ap bio 16 17 18
1) What does the operon model attempt to explain? A) the coordinated control of gene expression in bacteria B) bacterial resistance to antibiotics C) how genes move between homologous regions of DNA D) the mechanism of viral attachment to a host cell E) horizontal transmission of plant viruses
a
27) The TATA sequence is found only several nucleotides away from the start site of transcription. This most probably relates to which of the following? A) the number of hydrogen bonds between A and T in DNA B) the triplet nature of the codon C) the ability of this sequence to bind to the start site D) the supercoiling of the DNA near the start site E) the 3-dimensional shape of a DNA molecule
a
52) Which of the following sets of materials are required by both eukaryotes and prokaryotes for replication? A) double-stranded DNA, 4 kinds of dNTPs, primers, origins B) topoisomerases, telomerase, polymerases C) G-C rich regions, polymerases, chromosome nicks D) nucleosome loosening, 4 dNTPs, 4 rNTPs E) ligase, primers, nucleases
a
62) Why do histones bind tightly to DNA? A) Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged. B) Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively charged. C) Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic. D) Histones are covalently linked to the DNA. E) Histones are highly hydrophobic, and DNA is hydrophilic.
a
70) Sickle-cell disease is probably the result of which kind of mutation? A) point B) frameshift C) nonsense D) nondisjunction E) both B and D
a
81) Which of the following is characteristic of the product of the p53 gene? A) It is an activator for other genes. B) It speeds up the cell cycle. C) It causes cell death via apoptosis. D) It allows cells to pass on mutations due to DNA damage. E) It slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase.
a
84) The cancer-causing forms of the Ras protein are involved in which of the following processes? A) relaying a signal from a growth factor receptor B) DNA replication C) DNA repair D) cell-cell adhesion E) cell division
a
29) What is a ribozyme? A) an enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate B) an RNA with enzymatic activity C) an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits D) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process E) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication
b
37) Alternative RNA splicing A) is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription. B) can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA. C) can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs. D) increases the rate of transcription. E) is due to the presence or absence of particular snRNPs.
b
53) A typical bacterial chromosome has ~4.6 million nucleotides. This supports approximately how many genes? A) 4.6 million B) 4.4 thousand C) 45 thousand D) about 400
b
62) The process of translation, whether in prokaryotes or eukaryotes, requires tRNAs, amino acids, ribosomal subunits, and which of the following? A) polypeptide factors plus ATP B) polypeptide factors plus GTP C) polymerases plus GTP D) SRP plus chaperones E) signal peptides plus release factor
b
65) The MyoD protein A) can promote muscle development in all cell types. B) is a transcription factor that binds to and activates the transcription of muscle-related genes. C) was used by researchers to convert differentiated muscle cells into liver cells. D) magnifies the effects of other muscle proteins. E) is a target for other proteins that bind to it.
b
Choose the answer that has these events of protein synthesis in the proper sequence. 1. An aminoacyl-tRNA binds to the A site. 2. A peptide bond forms between the new amino acid and a polypeptide chain. 3. tRNA leaves the P site, and the P site remains vacant. 4. A small ribosomal subunit binds with mRNA. 5. tRNA translocates to the P site. A) 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 B) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3 C) 5,4,3,2,1 D) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5 E) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
b
49) What is the most abundant type of RNA? A) mRNA B) tRNA C) rRNA D) pre-mRNA E) hnRNA
c
11) How does active CAP induce expression of the genes of the lactose operon? A) It terminates production of repressor molecules. B) It degrades the substrate allolactose. C) It stimulates splicing of the encoded genes. D) It stimulates the binding of RNA polymerase to the promoter. E) It binds steroid hormones and controls translation.
d
60) Where does tRNA #2 move to after this bonding of lysine to the polypeptide? A) A site B) P site C) E site D) Exit tunnel E) Directly to the cytosol
d
64) Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of proteinʹs activity? A) It might result in a chromosomal translocation. B) It might exchange one stop codon for another stop codon. C) It might exchange one serine codon for a different serine codon. D) It might substitute an amino acid in the active site. E) It might substitute the N terminus of the polypeptide for the C terminus.
d
68) Each of the following options is a modification of the sentence THECATATETHERAT. Which of the following is analogous to a frameshift mutation? A) THERATATETHECAT B) THETACATETHERAT C) THECATARETHERAT D) THECATATTHERAT E) CATATETHERAT
d
75) These genes form gradients and help establish the axes and other features of an embryo: A) homeotic genes B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) morphogens E) inducers
d
88) One hereditary disease in humans, called xeroderma pigmentosum (XP), makes homozygous individuals exceptionally susceptible to UV-induced mutation damage in the cells of exposed tissue, especially skin. Without extraordinary avoidance of sunlight exposure, patients soon succumb to numerous skin cancers. Which of the following best describes this phenomenon? A) inherited cancer taking a few years to be expressed B) embryonic or fetal cancer C) inherited predisposition to mutation D) inherited inability to repair UV-induced mutation E) susceptibility to chemical carcinogens
d
9) The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when A) there is more glucose in the cell than lactose. B) the cyclic AMP levels are low. C) there is glucose but no lactose in the cell. D) the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell. E) the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low.
d
34) This is the site in the DNA located near the end of the final exon, encoding an RNA sequence that determines the 3ʹ end of the transcript: A) enhancer B) promoter C) activator D) repressor E) terminator
e
36) To repair a thymine dimmer by nucleotide excision repair, in which order do the necessary enzymes act? A) exonuclease, DNA polymerase III, RNA primase B) helicase, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase C) DNA ligase, nuclease, helicase D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III, DNA ligase E) endonuclease, DNA polymerase I, DNA ligase
e
42) Which of the following synthesizes short segments of RNA? A) helicase B) DNA polymerase III C) ligase D) DNA polymerase I E) primase
e
59) Which enzyme causes a covalent bond to attach lysine to the polypeptide? A) ATPase B) lysine synthetase C) RNA polymerase D) ligase E) peptidyl transferase
e
What does transformation involve in bacteria? A) the creation of a strand of DNA from an RNA molecule B) the creation of a strand of RNA from a DNA molecule C) the infection of cells by a phage DNA molecule D) the type of semiconservative replication shown by DNA E) assimilation of external DNA into a cell
e
1) Garrod hypothesized that ʺinborn errors of metabolismʺ such as alkaptonuria occur because A) genes dictate the production of specific enzymes, and affected individuals have genetic defects that cause them to lack certain enzymes. B) enzymes are made of DNA, and affected individuals lack DNA polymerase. C) many metabolic enzymes use DNA as a cofactor, and affected individuals have mutations that prevent their enzymes from interacting efficiently with DNA. D) certain metabolic reactions are carried out by ribozymes, and affected individuals lack key splicing factors. E) metabolic enzymes require vitamin cofactors, and affected individuals have significant nutritional deficiencies.
a
14) Which of the following can be determined directly from X-ray diffraction photographs of crystallized DNA? A) the diameter of the helix B) the rate of replication C) the sequence of nucleotides D) the bond angles of the subunits E) the frequency of A vs. T nucleotides
a
16) The ʺuniversalʺ genetic code is now known to have exceptions. Evidence for this could be found if which of the following is true? A) If UGA, usually a stop codon, is found to code for an amino acid such as tryptophan (usually coded for by UGG only). B) If one stop codon, such as UGA, is found to have a different effect on translation than another stop codon, such as UAA. C) If prokaryotic organisms are able to translate a eukaryotic mRNA and produce the same polypeptide. D) If several codons are found to translate to the same amino acid, such as serine. E) If a single mRNA molecule is found to translate to more than one polypeptide when there are two or more AUG sites.
a
17) It became apparent to Watson and Crick after completion of their model that the DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in which of the following? A) sequence of bases B) phosphate-sugar backbones C) complementary pairing of bases D) side groups of nitrogenous bases E) different five-carbon sugars
a
19) Mendel and Morgan did not know about the structure of DNA; however, which of the following of their contributions was (were) necessary to Watson and Crick? A) the particulate nature of the hereditary material B) dominance vs. recessiveness C) sex-linkage D) genetic distance and mapping E) the usefulness of peas and Drosophila
a
21) Which of the following mechanisms is (are) used to coordinately control the expression of multiple, related genes in eukaryotic cells? A) organization of the genes into clusters, with local chromatin structures influencing the expression of all the genes at once B) each of the genes sharing a common control element, allowing several activators to turn on their transcription, regardless of their location in the genome C) organizing the genes into large operons, allowing them to be transcribed as a single unit D) a single repressor able to turn off several related genes E) environmental signals that enter the cell and bind directly to their promoters
a
26) In both eukaryotes and prokaryotes, gene expression is primarily regulated at the level of A) transcription. B) translation. C) mRNA stability. D) mRNA splicing. E) protein stability.
a
28) A geneticist introduces a transgene into yeast cells and isolates five independent cell lines in which the transgene has integrated into the yeast genome. In four of the lines, the transgene is expressed strongly, but in the fifth there is no expression at all. Which is a likely explanation for the lack of transgene expression in the fifth cell line? A) A transgene integrated into a heterochromatic region of the genome. B) A transgene integrated into a euchromatic region of the genome. C) The transgene was mutated during the process of integration into the host cell genome. D) The host cell lacks the enzymes necessary to express the transgene. E) A transgene integrated into a region of the genome characterized by high histone acetylation.
a
30) Eukaryotic cells can control gene expression by which of the following mechanisms? A) histone acetylation of nucleosomes B) DNA acetylation C) RNA induced modification of chromatin structure D) repression of operons E) induction of operators in the promoter
a
37) A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. In one set of experiments she succeeded in decreasing methylation of histone tails. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) increased chromatin condensation B) decreased chromatin concentration C) abnormalities of mouse embryos D) decreased binding of transcription factors E) inactivation of the selected genes
a
43) The difference between ATP and the nucleoside triphosphates used during DNA synthesis is that A) the nucleoside triphosphates have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose. B) the nucleoside triphosphates have two phosphate groups; ATP has three phosphate groups. C) ATP contains three high-energy bonds; the nucleoside triphosphates have two. D) ATP is found only in human cells; the nucleoside triphosphates are found in all animal and plant cells. E) triphosphate monomers are active in the nucleoside triphosphates, but not in ATP.
a
43) Which of the following is most likely to have a small protein called ubiquitin attached to it? A) a cyclin that usually acts in G1, now that the cell is in G2 B) a cell surface protein that requires transport from the ER C) an mRNA that is leaving the nucleus to be translated D) a regulatory protein that requires sugar residues to be attached E) an mRNA produced by an egg cell that will be retained until after fertilization
a
44) The phenomenon in which RNA molecules in a cell are destroyed if they have a sequence complementary to an introduced double-stranded RNA is called A) RNA interference. B) RNA obstruction. C) RNA blocking. D) RNA targeting. E) RNA disposal.
a
46) Which of the following best describes siRNA? A) a short double-stranded RNA, one of whose strands can complement and inactivate a sequence of mRNA B) a single-stranded RNA that can, where it has internal complementary base pairs, fold into cloverleaf patterns C) a double-stranded RNA that is formed by cleavage of hairpin loops in a larger precursor D) a portion of rRNA that allows it to bind to several ribosomal proteins in forming large or small subunits E) a molecule, known as Dicer, that can degrade other mRNA sequences
a
47) What is the function of topoisomerase? A) relieving strain in the DNA ahead of the replication fork B) elongation of new DNA at a replication fork by addition of nucleotides to the existing chain C) the addition of methyl groups to bases of DNA D) unwinding of the double helix E) stabilizing single-stranded DNA at the replication fork
a
53) What are polyribosomes? A) groups of ribosomes reading a single mRNA simultaneously B) ribosomes containing more than two subunits C) multiple copies of ribosomes associated with giant chromosomes D) aggregations of vesicles containing ribosomal RNA E) ribosomes associated with more than one tRNA
a
60) In animals, embryonic stem cells differ from adult stem cells in that A) embryonic stem cells are totipotent, and adult stem cells are pluripotent. B) embryonic stem cells are pluripotent, and adult stem cells are totipotent. C) embryonic stem cells have more genes than adult stem cells. D) embryonic stem cells have fewer genes than adult stem cells. E) embryonic stem cells are localized to specific sites within the embryo, whereas adult stem cells are spread throughout the body.
a
63) When the ribosome reaches a stop codon on the mRNA, no corresponding tRNA enters the A site. If the translation reaction were to be experimentally stopped at this point, which of the following would you be able to isolate? A) an assembled ribosome with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA in the P site B) separated ribosomal subunits, a polypeptide, and free tRNA C) an assembled ribosome with a separated polypeptide D) separated ribosomal subunits with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA E) a cell with fewer ribosomes
a
63) Which of the following represents the order of increasingly higher levels of organization of chromatin? A) nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber, looped domain B) looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome C) looped domain, nucleosome, 30-nm chromatin fiber D) nucleosome, looped domain, 30-nm chromatin fiber E) 30-nm chromatin fiber, nucleosome, looped domain
a
64) Which of the following serve as sources of developmental information? A) cytoplasmic determinants such as mRNAs and proteins produced before fertilization B) signal molecules produced by the maturing zygote C) ubiquitous enzymes such as DNA polymerase and DNA ligase D) paternally deposited proteins E) specific operons within the zygote genome
a
70) The product of the bicoid gene in Drosophila provides essential information about A) the anterior-posterior axis. B) the dorsal-ventral axis. C) the left-right axis. D) segmentation. E) lethal genes.
a
72) Mutations in these genes lead to transformations in the identity of entire body parts: A) homeotic genes B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) morphogens E) inducers
a
72) Which of the following DNA mutations is the most likely to be damaging to the protein it specifies? A) a base-pair deletion B) a codon substitution C) a substitution in the last base of a codon D) a codon deletion E) a point mutation
a
79) What do gap genes, pair-rule genes, segment polarity genes, and homeotic genes all have in common? A) Their products act as transcription factors. B) They have no counterparts in animals other than Drosophila. C) Their products are all synthesized prior to fertilization. D) They act independently of other positional information. E) They apparently can be activated and inactivated at any time of the flyʹs life.
a
8) A mutation that inactivates the regulatory gene of a repressible operon in an E. coli cell would result in A) continuous transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator. B) complete inhibition of transcription of the structural gene controlled by that regulator. C) irreversible binding of the repressor to the operator. D) inactivation of RNA polymerase by alteration of its active site. E) continuous translation of the mRNA because of alteration of its structure.
a
80) Which of the following statements describes proto-oncogenes? A) They can code for proteins associated with cell growth. B) They are introduced to a cell initially by retroviruses. C) They are produced by somatic mutations induced by carcinogenic substances. D) Their normal function is to suppress tumor growth E) They are underexpressed in cancer cells
a
10) Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon A) occurs continuously in the cell. B) starts when the pathwayʹs substrate is present. C) starts when the pathwayʹs product is present. D) stops when the pathwayʹs product is present. E) does not result in the production of enzymes.
b
11) When T2 phages infect bacteria and make more viruses in the presence of radioactive sulfur, what is the result? A) The viral DNA will be radioactive. B) The viral proteins will be radioactive. C) The bacterial DNA will be radioactive. D) both A and B E) both A and C
b
13) Allolactose induces the synthesis of the enzyme lactase. An E. coli cell is presented for the first time with the sugar lactose (containing allolactose) as a potential food source. Which of the following occurs when the lactose enters the cell? A) The repressor protein attaches to the regulator. B) Allolactose binds to the repressor protein. C) Allolactose binds to the regulator gene. D) The repressor protein and allolactose bind to RNA polymerase. E) RNA polymerase attaches to the regulator.
b
20) Replication in prokaryotes differs from replication in eukaryotes for which of these reasons? A) The prokaryotic chromosome has histones, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes do not. B) Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes have many. C) The rate of elongation during DNA replication is slower in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes. D) Prokaryotes produce Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, but eukaryotes do not. E) Prokaryotes have telomeres, and eukaryotes do not.
b
20) Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in prokaryotes? A) RNA polymerase transcribes through the polyadenylation signal, causing proteins to associate with the transcript and cut it free from the polymerase. B) RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to fall off the DNA and release the transcript. C) RNA polymerase transcribes through an intron, and the snRNPs cause the polymerase to let go of the transcript. D) Once transcription has initiated, RNA polymerase transcribes until it reaches the end of the chromosome. E) RNA polymerase transcribes through a stop codon, causing the polymerase to stop advancing through the gene and release the mRNA.
b
22) RNA polymerase in a prokaryote is composed of several subunits. Most of these subunits are the same for the transcription of any gene, but one, known as sigma, varies considerably. Which of the following is the most probable advantage for the organism of such sigma switching? A) It might allow the transcription process to vary from one cell to another. B) It might allow the polymerase to recognize different promoters under certain environmental conditions. C) It could allow the polymerase to react differently to each stop codon. D) It could allow ribosomal subunits to assemble at faster rates. E) It could alter the rate of translation and of exon splicing.
b
23) Which of these is the function of a poly (A) signal sequence? A) It adds the poly (A) tail to the 3ʹ end of the mRNA. B) It codes for a sequence in eukaryotic transcripts that signals enzymatic cleavage ~10 —35 nucleotides away. C) It allows the 3ʹ end of the mRNA to attach to the ribosome. D) It is a sequence that codes for the hydrolysis of the RNA polymerase. E) It adds a 7-methylguanosine cap to the 3ʹ end of the mRNA.
b
27) In E. coli, there is a mutation in a gene called dnaB that alters the helicase that normally acts at the origin. Which of the following would you expect as a result of this mutation? A) No proofreading will occur. B) No replication fork will be formed. C) The DNA will supercoil. D) Replication will occur via RNA polymerase alone. E) Replication will require a DNA template from another source.
b
35) Polytene chromosomes of Drosophila salivary glands each consist of multiple identical DNA strands that are aligned in parallel arrays. How could these arise? A) replication followed by mitosis B) replication without separation C) meiosis followed by mitosis D) fertilization by multiple sperm E) special association with histone proteins
b
36) A researcher found a method she could use to manipulate and quantify phosphorylation and methylation in embryonic cells in culture. In one set of experiments using this procedure in Drosophila, she was readily successful in increasing phosphorylation of amino acids adjacent to methylated amino acids in histone tails. Which of the following results would she most likely see? A) increased chromatin condensation B) decreased chromatin concentration C) abnormalities of mouse embryos D) decreased binding of transcription factors E) inactivation of the selected genes
b
39) Each eukaryotic mRNA, even after post-transcriptional modification, includes 5ʹ and 3ʹ UTRs. Which are these? A) the cap and tail at each end of the mRNA B) the untranslated regions at either end of the coding sequence C) the U attachment sites for the tRNAs D) the U translation sites that signal the beginning of translation E) the U — A pairs that are found in high frequency at the ends
b
45) Which of the following best describes the addition of nucleotides to a growing DNA chain? A) A nucleoside triphosphate is added to the 5ʹ end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of pyrophosphate. B) A nucleoside triphosphate is added to the 3ʹ end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of pyrophosphate. C) A nucleoside diphosphate is added to the 5ʹ end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of phosphate. D) A nucleoside diphosphate is added to the 3ʹ end of the DNA, releasing a molecule of phosphate. E) A nucleoside monophosphate is added to the 5ʹ end of the DNA.
b
46) The tRNA shown in Figure 17.4 has its 3ʹ end projecting beyond its 5ʹ end. What will occur at this 3ʹ end? A) The codon and anticodon complement one another. B) The amino acid binds covalently. C) The excess nucleotides (ACCA) will be cleaved off at the ribosome. D) The small and large subunits of the ribosome will attach to it. E) The 5ʹ cap of the mRNA will become covalently bound.
b
47) A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of a phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be that A) none of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine. B) proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU. C) the cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-specifying anticodons. D) the ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered. E) None of the above will occur; the cell will recognize the error and destroy the tRNA.
b
48) There are 61 mRNA codons that specify an amino acid, but only 45 tRNAs. This is best explained by the fact that A) some tRNAs have anticodons that recognize four or more different codons. B) the rules for base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are flexible. C) many codons are never used, so the tRNAs that recognize them are dispensable. D) the DNA codes for all 61 tRNAs but some are then destroyed. E) competitive exclusion forces some tRNAs to be destroyed by nucleases.
b
54) Studies of nucleosomes have shown that histones (except H1) exist in each nucleosome as two kinds of tetramers: one of 2 H2A molecules and 2 H2B molecules, and the other as 2 H3 and 2 H4 molecules. Which of the following is supported by this data? A) DNA can wind itself around either of the two kinds of tetramers. B) The two types of tetramers associate to form an octamer. C) DNA has to associate with individual histones before they form tetramers. D) Only H2A can form associations with DNA molecules. E) The structure of H3 and H4 molecules is not basic like that of the other histones.
b
54) You are given an experimental problem involving control of a geneʹs expression in the embryo of a particular species. One of your first questions is whether the geneʹs expression is controlled at the level of transcription or translation. Which of the following might best give you an answer? A) You explore whether there has been alternative splicing by examining amino acid sequences of very similar proteins. B) You measure the quantity of the appropriate pre-mRNA in various cell types and find they are all the same. C) You assess the position and sequence of the promoter and enhancer for this gene. D) An analysis of amino acid production by the cell shows you that there is an increase at this stage of embryonic life. E) You use an antibiotic known to prevent translation.
b
55) When DNA is compacted by histones into 10 nm and 30 nm fibers, the DNA is unable to interact with proteins required for gene expression. Therefore, to allow for these proteins to act, the chromatin must constantly alter its structure. Which processes contribute to this dynamic activity? A) DNA supercoiling at or around H1 B) methylation and phosphorylation of histone tails C) hydrolysis of DNA molecules where they are wrapped around the nucleosome core D) accessibility of heterochromatin to phosphorylating enzymes E) nucleotide excision and reconstruction
b
55) When translating secretory or membrane proteins, ribosomes are directed to the ER membrane by A) a specific characteristic of the ribosome itself, which distinguishes free ribosomes from bound ribosomes. B) a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane. C) moving through a specialized channel of the nucleus. D) a chemical signal given off by the ER. E) a signal sequence of RNA that precedes the start codon of the message.
b
56) When does translation begin in prokaryotic cells? A) after a transcription initiation complex has been formed B) as soon as transcription has begun C) after the 5ʹ caps are converted to mRNA D) once the pre-mRNA has been converted to mRNA E) as soon as the DNA introns are removed from the template
b
61) Which of the following statements describes histones? A) Each nucleosome consists of two molecules of histone H1. B) Histone H1 is not present in the nucleosome bead; instead it is involved in the formation of higher-level chromatin structures. C) The carboxyl end of each histone extends outward from the nucleosome and is called a ʺhistone tail.ʺ D) Histones are found in mammals, but not in other animals or in plants. E) The mass of histone in chromatin is approximately nine times the mass of DNA.
b
62) What is considered to be the first evidence of differentiation in the cells of an embryo? A) cell division B) the occurrence of mRNAs for the production of tissue-specific proteins C) determination D) changes in the size and shape of the cell E) changes resulting from induction
b
66) Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation, is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product? A) a deletion of a codon B) a deletion of 2 nucleotides C) a substitution of the third nucleotide in an ACC codon D) a substitution of the first nucleotide of a GGG codon E) an insertion of a codon
b
7) Using RNA as a template for protein synthesis instead of translating proteins directly from the DNA is advantageous for the cell because A) RNA is much more stable than DNA. B) RNA acts as an expendable copy of the genetic material. C) only one mRNA molecule can be transcribed from a single gene, lowering the potential rate of gene expression. D) tRNA, rRNA and others are not transcribed. E) mRNA molecules are subject to mutation but DNA is not.
b
7) When this is taken up by the cell, it binds to the repressor so that the repressor no longer binds to the operator: A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor
b
73) Which point mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic effect on the functioning of a protein? A) a base substitution B) a base deletion near the start of a gene C) a base deletion near the end of the coding sequence, but not in the terminator codon D) deletion of three bases near the start of the coding sequence, but not in the initiator codon E) a base insertion near the end of the coding sequence, but not in the terminator codon
b
74) These genes map out the basic subdivisions along the anterior-posterior axis of the Drosophila embryo: A) homeotic genes B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) morphogens E) inducers
b
76) Gap genes and pair-rule genes fall into this category: A) homeotic genes B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) morphogens E) inducers
b
77) The product of the bicoid gene in Drosophila could be considered a(n) A) tissue-specific protein. B) cytoplasmic determinant. C) maternal effect. D) inductive signal. E) fertilization product.
b
8) If proteins were composed of only 12 different kinds of amino acids, what would be the smallest possible codon size in a genetic system with four different nucleotides? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 12
b
90) In colorectal cancer, several genes must be mutated in order to make a cell a cancer cell, supporting Knudsenʹs hypothesis. Which of the following kinds of genes would you expect to be mutated? A) genes coding for enzymes that act in the colon B) genes involved in control of the cell cycle C) genes that are especially susceptible to mutation D) the same genes that Knudsen identified as associated with retinoblastoma E) the genes of the bacteria that are abundant in the colon
b
In his transformation experiments, what did Griffith observe? A) Mutant mice were resistant to bacterial infections. B) Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form. C) Mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the pathogenic strain nonpathogenic. D) Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic strains. E) Mice infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the infection to other mice.
b
In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts? A) DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not. B) DNA contains phosphorus, but protein does not. C) DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not. D) DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines. E) RNA includes ribose, while DNA includes deoxyribose sugars.
b
Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? Phage with labeled proteins or DNA was allowed to infect bacteria. It was shown that the DNA, but not the protein, entered the bacterial cells, and was therefore concluded to be the genetic material. A) Frederick Griffith B) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase C) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod D) Erwin Chargaff E) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
b
12) For a repressible operon to be transcribed, which of the following must occur? A) A corepressor must be present. B) RNA polymerase and the active repressor must be present. C) RNA polymerase must bind to the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive. D) RNA polymerase cannot be present, and the repressor must be inactive. E) RNA polymerase must not occupy the promoter, and the repressor must be inactive.
c
18) Which of the following is true for both prokaryotic and eukaryotic gene expression? A) After transcription, a 3ʹ poly-A tail and a 5ʹ cap are added to mRNA. B) Translation of mRNA can begin before transcription is complete. C) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region to begin transcription. D) mRNA is synthesized in the 3ʹ → 5ʹ direction. E) The mRNA transcript is the exact complement of the gene from which it was copied.
c
2) According to Beadle and Tatumʹs hypothesis, how many genes are necessary for this pathway? A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) It cannot be determined from the pathway.
c
22) If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to A) be replicating nearly continuously. B) be unwinding in preparation for protein synthesis. C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription. D) be very actively transcribed and translated. E) induce protein synthesis by not allowing repressors to bind to it.
c
24) In eukaryotes there are several different types of RNA polymerase. Which type is involved in transcription of mRNA for a globin protein? A) ligase B) RNA polymerase I C) RNA polymerase II D) RNA polymerase III E) primase
c
26) A part of the promoter, called the TATA box, is said to be highly conserved in evolution. Which might this illustrate? A) The sequence evolves very rapidly. B) The sequence does not mutate. C) Any mutation in the sequence is selected against. D) The sequence is found in many but not all promoters. E) The sequence is transcribed at the start of every gene.
c
26) An Okazaki fragment has which of the following arrangements? A) primase, polymerase, ligase B) 3ʹ RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 5ʹ C) 5ʹ RNA nucleotides, DNA nucleotides 3ʹ D) DNA polymerase I, DNA polymerase III E) 5ʹ DNA to 3ʹ
c
28) Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a DNA strand in the 5ʹ → 3ʹ direction? A) primase B) DNA ligase C) DNA polymerase III D) topoisomerase E) helicase
c
29) During DNA replication, A) all methylation of the DNA is lost at the first round of replication. B) DNA polymerase is blocked by methyl groups, and methylated regions of the genome are therefore left uncopied. C) methylation of the DNA is maintained because methylation enzymes act at DNA sites where one strand is already methylated and thus correctly methylates daughter strands after replication. D) methylation of the DNA is maintained because DNA polymerase directly incorporates methylated nucleotides into the new strand opposite any methylated nucleotides in the template. E) methylated DNA is copied in the cytoplasm, and unmethylated DNA in the nucleus.
c
30) Eukaryotic telomeres replicate differently than the rest of the chromosome. This is a consequence of which of the following? A) The evolution of telomerase enzyme B) DNA polymerase that cannot replicate the leading strand template to its 5ʹ end C) Gaps left at the 5ʹ end of the lagging strand because of the need for a 3ʹ onto which nucleotides can attach D) Gaps left at the 3ʹ end of the lagging strand because of the need for a primer E) The ʺno endsʺ of a circular chromosome
c
32) This binds to a site in the DNA far from the promoter to stimulate transcription: A) enhancer B) promoter C) activator D) repressor E) terminator
c
35) Which of the following is (are) true of snRNPs? A) They are made up of both DNA and RNA. B) They bind to splice sites at each end of the exon. C) They join together to form a large structure called the spliceosome. D) They act only in the cytosol. E) They attach introns to exons in the correct order
c
36) During splicing, which molecular component of the spliceosome catalyzes the excision reaction? A) protein B) DNA C) RNA D) lipid E) sugar
c
37) What is the function of DNA polymerase III? A) to unwind the DNA helix during replication B) to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands C) to add nucleotides to the end of a growing DNA strand D) to degrade damaged DNA molecules E) to rejoin the two DNA strands (one new and one old) after replication
c
4) If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain that is mutant for the gene encoding enzyme A would be able to grow on which of the following media? A) minimal medium B) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient ʺAʺ only C) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient ʺBʺ only D) minimal medium supplemented with nutrient ʺCʺ only E) minimal medium supplemented with nutrients ʺAʺ and ʺCʺ
c
5) A mutation in this section of DNA could influence the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA: A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor
c
57) When a tRNA molecule is shown twisted into an L shape, the form represented is A) its linear sequence. B) its 2-dimensional shape. C) its 3-dimensional shape. D) its microscopic image.
c
58) A cell that remains entirely flexible in its developmental possibilities is said to be A) differentiated. B) determined. C) totipotent. D) genomically equivalent. E) epigenetic.
c
58) An experimenter has altered the 3ʹ end of the tRNA corresponding to the amino acid methionine in such a way as to remove the 3ʹ AC. Which of the following hypotheses describes the most likely result? A) tRNA will not form a cloverleaf. B) The nearby stem end will pair improperly. C) The amino acid methionine will not bind. D) The anticodon will not bind with the mRNA codon. E) The aminoacylsynthetase will not be formed.
c
67) What is the effect of a nonsense mutation in a gene? A) It changes an amino acid in the encoded protein. B) It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein. C) It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA. D) It alters the reading frame of the mRNA. E) It prevents introns from being excised.
c
73) These genes are expressed by the mother, and their products are deposited into the developing egg: A) homeotic genes B) segmentation genes C) egg-polarity genes D) morphogens E) inducers
c
76) Of the following, which is the most current description of a gene? A) a unit of heredity that causes formation of a phenotypic characteristic B) a DNA subunit that codes for a single complete protein C) a DNA sequence that is expressed to form a functional product: either RNA or polypeptide D) a DNA—RNA sequence combination that results in an enzymatic product E) a discrete unit of hereditary information that consists of a sequence of amino acids
c
82) Tumor suppressor genes A) are frequently overexpressed in cancerous cells. B) are cancer-causing genes introduced into cells by viruses. C) can encode proteins that promote DNA repair or cell-cell adhesion. D) often encode proteins that stimulate the cell cycle. E) all of the above
c
9) The enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase randomly assembles nucleotides into a polynucleotide polymer. You add polynucleotide phosphorylase to a solution of adenosine triphosphate and guanosine triphosphate. How many artificial mRNA 3 nucleotide codons would be possible? A) 3 B) 4 C) 8 D) 16 E) 64
c
A researcher has arrived at a method to prevent gene expression from Drosophila embryonic genes. The following questions assume that he is using this method. 51) The researcher in question measures the amount of new polypeptide production in embryos from 2—8 hours following fertilization and the results show a steady and significant rise in polypeptide concentration over that time. The researcher concludes that A) his measurement skills must be faulty. B) the results are due to building new cell membranes to compartmentalize dividing nuclei. C) the resulting new polypeptides are due to translation of maternal mRNAs. D) the new polypeptides were inactive and not measurable until fertilization. E) polypeptides were attached to egg membranes until this time.
c
Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? Chemicals from heat-killed S cells were purified. The chemicals were tested for the ability to transform live R cells. The transforming agent was found to be DNA. A) Frederick Griffith B) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase C) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod D) Erwin Chargaff E) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
c
16) If she moves the promoter for the lac operon to the region between the beta galactosidase gene and the permease gene, which of the following would be likely? A) Three structural genes will no longer be expressed. B) RNA polymerase will no longer transcribe permease. C) The operon will no longer be inducible. D) Beta galactosidase will be produced. E) The cell will continue to metabolize but more slowly.
d
17) If she moves the operator to the far end of the operon (past the transacetylase gene), which of the following would likely occur when the cell is exposed to lactose? A) The inducer will no longer bind to the repressor. B) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator. C) The operon will never be transcribed. D) The structural genes will be transcribed continuously. E) The repressor protein will no longer be produced.
d
17) Which of the following nucleotide triplets best represents a codon? A) a triplet separated spatially from other triplets B) a triplet that has no corresponding amino acid C) a triplet at the opposite end of tRNA from the attachment site of the amino acid D) a triplet in the same reading frame as an upstream AUG E) a sequence in tRNA at the 3ʹ end
d
19) In which of the following actions does RNA polymerase differ from DNA polymerase? A) RNA polymerase uses RNA as a template, and DNA polymerase uses a DNA template. B) RNA polymerase binds to single-stranded DNA, and DNA polymerase binds to double-stranded DNA. C) RNA polymerase is much more accurate than DNA polymerase. D) RNA polymerase can initiate RNA synthesis, but DNA polymerase requires a primer to initiate DNA synthesis. E) RNA polymerase does not need to separate the two strands of DNA in order to synthesize an RNA copy, whereas DNA polymerase must unwind the double helix before it can replicate the DNA.
d
23) Genomic imprinting, DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are all examples of A) genetic mutation. B) chromosomal rearrangements. C) karyotypes. D) epigenetic phenomena. E) translocation.
d
25) Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA polymerase? A) the protein product of the promoter B) start and stop codons C) ribosomes and tRNA D) several transcription factors (TFs) E) aminoacyl synthetase
d
25) Two potential devices that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are A) DNA methylation and histone amplification. B) DNA amplification and histone methylation. C) DNA acetylation and methylation. D) DNA methylation and histone acetylation. E) histone amplification and DNA acetylation.
d
31) The enzyme telomerase solves the problem of replication at the ends of linear chromosomes by which method? A) adding a single 5ʹ cap structure that resists degradation by nucleases B) causing specific double strand DNA breaks that result in blunt ends on both strands C) causing linear ends of the newly replicated DNA to circularize D) adding numerous short DNA sequences such as TTAGGG, which form a hairpin turn E) adding numerous GC pairs which resist hydrolysis and maintain chromosome integrity
d
33) This can inhibit transcription by blocking the binding of positively acting transcription factors to the DNA: A) enhancer B) promoter C) activator D) repressor E) terminator
d
35) Steroid hormones produce their effects in cells by A) activating key enzymes in metabolic pathways. B) activating translation of certain mRNAs. C) promoting the degradation of specific mRNAs. D) binding to intracellular receptors and promoting transcription of specific genes. E) promoting the formation of looped domains in certain regions of DNA.
d
4) This protein is produced by a regulatory gene: A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor
d
40) Transcription factors in eukaryotes usually have DNA binding domains as well as other domains also specific for binding. In general, which of the following would you expect many of them to be able to bind? A) repressors B) ATP C) protein-based hormones D) other transcription factors E) tRNA
d
45) Figure 17.4 represents tRNA that recognizes and binds a particular amino acid (in this instance, phenylalanine). Which codon on the mRNA strand codes for this amino acid? A) UGG B) GUG C) GUA D) UUC E) CAU
d
48) Which of the following describes the function of an enzyme known as Dicer? A) It degrades single-stranded DNA. B) It degrades single-stranded mRNA. C) It degrades mRNA with no poly(A) tail. D) It trims small double-stranded RNAs into molecules that can block translation. E) It chops up single-stranded DNAs from infecting viruses.
d
5) Using Figure 17.5, identify a 5ʹ → 3ʹ sequence of nucleotides in the DNA template strand for an mRNA coding for the polypeptide sequence Phe-Pro-Lys. A) 5ʹ-UUUGGGAAA-3ʹ B) 5ʹ-GAACCCCTT-3ʹ C) 5ʹ-AAAACCTTT-3ʹ D) 5ʹ-CTTCGGGAA-3ʹ E) 5ʹ-AAACCCUUU-3ʹ
d
52) The researcher continues to study the reactions of the embryo to these new proteins and you hypothesize that he is most likely to see which of the following (while embryonic genes are still not being expressed)? A) The cells begin to differentiate. B) The proteins are evenly distributed throughout the embryo. C) Larval features begin to make their appearance. D) Spatial axes (anterior → posterior, etc.) begin to be determined. E) The embryo begins to lose cells due to apoptosis from no further gene expression.
d
54) Which of the following is a function of a signal peptide? A) to direct an mRNA molecule into the cisternal space of the ER B) to bind RNA polymerase to DNA and initiate transcription C) to terminate translation of the messenger RNA D) to translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane E) to signal the initiation of transcription
d
57) In prophase I of meiosis in female Drosophila, studies have shown that there is phosphorylation of an amino acid in the tails of histones. A mutation in flies that interferes with this process results in sterility. Which of the following is the most likely hypothesis? A) These oocytes have no histones. B) Any mutation during oogenesis results in sterility. C) Phosphorylation of all proteins in the cell must result. D) Histone tail phosphorylation prohibits chromosome condensation. E) Histone tails must be removed from the rest of the histones.
d
58) In a linear eukaryotic chromatin sample, which of the following strands is looped into domains by scaffolding? A) DNA without attached histones B) DNA with H1 only C) the 10 nm chromatin fiber D) the 30 nm chromatin fiber E) the metaphase chromosome
d
59) Differentiation of cells is not easily reversible because it involves A) changes in the nucleotide sequence of genes within the genome. B) changes in chromatin structure that make certain regions of the genome more accessible. C) chemical modifications of histones and DNA methylation. D) frameshift mutations and inversions. E) excision of some coding sequences.
d
59) Which of the following statements describes the eukaryotic chromosome? A) It is composed of DNA alone. B) The nucleosome is its most basic functional subunit. C) The number of genes on each chromosome is different in different cell types of an organism. D) It consists of a single linear molecule of double-stranded DNA. E) Active transcription occurs on heterochromatin.
d
61) Which component of the complex described enters the exit tunnel through the large subunit of the ribosome? A) tRNA with attached lysine (#1) B) tRNA with polypeptide (#2) C) tRNA that no longer has attached amino acid D) newly formed polypeptide E) initiation and elongation factors
d
After mixing a heat-killed, phosphorescent strain of bacteria with a living non-phosphorescent strain, you discover that some of the living cells are now phosphorescent. Which observations would provide the best evidence that the ability to fluoresce is a heritable trait? A) DNA passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain. B) Protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain. C) The phosphorescence in the living strain is especially bright. D) Descendants of the living cells are also phosphorescent. E) Both DNA and protein passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.
d
Which of the following investigators was/were responsible for the following discovery? In DNA from any species, the amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine equals the amount of cytosine. A) Frederick Griffith B) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase C) Oswald Avery, Maclyn McCarty, and Colin MacLeod D) Erwin Chargaff E) Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
d
18) If she moves the repressor gene (lac I), along with its promoter, to a position at some several thousand base pairs away from its normal position, which will you expect to occur? A) The repressor will no longer be made. B) The repressor will no longer bind to the operator. C) The repressor will no longer bind to the inducer. D) The lac operon will be expressed continuously. E) The lac operon will function normally.
e
19) If glucose is available in the environment of E. coli, the cell responds with very low concentration of cAMP. When the cAMP increases in concentration, it binds to CAP. Which of the following would you expect would then be a measurable effect? A) decreased concentration of the lac enzymes B) increased concentration of the trp enzymes C) decreased binding of the RNA polymerase to sugar metabolism-related promoters D) decreased concentration of alternative sugars in the cell E) increased concentrations of sugars such as arabinose in the cell
e
2) The role of a metabolite that controls a repressible operon is to A) bind to the promoter region and decrease the affinity of RNA polymerase for the promoter. B) bind to the operator region and block the attachment of RNA polymerase to the promoter. C) increase the production of inactive repressor proteins. D) bind to the repressor protein and inactivate it. E) bind to the repressor protein and activate it.
e
24) Approximately what proportion of the DNA in the human genome codes for proteins or functional RNA? A) 83% B) 46% C) 32% D) 13% E) 1.5%
e
27) In eukaryotes, transcription is generally associated with A) euchromatin only. B) heterochromatin only. C) very tightly packed DNA only. D) highly methylated DNA only. E) both euchromatin and histone acetylation.
e
6) A lack of this nonprotein molecule would result in the inability of the cell to ʺturn offʺ genes: A) operon B) inducer C) promoter D) repressor E) corepressor
e
75) Gene expression in Archaea differs from that in other prokaryotes. It shares features with which of the following? A) eubacteria only B) eukaryotes only C) protists only D) fungi only E) bacteria and eukaryotes
e
85) Forms of the ras protein found in tumors usually cause which of the following? A) DNA replication to stop B) DNA replication to be hyperactive C) cell-to-cell adhesion to be nonfunctional D) cell division to cease E) growth factor signaling to be hyperactive
e
The following scientists made significant contributions to our understanding of the structure and function of DNA. Place the scientistsʹ names in the correct chronological order, starting with the first scientist(s) to make a contribution. I. Avery, McCarty, and MacLeod II. Griffith III. Hershey and Chase IV. Meselson and Stahl V. Watson and Crick
griffith > Avery, McCarty, and MacLeod > Hershey and Chase > Meselson and Stahl
