AS 221 Instrument Pilot - Stage 1 Exam Questions

List the RNP (Required Navigation Performance) levels for the following:

Approach: RNP 0.3 Departure/Terminal: RNP 1.0 Enroute: RNP 2.0

At what altitude above airport elevation must a large or turbine powered airplane enter the traffic pattern in Class Delta airspace?

At least 1,500 ft above the airport

What is an AHRS?

Attitude and heading reference system

What are the three gyroscopic instruments?

Attitude indicator, Heading indicator, & Turn and Slip indicator

List the three control instruments that give you immediate attitude and power change information.

Attitude indicator, Manifold gauge, tachometer

What are the two visual illusions that can lead to spatial disorientation?

Autokinesis and False Horizon

A VOR/DME provides both _______________________ and ______________________ Information.

Azimuth and Distance

What does red over red indicate on a standard two-bar VASI?

Below glide slope

What color are direction signs on an airport?

Black letters and yellow background

IFR pilots shall not deviate from their assigned course or altitude without an ATC clearance. True or False

False

In Class C airspace, if a controller responds to a radio call with "(aircraft sign, standby)", you are not allowed to enter the Class C airspace. True or False

False

What three axes does an autopilot control?

Roll, Pitch, and Yaw

What is the term used for a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of a runway threshold?

Runway end identifier lights

What is the purpose of the supporting instruments in the Primary and Supporting Method of attitude instrument flying?

To assist the pilot in cross-checking pitch attitude

What is the purpose of an FMS?

To automate the asks of managing the onboard navigation signals

What is the purpose of WAAS (Wide Area Augmentation System)?

To improve the accuracy, integrity, and availability of GPS signals

Which sensory system is responsible for most illusions leading to spatial disorientation?

Vestibular

What are the two basic methods for learning attitude instrument flying? What is the main difference between the two?

"Control and performance" and "primary and supporting". They differ in their reliance on the attitude indicator and interpenetration of instruments

List three serious incidents that would require immediate notification to the NTSB.

- Flight Control System malfunction or failure - In-flight fire - Aircraft mid-air collision

What is the visibility in SM for an RVR of 5,000 ft.?

1 SM

What is the least amount of flight training and ground training required for a flight review?

1 hr of ground and 1 hour of flight

What is the minimum safe altitude to fly over congested areas?

1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 ft from the aircraft

An LDA (Localizer Type Directional Aid) has a course width between ______ and _______ degrees.

3 and 6

How many satellites does GPS utilize today?

30

An IFR flight, with departure and arrival at airports with control towers, would typically use what ATC facilities and services and in what sequence? List all eleven in order.

1. FSS 2. ATIS 3. Clearance Deleviery 4. Ground Control 5. Tower 6. Departure Control 7. ARTCC 8. EFAS/Hazardous inflight weather advisory service 9. ATIS 10. Apporach Control 11. Tower

What is the frequency range for ground waves?

100 Hz to 1 MHz

How many degrees off course is an aircraft when the CDI (Course Deviation Indicator) is fully deflected from the center position to either side?

12 degrees or more

No person may operate civil aircraft of U.S. registry at cabin pressure altitudes above _______________ feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen during the entire flight time at those altitudes.

14,000 ft

How long does it take to execute a 360 degree turn at standard rate?

2 Minutes

A runway distance remaining sign is black with a white numerical inscription. As an example, what would this type of sign with a number 2 indicate?

2,000 ft of runway remaining

What is the runway width of a precision instrument runway if there are 16 stripes on the threshold marking?

200 ft

Using the rule of thumb to determine the approximate bank angle to use in a standard rate turn,( dividing TAS by 10 and then adding ½ the result), calculate the bank angle when an aircraft has a TAS of 140 knots.

21

What is the altimeter setting entered at or above FL180?

29.92

How far is the OM located from the end of the runway?

4 - 7 Miles

List the vertical and lateral dimensions of a Federal Airway.

4 nm to each side of the center line and extends upwards from 1,200 ft to, but not including, 18,000 ft MSL

How long is a third class medical valid if a pilot is under age 40?

60 Calendar months

What is a HUD (Heads-Up Display)?

A display system that provides a projection of navigation and air date (airspeed in relation to approach reference speed, altitude, left/right and up/down GS) on a transparent screen between the pilot and the windshield

What is the definition of an alert area?

A specific area where in a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aeronautical activity is conducted

What is Aeronautical Decision Making?

A systematic approach to the thought process of pilots to determine the best decision given the current circumstances

Explain two ways you can determine you have an unreliable VOR signal.

An "OFF" flag indication or Listen for the Morse code

List the three primary instruments that should be referenced in straight and level flight to maintain a constant altitude, airspeed, and heading.

Altimeter, ASI, HI

List six types of precision and non-precision ALS (Approach Lighting Systems).

ALSF - Approach light system with sequenced lights SSALR - Simplified short approach light system with runway alignment indicator MALSR - Medium intensity approach light system with runway alignment indicator lights REIL - Runway end indication lights MASLF - Medium intensity approach light system with sequenced flashing lights (and runway alignment) ODALS - Omnidirectional approach light system

Explain ARSR (Air Route Surveillance Radar).

ARSR is a long-range radar system designed primarily to cover large areas and provide a display of aircraft while en route between terminal areas

Name the primary power instrument during straight and level flight.

ASI

RNAV (Area Navigation) equipment computes what three things?

Aircraft position, actual track, and groundspeed

You transmitter and receiver are both inoperative when coming into land at a controlled airport. When you receive a flashing red light from the tower, what does this indicate?

Airport unsafe, do not land

Explain Class A airspace.

Airspace from 18,000 ft MSL up to and including FL 600. Only IFR traffic

What is the most important way to cope with spatial disorientation and prevent illusions and their potentially disastrous consequences?

Become proficient in the use of flight instruments, rely on them, and disregard sensory perceptions

The standard format C.R.A.F.T. is used when copying down an IFR clearance. Explain what each letter represents.

C- Clearance R - Route A - Altitude F - Frequency T - Transponder

Explain the difference between Category I, II, and III approaches.

Category I - Provide for approach height above touchdown of not less than 200 ft Category II - Provide for approach height above touchdown of not less than 100 ft Category III - Provide lower minimums for approaches without a decision height minimum

What does a steady green light gun signal mean when an aircraft is on the surface of an airport?

Cleared for takeoff

Vision is facilitated by the use of receptors called _______________ during the day, and ____________________ at night.

Cones, Rods

What type of guidance does a precision approach give a pilot?

Course (Lateral) and altitude (vertical) guidance

Acronyms CRM and SRM stand for which type of management?

Crew Resource Management and Single pilot resource management

What information must a pilot enter into an aircraft log when conducting a VOR equipment check for IFR operations?

Date, place, bearing error, and sign the aircraft log or other record

What is the best cautionary measure used to prevent Coriolis illusion?

Develop an instrument cross-check with minimal head movement

What are the entry requirements, VFR visibility minimums, and VFR distance from clouds for Class B airspace?

Entry: ATC Clearance, operable 2-way radio, Mode C transponder, private pilot certificate or endorsement. VFR Visibility: 3 SM Distance from clouds: Clear of Clouds

List three system stressors, factors that affect decision-making skills, and give an example of each.

Environmental - Noise, Physiological - Fatigue & Psychological - Divorce

What type of information does a TIS system provide?

Estimated Position, altitude, altitude trend, and ground track info for up to several aircraft simultaneously within 7 nm horizontally and 3,500 ft above and below the aircraft

What are three common errors of instrument flying and briefly explain each.

Fixation: Focusing purely on one instrument and not checking other instruments, Omission: Omitting an instrument from your instrument cross-check, Emphasis: Placing an emphasis on one instrument over the other

What are the fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions?

Fly to the intended airport then be able to fly in cruise for 45 min plus an alternate

The basic instruments required for VFR flight are an airspeed indicator, altimeter, and magnetic direction indicator. What additional instruments are required for IFR flight?

GRABCARD, G - Generator, R - Radio, A - Altimeter, B - Ball, C - Clock, A - Attitude Indicator, R - Rate of Turn, D - Directional Gyro

What color are taxiway centerline lights?

Green

Which instrument is primary for bank control during straight and level flight?

HI

What two conditions must be met in order to operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR?

Have filed an IFR flight plan and received clearance prior to entering

Give four examples of navigation instruments.

Heading indicator, glideslop indicator, bearing indicator, range indicator, GPS, VOR

Flying from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure, without adjusting the altimeter setting in the Kollsman window, will cause the indicated altitude to read higher or lower than the true altitude?

Higher

The best way for a single pilot to mitigate risk is to use the "IMSAFE" checklist. What does each letter stand for in this acronym?

I - Illness, M - Medication, S - Stress, A - Alcohol, F - Fatigue, E - Eating & Emotion

How long does a student pilot certificate remain valid if a student has not reached their 40th birthday?

If issued after April 1, 2016, it does not expire If issued before April 1, 2016, 60 months

List five common errors that lead to unusual attitudes in instrument flying.

Incorrect identification of unusual attitude, Disorganized flight deck, failure to keep the aircraft properly trimmed, not focusing on flying, using sensations other than sight to orientate the aircraft

What is the fundamental instrument flying skill that requires a logical and systematic observation of the instrument panel?

Instrument cross-check

What are the two fundamental skills of attitude instrument flying?

Instrument cross-check and instrument interpretation

What is the main advantage of flying a VOR/DME RNAV approach?

It has the ability of the airborne computer to locate a WP wherever it is convenient, as long as the aircraft is within reception range of both nearby VOR and DME facilities

What happens to your pilot certificate if you refuse to submit to an alcohol test or furnish test results?

It is suspended or revocated

One type of compass error is acceleration error. As an example, if you are accelerating on a heading of 090 degrees, the compass will indicate a turn towards which direction?

It would indicate a turn to the north (ANDS)

On an airport ramp, what hand signal does a signalman use to indicate you should make a turn to the left?

Left hand/arm being waved toward the signal man's right (the pilots left)

Explain how RCLS (Runway Centerline Lighting System) lights are configured on a precision runway.

Located along the runway centerline and spaced out by 50 ft. These lights are white until the last 3,000 ft, then the lights begin to alternate red and white until the last 1,000 ft of the runway, then all of the centerline lights are red

On a narrower-than-usual runway, a pilot has the tendency to fly a (higher/lower) approach.

Lower

What items are combined on an HSI?

Magnetic Compass, Navigation Signals, and Glideslope

How is range information along the approach path on an ILS relayed?

Marker beacons that direct their signals upward in a small, fan shaped pattern

What is the definition of an incident?

Means an occuracne other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations

How does the ASI operate when both the pitot tube ram pressure hole and drain hole become obstructed?

The ASI would operate like an altimeter

What is an NDB (Nondirectional Radio Beacon) and an ADF (Automatic Directional Finder)?

NDB: A ground based radio transmitter that transmits radio energy in all directions ADF: Electronic navigation equipment that operates in the low and medium frequency bands. Is used in conjunction with the NDB to determine the number of degrees clockwise from the nose of the aircraft o the station being received

What color lights are associated with an OM (Outer Marker), MM (Middle Marker), and IM (Inner Marker)?

OM - Purple / Blue MM - Amber IM - White

Explain how an RMI operates.

One needle is driven by the ADF receiver, the head of that needle indicates the MD TO the station and the trail represents FROM the station. The other needle is driven by the VOR receiver, this needle indicates where the aircraft is radially with respect to the VOR station

A non-precision approach offers a pilot which type of guidance?

Only course (horizontal)

What are the four key elements in attitude instrument flying when using the primary and supporting method?

Pitch, bank, roll, trim

The accuracy of course alignment is generally within how many degrees on a VOR?

Plus or minus 1 degree

What is the maximum allowable permissible variation allowed on a dual VOR check?

Plus or minus 4 degrees

Pilots are susceptible to what risk when using a glass flight deck aircraft?

Relying solely on the glass flight deck for navigation and complacency

What is a TFR and give an example of one.

Temperately flight restriction, Forest fire

Runway Holding Position Markings consist of four yellow lines, two solid and two dashed, spaced 6 - 12 inches apart, and extending across the width of a taxiway or runway. On which side of the lines must you hold, dashed or solid?

Solid

A rapid acceleration during take-off can cause what type of vestibular illusion?

Somatogravic Illusion

In the pitot-static system, the ASI, altimeter and VSI receive __________________ pressure in order to operate, while the ASI receives both ________________ and ___________________ pressure

Static air, Pitot & Static

Which type of approach is a pilot likely to fly in fog? Steep or shallow?

Steep

What happens to your CDI when your aircraft passes over or nearly over the station? What is this called?

The CDI will deviate from side to side as the aircraft passes over or nearby the station. This is called the zone of confusion

Explain situational awareness.

The accurate perception and understanding of all the factors and conditions within the elements of the pilot, flight, aircraft, environment, and the type of operation

Explain how DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates.

The aircraft DME transmits interrogating radio frequency pulses to a ground based DME antenna, the signal triggers ground receiver equipment to respond to the interrogating aircraft. Then the airborne DME equipment measures the elapsed time between the interrogation signal and the reply pulses from the ground station, then the time is converted into a distance of nautical miles

When checking for functionality, in which direction should the ball in a slip/skid indicator move while taxiing?

The ball should move freely and move opposite to the direction of the turn

What is TEC (Tower En Route Control) and where are they found?

The control of IFR en route traffic within delegated airspace between two or more adjacent approach control facilities, designed to expedite traffic and reduce control and pilot communication requirements

Explain gyroscopic precession.

The gyro processes proportionate to the rate the aircraft rotates about one or more of the axes

What is IAS (Indicated Airspeed)?

The indicated airspeed on the Air Speed Indicator uncorrected for instrument or system error

What does the term IFR over-the-top mean?

The operation of an aircraft over the top on an IFR flight plan when cleared by ATC to maintain "VFR conditions" or "VFR conditions on top"

If a pilot elects to cancel an IFR flight plan prior to reaching his or her destination, what transponder code should be entered?

Their assigned transponder code unless told to squawk 1200

Where do you find certified airborne and ground checkpoints for a VOR receiver accuracy check?

They are published in the A/FD / Chart supplement

What could cause a VSI to not respond to climbs or descents? What action should a pilot take to try and remedy the problem?

This could be caused by a blockage of the static system. A pilot could use the alternate static source inside the flight deck.

An aircraft is trimmed for airspeed, not pitch or altitude. (T/F)

True

What type of equipment is included in RNAV?

VOR/DME, LORAN, GPS, and inertial navigation systems

Which performance instrument gives a pilot the aircraft's climb performance?

VSI

How soon after an accident must a report be filed?

Within 10 days

What is a route segment?

a portion of a route bounded on each end by a fix or navigation aid

Explain how DGPS (Differential Global Positioning Systems) operates.

a reference receiver placed at a known location can compute its theoretical position accurately and can compare that value to the measurements provided by the navigation satellite signals. The difference in measurement between the two signals is an error that can be corrected by providing a reference signal correction