APP test 3!
14. In the trunk extension test, the client shold be able to do which of the following? a. Achieve 0 to 25 degrees of extension in the lumbar spine. b. Achieve 0 to 25 degrees of extension in the thoracic spine. c. Use the abdominal muscles to achieve the movement. d. Recruit splenius capitis and cervicis to achieve the movement.
a. Achieve 0 to 25 degrees of extension in the lumbar spine.
38. Which of the following is an action of the adductor brevis? * a. Adduction of the thigh at the hip joint b. Abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint c. Abduction of the thigh at the hip joint d. Adduction of the arm at the shoulder joint
a. Adduction of the thigh at the hip joint
21. If the gluteus medius is inhibited and long, which of the following muscles would be correspondingly short? * a. Adductor magnus b. Abductor hallucis c. Popliteus d. Pronator quadratus
a. Adductor magnus
1. The limbs and their attachments make up which part of the skeleton? a. Appendicular b. Axial c. Peripheral d. Central
a. Appendicular
3. Which of the following is the connection between two or more bones that allows movement in the body? a. Articulation b. Subluxation c. Kyphosis d. Hinge
a. Articulation
33. What kind of joint is the glenohumeral joint? a. Ball-and-socket b. Hinge c. Synovial gliding d. fibrocartilaginous
a. Ball-and-socket
4. What is the term for a freely movable synovial joint? a. Diathrosis b. Synarthrosis c. Syndesmosis d. Gomphosis
a. Diathrosis
4. Which of the following primarily affects young males? * a. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy b. Fascioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy c. Dupuytren's contracture d. Volkmann's contracture
a. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
22. Which of the following describes the framework of the head? a. Eight cranial bones and fourteen facial bones b. Four cranial bones ad eight facial bones c. Twelve cranial ones and twenty facial bones d. Eight cranial bones and eight facial bones
a. Eight cranial bones and fourteen facial bones
30. Which of the following is an action of the erector spinae group? * a. Extension of the trunk, neck, and head at the spinal joints b. Extension of the arm at the shoulder joint c. Contralateral rotation of the trunk, neck, and head at the spinal joints d. Flexion of the trunk, neck, and head at the spinal joints
a. Extension of the trunk, neck, and head at the spinal joints
4. Which of the following is a smooth, flat surface on a bone? a. Facet b. Process c. Fossa d. Condyle
a. Facet
5. An articulation in which fibrous tissue connects bone directly to bone is what type of joint? a. Fibrous b. Saddle c. Diathrotic d. Hinge
a. Fibrous
43. Which of the following pairs of muscles have opposing actions on the foot at the ankle joint? a. Fibularis longus and tibialis anterior b. Fibularis longus and fibularis brevis c. Tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus d. Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus
a. Fibularis longus and tibialis anterior
22. A college football player has had multiple medial Collateral ligament sprain in his left lower limb. Although there is no injury now, it continues to bother him. Which of the following treatment plans would be the most appropriate for the massage therapist to perform? a. Friction on the medial side of the knee to create mild inflammation b. Trigger point methods in the foot and stretchng c. Compression and myofascial release at the medial malleolus d. Shaking and rocking of the knee, with friction at the patella tendon
a. Friction on the medial side of the knee to create mild inflammation
8. Which of the following joints allows only a sliding motion in various planes? a. Gliding b. Saddle c. Vertebral d. Synovial
a. Gliding
7. What is an exaggeration of the thoracic curve? a. Hyperkyphosis b. Scoliosis c. Hyperlordosis d. Trichinosis
a. Hyperkyphosis
4. What is the term for an integrated functional unit made up of the myofascial, articular, and nervous systems? a. Kinetic chain b. Kinesiology c. Muscle firing pattern d. Motor unit
a. Kinetic chain
37. Repetitive extension of the wrist or pronation and supination of the forearm can result in which of the following? a. Lateral epicondylitis b. Adhesive capsulitis c. Medial meniscus strain d. Gouty arthritis
a. Lateral epicondylitis
15. What is another name for adduction of the spine? a. Lateral flexion b. Extension rotation c. Medial extension d. Abduction rotation
a. Lateral flexion
32. Internal rotation is known as what other type of rotation? a. Medial b. Lateral c. Upward d. Downward
a. Medial
14. What is a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it controls? * a. Motor unit b. Trigger point c. Neuromuscular synapse d. Tender point
a. Motor unit
20. Contraction of skeletal muscles with a system of levers and pulleys results in which of the following? a. Normal human movement b. Muscle damage c. Robot-like motion d. Fast-twitch fibers contracting more rapidly
a. Normal human movement
35. Which Massage outcome is most beneficial for a client with a fracture that is one week old? a. Pain management b. Scar tissue c. Reduced anxiety d. Improved mobility
a. Pain management
15. Which of the following is how knowledge of bony landmarks is incorporated into Massage assessment? a. Palpation of muscle attachments b. Strength testing c. Firing pattern assessment d. Joint end feel
a. Palpation of muscle attachments
35. What bones articulate at the knee? a. Patella, tibia, and femur b. Patella, fibula, and femur c. Fibula, tibia, and femur d. Tibia, patella, and fibula
a. Patella, tibia, and femur
31. If vertebral arches do not fuse during fetal development, which of the following will be the result? a. Spina bifida b. Osteogenesis imperfecta c. Cleft palate d. Ischemic necrosis
a. Spina bifida
11. What is the lighter weight portion of bone made up of trabeculae? a. Spongy bone b. Haversian canals c. Endosteum d. Compact bone
a. Spongy bone
17. What is the term for power applied to an object in such a way that it does not produce movement? * a. Static force b. Dynamic force c. Isometric contraction d. Isotonic contraction
a. Static force
18. Which of the following properties of connective tissue is being affected with myofascial massage application? * a. Thixotrophy b. Contractility c. Resiliency d. Continuity
a. Thixotrophy
12. Bill sits at a computer all day. Tasha, a massage therapist, has assessed that Bill has short pectoralis minor muscles, What other muscles would Tasha find as being short and as part of Bill's upper crossed syndrome? a. Upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, and latissimus dorsi b. Pectoralis major, subscapularis, and rhomboids c. Teres minor, serratus anterior, and posterior deltoid d. Gluteus maximus, psoas, and lower trapezius
a. Upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, and latissimus dorsi
22. The tibialis anterior is distal to which of the following muscles? * a. Vastus lateralis b. Fibularis longus c. Extensor hallucis brevis d. Soleus
a. Vastus lateralis
30. The cheekbones are which of the following bones? a. Zygomatic b. Maxilla c. Occipital d. Lacrimal
a. Zygomatic
1. The ability to control equilibruim is a. balance. b. stability. c. steadiness. d. focus
a. balance.
50. To palpate the proximal attachment of the rectus abdominis, place the hand a. beside the xiphoid process and instruct the client to curl forward as if doing a sit-up. b. on the iliac crest and instruct the client to pull the abdomen in. c. just above the iliac crest and instruct the client to bring the elbow to the opposite knee. d. on the umbilicus and instruct the client to arch the lower back.
a. beside the xiphoid process and instruct the client to curl forward as if doing a sit-up.
25. During standing assessment, it appears that a client has a bilateral anterior tilt of the pelvis. This is resulting in compression of the sacroiliac joint and low back aching. Upon observing and palpating the client, it is most likely that the massage practitioner will find the client has a. buttocks that are prominent with lordosis. b. rotated left with scoliosis. c. one hip higher than the other. d. externally rotated hips.
a. buttocks that are prominent with lordosis.
16. To test capital flexion, the client should not have a. cervical disk problems. b. lumbar disk problems. c. thoracic disk problems. d. weak flexors of the neck.
a. cervical disk problems.
25. Functional blocks are reversible limitations of range of motion that occur because of a. changes in connective tissue following muscle spasm. b. connective tissue becoming stretched and not stabilizing the muscles. c. regional postural muscular imbalance. d. non-optimum motor idiosyncrasy.
a. changes in connective tissue following muscle spasm.
24. The massage practitioner wants to evaluate the arthrokinematics of the radiocarpal joint. He would do this by assessing a. joint play of the wrist. b. range of motion of the knee. c. joint play on the ankle. d. closed-packed position of the wrist.
a. joint play of the wrist.
15. The part of the muscle that attaches closest to the midline of the body, and at least movable part of a muscle, is its * a. origin. b. insertion. c. belly. d. tendon.
a. origin.
28. The elbow is considered a stable joint with firm osseous support and is composed of three articulations: the humeroulnar joint, the humeroradial joint, and the _______ joint. a. radioulnar b. glenohumeral c. facet d. metacarpophalangeal
a. radioulnar
27. A client has sprained the coracoclavicular ligament. The injury is located in the a. shoulder. b. ribs. c. neck. d. sternum.
a. shoulder.
17. Two bony components that are joined directly by fibrocartilage in the form of a disk or plate is called a. symphysis. b. saddle joint. c. pivot joint. d. synchondrosis.
a. symphysis.
47. A muscle that is named for its location is a. temporalis. b. quadriceps. c. triceps. d. deltoid.
a. temporalis.
14. The term for a large, rounded protuberance on a bone is a. tuberosity. b. trochanter. c. condyle. d. epicondyle.
a. tuberosity.
37. What are the attachments of the psoas major? * a. Posteromedial lumbar spine to the greater trochanter of the femur b. Anterolateral lumbar spine to the lesser trochanter of the femur c. Posterolateral lumbar spine to the lesser trochanter of the femur d. Anterolateral lumbar spine to the greater trochanter of the femur
b. Anterolateral lumbar spine to the lesser trochanter of the femur
2. What is a broad, flat sheet of fibrous connective tissue? * a. Fascia b. Aponeurosis c. Subcutaneous membrane d. Basal membrane
b. Aponeurosis
13. In correct trunk flexion testing, the client should do which of the following? a. Use erector spinae and semispinalis to achieve the movement. b. Be able to achieve 0 to 50 degrees of flexion with knees bent. c. Use the hands to lift the head in order to achieve the movement. d. Be able to achieve 0 to 25 degrees of flexion with slight resistance.
b. Be able to achieve 0 to 50 degrees of flexion with knees bent.
2. What is the term for an imaginary midpoint or center of the weight of a body or object, where the body or object could balance on a point? a. Fulcrum of equality b. Center of gravity c. Lever of mass d. Equilibruim
b. Center of gravity
5. What is another word for a bruise? * a. Strain b. Contusion c. Contracture d. Evulsion
b. Contusion
20. Which of the following is mostly likely when connective tissue massage fails to increase pliability of the tissue? a. Vitamin E deficiency b. Dehydration c. Lack of muscle strength d. Ineffective lymphatic drainage techniques
b. Dehydration
7. Movement in or of an object is the result of the application of what type of force? * a. Isometric b. Dynamic c. Eccentric d. Static
b. Dynamic
2. The bony support structure found inside the human body is known as which of the following? a. Ectoskeleton b. Endoskeleton c. Trabeculae d. Foramen
b. Endoskeleton
11. What term is used to describe a muscle with decreased or absent tone? * a. Myopathic b. Flaccid c. Spastic d. Strain
b. Flaccid
28. Which of the following is an action of the sternocleidomastoid? * a. Ipsilateral rotation of the neck at the spinal joints b. Flexion of the neck at the spinal joints c. Depression of the scapula at the scapulocostal joint d. Extension of the neck at the spinal joints
b. Flexion of the neck at the spinal joints
38. Louise is 64 years old and has had scoliosis most of her life. Which of the following is the most appropriate massage treatment application for Louise's scoliosis? a. Agressive elimination of any associated muscle spasms b. Focus on pain relief methods that will help the body manage the dysfunctional pattern c. Loosen associated muscles so that affected vertebrae will come out of rotation d. Avoid massaging any of the affected muscles
b. Focus on pain relief methods that will help the body manage the dysfunctional pattern
5. What are the areas of the skull of an infant in which the bone formation is incomplete? a. Processes b. Fontanels c. Symphysis d. Gomphosis
b. Fontanels
41. What is the most mobile joints in the body? a. Radiocarpal b. Glenohumeral c. Radiohumeral d. Tibiofemoral
b. Glenohumeral
46. Which of the following joints allows flexion and extension in one direction, changing the angle of the bones at the joint? a. Ball-and-socket b. Hinge c. Gliding d. Saddle
b. Hinge
25. On which of the following bones are lateral and medial epicondyles, and greater and lesser tuberclea located? a. Radius b. Humerus c. Ulna d. Metacarpals
b. Humerus
8. What is an exaggeration of the normal lumbar curve? a. Hyperkyphosis b. Hyperlordosis c. Scoliosis d. Gibbus
b. Hyperlordosis
31. Visual assessment identifies bilateral scapular elevation. Which of the following muscles are shortened to cause this? a. Serratus posterior b. Levator scapulae c. Subscapularis d. Posterior deltoid
b. Levator scapulae
16. What is the term for the extra amount of oxygen that must be taken in to convert lactic acid to glucose or glycogen? * a. Oxygenation b. Oxygen debt c. Asphyxiation d. Hyperventilation
b. Oxygen debt
13. If the motion of a joint either fails it's normal range or exceeds its normal limits of motion, what type of range of motion is the join in? a. Physiologic b. Pathologic c. Anatomic d. Biomechanical
b. Pathologic
34. The radioulnar joint provides which of the following movements? a. Flexion and extension b. Pronation and supination c. Elevation and depression d. Medial and lateral rotation
b. Pronation and supination
41. What are the attachments of the tibialis anterior? a. Proximal anterior fibula to the dorsal surface of toes 2 through 5 b. Proximal anterior tibia to the medial foot c. Middle anterior fibula to the dorsal surface of the big toe (toe 1) d. Distal anterior fibula to the fifth metatarsal
b. Proximal anterior tibia to the medial foot
21. What are the two kinds of marrow and bones? a. Piezoelectric and quartz, which provide both support and pliability b. Red, which manufactures blood cells, and yellow, which is mainly fat c. White and red, which manufacture white and red blood cells d. Black and blue, which are responsible for the coloration of bruises
b. Red, which manufactures blood cells, and yellow, which is mainly fat
27. Which of the following may help alleviate functional block? a. Percussion and vibration techniques b. Repeated range of motion and traction c. Avoiding performing stretches d. Deep friction
b. Repeated range of motion and traction
26. Which of the following is an immune related type of inflammatory joint disease? a. Contusion b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Ganglion d. Osteoarthritis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
32. Which of the following conditions is not due you to a developmental problems before birth? a. Spina bifida b. Rickets c. Cleft palate d. Clubfoot
b. Rickets
19. General, full-body massage with myofascial release, trigger point application, and tissue stretching on the concavity is the best treatment plan for which of the following skeletal conditions? a. Paget disease b. Scoliosis c. Whiplash d. Osteogenesis imperfecta
b. Scoliosis
46. Which of the following conditions involves over stretching or tearing of muscle fibers and associated connective tissue? a. Carpal tunnel syndrome b. Strain c. Myalgia d. Myositis ossificans
b. Strain
44. Which of the following muscles is often involved in adhesive capsulitis? a. Supraspinatus b. Subscapularis c. Deltoid d. Pectoralis major
b. Subscapularis
19. During massage, the massage practitioner is addressing the facia at the base of the skull, and the client indicates that she can feel a pole in her lower back. What is the underlying principle for this response? * a. Hysteresis b. Tensegrity c. All-or-none d. Stretch reflex
b. Tensegrity
12. What is the term for an irregular meshing of small, bony plates that makes up spongy bone? a. Trochanter b. Trabeculae c. Epicondyle d. Reticulum
b. Trabeculae
23. A characteristic of the hyoid is that it is a a. small, oblong bone that forms the bottom edge of the jaw. b. U-shaped bone attached to the tongue. c. suture at the apex of the skull. d. small bone within a tendon or joint capsule.
b. U-shaped bone attached to the tongue.
6. What is the direction of force called? a. Route b. Vector c. Bearing d. Way
b. Vector
1. The term for a muscle cell either contracting to its full ability or not contracting at all is * a. threshold response b. all-or-none response c. cross-bridge formation d. fiber recruitment
b. all-or-none response
33. The knee acts as part of a closed kinematic chain with the lumbar spine, hip, and a. elbow. b. ankle. c. pubis. d. wrist.
b. ankle.
33. When radiation is used to treat a bone disorder or is given as part of the treatment of a malignancy, bone may a. undergo normal periods of calcium loss followed by periods of excessive new cell growth. b. become brittle and fragile because of the changes in its structure. c. degenerate and become necrotic at the head of the femur, followed by recalcification. d. develop fibrous tissue and cysts, making the bones weak and prone to fracture.
b. become brittle and fragile because of the changes in its structure.
24. The dysfunctional patterns of movement can best be characterized as a. out of the scope of massage therapists. b. connected to the principles of gait. c. having nothing to do with locomotion. d. unconnected to reflex patterns.
b. connected to the principles of gait.
3. The ability of a muscle to shorten forcibly with adequate stimulation is * a. elasticity. b. contractility. c. extensibility. d. flexibility.
b. contractility.
9. The general goal of massage, regardless of whether the dysfunction is neuromuscular, myofascial, or joint related, is to a. alter all compensation patterns and increase adaptive strain. b. generate self-regulating mechanisms of the body. c. increase autonomic and vagal tone. d. decrease stimulation and arousal.
b. generate self-regulating mechanisms of the body.
17. An accurate portrayal of the performance of cervical flexion assessment is that the client a. moves the head only the neck remains still. b. lifts the head off the table and tucks the chin. c. should be able to achieve 50 degrees range of motion. d. thrusts the chin upward then performs head movement.
b. lifts the head off the table and tucks the chin.
28. A characteristic of the talus is that it is the a. largest bone in the foot. b. major weight-bearing bone during upright motions. c. only foot bone that does not articulate with the tarsals. d. point of insertion for many muscles.
b. major weight-bearing bone during upright motions.
16. The tearing or disruption of connective tissue fibers that takes place when they exceed the limits of the plastic range is a. bruise. b. rupture. c. avulsion. d. contusion
b. rupture.
42. Joint injuries usually are classified as dislocations and a. wear and tear. b. sprains. c. instability. d. inflammation.
b. sprains.
1. What is a slightly movable joint that connects bone to bone with fibrocartilage or hyaline growth cartilage? a. Diathrosis b. Syndesmosis c. Amphiarthrosis d. Gomphosis
c. Amphiarthrosis
17. A massage practitioner is assessing a client for the position of the pelvis. Which of the following would be the landmarks he is comparing? a. Medial condyles b. Intertrochanteric crests c. Anterior superior iliac spines d. Medial and lateral malleoli
c. Anterior superior iliac spines
22. When standing and walking, where is the center of gravity? a. Constantly moving between the knees and the shoulders b. Approximately 3 inches above the navel c. At approximately the upper sacrum anterior to the second sacral vertebrae d. At the pivot point of movement for the head
c. At approximately the upper sacrum anterior to the second sacral vertebrae
30. In a synovial joint, what position bring bone ends together? a. Least packed b. Most packed c. Closed-packed d. Loose-packed
c. Closed-packed
33. The palmaris longus arises proximally from the medial epicondyle of the humerus as a part of what structure? * a. Common extensor tendon b. Bicipital aponeurosis c. Common flexor tendon d. Palmar aponeurosis
c. Common flexor tendon
6. What is the term for the painful muscle spasms or involuntary twitches that involve the whole muscle? * a. Hysteresis b. Contractures c. Cramps d. Strain
c. Cramps
21. The term for muscle lengthening while controlling movement is a. Concentric b. Electric c. Eccentric d. Isometric
c. Eccentric
8. A muscle lengthening while under tension because its contractile force is not enough to overcome resistance is known as what type of action? * a. Concentric b. Isometric c. Eccentric d. Isotonic
c. Eccentric
3. What is the force applied to overcome resistance? a. Work b. Load c. Effort d. Drive
c. Effort
3. What is the thin membrane of connective tissue that lines the marrow cavity of a bone called? a. Epiosteum b. Subosteum c. Endosteum d. Periosteum
c. Endosteum
10. What is the subcutaneous tissue that connects the skin to the muscles? * a. Collagen b. Elastin c. Fascia d. Cartilage
c. Fascia
12. Which of the following is associated with motor neuron disorders? * a. Strain b. Torticollis c. Flaccid muscle d. Whiplash
c. Flaccid muscle
35. What are the attachments of the abductor pollicis brevis? * a. Extensor retinaculum and the carpals to the metacarpal of the thumb b. Extensor retinaculum and the carpals to the distal phalanx of the thumb c. Flexor retinaculum and the carpals to the proximal phalanx of the thumb d. Extensor retinaculum and the carpals to the proximal phalanx of the thumb
c. Flexor retinaculum and the carpals to the proximal phalanx of the thumb
6. What is the term for an opening in a bone? a. Condyle b. Epicondyle c. Foramen d. Trochanter
c. Foramen
19. A client is unable to turn her palm up. Which of the following muscle tests would be appropriate? a. Shoulder internal rotation/elbow flexion b. Forearm supination/foot pronation c. Forearm supination and pronation d. Wrist flexion/finger adduction
c. Forearm supination and pronation
6. What are cystic, round, usually non-tender swellings located along tendon sheaths or joint capsules? a. Synovium b. Bursa c. Ganglia d. Gout
c. Ganglia
42. Which of the following muscles attached to the Achilles tendon? a. Tibialis posterior and gastrocnemius b. Soleus and fibularis longus c. Gastrocnemius and soleus d. Tibialis anterior and fibularis longus
c. Gastrocnemius and soleus
44. Which of the following conditions is a type of arthritis? a. Ganglia b. Scoliosis c. Gout d. Gibbus
c. Gout
39. Which of the following disorders is a regional contraindication for massage? a. Flare-up stage of rheumatoid arthritis b. Hip affected by osteoarthritis c. Great toe swollen by adhesive capsulitis d. Shoulder affected by adhesive capsulitis
c. Great toe swollen by adhesive capsulitis
26. The pelvic girdle is composed of which of the following? a. Sacrum, ilium, and coccyx b. Ilium, pubis, and coccyx c. Ilium, ischium, pubis, and sacrum d. Acetabulum, sacroiliac, and coccyx
c. Ilium, ischium, pubis, and sacrum
7. A client continues to complain about excessive fatigue after walking. She feels as if her arms and legs are heavy. Which of the following assessment procedures may identify the areas of muscle imbalance? a. Edema test b. Pulse assessment c. Kinetic chain assessment d. Q angle
c. Kinetic chain assessment
45. Which of the following conditions is most indicated for massage therapy? a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Spondylolisthesis c. Lordosis d. Spondylitis
c. Lordosis
40. When massaging a client who has paralysis, what should be the treatment go? a. Restore normal muscle function. b. Increase range of motion of affected joints. c. Maintain pliability of connective tissues. d. Stimulate sensory feedback mechanisms.
c. Maintain pliability of connective tissues.
14. The nervous system, using information provided by joint sensory receptors, sets what type of joint range of motion? a. Pathologic b. Anatomic c. Physiologic d. Biomechanical
c. Physiologic
40. Which of the following is an action of the gastrocnemius? a. Eversion of the foot at the tarsal joints b. Extension of the leg at the knee joint c. Plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint d. Dorsiflexion of the foot at the ankle joint
c. Plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint
39. What are the attachments of the adductors of the thigh group? a. Pubis to the medial shaft of the femur b. Illium and ischium to the medial shaft of the femur and the pes anserine tendon (at the proximal anteromedial tibia) c. Pubis and ischial tuberosity to the posterior shaft and linea aspera of the femur and the pens anserine tendon (at the proximal anteromedial tibia) d. Anterior superior iliac spine to the linea aspera of the femur and the tibial tuberosity
c. Pubis and ischial tuberosity to the posterior shaft and linea aspera of the femur and the pens anserine tendon (at the proximal anteromedial tibia)
31. Which of the following is an action of the flexor carpi radialis? * a. Flexion of the arm at the shoulder joint b. Supination of the forearm at the radioulnar joints c. Radial deviation (abduction) of the hand at the wrist joint d. Ulnar deviation (adduction) of the hand at the wrist joint 32. What are the attachments of the anconus? *
c. Radial deviation (abduction) of the hand at the wrist joint
18. Light, general massage for relaxation over the sternum and ribs is the best treatment plan for which of the following pathologic conditions? a. Spina bifida surgery b. Lordosis c. Radiation treatment for breast cancer d. Osteochondritis
c. Radiation treatment for breast cancer
29. What is the final stage of healing from a fracture? a. Ossification b. Hematoma formation c. Remodeling d. Callus formation
c. Remodeling
11. While assessing a client, a massage therapist identifies a functionally short leg with a slight anterior rotation of the pelvis, and the client has no symptoms. What has this assessment identified? a. Functional stress b. Lower crossed syndrome c. Resourceful compensation d. Gait dysfunction
c. Resourceful compensation
18. During adduction on the shoulder joint, the shoulder girdle does which of the following? a. Protracts b. Retracts c. Rotates downward d. Rotates upward
c. Rotates downward
27. What kind of bone is the patella? a. Long b. Short c. Sesamoid d. Cube-shaped
c. Sesamoid
26. What are the attachments of the medial pterygoid? * a. Sphenoid bone to the mandible and the temporomandibular joint b. Temporal fossa to the coronoid process and ramus of the mandible c. Sphenoid bone to the internal surface of the mandible d. Inferior margins of both the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic arch of the temporal bone to the angle, ramus, and coronoid process of the mandible.
c. Sphenoid bone to the internal surface of the mandible
34. Which of the following is the type of fracture caused by repeated mechanical strain? a. Compression b. Greenstick c. Stress d. Spiral
c. Stress
13. What is one of two large bony process is found only on the femur? a. Epicondyle b. Femoral process c. Trochanter d. Tubercle
c. Trochanter
23. The connective tissue surrounding a clients ankle is short and binding. The client wears high heel shoes to work every day and complains of limited range of motion and slight knee pain. The most appropriate treatment plan for the massage therapist to perform would be to a. begin with deep friction to the ankle with myofascial stretching. b. begin with deep friction to the knee area with myofascial stretching. c. do a general, full-body massage with muscle energy techniques to the calves followed by myofascial stretching to the area. d. do myofascial stretching to the ankle followed by a general, full-body massage with muscle energy techniques last on the calves.
c. do a general, full-body massage with muscle energy techniques to the calves followed by myofascial stretching to the area.
30. The _______ layers of the intrinsic muscles of the foot are involved with dorsiflexion and plantar flexion of the toe. a. two b. six c. four d. three
c. four
32. A characteristic of stabilization of the body while assessing movement in a joint is that it a. defeats the purpose of the assessment. b. causes a decrease in motion, even if done properly. c. is essential to accurately assess movement patterns. d. is ineffective if the client is prone.
c. is essential to accurately assess movement patterns.
5. The term for moving from one place to another, or walking, is a. movement. b. kinesiology. c. locomotion. d. gait cycle.
c. locomotion.
13. The point at which all motor units of a muscle have been recruited and the muscle is unable to increase in strength is known as * a. threshold stimulus. b. all-or-none response. c. maximal stimulus. d. maximum motor recruitment.
c. maximal stimulus.
29. Most joints function in the body to provide a. protection. b. information about equilibrium. c. mobility and stability. d. information about the external environment.
c. mobility and stability.
20. A massage therapist has determined that trapezius, deltoid, pectoralis minor, and latissimus dorsi are involved with the hypomobility of the shoulder. All these muscles are involved because they are part of a * a. tendon reflex. b. pennate muscle design. c. myotatic unit. d. closed kinetic chain.
c. myotatic unit.
11. Involuntary movement that occurs between articular surfaces, separate from the range of motion of a joint produced by muscles, is joint a. stability. b. extensibility. c. play. d. movement.
c. play.
24. A characteristic of the intervertebral disks is that they a. can usually be felt just under the skin of the back. b. are linked together by the lamina of the pedicles. c. provide flexibility and act as shock absorbers. d. have a joint surface called an articular facet.
c. provide flexibility and act as shock absorbers.
23. The most common action of a muscle during eccentric function is to * a. stabilize the joint above the moving joint. b. assist concentric movement of the antagonist. c. restrain and control concentric movement of its antagonist. d. perform concentric deceleration of the fixators.
c. restrain and control concentric movement of its antagonist.
18. A joint in which the material used for connecting the two components is Hyaline cartilage is called a a. symphysis. b. diarthrosis. c. synchondrosis. d. syndesmosis.
c. synchondrosis.
29. The normal range of motion of the knee in flexion includes a. 30 degrees of internal tibial rotation. b. 80 to 100 degrees of flexion. c. 5 to 10 degrees of hyperextension. d. 45 degrees of external tibial rotation.
d. 45 degrees of external tibial rotation.
36. Which of the following muscles attaches to the thumb? * a. Lumbricalis manus b. Palmar interossei c. Dorsal interossei manus d. Adductor pollicis
d. Adductor pollicis
10. Which of the following stabilize joints? a. Ligaments b. Joint capsule c. Tendons d. All of the above
d. All of the above
24. Proprioceptors in and around the muscles and joints provide information on which of the following? * a. Tension in the tendons. b. Sudden and prolonged stretch to the muscle c. Pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of joint movement d. All of the above
d. All of the above
27. Which of the following muscles attached to the ear? * a. Auricularis anterior b. Auricularis superior c. Auricularis posterior d. All of the above
d. All of the above
45. Which of the following perform flexion of the forearm at the elbow joint? a. Biceps brachii b. Brachialis c. Brachioradialis d. All of the above
d. All of the above
23. The efforts applied by muscles during their actions are explained as _______-class of levers. a. first b. second c. third d. All of the above are correct.
d. All of the above are correct.
49. A client ran a half marathon two days prior to the massage session. He complains of a tight feeling in the leg and pain, numbness, and tingling. The tissue in the area feels taut. Which of the following conditions is the client most likely experiencing? a. Hysteresis b. Acquired metabolic myopathy c. Myositis ossificans d. Anterior compartment syndrome
d. Anterior compartment syndrome
2. What is the movement of the bone surface in the joint capsule, including roll, spin, and slide? a. Biomechanics b. Joint play c. Anatomic range of motion d. Arthrokinematics
d. Arthrokinematics
28. A 48-year-old female was a cheerleader in high school and college, and severely sprained her knee at least four times. Which of the following pathologies would she be the most prone to develop from these injuries? a. Ganglion b. Infectious arthritis c. Adhesive capsulitis d. Degenerative joint disease
d. Degenerative joint disease
29. Which of the following is an action of the geniohyoid? * a. Depression of the thyroid cartilage b. Elevation of the thyroid cartilage c. Depression of the hyoid bone d. Elevation of the hyoid bone
d. Elevation of the hyoid bone
7. What is the term for an angular deformity of a collapsed vertebra? a. Kyphosis b. Gout c. Scoliosis d. Gibbus
d. Gibbus
16. A marathon runner has been diagnosed with patellar tracking problems. Where is she experiencing pain? a. Elbow b. Skin c. Heel d. Knee
d. Knee
32. What are the attachments of the anconus? a. Medial condyle of the femur to the proximal posterior fibula b. Lateral sacrum to the greater trochanter of the femur c. Medial epicondyle of the humerus to the posterior talus d. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus to the posterior ulna
d. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus to the posterior ulna
8. A client has the following: neurotransmitter fluctuations, altered muscle firing patterns, gait reflex, and kinetic chain disturbance. What general category of dysfunction does this client display? a. Myofascial b. Joint c. Lymphatic d. Neuromuscular
d. Neuromuscular
34. Which of the following is an action of the opponents pollicis on the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint? * a. Abduction b. Extension c. Lateral rotation d. Opposition of the thumb
d. Opposition of the thumb
25. Which of the following is an action of the orbicularis oris? * a. Constricts the nostril b. Opens the mouth c. Draws the angle of the mouth laterally. d. Protracts the lips.
d. Protracts the lips.
20. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? a. Stores lipids for use as energy b. Stores and releases minerals c. Produces blood cells d. Stores iron and detoxifies blood
d. Stores iron and detoxifies blood
47. A synarthrotic joint in which two bony components are united by a thin layer of dense fibrous tissue is that type of joint? a. Hinge b. Symphysis c. Pivot d. Suture
d. Suture
43. Extensive injury to joint structures including full ligament tears, the inability to bear weight, and loss of normal range of motion is considered what degree of injury? a. Zero b. First c. Second d. Third
d. Third
19. Which of the following is opaque, flexible, and elastic? a. Fibrocartilage b. Hyaline cartilage c. Yellow fibrous cartilage d. Yellow elastic cartilage
d. Yellow elastic cartilage
10. The clinical reasoning process for typical patterns of dysfunction and compensation of the body is shown by considering a. the antagonist pattern if an area is hypomobile. b. joint capsular dysfunction if pain occurs on passive movement. c. muscle and fascial involvement if pain occurs with active movement. d. all of the above.
d. all of the above.
26. Assessment is the gathering of information from a. passive movements and observation. b. observation and palpation. c. client history and muscle testing. d. all of the above.
d. all of the above.
15. In correct trunk rotation assessment, the client should a. have the scapulae touching the table. b. not use abdominal muscles at all to perform the movement. c. only use deep back muscles to perform the movement. d. be able to achieve a range of motion of 0 to 45 degrees.
d. be able to achieve a range of motion of 0 to 45 degrees.
9. The ability of a muscle to recoil and resume its original resting length after being stretched is * a. flexibility. b. contractility. c. extensibility. d. elasticity
d. elasticity
21. It would be the most difficult to achieve changes in joint function in a client who is a a. Construction worker with a hypomobile left elbow. b. middle-aged cyclist with scar tissue shortening from a broken ankle. c. tennis player with tennis elbow. d. factory worker with laxity in the sacroiliac joint.
d. factory worker with laxity in the sacroiliac joint.
9. A range of motion of a joint greater than what would be permitted normally by the structure and results in instability is a. hypomobility b. paramobility c. submobility d. hypermobility
d. hypermobility
12. The movement of bones by the action of muscles is a. arthrokinematics. b. biomechanics. c. kinesiology. d. osteokinematics.
d. osteokinematics.
31. The range of motion limits set by the joint century receptors are considered a. opposition. b. anatomic range. c. osteokinematic. d. physiologic
d. physiologic
9. The term for any normal prominent bony growth that projects out from the bone is a. epicondyle. b. foramen. c. trochanter. d. process
d. process
36. The costospinal joints allow a gliding motion between the a. adjacent vertebrae. b. ribs and sternum. c. coracoid process and ribs. d. rib and an adjoining vertebra.
d. rib and an adjoining vertebra.
10. Round bones that are often embedded in tendons and joint capsules are known as a. phalanges. b. irregular bones. c. trabeculae. d. sesamoid bones.
d. sesamoid bones.
48. Congenital, acute, or chronic spasm or shortening of one of the sternocleidomastoid muscles is called a. contracture. b. cramps. c. fibromyalgia. d. torticollis.
d. torticollis.