver oxygen c. To remove oxygen d. To deliver anesthetic gas
c. To remove oxygen
Which of the following best describes a passive scavenger system? Select one: a. Uses positive pressure created by a vacuum to draw gas out of the anesthetic machine b. Uses suction created by a vacuum pump or fan to draw gas into the scavenger c. Uses positive pressure of the gas in the anesthetic machine to push gas into the scavenger d. Uses negative pressure of the gas in the anesthetic machine to push gas into the scavenger
c. Uses positive pressure of the gas in the anesthetic machine to push gas into the scavenger
If you want to transport a high-pressure O2 tank, what is the safest way? Select one: a. Rolling it along the floor b. Carrying it c. Using a handcart d. Dragging it by the neck
c. Using a handcart
When should a dog be extubated after anesthesia? Select one: a. Right after you turn off the vaporizer b. Any time that is convenient c. When the animal begins to swallow d. About 10 minutes after turning off the vaporizer
c. When the animal begins to swallow
You have been tasked to anesthetize a 1000-kg bull and maintain anesthesia by using an inhalant technique. Which is the correct statement regarding intubation of this patient? Select one: a. All of these b. The inhalant can be safely delivered via a facemask c. You will have to digitally/manually intubate the bull d. The tube does not need to be lubricated before intubation
c. You will have to digitally/manually intubate the bull
How many milligrams per milliliter (mg/mL) does a 2% lidocaine solution contain? Select one: a. 30 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20
d. 20
The approximate volume of oxygen in an H cylinder is: Select one: a. 2200 L b. 690 L c. 69 L d. 6900 L
d. 6900 L
Which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis? Select one: a. Xylazine b. Diazepam c. Glycopyrrolate d. Acepromazine
d. Acepromazine
Which of the following anesthetic drugs is not reversible? Select one: a. Dexmedetomidine b. Methadone c. Diazepam d. Acepromazine
d. Acepromazine
Which of the following locations would be acceptable for placement of a pulse oximeter probe? Select one: a. Nonpigmented toe b. Prepuce c. Tongue d. All of these
d. All of these
Which of the following would be a cause of spontaneous ventilations not being active enough, therefore requiring controlled ventilation? Select one: a. During intrathoracic surgery b. Use of neuromuscular blockers c. Deep level of anesthesia d. All of these
d. All of these
Which drug is normally used in premedication in cattle? Select one: a. Anticholinergic b. Local anesthetic c. Inhalation agent d. Alpha-2 adrenoceptor agonist
d. Alpha-2 adrenoceptor agonist
Which of the following is used for direct blood pressure monitoring? Select one: a. Cardell b. Doppler c. Dinamap d. Arterial catheter
d. Arterial catheter
Which of the following is the most common form of heart disease seen in cats? Select one: a. Mitral valve insufficiency b. Low blood pressure c. Dilated cardiomyopathy d. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
d. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
How is it best to treat bradycardia induced by dexmedetomidine? Select one: a. Epinephrine b. Naloxone c. Atropine d. Atipamezole
d. Atipamezole
What is a Doppler device used to measure? Select one: a. Temperature b. End-tidal carbon dioxide c. Patient oxygenation d. Blood pressure
d. Blood pressure
Which of the following opioids can be used effectively in the feline patient when administered via the transmucosal route? Select one: a. Butorphanol b. Morphine c. Methadone d. Buprenorphine
d. Buprenorphine
Which of the following provides a noninvasive method for assessing ventilation, cardiac output, pulmonary perfusion, and systemic metabolism? Select one: a. Arterial blood gas b. Electrocardiograph c. Central venous pressure d. Capnograph
d. Capnograph
Which fluid type should be used with caution in patients with blood clotting abnormalities? Select one: a. Normosol-R b. Plasma-Lyte c. Lactated Ringer's d. Hetastarch
d. Hetastarch
If a patient regurgitates while waking up from anesthesia, what is the best course of action? Select one: a. Feed the patient a meal as quickly as possible b. Place the patient back on gas anesthetic c. No treatment is needed d. Remove the regurgitation and lavage the esophagus with saline
d. Remove the regurgitation and lavage the esophagus with saline
Which of the following factors do not influence minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)? Select one: a. Temperature b. Stress c. Age d. Sex
d. Sex
What is the stage of anesthesia when you see breath holding, vocalization, and involuntary movement of the limbs? Select one: a. Stage I b. Stage III, plane 2 c. Stage III, plane 1 d. Stage II C
d. Stage II C
What is the desired anesthetic plane for surgical procedures? Select one: a. Stage III, plane 4 b. Stage III, plane 1 c. Stage III, plane 3 d. Stage III, plane 2
d. Stage III, plane 2
During multimodal analgesic therapy, which of the following statements is true? Select one: a. Several drugs target one pain receptor mechanism b. Multiple pain receptor mechanisms are targeted by one drug c. Using several drugs increases side effects d. The dose of each drug is decreased when several drugs are used
d. The dose of each drug is decreased when several drugs are used
What is the purpose for higher flow rates when using a non-rebreathing system? Select one: a. To ensure the patient receives the proper percentage of inhalant. b. To provide humidity to the respiratory system. c. To help keep the patient warm. d. To eliminate rebreathing of carbon dioxide.
d. To eliminate rebreathing of carbon dioxide.
What is the function of an endotracheal tube? Select one: a. To facilitate endotracheal intubation by allowing direct visualization of the opening to the trachea b. To obtain tissue samples from the trachea c. To cover the esophagus and prevent regurgitation after surgery d. To provide a way for oxygen and anesthetic gases to be delivered to the lungs
d. To provide a way for oxygen and anesthetic gases to be delivered to the lungs
You have a calm canine patient that must be anesthetized. Which of the following conditions could present the greatest risk to anesthesia? Select one: a. Temperature of 104.1° F b. Lethargy c. Sinus arrhythmia d. Wheezing while breathing
d. Wheezing while breathing