AP FINAL

The muscle refractory is the period of time where another action potential cannot occur? A. True B. False

True. The muscle refractory period is the period of time where another action potential cannot occur. During this period, the muscle cell is unable to respond to another stimulus, no matter how strong.

Troponin ______

Troponin is a protein that is found in skeletal and cardiac muscle cells. It is involved in regulating muscle contraction by interacting with the protein actin and the muscle-regulatory protein tropomyosin. Troponin is commonly used as a diagnostic marker for heart attacks, as elevated levels of troponin in the blood can indicate damage to the heart muscle.)

A function of skeletal muscle contraction is to produce heat? A. true B. false

True

A stroke is blockage of a blood vessel to the brain? A. True B. False

True

All cranial nerves are mixed nerves (have sensory and motor fibers? A. True B. False

True

Hydrocephaly is excessive accumulation of CSF/cerebrospinal fluid? A. True B. False

True

Oligodendrocytes are cells that wrap around axons in the CNS? A. True B. False

True

The 'I' band would contain the Z disc and actin filaments? A. true B. false

True

The axon hillock is where the soma and axon connect/meet? A. True B. False

True

The corpus callosum contains white matter that connects right and left cerebral hemispheres? A. True B. False

True

The endoneurium is a connective tissue that wraps around a single axon? A. true B. false

True

The knee joint actually consists of 3 joints, the femoro-patellar and the medial and lateral tibio-femorals? A) True B) False

True

The refractory period is the time needed after an action potential when NO action potential can occur? A. True B. False

True

A nerve is considered an organ? A. True B. False

True - A nerve is considered an organ because it is composed of multiple tissue types (nerve fibers, connective tissue, blood vessels, etc.) that work together to perform a specific function (conducting nerve impulses).

A unipolar neuron would contain a 'shared' process? A. True B. False

True - A unipolar neuron has a single process that divides into two branches, one that receives sensory information and another that sends it to the CNS. The process is shared in the sense that it functions both as a dendrite and an axon.

The neurilemma is the portion of the Schwann cell that contains the nucleus? A. True B. False

True - The neurilemma is the outermost layer of the Schwann cell that surrounds the axon and contains the nucleus and other organelles of the cell.

Diploe is the spongy bone in flat bones? A) True B) False

True.

Intramembranous ossification occurs in the parietal bones of the skull? A) True B) False

True.

Caveolae are pouch like infoldings of the sarcolemma in smooth muscle? A. True B. False

True. Caveolae are pouch-like infoldings of the sarcolemma in smooth muscle. These infoldings are involved in the regulation of calcium entry into the cell.

The corpora spongiosum has an enlarged portion distally called the prepuce? A. true B. false

false (the prepuce is actually a fold of skin that covers the glans penis, not a part of the corpora spongiosum)

An example of a positive feedback mechanism in the body is? A) When body temperature drops -shivering occurs B) Blood clotting C) When body temperature rises - sweating occurs D) When we are thirsty - we crave water

B) Blood clotting. A positive feedback mechanism in the body is a process where a deviation from a set point triggers a response that amplifies or reinforces the deviation, driving the system further away from the set point. An example of a positive feedback mechanism in the body is uterine contractions during childbirth. During labor, the cervix of the uterus is stretched, which triggers nerve impulses that stimulate the release of the hormone oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland. Oxytocin then causes the uterine muscles to contract, which further stretches the cervix, triggering more nerve impulses and more oxytocin release. This positive feedback loop continues until the baby is delivered. Another example is the process of blood clotting, where platelets aggregate at the site of injury and release chemicals that attract more platelets, leading to the formation of a clot. As the clot grows, it releases more chemicals that attract even more platelets, amplifying the clotting process until the bleeding is completely stopped.

A cartilage cell is called? A) Fibrocyte B) Chondroblast C) Osteocyte D) Erythrocyte

B) Chondroblast. A chondroblast is a cell that produces and maintains the extracellular matrix of cartilage. Chondroblasts are derived from mesenchymal stem cells and are responsible for synthesizing collagen, proteoglycans, and other matrix components that make up cartilage tissue. As the chondroblast secretes matrix, it becomes surrounded by its own matrix and differentiates into a mature chondrocyte, which is the main cell type found in cartilage

With endochondral ossification a bone collar forms around the epiphysis? A) True B) False

B) False. Endochondral ossification is the process by which most bones in the body are formed, and involves the replacement of hyaline cartilage with bone tissue. During this process, a bone collar does form around the diaphysis, which is the shaft of the developing bone, but not around the epiphysis, which is the rounded end of the bone. The epiphysis is primarily composed of hyaline cartilage, which serves as a model for bone formation. Eventually, secondary ossification centers will form within the epiphysis, and bone tissue will gradually replace the cartilage.

Appositional growth? A) Occurs when matrix is secreted from inside B) Occurs when cells secrete matrix against external surface C) Occurs ONLY with cartilage D) Occurs ONLY in bones

B) Occurs when cells secrete matrix against external surface. Appositional growth is a type of bone growth that occurs when bone-forming cells, called osteoblasts, secrete new bone matrix against the external surface of existing bone tissue. This results in the growth of the bone in diameter, making it thicker and stronger. Appositional growth also occurs in cartilage, but it is not exclusive to cartilage. It occurs in bones as well as in other tissues, such as the skin and blood vessels.

Sharpey's fibers are part of? A) Osteon B) Periosteum C) Endosteum D) Trabeculae

B) Periosteum Sharpey's fibers are part of the periosteum.

Ionic bonds differ from covalent bonds in that they tend to? A) Share electrons B) Take or give electrons C) Have no charged ions D) Usually use the element Carbon

B) Take or give electrons Ionic bonds differ from covalent bonds in that they tend to take or give electrons. In an ionic bond, one atom loses one or more electrons to another atom, which gains those electrons. This results in two ions with opposite charges that are attracted to each other and held together by electrostatic forces, forming an ionic bond. In a covalent bond, two or more atoms share electrons to complete their valence shells and form a stable molecule.

The umbilicus is? A) The nipple B) The belly button C) The anus D) The anterior aspect of elbow

B) The belly button. T he umbilicus, also known as the navel or belly button, is a scar on the abdomen that marks the site of attachment of the umbilical cord during fetal development

An area that contains predominately flat bones is? A) The appendicular skeleton B) The skull/ cranium C) The vertebrae D) All of the above

B) The skull/cranium. The skull/cranium is an area of the body that contains predominantly flat bones, which provide protection for the brain and support for the facial structures. The flat bones of the skull are arranged in two layers, with a layer of spongy bone between them, and are joined together by fibrous joints called sutures.

19. The small intestine is ____ to the abdominal muscles A) superficial B) deep C) anterior D) posterior E) lateral

B) deep

The pectoral muscles are ____ to the skin A) superficial B) deep C) anterior D) posterior E) lateral

B) deep

The amount of net ATP generated by glycolysis is? A. 0 B. 2 C. 4 D. none of the above

B. 2 The amount of net ATP generated by glycolysis is 2. Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate, which can then be used in cellular respiration to produce ATP. During glycolysis, 2 ATP molecules are used to prime the reaction, but 4 ATP molecules are produced, resulting in a net gain of 2 ATP molecules

The name of the sperm structure that contains enzymes to break down the corona radiata? A. Acromion B. Acrosome C. Apophysis D. Flagellum E. None of the above

B. Acrosome

Every month a mature women releases an egg during ovulation, this process is stimulated by? A. TH-thyroid hormone B. FSH- follicle stimulating hormone C. PTH-parathyroid hormone D. GH- growth hormone

B. FSH- follicle stimulating hormone.

The lactiferous ducts of the female breast are adipose tissue? A. True B. False

B. False

The quadriceps femoris (anterior thigh muscles) are innervated by the? A. Sciatic nerve B. Femoral nerve C. Radial nerve D. Vagus nerve

B. Femoral nerve

52. Released by beta cells of pancreas _______ A. Glucagon B. Insulin C. FSH D. oxytocin E. aldosterone

B. Insulin

Huntington's disease? A. Is inflammation of the brain B. Results in uncontrolled dance-like movements C. Is lack of oxygen to developing fetus D. None of the above

B. Results in uncontrolled dance-like movements

A person that has severe burning down the back of the leg most likely has damage/inflammation to the ____ nerve? A. Femoral B. Sciatic C. Obturator D. Vagus

B. Sciatic

Nociceptors? A. Sense body position B. Sense pain C. Sense chemicals D. Sense lightB. Sense pain

B. Sense pain

Saltatory conduction speeds impulses because? A. The myelinated axons prevent K+ from leaving the cell B. The myelinated axons prevent Na+ from entering the cell C. The nodes of ranvier are the only areas of the axons that allow ions to enter or exit D. all of the above

B. The myelinated axons prevent Na+ from entering the cell Saltatory conduction speeds impulses because the myelinated axons prevent Na+ from entering the cell, forcing the impulse to "jump" from one node of Ranvier to the next. This results in faster conduction of the nerve impulse

Tic Douloreaux is due to irritation/problem of the? A. Vagus nerve B. Trigeminal nerve C. Facial nerve D. Phrenic nerve

B. Trigeminal nerve

If the sperm does not contain either an 'X' chromosome or a 'Y' chromosome, the offspring? A. Will die B. Will have a condition where the offspring will appear female but will be sterile C. Will have Kleinfelter's syndrome D. None of the above

B. Will have a condition where the offspring will appear female but will be sterile

A schwann cell? A. Is found only in the CNS B. Wraps around an axon C. Is a dendrite D. Creates the CSF/ cerebrospinal fluid

B. Wraps around an axon

Calcitonin? A. increases blood calcium levels B. decreases blood calcium levels C. is produced by the adrenal glands D. is released in response to TSH

B. decreases blood calcium levels.

Z discs ______ A. diffuse junctions B. dense bodies C. caveolae D. calmodulin

B. dense bodies

Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) release stimulates NA+ excretion? A. true B. false

B. false

Oogenesis? A. occurs the woman's entire life, stops when she dies B. meiosis 2 is stalled until ovulation C. meiosis 2 occurs at fertilization D. results in 4 daughter cells with equal amounts of cytoplasm

B. meiosis 2 is stalled until ovulation

The corpus luteum? A. Is the surrounding membrane of the oocyte B. will release hormones during the latter half of the menstrual cycle to help develop the endometrium C. is the milk producing regions within the breasts D. adds fructose to semen

B. will release hormones during the latter half of the menstrual cycle to help develop the endometrium

Spermatogenesis? A. begins at birth B. will result in 4 daughter cells with a haploid number of chromosomes C. occurs in the epididymis D. all of the above

B. will result in 4 daughter cells with a haploid number of chromosomes

The osteoclast is? A) An immature bone cell B) is a bone cell that secretes osteoid C) is a macrophage that breaks down bone D) is a cartilage cell

C) A macrophage that breaks down bone. Osteoclasts are large, multinucleated cells that are responsible for breaking down bone tissue. They are formed from monocytes and macrophages, which are types of white blood cells that also play a role in the immune system. Osteoclasts secrete enzymes and acids that break down the mineral and organic components of bone tissue, allowing for the release of calcium and other minerals into the bloodstream. This process is known as bone resorption and is important for the maintenance of calcium homeostasis in the body.

The outer portion of a long bone is called? A) Spongy bony B) Diploe C) Compact bone D) Trabeculae

C) Compact bone. The outer portion of a long bone is called compact bone, which is dense and hard bone tissue that provides strength and support to the bone. It is composed of cylindrical units called osteons, which consist of concentric rings of mineralized extracellular matrix surrounding a central canal that contains blood vessels and nerves.

These joints are freely movable? A) Fibrous B) Cartilaginous C) Diarthrodial D) Amphiarthroses

C) Diarthrodial

The coronal plane? A) Divides the body into left and right B) Divides the body into superior and inferior C) Divides the body into front and back D) Is also called the mid-sagittal plane.

C) Divides the body into front and back. The coronal plane, also known as the frontal plane, is an anatomical plane that divides the body into anterior (front) and posterior (back) sections

If an element has an atomic number of 11 and an atomic mass of 23, it can be assumed that the? A) Element has 23 electrons B) Element has 11 neutrons C) Element has 11 protons D) All of the above

C) Element has 11 protons The atomic number of an element represents the number of protons in the nucleus of the atom. Therefore, if an element has an atomic number of 11, it has 11 protons in its nucleus. The atomic mass of an element is the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of the atom. Therefore, if an element has an atomic mass of 23, and it has 11 protons, it must have 12 neutrons.

Contains differing amounts of neutrons ________ A) Cation B) Anion C) Isotope D) Acid E) Base

C) Isotope

A canaliculi connects? A) Osteons B) Central canals C) Lacunae D) Chondrocytes

C) Lacunae A canaliculi connects lacunae in bone tissue.

Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen and _______ compose 96% of the human body. A) Phosphorous B) Iron C) Nitrogen D) Calcium

C) Nitrogen.

A condition characterized by excessive and haphazard bone deposit and resorption is called? A) Rickets B) Osteomalacia C) Paget's disease D) Osteoporosis

C) Paget's disease is a condition characterized by excessive and haphazard bone deposit and resorption.

The popliteal area is located where? A) The shoulder B) The elbow C) The back of the knee D) The bridge of the nose

C) The back of the knee. The popliteal area is located at the back of the knee and is a diamond-shaped space that contains blood vessels, nerves, and lymph nodes. The term "popliteal" comes from the Latin word "poples," which means "ham" or "back of the knee." The popliteal fossa is bounded by the thigh bone (femur), the leg bone (tibia), the calf muscle (gastrocnemius), and the hamstring muscles. It is an important area for assessing the circulation and nerve function of the lower leg and foterm-10ot.

The nose is ____ to the otic region A) superficial B) deep C) anterior D) posterior E) lateral

C) anterior

The brachium is _____ to the acromion A) superior B) inferior C) proximal D) distal E) medial

C) proximal

This tissue is found in the blood vessels walls? A) cardiac muscle B) skeletal muscle C) smooth muscle D) none of the above

C) smooth muscle The tissue that is found in the walls of blood vessels is smooth muscle. Smooth muscle is a type of involuntary muscle that is found in the walls of internal organs and structures such as blood vessels, the gastrointestinal tract, and the uterus. In blood vessels, smooth muscle is responsible for regulating the diameter of the vessel, which in turn affects blood pressure and blood flow

In the spinal cord the lateral horn contains ___ neurons? A. Motor B. Sensory C. Autonomic D. None of the above.

C. Autonomic.

Lactic acid? A. Is a waste product B. Is formed from aerobic respiration C. Can be changed to pyruvate by the liver which can enter aerobic respiration D. is excreted from the body after it's formed

C. Can be changed to pyruvate by the liver which can enter aerobic respiration Lactic acid is a metabolic byproduct that is produced by muscle cells during anaerobic respiration. It is formed when pyruvate, which is produced during glycolysis, is converted to lactate by the enzyme lactate dehydrogenase. Lactic acid is not a waste product, but rather a byproduct of energy production. It can be used by the liver as a substrate for gluconeogenesis, which is the process of producing glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. The liver can convert lactate to pyruvate, which can then be used in aerobic respiration to produce ATP. Lactic acid is not excreted from the body after it is formed, but rather it is transported to the liver and other tissues for further processing

The meninges from superficial to deep? A. Arachnoid, pia, dura B. Pia, dura, arachnoid C. Dura, arachnoid, pia D. Dura, pia, arachnoid

C. Dura, arachnoid, pia

Obturator nerve ____________ A. Cervical plexus B. Brachial plexus C. Lumbar plexus D. sacral plexus

C. Lumbar plexus

Sensory for vision ________ A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe E. Insula lobe

C. Occipital lobe

The facial nerve innervates? A. The muscles of mastication B. The extraocular eye muscles C. The lacrimal glands D. The chemoreceptors in the digestive tract

C. The lacrimal glands The facial nerve innervates: The muscles of facial expression The lacrimal glands The salivary glands The taste buds on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

The site where sperm mature is called the? A. seminiferous tubules B. scrotum C. epididymis D. seminal vesicle

C. epididymis

ANP (ANH)/ atrial natriuretic peptide (hormone) is released by what organ? A. kidneys B. pituitary C. heart D. adrenal glands

C. heart

Myoglobin has a special function in muscle tissue. It A. breaks down glycogen B. is a contractile protein C. holds a reserve supply of oxygen in the muscle

C. holds a reserve supply of oxygen in the muscle. Explanation: Myoglobin is a protein found in muscle tissue that is responsible for storing and transporting oxygen within the muscle fibers. It has a high affinity for oxygen and can hold onto it even when the concentration of oxygen is low. This allows muscle cells to have a reserve supply of oxygen that can be used during times of increased demand, such as during exercise.

Glucagon? A. lowers blood glucose levels B. allows entry of glucose into cells C. increases blood glucose levels D. increases BMR/ basal metabolic rate E. none of the above

C. increases blood glucose levels.

Days 6-14 of the menstrual cycle? A. Results in shedding of the endometrium B. is the secretory phase C. is also called the proliferative phase D. none of the above

C. is also called the proliferative phase

Meiosis 1 in oogenesis? A. is completed when the sperm fertilizes an egg B. is completed at ovulation C. is completed in the fetus, before the girl is born D. is completed when the zygote implants in the endometrium

C. is completed in the fetus, before the girl is born

Acromegaly? A. may be due to a tumor in the thyroid gland B. results in giantism C. is excessive GH release in a mature adult D. is lack of sufficient GH release

C. is excessive GH release in a mature adult

An example of a resistance exercise is? A. jogging B. swimming C. isometrics D. cycling E. none of the above

C. isometrics

Under production of thyroid hormone in an adult results in? A. cretinism B. dwarfism C. myxedema D. Graves disease E. none of the above

C. myxedema

Register's in the 0-7 region of the pH scale _________ A) Cation B) Anion C) Isotope D) Acid E) Base

D) Acid

A bursae sac? A) Helps lubricate joints B) Contain synovial fluid C) Are located where tendons may rub on a bone D) All of the above

D) All of the above Bursae sacs are fluid-filled sacs that help reduce friction and cushion areas where tendons, muscles, and bones may rub together. They contain synovial fluid and are located in areas such as the shoulder, elbow, hip, and knee joints.

The axial skeleton would contain the? A) Skull B) Vertebrae C) Ribs D) All of the above

D) All of the above The axial skeleton would contain all of the above structures (skull, vertebrae, ribs).

A proton? A) Has a weight of 1 amu (atomic mass unit) B) Is found in the atom's nucleus C) Is positively charged D) All of the above

D) All of the above. A proton is a subatomic particle found in the nucleus of an atom. It has a mass of approximately 1 atomic mass unit and a positive charge of +1, which means that it is electrically charged. The number of protons in an atom is equal to the atomic number of that element. Therefore, the atomic number tells us the number of protons in an atom of that element.

The PERIOSTEAL BUD contains a? A) Nutrient artery B) Vein C) Nerve D) All of the above

D) All of the above. The periosteal bud is a group of blood vessels, nerves, and osteoprogenitor cells that invade the diaphysis of a developing bone during endochondral ossification. The periosteal bud is responsible for supplying blood and nutrients to the developing bone tissue, as well as providing nerve innervation. The periosteal bud contains a nutrient artery, which supplies blood to the developing bone tissue, as well as a vein, which carries deoxygenated blood away from the tissue. The bud also contains nerves that provide sensory and motor innervation to the developing bone. Finally, the bud contains osteoprogenitor cells, which are cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts and contribute to the formation of bone tissue.

When someone stands on their heels, this movement at the ankle joint is called? A) Flexion B) Extension C) Dorsiflexion D) Plantarflexion

D) Plantarflexion The movement at the ankle joint when someone stands on their heels is called plantarflexion.

The brachium is also known as? A) The shoulder B) The elbow C) The back of the knee D) The upper arm

D) The upper arm. The brachium is the anatomical term for the upper arm, which is the region between the shoulder and the elbow. It is composed of a single bone, the humerus, which is the longest and largest bone in the upper limb

12. The neurotransmitter contained in vesicles at synaptic terminals is called? A) sodium B) calcium C) potassium D) acetylcholine

D) acetylcholine The neurotransmitter contained in vesicles at synaptic terminals is called acetylcholine. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that is released from the axon terminal of a motor neuron into the synaptic cleft to stimulate muscle contraction.

This tissue contains myosin filaments? A) cardiac muscle B) skeletal muscles C) smooth muscles D) all of the above

D) all of the above

Matter? A) May be in solid, liquid or gas forms B) Has mass C) Cannot be destroyed D) all of the above

D) all of the above. Matter can exist in solid, liquid, or gas forms, has mass, and according to the Law of Conservation of Mass, it cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another.

The actin and/or myosin containing structures? A) sarcolemma B) t-tubule C) sarcoplasmic reticulum D) sarcomere

D) sarcomere The actin and myosin-containing structures are called sarcomeres. Sarcomeres are composed of overlapping actin and myosin filaments that are responsible for muscle contraction.

ADH? A. Is released by the adenohypophysis B. Promotes urine formation C. Is also known as vasopressin D. All of the above

D. All of the above.

The function of an efferent nerve would be? A. Cause the gluteus maximus muscle to contract B. Cause peristalsis (smooth muscle contraction) within the small intestine C. Cause stimulation of pancreas gland to secrete insulin D. All of the above

D. All of the above. An efferent nerve is a nerve that carries signals away from the central nervous system to effectors, such as muscles or glands. Therefore, it can cause a variety of actions, including muscle contraction (such as in the gluteus maximus), peristalsis (such as in the small intestine), and gland secretion (such as in the pancreas).

The ligaments that secure the internal genital of the female are called the ______? A. Broad, Pubic and Round B. Suspensory, Broad and Cervical C. Uterine, Broad and Suspensory D. Broad, Suspensory and Round

D. Broad, Suspensory and Round.

TSH will? A. decrease levels of TH B. increase levels of growth hormone C. increase milk formation D. promote the release of thyroid hormone

D. Promote the release of thyroid hormone. TSH stands for thyroid-stimulating hormone, and its primary function is to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce and secrete thyroid hormone (TH). It is produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary gland.

The cell that myelinates axons in the PNS are called? A. Ependymal B. Oligodendrocyte C. Astrocyte D. Schwann

D. Schwann

Aldosterone? A. reabsorbs Na+ B. results in increases h2o retention C. will promote/enhance K+ excretion D. all of the above

D. all of the above

Diabetes is marked by? A. Extreme hunger B. polydypsia C. frequent urination D. all of the above

D. all of the above

Secondary sex characteristics in a male are? A. facial hair B. armpit hair C. the deepening of the voice D. all of the above

D. all of the above

A secondary sex characteristic in females is? A. breast enlargement/development B. axillary hair C. fat development in pelvis D. all of the above

D. all of the above are secondary sex characteristics in females.

The function of an efferent nerve would be? A. Cause the gluteus maximus muscle to contract B. Cause peristalsis within the small intestine C. Cause stimulation of pancreas gland to secrete digestive enzymes D. all of the above

D. all of the above. Efferent nerves are responsible for transmitting signals from the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) to the peripheral nervous system, including muscles and glands, to initiate a response. Therefore, an efferent nerve can cause a muscle to contract, initiate peristalsis in the small intestine, or stimulate the pancreas gland to secrete digestive enzymes.

Muscle tone is? A. due to spinal reflexes B. the state of a relaxed muscle being slightly contracted C. due to stretch receptors in the muscles D. all of the above

D. all of the above. Muscle tone is maintained by spinal reflexes, the state of a relaxed muscle being slightly contracted, and stretch receptors in the muscles.

A proprioceptor is a sensory afferent for? A. Chemical B. Pressure C. Pain D. body position

D. body position

T-tubule _______ A. diffuse junctions B. dense bodies C. caveolae D. calmodulin

D. calmodulin

A vasectomy involves? A. trimming the prepuce B. snipping the epididymis C. removing the prostate D. cutting the vas deferens

D. cutting the vas deferens

Thyroxine/thyroid hormone? A. lowers blood glucose levels B. allows entry of glucose into cells C. increases blood glucose levels D. increases BMR/basal metabolic rate E. none of the above

D. increases BMR/basal metabolic rate

Chlamydia? A. is a viral infection B. in its tertiary stage may attack the CNS C. is marked by a chancre where the pathogen enters the body D. is usually asymptomatic in females

D. is usually asymptomatic in females.

Mittleschmerz? A. is the new flavor of 'Ben & Jerry's' ice cream B. marks when the sperm fertilizes the egg C. is when the blastocyst implants into the endometrium D. is when the oocyte is released by the ovary E. none of the above

D. is when the oocyte is released by the ovary

The seminal vesicles? A. increases sperm production B. stimulates ovulation C. stimulates production of testosterone D. none of the above

D. none of the above

An action potential is? A. When the interior of the cell becomes more negative B. Results from the rushing out of the cell by K+ ions C. Due to a ligand (chemical stimulus) opening voltage gated Na+ channels D. none of the above

D. none of the above. An action potential is a brief electrical impulse that travels along the membrane of a neuron or muscle cell, caused by the movement of ions across the membrane. It involves a rapid depolarization (change in membrane potential from negative to positive) caused by the influx of Na+ ions, followed by a repolarization (change back to negative potential) caused by the efflux of K+ ions. The movement of ions is facilitated by the opening and closing of voltage-gated ion channels in response to changes in membrane potential.

Sciatic nerve __________ A. Cervical plexus B. Brachial plexus C. Lumbar plexus D. sacral plexus

D. sacral plexus

The circumduction motion involves the movements of extension, abduction, flexion and adduction? A) True B) False

False. The circumduction motion involves a circular movement of a limb that involves the sequential combination of flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction.

A glycosome is a portion of the muscle that stores oxygen? A. True B. False

False. A glycosome is a subcellular organelle found in muscle cells that is involved in the storage and mobilization of glycogen, which is a source of energy for muscle contraction.

A positive charged ion ______ A) Cation B) Anion C) Isotope D) Acid E) Base

A) Cation

The central portion of the skull bone is called? A) Diploe B) Compact bone C) Lamellar bone D) Osteon

A) Diploe. Diploe is the spongy bone layer found between the inner and outer layers of flat bones, such as the bones of the skull. The inner and outer layers are composed of compact bone, while the diploe is made up of spongy bone tissue containing red bone marrow. The diploe provides cushioning and support to the skull bones and also helps to reduce the weight of the skull.

These joints articulating surfaces are united by dense connective tissue (mesenchyme)? A) Fibrous B) Cartilaginous C) Synovial D) Bone

A) Fibrous. Fibrous joints are joints in which the articulating surfaces of bones are united by dense connective tissue, such as collagen fibers. Fibrous joints do not have a joint cavity and provide little to no movement between the bones. Examples of fibrous joints include the sutures between the bones of the skull and the syndesmosis between the tibia and fibula bones in the lower leg

The movement of the shoulder in the sagittal plane that decreases the angle of the joint? A) Flexion B) Extension C) Abduction D) Circumduction

A) Flexion The movement of the shoulder in the sagittal plane that decreases the angle of the joint is called flexion.

The atomic number tells us? A) The number of electrons B) The weight of the element C) How many neutrons present D) all of the above

A) The number of electrons. The atomic number of an element is equal to the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom of that element. Since the number of electrons in an atom is equal to the number of protons, the atomic number also tells us the number of electrons in an atom of that element. For example, the atomic number of carbon is 6, which means that a carbon atom has 6 protons and 6 electrons.

Wolf's Law says that a bone remodels in response to the stress put on it? A) True B) False

A) True. Wolff's law, also known as the law of bone transformation, is a principle of bone adaptation that states that bone tissue will remodel and adapt to the loads placed upon it. Specifically, bone tissue will respond to increases in stress or mechanical loading by becoming denser and stronger, while decreases in stress will result in bone loss and decreased density. This principle applies to both the microstructure (individual trabeculae and osteons) and macrostructure (overall shape and size) of bones. For example, athletes who engage in weight-bearing exercises, such as running or weightlifting, often have denser and stronger bones in the areas of the body that are subjected to the most stress.

An example of a polar covalent bond is? A) Water B) NaCl/salt C) HCL/hydrochloric Acid D) None of the above

A) Water. In a polar covalent bond, the electrons are shared unequally between the atoms, resulting in a partial positive charge on one atom and a partial negative charge on the other atom. This occurs when two atoms that differ in electronegativity form a bond. Water (H2O) is an example of a polar covalent bond because the electrons are shared unequally between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms. Oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen, so the electrons spend more time near the oxygen atom, resulting in a partial negative charge on the oxygen atom and a partial positive charge on the hydrogen atoms.

The thin reticular connective tissue surrounding each muscle cell? A) endomysium B) perimysium C) epimysium D) sarcolemma

A) endomysium The thin reticular connective tissue surrounding each muscle cell is called the endomysium. The endomysium is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual muscle fibers, providing support and protection

Phrenic nerve _______ A. Cervical plexus B. Brachial plexus C. Lumbar plexus D. sacral plexus

A. Cervical plexus

6. Primary motor cortex _______ A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe E. Insula lobe

A. Frontal lobe

The structures that an ovulated oocyte travels within, while in the female duct system is called? A. fallopian tubes B. fimbriae C. ovary D. broad ligament

A. fallopian tubes

Endocrine glands are ductless glands whose secretions are carried in the blood plasma? A. true B. false

A. true

Leptin is a hormone produced by adipose tissue? A. true B. false

A. true

The lobe of the brain that senses gustation? A. Insula B. Frontal C. Parietal D. Temporal

A. Insula.

The wrist is ________ to the digits? A) superior B) inferior C) proximal D) distal E) medial

D) distal

17. The thumb is ______ to the pinky A) superficial B) deep C) anterior D) posterior E) lateral

E) lateral

The movement at the shoulder in the coronal plane resulting in the arm moving toward the midline of the body? A) Abduction B) Adduction C) Flexion D) Circumduction

B) Adduction

Has an extra electron ______ A) Cation B) Anion C) Isotope D) Acid E) Base

B) Anion

Interstitial lamellae are found? A) In the medullary cavity B) Between the osteons C) At the epiphyseal line D) Immediately under the periosteum

B) Between the osteons Interstitial lamellae are found between the osteons.

Meningitis? A. Is inflammation of the brain/encephalin B. Is inflammation of the dura C. Only involves the schwann cells. D. Is a 'bruised' brain

A. Is inflammation of the brain/encephalin.

51. Released by alpha cells of pancreas? _____ A. Glucagon B. Insulin C. FSH D. oxytocin E. aldosterone

A. Glucagon

The anatomical position is? A) Body erect, feet slightly apart, palms facing posterior B) Same as a miltary 'soldier' position with hands at the side C) Prone D) Lying face up, palms facing forward

A) Body erect, feet slightly apart, palms facing posterior. The anatomical position is a standardized position used in anatomy and medicine to describe the position of the body and its various structures. It is defined as a standing position with the body upright and facing forward, the arms at the sides, and the palms facing posteriorly (towards the back). The legs are straight and slightly apart, and the feet are also facing forward. This position is important because it provides a consistent frame of reference when describing the position and relationship of different body structures.

Parietal pleura? A) Lines the lung cavity B) Would be found in the dorsal cavity C) Lines the abdominal cavity D) Covers the lungs themselves

A) Lines the lung cavity. The pleura is a serous membrane that lines the thoracic cavity and covers the lungs. The parietal pleura is the portion of the membrane that lines the inner surface of the thoracic cavity, including the walls of the chest, diaphragm, and mediastinum.

The unique motion at radius/ulna bones that results in palms facing posterior while in anatomical position? A) Supination B) Pronation C) Plantarflexion D) Flexion

A) Supination

The horizontal plane divides the body into? A) Top and bottom B) Front and back C) Medial and lateral D) Is also known as the mid-sagittal plane

A) Top and bottom. The horizontal plane, also known as the transverse plane, is an anatomical plane that divides the body into superior (upper) and inferior (lower) sections

Osteolmalacia is a bone softening disease in adults? A) True B) False

A) True. Osteomalacia is a condition in which bones become soft and weak due to a lack of mineralization, specifically a deficiency in vitamin D or calcium. This can occur in adults when there is inadequate absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the diet or when there is impaired activation of vitamin D in the kidneys. Symptoms of osteomalacia may include bone pain, muscle weakness, and an increased risk of fractures. In severe cases, deformities of the bones may also occur.

Osteoporosis is most common in post-menopausal petite females? A) True B) False

A) True. Osteoporosis is a condition in which bones become weak and fragile due to a loss of bone density and quality. It is most commonly associated with post-menopausal women, especially those who are petite or have a small frame. This is because estrogen, which helps to protect bone density, decreases after menopause. Other risk factors for osteoporosis include a family history of the condition, a sedentary lifestyle, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as corticosteroids.

Volkmans canals contain blood vessels and nerves and run at right angles to central canal? A) True B) False

A) True. Volkmann's canals, also known as perforating canals, are small channels in bone tissue that run at right angles to the central canals of the osteons. They connect the blood and nerve supply of the periosteum to the central canals and medullary cavity of the bone. These canals contain blood vessels and nerves that supply the bone tissue with nutrients and remove waste products.

Cartilage and bone are both forms of connective tissue? A) True B) False

A) True. Both cartilage and bone are types of connective tissue, which is a type of tissue that provides support and structure to the body. Connective tissue is characterized by an extracellular matrix that contains various types of protein fibers and ground substance. Cartilage is a type of connective tissue that is composed of cells called chondrocytes, which are surrounded by a matrix that contains collagen and proteoglycans. It is found in various parts of the body, including the joints, the ears, and the nose. Bone is also a type of connective tissue, but is more dense and rigid than cartilage. It is composed of cells called osteoblasts, which are responsible for building new bone tissue, as well as cells called osteoclasts, which break down and resorb old bone tissue. The matrix of bone tissue contains collagen and hydroxyapatite crystals, which give bone its strength and rigidity.

Varicosities are? A) nerve endings B) terminal cisterns C) thick filaments D) smooth muscle cells

A) nerve endings Varicosities are enlarged, knob-like structures found along the length of axons in some types of neurons. They are also known as varicose enlargements or synaptic boutons. Varicosities contain synaptic vesicles that release neurotransmitters into the extracellular space to communicate with target cells, which can include smooth muscle cells, cardiac muscle cells, and glandular cells. Varicosities are found in some types of neurons that release neurotransmitters diffusely over a wide area, rather than at a single, well-defined synapse.

Rigor mortis occurs because? A) no ATP present B) no acetylcholine present C) no calcium present D) sodium/potassium pump working

A) no ATP present Rigor mortis occurs because of the lack of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) production in the body after death. ATP is required for muscle relaxation, and without it, the muscle fibers remain in a contracted state, resulting in rigor mortis. During life, ATP is constantly produced and used to break the cross-bridges between the actin and myosin filaments in the sarcomeres of muscle fibers, allowing for relaxation. However, after death, the body's supply of ATP is depleted, and the muscle fibers remain locked in place. The absence of acetylcholine, calcium, or a functional sodium/potassium pump does not directly cause rigor mortis.

The plasma membrane of the muscle fiber is called? A) sarcolemma B) sarcoplasm C) sarcomere D) sarcoplasmic reticulum

A) sarcolemma The plasma membrane of the muscle fiber is called the sarcolemma. The sarcolemma is a specialized cell membrane that surrounds and encloses the sarcoplasm, which is the cytoplasm of a muscle cell

The neurotransmitter released by the neuron results in increased permeability of what ions at the muscle cell? A) sodium B) chloride C) calcium D) h20 E) none of the above

A) sodium The neurotransmitter released by the neuron at the neuromuscular junction is acetylcholine (ACh), which results in increased permeability of sodium ions (Na+) at the muscle cell.

11. The actual gap between the axon terminal and the muscle cell is called? A) synaptic cleft B) motor unit C) synaptic fluid D) acetylcholine

A) synaptic cleft The actual gap between the axon terminal and the muscle cell is called the synaptic cleft. The synaptic cleft is a small gap that separates the axon terminal of a motor neuron from the motor endplate of a muscle fiber.

An aponeurosis is a? A) tendon B) agonist C) ligament D) origin of a muscle

A) tendon An aponeurosis is a type of connective tissue that serves as a broad, flat, and sheet-like tendon, attaching muscles to other muscles or bones. Unlike tendons, which are cord-like and attach muscles to bones, aponeuroses are flattened structures that are typically located in regions where muscles need to cover a wide surface area. Aponeuroses are made up of collagen fibers and help to distribute the force of muscle contraction over a larger area, thereby reducing the risk of injury to the muscle or surrounding tissues.

Fast twitch fibers? A. Are for power and speed muscle contractions/movements B. are for endurance exercises C. Only function in aerobic respiration D. all of the above

A. Are for power and speed muscle contractions/movements Fast twitch fibers are specialized muscle fibers that are used for powerful, fast, and explosive movements. They are used for activities that require short bursts of energy, such as sprinting or weightlifting. Fast twitch fibers have a high capacity for anaerobic metabolism, which allows them to produce energy quickly without the need for oxygen

Auditory reflexes ______ A. Corpora Quadrigemina B. Hypothalamus C. Thalamus D. Medulla oblongotta E. Limbic system

A. Corpora Quadrigemina

The name of the muscle under autonomic control that will wrinkle the scrotal skin? A. Dartos B. Cremaster C. Epididymis D. Spermatic cord

A. Dartos

Higher learning/ problem solving ___________ A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe E. Insula lobe

A. Frontal lobe

Creatine phosphate? A. Is used to generate ATP B. Is a waste product of ATP breakdown C. Only needed during aerobic (with oxygen) exercise D. binds to calmodulin

A. Is used to generate ATP Creatine phosphate is used to generate ATP (adenosine triphosphate) in muscle cells. During intense exercise or physical activity, the demand for ATP in the muscle cells increases rapidly. Creatine phosphate, which is stored in the muscle cells, can quickly donate a phosphate group to ADP (adenosine diphosphate) to produce ATP, which can be used for muscle contraction. This process is called the creatine phosphate shuttle, and it provides a rapid source of ATP for short bursts of high-intensity exercise.

When your pupils constrict this is most likely due to neurons located in the? A. Oculomotor nerve B Trigeminal nerve C. Optic nerve D. Olfactory nerve

A. Oculomotor nerve

At your house on Thanksgiving you begin to salivate, this is due to which? A. Olfactory nerve B. Cranial nerve V (5) C. Facial nerve (CN 7) D. Phrenic Nerve E. None of the above

A. Olfactory nerve The sensation of salivating on Thanksgiving is likely due to the olfactory nerve, as the smell of food can trigger this response.

If you are startled by a very loud noise the nuclei that created this reaction are contained in the? A. Superior colliculi B. Hypothalamus C. Septum pellucidum D. Corpus Callosum E. None of the above

A. Superior colliculi

The trophoblast is part of what structure? A. The blastocyst B. The morula C. The zygote D. The embryo E. None of the above

A. The blastocyst

Days 1-5 of the ovarian cycle is when menstrual flow begins? A. True B. False

A. True

The Hypothalamus is connected to the posterior pituitary by a stalk of axons called the infundibulum? A. True B. False

A. True

The incidence of testicular cancer is increased if the male has cryptorchidism? A. True B. False

A. True

Hormones are chemical messengers that have longer lasting effects than the nervous system? A. True B. False

A. True.

Cross bridge formation is? A. binding of myosin head to actin B. binding of actin head to myosin C. is acetylcholine crossing synpatic cleft to sarcolemma D. none of the above

A. binding of myosin head to actin Cross-bridge formation is the binding of the myosin head to actin in the sarcomere of a muscle fiber. The myosin head contains ATPase activity, which hydrolyzes ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate, releasing energy that is used to create a conformational change in the myosin head. This change allows the myosin head to bind to the active site on actin, forming a cross-bridge between the two filaments. The binding of the myosin head to actin is a critical step in the mechanism of muscle contraction, as it allows the myosin filament to pull the actin filament toward the center of the sarcomere, shortening the muscle fiber and generating force.

Neuromuscular junction _____ A. diffuse junctions B. dense bodies C. caveolae D. calmodulin

A. diffuse junctions

Testicular cancer is the most common cancer of men over 35? A. true B. false

A. false (prostate cancer is more common in men over 35)

Semen consists of ONLY sperm? A. true B. false

A. false (semen consists of sperm and various fluids from the male reproductive glands)

The corona radiata is the remnants of the ruptured follicle in a female? A. true B. false

A. false (the corona radiata is a layer of cells surrounding the oocyte in the ovarian follicle)

PTH? A. increases blood calcium levels B. decreases blood calcium levels C. is stimulated by ACTH D. None of the above

A. increases blood calcium levels.

Uptake of glucose into a cell is stimulated by? A. insulin B. glucagon C. TH/thyroid hormone D. PTH

A. insulin stimulates the uptake of glucose into a cell.

Gonorrhea? A. is a bacterial infection B. is marked by a chancre C. is caused by HPV - human papilloma D. initially have flu-like symptoms

A. is a bacterial infection

The bulbourethral glands? A. produce pre-ejaculatory fluid B. are located within the epididymis C. are the location of spermatogenesis D. are found in the ovaries

A. produce pre-ejaculatory fluid.

A concentric muscle contraction? A. shortens as it contracts B. lengthens as it contracts C. neither shortens or lengthens D. none of the above

A. shortens as it contracts A concentric muscle contraction is a type of isotonic contraction in which the muscle shortens as it contracts against a load or resistance. During a concentric contraction, the tension generated by the muscle is greater than the load or resistance, and the muscle shortens to move the load or resistance. This type of contraction is responsible for many types of movements, such as lifting a weight or performing a bicep curl.

The female homologue of the male penis is? A. the clitoris B. the ovary C. the vagina D. the uterus

A. the clitoris

Uterine contractions during child birth are initiated/stimulated by hormones from? A. the pituitary gland B. the ovaries C. the adrenal glands D. all of the above

A. the pituitary gland

Approximately day 14 of the ovarian cycle is when the oocyte/ova is released from the ovary? A. true B. false

A. true

Kleinfelter's syndrome will result in the zygote containing an XXY 23rd chromsome? A. true B. false

A. true

Menarche is the 1st menstrual cycle? A. true B. false

A. true

A slightly movable articulation is called? A) Synarthrosis B) Amphiarthrosis C) Diarthrosis D) None of the above

B) Amphiarthrosis

The PTH hormone results in? A) Calcium being deposited in bone, thus lowering blood calcium levels B) Calcium being removed from bone, thus raising blood calcium levels C) Calcium being moved from one bone to another bone D) Endochondral ossification

B) Calcium being removed from bone, thus raising blood calcium levels. The parathyroid hormone (PTH) is a hormone secreted by the parathyroid glands in response to low levels of calcium in the blood. PTH acts on the bones, kidneys, and intestines to increase the level of calcium in the blood. In bones, PTH stimulates osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue and release calcium into the blood. This process is known as bone resorption and results in the release of calcium from bone into the bloodstream, thus raising blood calcium levels.

Hydroxyapatite is primarily? A) Collagen B) Calcium phosphates C) Osteoid D) Bone cells (osteoclasts, osteoblasts, osteocytes)

B) Calcium phosphates. Hydroxyapatite is a mineral compound that makes up the inorganic component of bone tissue. It is composed primarily of calcium and phosphate ions arranged in a crystalline structure, which gives bone its strength and hardness. Collagen, on the other hand, is the most abundant protein in bone tissue and forms the organic component of bone. Osteoid is the unmineralized organic matrix that is secreted by osteoblasts and forms the initial framework for bone formation. Bone cells (osteoclasts, osteoblasts, and osteocytes) are specialized cells that play specific roles in bone remodeling and maintenance.

The joints between the sternum and ribs are an example of? A) Fibrous B) Cartilaginous C) Synovial D) None of the above

B) Cartilaginous

A sprain is? A) Damage to a tendon B) Damage to a ligament C) Damage to a bursa sac D) When the 2 articulating surfaces at a joint are forced out of alignment

B) Damage to a ligament.

Elastic cartilage can be found in the? A) Fetal skeleton B) External ear C) Menisci of the knee D) Ribs

B) External ear. Elastic cartilage is a type of cartilage that contains elastic fibers and is able to recoil to its original shape after being bent or compressed. It is found in areas of the body that require flexibility and resilience, such as the external ear, epiglottis, and larynx.

A bundle of muscle cells is called? A) tendon B) fascicle C) endomysium D) aponeurosis

B) Fascicle A bundle of muscle cells is called a fascicle. Fascicles are groups of muscle fibers that are surrounded by connective tissue and work together to produce muscle movement

A neutron? A) Has no weight B) Has no charge C) Can be determined by the atomic number D) Are the stable subatomic particles within isotopes

B) Has no charge. A neutron is a subatomic particle that is found in the nucleus of an atom. It has a mass of approximately 1 atomic mass unit and a charge of 0, which means that it is electrically neutral. The number of neutrons in an atom can vary, resulting in different isotopes of the same element.

Regarding synovial joints, the articular bones are covered with __ cartilage? A) Appositional B) Hyaline C) Fibro D) Elastic

B) Hyaline Regarding synovial joints, the articular bones are covered with Hyaline cartilage.

Perichondrium? A) is avascular (contains no blood vessels) B) Is tissue surrounding or around cartilage C) Contains little or no water D) Resists inward expansion

B) Is tissue surrounding or around cartilage. The perichondrium is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds cartilage and provides support and nourishment to the cartilage cells, or chondrocytes. It is composed of two layers, an outer fibrous layer and an inner cellular layer. The fibrous layer consists of dense irregular connective tissue, while the cellular layer contains chondroblasts, which are cells that produce and maintain the cartilage matrix. The perichondrium is important for the growth and repair of cartilage and also helps to resist outward expansion of the cartilage during compressionterm-13

The following is true concerning Troponin EXCEPT? A) It is found in cardiac muscle B) It is found in smooth muscle C) blocks the active binding sites on Actin D) Is a protein

B) It is found in smooth muscle Troponin is a regulatory protein that is found in both skeletal and cardiac muscle fibers. It is not found in smooth muscle fibers, which use a different regulatory protein called calponin. Troponin is composed of three subunits, TnC, TnI, and TnT, and it plays a critical role in regulating muscle contraction by binding to calcium ions and allowing the interaction between actin and myosin filaments. Troponin does not block the active binding sites on actin; rather, it helps to expose them by undergoing a conformational change in the presence of calcium ions.

A sex-linked disorder? A. Is due to the 'Y' chromosome not containing genetic information to offset the "X" chromosome B. Only presents itself in males C. Occurs on the 23rd chromosome D. All of the above.

B. Only presents itself in males.

An isotope would have differing amounts of? A) Protons B) Neutrons C) Electrons D) None of the above

B) Neutrons. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons. Since the atomic number of an element is equal to the number of protons in the nucleus, isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number. However, since the number of neutrons can vary among isotopes of the same element, isotopes have different atomic masses.

The epiphyseal line is? A) Where the compact bone meet the spongy bone B) Remnant of childhood bone growth plate C) Where the trabeculae meets the lamellae D) Where the intramembranous ossification center meets the endochondral ossification center

B) Remnant of childhood bone growth plate. The epiphyseal line, also known as the epiphyseal scar, is a thin, smooth line of hyaline cartilage that is left behind after the epiphyseal plate (growth plate) has ossified and bone growth has stopped. The epiphyseal plate is a layer of hyaline cartilage located near the ends of long bones that allows for longitudinal bone growth during childhood and adolescence. As the bones reach their adult size and shape, the epiphyseal plate is replaced by the epiphyseal line, which marks the boundary between the epiphysis (the end of the bone) and the diaphysis (the shaft of the bone).

With endochondral ossification, the primary ossification center FIRST appears in? A) The epiphysis B) The diaphysis C) The metaphysis D) Simultaneously at the diaphysis and epiphysis

B) The diaphysis. In endochondral ossification, bone tissue replaces hyaline cartilage to form the long bones of the body. The process begins with the formation of a cartilage model, which is gradually replaced by bone tissue. The primary ossification center is the first site where bone tissue begins to replace cartilage. In long bones, the primary ossification center first appears in the diaphysis (shaft) of the bone. Here, blood vessels invade the cartilage model and stimulate the formation of osteoblasts, which are bone-forming cells. The osteoblasts then begin to lay down bone matrix and form spongy bone tissue. As the spongy bone grows, the surrounding cartilage is gradually replaced, and the bone tissue spreads towards the ends of the bone.

Anaerobic respiration requires? A) oxygen B) glucose C) creatine phosphate D) lactic acid

B) glucose Anaerobic respiration does not require oxygen, but it does require glucose. Anaerobic respiration is a metabolic process that occurs in the absence of oxygen and is used by cells to produce ATP when oxygen is not available in sufficient quantities to support aerobic respiration. During anaerobic respiration, glucose is broken down into pyruvate through glycolysis, which generates a small amount of ATP. In the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is converted into lactate or lactic acid, which accumulates in the muscles and can cause fatigue and muscle pain. Creatine phosphate is another energy source used by muscle cells, but it is not involved in anaerobic respiration

The spinal cord is ________ to the brain A) superior B) inferior C) proximal D) distal E) medial

B) inferior

The origin? A) is always proximal B) is the attachment to the least movable bone at the joint C) Is the attachment to the more movable bone at the joint D) Is an aponeurosis

B) is the attachment to the least movable bone at the joint The origin of a muscle is the attachment point that is relatively fixed and does not move during contraction. It is typically the attachment to the bone that is less movable or more stable at the joint.

A motor neuron and all of the skeletal muscle it stimulates is called? A) depolarization B) motor unit C) sodium/potassium pump D) threshold E) siding-filament theory

B) motor unit A motor neuron and all of the skeletal muscle fibers it stimulates is called a motor unit. When a motor neuron fires an action potential, all of the muscle fibers in the motor unit contract simultaneously.

A muscle cell is a? A) myofilament B) myofiber C) fascicle D) sarcomere

B) myofiber A muscle cell is referred to as a myofiber, which is a single, multinucleated cell that contains many myofibrils.

The connective tissue unsheathing (surrounding) a bundle of muscle cells? A) endomysium B) perimysium C) epimysium D) tendon

B) perimysium The connective tissue unsheathing a bundle of muscle cells is called the perimysium. The perimysium is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds fascicles, which are bundles of muscle fibers

This tissue is under voluntary control? A) cardiac muscle B) Skeletal muscle C) smooth muscle D) none of the above

B) skeletal muscle The tissue that is under voluntary control is skeletal muscle. Skeletal muscle is attached to the bones and is responsible for producing movement of the body. It is under voluntary control, meaning that it can be consciously activated and controlled by the nervous system

The 'A' band is? A) the light band in relaxed muscle B) the dark band in relaxed muscle C) contains ONLY myosin D) contains ONLY actin

B) the dark band in relaxed muscle The 'A' band is the dark band in relaxed muscle that contains overlapping thick and thin filaments (myosin and actin, respectively). The 'A' band does not change length during muscle contraction and remains the same width. The 'I' band is the light band in relaxed muscle that contains only thin filaments (actin). During muscle contraction, the 'I' band narrows as the thin filaments are pulled towards the center of the sarcomere by the thick filaments in the 'A' band, causing the 'A' band to appear wider

A T-tubule is? A) where Calcium is stored in the skeletal muscle B) where the sarcolemma invaginates (enters) the muscle cell C) the sarcomere D) the terminal cisternae and sarcolemma combined

B) where the sarcolemma invaginates (enters) the muscle cell A T-tubule, also known as a transverse tubule, is a structure in skeletal muscle fibers that plays an important role in the transmission of electrical impulses during muscle contraction. The T-tubule is a deep invagination of the sarcolemma, or muscle cell membrane, that penetrates deep into the muscle fiber and runs perpendicular to the myofibrils. This allows the T-tubules to come into close contact with the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which is a specialized endoplasmic reticulum that stores and releases calcium ions for muscle contraction

Primary somato sensory cortex _______ A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe E. Insula lobe

B. Parietal lobe

Blood flow to the penis during erection? A. is dependent upon sympathetic nervous system B. dependent upon parasympathetic nervous system C. just happens D. is dependent upon the levels of FSH and LH

B. dependent upon parasympathetic nervous system

Acetylcholine? A) will promote calcium release B) will open voltage-gated sodium channels in sarcolemma C) will close voltage-gated sodium channels in the sarcolemma D) will cause myosin head to release from actin binding sites.

B) will open voltage-gated sodium channels in sarcolemma Acetylcholine (ACh) will open voltage-gated sodium channels in the sarcolemma of muscle fibers. When ACh is released from the axon terminal of a motor neuron at the neuromuscular junction, it binds to receptor sites on the motor endplate of the muscle fiber, causing the opening of ion channels in the sarcolemma. Specifically, ACh binding causes the opening of ligand-gated sodium channels, allowing sodium ions to rush into the muscle fiber and depolarize the cell membrane. This depolarization initiates an action potential that spreads across the muscle fiber and leads to the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which then initiates muscle contraction

Aerobic respiration yields? A. 2 net ATP B. 32 net ATP C. 320 net ATP D. none of the above

B. 32 net ATP Aerobic respiration yields a net of 32 ATP molecules. Aerobic respiration is a metabolic process that occurs in the presence of oxygen, and it involves the breakdown of glucose and other molecules to generate ATP. The process consists of three stages: glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain. During the electron transport chain, the majority of ATP molecules are produced, and the net yield of ATP from one molecule of glucose is 32

A zygote is formed? A. At birth B. At fertilization C. At ovulation D. At puberty

B. At fertilization

Axillary nerve ______________ A. Cervical plexus B. Brachial plexus C. Lumbar plexus D. sacral plexus

B. Brachial plexus

Median nerve ___________ A. Cervical plexus B. Brachial plexus C. Lumbar plexus D. sacral plexus

B. Brachial plexus

Radial nerve________ A. Cervical plexus B. Brachial plexus C. Lumbar plexus D. sacral plexus

B. Brachial plexus

The 3rd ventricle connects to 4th ventricle via the? A. Lateral ventricle B. Cerebral aqueduct C. Central canal D. Septum pellucidum

B. Cerebral aqueduct

When the kidneys are filtering blood the NaCl (salt) is monitored, this is done so by? A. Nociceptors B. Chemoreceptors C. Mechanoreceptors D. proprioceptors

B. Chemoreceptors.

An astrocyte? A. Acts like a macrophage and helps in immunity B. Connects neurons to capillaries C. Lines cavities/ventricles in CNS D. None of the above

B. Connects neurons to capillaries. Astrocytes are star-shaped cells found in the central nervous system (CNS). They provide structural and metabolic support to neurons and other cells in the CNS. Astrocytes are the most abundant type of glial cell in the brain and play a critical role in maintaining the blood-brain barrier and regulating neurotransmitter levels.

The hypothalamus? A. Is a relay station for sensation, filtering away excess stimuli B. Controls most endocrine functions C. Subconsciously refines and coordinates skeletal muscle contractions D. Is responsible for problem solving

B. Controls most endocrine functions. The hypothalamus is a region of the brain that plays a key role in regulating many of the body's basic functions, including control of the autonomic nervous system, body temperature, hunger, thirst, and sleep. It is also the main control center for the endocrine system, which regulates hormone production and release throughout the body.

When Dr. Angelone began his lecture last week in his boring monotone voice, you noticed yourself getting tired, your heart rate slowed and breathing diminished, this is most likely due to stimulation by the? A. Cranial nerve five (V) B. Cranial nerve ten (X) C. Phrenic nerve D. Cranial Nerve seven (VII)

B. Cranial nerve ten (X)

Glycolysis? A. NEEDS oxygen to occur B. Creates lactic acid as an end product C. Usually takes 10-15 minutes of muscle contraction before it begins D. uses creatine phosphate to fuel the process

B. Creates lactic acid as an end product Glycolysis is the metabolic process that breaks down glucose into pyruvate to generate ATP. Glycolysis can occur in the absence of oxygen (anaerobic) or in the presence of oxygen (aerobic). During anaerobic glycolysis, pyruvate is converted to lactate, which can lead to the accumulation of lactic acid in the muscle tissue.

Parkinson's disease is? A. Degeneration of the gyri B. Degeneration of the substantia nigra C. Degeneration of the spinal cord D. Degeneration of the cerebellum

B. Degeneration of the substantia nigra

A secretion by the adrenal medulla would be? A. cortisone B. epinephrine C. aldosterone D. DHEA

B. Epinephrine.

There are a total of 86 peripheral nerves (cranial and spinal nerves combined)? A. True B. False

B. False. There are a total of 43 pairs of peripheral nerves (12 cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves).

Melatonin? A. Is produced by the hypothalamus B. Helps to induce sleep C. Is a neurotransmitter, not a hormone D. Helps make our skin tan

B. Helps to induce sleep

Main visceral control center of the body _______ A. Corpora Quadrigemina B. Hypothalamus C. Thalamus D. Medulla oblongotta E. Limbic system

B. Hypothalamus

Regulates endocrine functions _____ A. Corpora Quadrigemina B. Hypothalamus C. Thalamus D. Medulla oblongotta E. Limbic system

B. Hypothalamus

Depolarization results in? A. Inner cell membrane becoming more negative B. Inner cell membrane becoming less negative C. outside of cell becoming more negative D. inside of cell becoming less negative

B. Inner cell membrane becoming less negative Depolarization results in the inner cell membrane becoming less negative. Depolarization is a change in the electrical potential of a cell membrane that results in the inside of the cell becoming less negative relative to the outside. In muscle cells, depolarization occurs when acetylcholine released by a motor neuron binds to receptors on the muscle cell membrane, causing the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels. Sodium ions then enter the cell, depolarizing the membrane and triggering an action potential that spreads along the membrane and initiates muscle contraction.

A plexus? A. Is formed from fibers from the dorsal ramus B. Is formed from fibers from the ventral ramus C. Is formed from dorsal and ventral ramus fibers D. Contains only sensory afferents

B. Is formed from fibers from the ventral ramus

The first step in the generation of an action potential is? A. binding of acetylcholine to receptors on sarcolemma B. entrance of Na+ into muscle cell C. exit of K+ out of the muscle cell D. terminal cisterns releasing of calcium

B. entrance of Na+ into muscle cell is the first step in the generation of an action potential. The entry of Na+ results in depolarization of the sarcolemma, which triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and ultimately leads to muscle contraction.

DHEA is produce by the Thyroid gland? A. true B. false

B. false

Grave's disease is a condition due to underproduction of TH/ thyroid hormone? A. true B. false

B. false

Genital warts? A. are bacterial infections B. may increase the chance of cervical cancer C. is treatable with antibiotics D. is causes by herpes simplex virus 2

B. may increase the chance of cervical cancer

Hormones are lipids only? A. True B. False

B.False. Hormones can be lipids, but they can also be proteins or amino acid derivatives.

The gleno-humeral/shoulder joint is an example of? A) Hinge B) Condyloid C) Ball & socket D) Saddle

C) Ball & socket

The 3 types of cartilage are? A) Endochondral, hyaline and elastic B) Hyaline, elastic and spongy C) Hyaline, elastic and fibro D) Compact, hyaline and elastic

C) Hyaline, elastic, and fibro. The three types of cartilage are: Hyaline cartilage: This is the most common type of cartilage and is found in the ribs, nose, larynx, trachea, and bronchi. It provides support and flexibility to the body and reduces friction between bones. Elastic cartilage: This type of cartilage is found in the ear, epiglottis, and larynx. It is more flexible than hyaline cartilage and is able to withstand repeated bending and stretching. Fibrocartilage: This is the toughest and strongest type of cartilage and is found in the intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, and menisci of the knee. It is able to resist compression and absorb shock.

An immature bone cell is called? A) Osteocyte B) Osteogenic cell C) Osteoblast D) Osteoclast

C) Osteoblast An immature bone cell is called an osteoblast.

The rotator cuff is an example of? A) Extracapsular ligaments B) Intracapsular ligaments C) Reinforcing muscle tendons D) None of the above

C) Reinforcing muscle tendons. The rotator cuff is a group of muscles and their tendons that surround the shoulder joint and help stabilize and move the shoulder.

The valence shell is? A) The electron shell nearest the nucleus B) The 2nd electron shell C) The atoms outermost energy level containing electrons that are chemically reactive D) None of the above

C) The atom's outermost energy level containing electrons that are chemically reactive. The valence shell is the outermost electron shell of an atom, and it contains the electrons that are involved in chemical bonding and chemical reactions.

The portion of a muscle cell that stores calcium is called? A) T-tubule B) sarcomere C) terminal cisternae D) glycosome E) none of the above

C) terminal cisternae The portion of a muscle cell that stores calcium is called the sarcoplasmic reticulum, specifically the terminal cisternae. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a specialized type of endoplasmic reticulum that is involved in regulating calcium ion concentrations in muscle cells. The terminal cisternae are dilated portions of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that are in close proximity to the T-tubules, which are invaginations of the sarcolemma

An isotonic contraction? A. A muscle needs only glycogen to contract B. A muscle neither shortens or lengthens as it contracts C. A muscle may shorten or lengthen as it contracts D. none of the above

C. A muscle may shorten or lengthen as it contracts An isotonic contraction is a type of muscle contraction in which the muscle changes length as it contracts against a constant load or resistance. During an isotonic contraction, the tension generated by the muscle remains constant, but the length of the muscle changes as it shortens (concentric contraction) or lengthens (eccentric contraction) to move the load or resistance. This type of contraction is responsible for movement of the body or limbs and requires energy in the form of ATP, which can be generated from glycogen and other energy sources in the muscle

An isometric contraction? A. A muscle shortens as it contracts B. A muscle lengthens as it contracts C. A muscle neither shortens or lengthens as it contracts D. all of the above

C. A muscle neither shortens or lengthens as it contracts An isotonic contraction is a type of muscle contraction in which the muscle changes length as it contracts against a constant load or resistance. During an isotonic contraction, the tension generated by the muscle remains constant, but the length of the muscle changes as it shortens (concentric contraction) or lengthens (eccentric contraction) to move the load or resistance. This type of contraction is responsible for movement of the body or limbs and requires energy in the form of ATP, which can be generated from glycogen and other energy sources in the muscle

Alzheimer's disease? A. Is degeneration of the myelin B. Degeneration of the substantia nigra C. Degeneration of the gyri D. Degeneration of the basal nuclei

C. Degeneration of the gyri

Glycolytic fibers? A. Function only when oxygen is present B. Function only when creatine phosphate is present C. Do not need oxygen present to function D. none of the above

C. Do not need oxygen present to function Glycolytic fibers are specialized muscle fibers that primarily rely on glycolysis, which is the breakdown of glucose to produce energy in the form of ATP. Glycolytic fibers are also known as fast-twitch fibers, and they are used for powerful, fast, and explosive movements. These fibers are designed to produce energy quickly, without the need for oxygen or sustained endurance.

53. Released by adenohypophysis ______ A. Glucagon B. Insulin C. FSH D. oxytocin E. aldosterone

C. FSH

A goiter is due to a lack of? A. TSH B. PTH- parathyroid hormone C. Iodine D. insulin

C. Iodine. A goiter is an enlargement of the thyroid gland and can be caused by iodine deficiency, which is required for the production of thyroid hormones.

Peristalsis? A. Occurs when skeletal muscles shorten B. Is the term for a smooth muscle action potential C. Is the alternate contractions of the smooth and longitudinal muscles within smooth muscle D. Is the area of smooth muscle that stores calcium

C. Is the alternate contractions of the smooth and longitudinal muscles within smooth muscle Peristalsis is a coordinated, rhythmic contraction and relaxation of smooth muscle in the walls of various organs, such as the digestive tract, uterus, and ureters. The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in these organs helps to propel materials through the lumen or cavity of the organ

Hemiplegia is? A. Paralysis of all 4 limbs B. Paralysis of the lower extremities C. Paralysis of one side of the body D. Loss of motor function due to damage to ventral horn or ventral root

C. Paralysis of one side of the body

Which of the following produces sperm? A. seminal glands B. corpus luteum C. seminiferous tubules D. interstitial cells (of leydig)

C. Seminiferous tubules.

Relay station for sensation ________ A. Corpora Quadrigemina B. Hypothalamus C. Thalamus D. Medulla oblongotta E. Limbic system

C. Thalamus

The prostate gland? A. has no function B. encircles the spongy urethra C. adds fluid which help activate the sperm D. none of the above

C. adds fluid which help activate the sperm

Long time aerobic exercise regimens will result in all of the following EXCEPT? A. more capillaries surrounding muscle fibers B. more mitochondria in muscle cells C. increased size and strength of existing muscle cells D. more myoglobin

C. increased size and strength of existing muscle cells. Explanation: Long-term aerobic exercise regimens typically result in several adaptations within the muscle tissue, including increased numbers of capillaries surrounding muscle fibers, increased numbers of mitochondria in muscle cells, and increased amounts of myoglobin. However, these types of exercises typically do not result in significant increases in the size and strength of existing muscle cells. Instead, they tend to promote leaner muscle tissue and improved endurance. To achieve significant increases in muscle size and strength, resistance training exercises are generally required.

When calcium is present in a sarcomere? A. myosin will bind to it B. actin will bind to it C. troponin will bind to it D. titin will bind to it

C. troponin will bind to it When calcium is present in a sarcomere, troponin will bind to it. Troponin is a regulatory protein that is found on the actin filament in the sarcomere of a muscle fiber. When calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and bind to troponin, it undergoes a conformational change that causes it to move tropomyosin out of the way, exposing the active binding sites on actin. Myosin heads can then bind to the exposed sites on actin and initiate muscle contraction.

A proton or Hydrogen donor _______ A) Cation B) Anion C) Isotope D) Acid E) Base

D) Acid

Endochondral ossification? A) Occurs in the fetal skeleton B) Occurs at the metaphysis C) Is involved in all bones except the skull and clavicles D) All of the above

D) All of the above. Endochondral ossification is a process of bone development that occurs in the fetal skeleton and involves the transformation of cartilage into bone tissue. It also occurs in the growing ends of long bones at the metaphysis, where cartilage is gradually replaced by bone tissue as the bone lengthens. This process is responsible for the growth and development of most bones in the body, with the exception of the bones of the skull and clavicles, which develop through a different process called intramembranous ossification.

Haversian canals? A) Run down the center of an osteon B) Contain blood vessels and nerves C) Are also called central canals D) All of the above

D) All of the above. Haversian canals, also known as central canals, are channels that run through the center of osteons, which are the basic structural units of compact bone. These canals contain blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerves that supply the osteocytes (mature bone cells) within the osteon with nutrients and oxygen, and also remove waste products. In compact bone, osteocytes are arranged in concentric circles around the Haversian canals. These concentric circles of osteocytes and their surrounding matrix are known as lamellae. Between the lamellae are small channels called canaliculi, which allow for communication and nutrient exchange between the osteocytes and the Haversian canal.

Homeostasis is? A) A dynamic state of equilibrium B) When the body's needs are adequately met and it is functioning smoothly C) The body's ability to maintain relatively stable internal conditions D) All of the above

D) All of the above. Homeostasis is a fundamental concept in physiology that refers to the body's ability to maintain relatively stable internal conditions, even in the face of external changes.

Sheet like connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone or another muscle? A. tendon B. ligament C. perimysium D. aponeurosis

D) aponeurosis The sheet-like connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone or another muscle is called an aponeurosis. An aponeurosis is a broad, flat tendon that connects muscles to other muscles or to bones

18. The popliteal region is _____ to the patellar region A) superficial B) deep C) anterior D) posterior E) lateral

D) posterior

A mixed nerve? A. Contains autonomic nerve fibers B. Contains sensory nerves fibers C. Contains motor nerves fibers D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The filum terminale? A. Consists solely of pia mater B. Begins at the distal portion of the spinal cord/conus medullaris C. Attaches to the coccyx bone D. All of the above

D. All of the above The filum terminale consists solely of pia mater, begins at the distal portion of the spinal cord/conus medullaris, and attaches to the coccyx bone.

Threshold is? A. The self-propagation of the depolarization wave B. Due to the influx of Na+ ions C. Occurs without the assistance of a ligand (stimulus) D. All of the above

D. All of the above Threshold refers to the membrane potential at which an action potential is triggered. It is usually defined as the membrane potential at which the depolarization caused by the incoming signal (i.e. neurotransmitter release, sensory stimulation) reaches a critical level, leading to the opening of voltage-gated ion channels and the initiation of an action potential.

Decussation of the pyramids _______ A. Corpora Quadrigemina B. Hypothalamus C. Thalamus D. Medulla oblongotta E. Limbic system

D. Medulla oblongotta

54. Released by neurohypophysis _____ A. Glucagon B. Insulin C. FSH D. oxytocin E. aldosterone

D. Oxytocin

A person who suffers a severe car accident and loses the ability to breathe on their own have damage to the ____ nerve? A. Radial B. Vagus C. Facial D. Phrenic

D. Phrenic. The phrenic nerve controls the diaphragm, the primary muscle responsible for breathing. Damage to the phrenic nerve can result in paralysis of the diaphragm and difficulty breathing

Sensory for hearing __________ A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe E. Insula lobe

D. Temporal lobe

A tumor in the thyroid gland may result in? A. excessive weight loss B. increased Na+ retention C. milk production in females D. all of the above

D. all of the above

The site where an ectopic pregnancy would occur is? A. uterine tube B. the peritoneal cavity C. the vagina D. all of the above

D. all of the above An ectopic pregnancy is a pregnancy that occurs outside of the uterus. The most common site for an ectopic pregnancy is the uterine tube, although it can occur in other locations such as the peritoneal cavity or ovary.

A gamete A. is produced when a sex cell undergoes mitosis B. is created during spermatogenesis and oogenesis C. has a nucleus with 22 autosomal pairs and a pair of sex chromosomes D. is the 1 celled structure created when a sperm fertilizes an egg

D. is the 1 celled structure created when a sperm fertilizes an egg

Yesterday at the family picnic you imbibe (drink) 10 beers and notice afterward a huge amount of urine volume, this is most likely the result of? A. excessive ADH hormone produced B. excessive amount of aldosterone produced C. excessive amount of growth hormone produced D. none of the above

D. none of the above. Drinking alcohol inhibits the production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is responsible for water reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to an increased urine output.

The sympathetic nervous system? A. Increases digestive processes B. Slows heart rate C. Would slow breath rate D. none of the above

D. none of the above. The sympathetic nervous system is known for its fight or flight response, which includes increased heart rate, increased respiration, and decreased digestive processes.

The mons pubis? A. is also called the 'man in the boat' B. is part of the internal genitalia C. may have the hymen covering it in the young D. overlies the pubic symphysis E. none of the above

D. overlies the pubic symphysis

Repolarization is established (occurs) because? A. sodium channels open B. sodium channels close C. calcium channels open D. potassium channels close

D. potassium channels close Repolarization is established (occurs) because potassium channels close. Repolarization is the phase of the action potential in which the membrane potential of a cell returns to its resting state after depolarization. During repolarization, the voltage-gated potassium channels open, allowing potassium ions to move out of the cell, which makes the inside of the cell more negative and reduces the membrane potential towards its resting potential. Once the membrane potential has returned to its resting state, the voltage-gated potassium channels close, and the cell is ready for another action potential.

Type 2 diabetes? A. will be OK after the mother gives birth B. diagnosed when a person is in there 20's C. may be controlled by diet and exercise D. will display lower than normal blood glucose levels.

D. will display lower than normal blood glucose levels. Type 2 diabetes is a condition where the body becomes resistant to insulin or doesn't produce enough insulin, resulting in high blood glucose levels. It can be managed with lifestyle changes such as diet and exercise, but often requires medication as well. It can be diagnosed at any age, but is more common in adults over 40, and sometimes referred to as adult-onset diabetes.

The heart is _______ to the lungs A) superior B) inferior C) proximal D) distal E) medial

E) medial

The sternum is _______ to the mammary? A) superior B) inferior C) proximal D) distal E) medial

E) medial

The contractile unit of a muscle cell is called a? A) sarcoplasm B) sarcolemma C) sarcoplasmic reticulum D) terminal cistern E) none of the above

E) none of the above The contractile unit of a muscle cell is called a sarcomere. Sarcomeres are the basic units of muscle contraction and are composed of actin and myosin filaments.

55. Released by adrenal cortex _______ A. Glucagon B. Insulin C. FSH D. oxytocin E. aldosterone

E. Aldosterone

The following may increase the chance of developing breast cancer in a female? A. BRCA gene marker present B. Early menarche C. Late menopause D. No children E. All of the above

E. All of the above

Sensory for taste ___________ A. Frontal lobe B. Parietal lobe C. Occipital lobe D. Temporal lobe E. Insula lobe

E. Insula lobe

Emotional brain _______ A. Corpora Quadrigemina B. Hypothalamus C. Thalamus D. Medulla oblongotta E. Limbic system

E. Limbic system

ACTH would increase the release of? A. insulin B. glucagon C. TH/ thyroid hormone D. PTH E. aldosterone

E. aldosterone.

An example of a tropic hormone is? A. LH B. GH C. oxytocin D. prolactin E. all of the above

E. all of the above

Excitation-coupling? A. needs transmission of an action potential B. is sliding of myofilaments C. needs calcium to occur D. all of the above

Excitation-contraction coupling is a process that involves the transmission of an action potential along the sarcolemma of a muscle fiber and the subsequent release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which triggers muscle contraction. Therefore, excitation-contraction coupling requires the transmission of an action potential, as well as the presence of calcium ions. The sliding of myofilaments refers to the mechanism by which actin and myosin filaments interact to generate force and produce muscle contraction, but it is not a part of the excitation-contraction coupling process itself. Therefore, the correct answer is A, "needs transmission of an action potential" and C, "needs calcium to occur."

57. A Nissl body creates fats within the neuron cell body? A. True B. False

False

Afferents for touch/pressure are received by the nuclei in the dorsal root ganglia? A. True B. False

False

Multiple sclerosis is a disease that attacks the precentral gyrus of the brain? A. True B. False

False

Saturday night palsy results from compression of the cervical plexus? A. True B. False

False

The central sulcus separates the temporal from the parietal lobe? A. True B. False

False

The cerebral cortex consists mainly of neuron cell bodies? A. true B. false

False

The spinal cord begins at the foramen magnum level and end at the conus medullaris roughly the 2nd lumbar level? A. true B. false

False

The transverse fissure separates the left and right cerebral hemispheres? A. true B. false

False

There are several axons per neuron and ONLY 1 dendrite? A. True B. False

False

A neuron is the same structure as a nerve? A. True B. False

False - A neuron is a single specialized cell that conducts nerve impulses, while a nerve is a bundle of axons (nerve fibers) and associated connective tissue that extends from the CNS to peripheral tissues

Muscle fatigue is a state physiological inability of a muscle to contract even though the muscle still may be receiving stimuli? A. true B. false

False. Muscle fatigue is a state of physiological inability of a muscle to contract efficiently or effectively. It is caused by a variety of factors, including the accumulation of metabolic waste products, depletion of energy stores, and disruptions in the release of calcium ions. When a muscle is fatigued, it may still be able to contract, but its force output will be reduced.

Smooth muscle cells are long, non-striated and multinucleate? A. true B. false

False. Smooth muscle cells are long and spindle-shaped, but they are non-striated (meaning they lack the regular banding pattern of skeletal and cardiac muscle fibers) and have a single nucleus.

A ropelike portion of collagen fibers at either end of a skeletal muscle is called a ligament? A. True B. False

False. A ligament is a fibrous band of connective tissue that attaches bone to bone, while a ropelike portion of collagen fibers at either end of a skeletal muscle is called a tendon.

At rest the sarcomeres light band contains only the thick filaments? A. True B. False

False. At rest, the sarcomeres light band contains only the thin filaments. The dark band contains both thick and thin filaments.

The triad consists of the 2 sarcolemma and the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum? A. True B. False

False. The triad consists of a T-tubule and two terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. The T-tubule is a deep invagination of the sarcolemma that allows the action potential to penetrate deep into the muscle fiber, while the terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum are specialized regions that store and release calcium ions.

Intramembranous ossification occurs in the fetus and involves replacing hyaline cartilage with bone? A) True B) False

The statement is false. Intramembranous ossification is a process of bone formation in which mesenchymal (undifferentiated) cells differentiate directly into bone-forming cells and lay down bone matrix to create flat bones of the skull, mandible, and clavicles. In this process, bone tissue replaces embryonic or fibrous connective tissue, not hyaline cartilage. Endochondral ossification is a different process of bone formation that involves replacing hyaline cartilage with bone. This process occurs during fetal development and in the growth and repair of long bones in children and adolescents. Therefore, the statement is incorrect as it incorrectly describes intramembranous ossification.