*Assessments

Which of the following is considered subjective information?

***Lifestyle questions............ Subjective information is that information that is not measurable and involves the recall of experiences and events from the client. Ex. Lifestyle and medical history questionnaire Circumference measurements Taking radial pulse Overhead squat assessment

Which assessment tests for speed, explosion, body control, and agility?

***Pro shuttle test............ The Pro Shuttle test is a drill that incorporates explosiveness from a starting position, change of direction speed, linear speed, and coordination. 40-yard dash L.E.F.T. test Gait assessment

Which of the following is designed to estimate a cardiovascular starting point?

***Rockport walk test.............Determining a cardiovascular starting point requires the use of a low threshold (i.e., test that does not reach maximum intensities) assessment. The Rockport Walk test utilizes a longer duration lower maximal intensity design and calculation to determine what heart rate zone a client should begin with. YMCA step test = simple 3 minute test used to determine a client's starting point for their cardiorespiratory exercise.

A personal trainer is working with a 40-year-old client who is beginning a new exercise program. Using the straight percentage method, what is the client's estimated maximal heart rate?

180 beats/min............. The straight percentage method uses the formula of 220-age to determine estimated maximal heart rate. In this scenario, 220-40= 180 bpm as an estimated max.

What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper-extremity (bench press) strength assessment?

5%-10%

What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper extremity (bench press) strength assessment

5%-10%............. Is it recommended to increase the percentage after each set by 5-10% in the bench press to increase the challenge with minimal risk of injury.

A new client performs the Rockport walk test and scores in the "good" category of cardiovascular fitness. Up to which of the following percentages of maximal heart rate should this client train?

85%......... A client that scores in the "good" category may begin a cardio program that utilizes zone two, which is 76-85% of maximal heart rate. Very poor / Poor Zone one (65-75% HR max ) Below average Zone one (65-75% HR max ) Average / Above average Zone two (76-85% HR max ) Good Zone two (76-85% HR max ) Excellent Zone three (86-95% HR max )

Knee injuries involving ligaments lead to which of the following?

A decrease in the neural control to muscles that stabilize the patella........ Ligaments, like all soft tissues, contain a host of receptors that provide information to and receive information from the central nervous system. When ligaments are damaged, the receptors may also be damaged which will decrease the ability to send and receive this information, leading to a decrease in stabilization and strength.

When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle?

Adductor complex.............. Knees moving in or knee valgus is characterized by femoral adduction and internal rotation. Possible short/overactive muscles include the adductor complex, TFL, and vastus lateralis.

If a client's knees move inward during an overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be foam rolled?

Adductors................ Knees moving in or knee valgus is characterized by femoral adduction and internal rotation. Possible short/overactive muscles include the adductor complex, TFL, and vastus lateralis (VL). A client that demonstrates the knee valgus compensation should perform foam rolling on one or all of the short/overactive muscles.

What time is most effective to have your clients take their resting heart rate?

After waking-up...... Heart rate is generally at its lowest (i.e., true resting rate) first thing in the morning.

The Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) is primarily aimed at identifying which of the following?

An individual's level of risk for cardiovascular disease....... The PAR-Q is a series of yes/no questions focused on the symptoms of heart disease and joint problems. If a client answers "no" to all questions then it reasonably safe to assume the client can begin an exercise program.

The observation of excessive forward lean during an overhead squat assessment is most likely caused by which of the following?

An overactive abdominal complex and gastrocnemius......... Excessive forward lean is characterized by the torso falling or leaning forward, closer to the thighs during a squat. During this compensation, there may be spinal flexion and a lack of ankle dorsiflexion. As such, the spinal flexors (abdominal complex) and plantar flexors are most likely short/overactive.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Davies test assessment?

Assessing upper extremity agility and stabilization............. The Davies test requires the participant to place to two pieces of tape on the floor 36" apart and alternate hand placement on the tape for a period of time. To do well on this test, the client must have optimal upper extremity agility and core and scapular stabilization.

Which scenario demonstrates a personal trainer correctly assessing a first-time client?

Avoid movement assessments if a client has been diagnosed with hypertension. Have the client fill out a PAR-Q medical history after the overhead squat assessment is performed. Refer the client to a health care professional if he answers "no" to one or more questions on the PAR-Q. *****Assess the client's cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire................... the first step when working with a client is to ensure they are safe to begin any sort of exercise program. This begins by first reviewing the health history and having the client complete the PAR-Q.Create flashcard

During the pushing assessment, the client's shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise is most appropriate?

Ball cobra

Which of the following assessments would be most appropriate to determine an athlete's maximal strength capabilities of the upper body pressing musculature?

Bench press 1RM test................ Determining an athletes maximal pressing strength requires equipment that can be progressively loaded. While certain chest press machines may be suitable, the traditional Bench Press max testing is the most used assessment for finding maximal pressing strength.

Durnin formula's four sites of skinfold measurement

Biceps, Triceps, Subscapular, Iliac crest

The Durnin-Womersley formula's four sites of skinfold measurement include which of the following anatomic locations?

Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and iliac crest

Which method of cardio should be avoided for a client who demonstrates low-back arching as a movement compensation?

Bicycles

Which of the following is considered objective information gathered during a fitness evaluation?

Body composition testing results......... Objective information is that information which is measurable and requires little to no memory recall from the client.

Which of the following should be kept in a neutral position during exercise?

Cervical spine

Which of the following would be for best for monitoring girth changes for an obese client?

Circumference measurements........... Girth changes are measured with a measuring tape various regions of the body. The tape is positioned to measure the circumference of the region. Thus, circumference measurements are best for monitoring girth changes.

Which of the following body composition assessments is most appropriate for an obese client?

Circumference measurements................. Obese or overweight clients may be self conscious or embarrassed by skinfold measurements. Further, for those clients that are severely obese, skinfold may be difficult to perform. Therefore, circumference measurements may be the most appropriate for obese or overweight clients.

Which of the following is true for the upper extremity strength assessment?

Client should warm-up with up to 8-10 repetitions using light resistance.......... The upper extremity strength assessment is best used for those with strength goals and athletes. The test may not be applicable to weight loss or functional activity goals. To perform the test, the client should warm up with a light resistance for 8-10 reps. Take a 1-minute rest and then increase the weight by 5-10% and perform 3-5 reps. Take a 2-minute rest and repeat until failure occurs between 2 and 10 reps.

Which of the following is a performance assessment test used to measure upper-extremity agility and stabilization?

Davies test

Which of the following is a performance assessment test used to measure upper extremity agility and stabilization?

Davies test............ The Davies test requires the participant to place to two pieces of tape on the floor 36" apart and alternate hand placement on the tape for a period of time. To do well on this test, the client must have optimal upper extremity agility and core and scapular stabilization.

What effect do beta-blockers have on a client?

Decrease blood pressure............ Beta-blockers reduce the effectiveness of the hormones adrenaline and noradrenaline. As a result, beta-blockers decrease blood pressure and maximal heart rate.

When assessing a client's overhead squat, which of the following is an indication of overactivity in the lateral gastrocnemius?

External rotation of the feet

Which of the following is a characteristic of upper crossed syndrome?

Forward head and rounded shoulders..... Upper crossed syndrome is characterized by forward rounding shoulders, medially rotated arms, and a forward head posture.

In which muscles is overactivity or tightness common for individuals who regularly wear high heels?

Gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon.............. Wearing high heels places the ankle into plantar flexion. Over time, the plantar flexors become chronically shortened/overactive, which include the gastrocnemius, soleus, and Achilles tendon.

During a single-leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices a client's knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?

Gluteus medius

A personal trainer observes a client's knees moving inward while performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following muscles are probably underactive?

Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus...... Knees moving in or knee valgus is characterized by femoral adduction and internal rotation. The gluteus maximus and posterior fibers of the gluteus medius are femoral extensors, abductors, and external rotators. Thus, in the knee valgus compensation, these muscles are lengthened/underactive.

Which of the following muscles is probably underactive if a client's support or standing leg falls inward during a single-leg squat assessment?

Gluteus medius................... The standing leg "falling inward" is the compensation of knee(s) moving in or knee valgus. This compensation is characterized by femoral adduction and internal rotation. Possible long/underactive muscles include the muscles that should resist or prevent knee valgus, such as the gluteus maximus, gluteus medius, or muscles of lower leg, such as the medial gastrocnemius.

Which of the following have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise?

Heart rate and oxygen uptake.......... During exercise, the demand for oxygen increases in the working muscles. Heart rate will demonstrate a linear increase to meet this demand.

Which method, also known as the Karvonen method, is used for establishing training intensity based on the difference between a client's predicted maximal heart rate and his or her resting heart rate?

Heart rate reserve (HRR) method............. The Karvonen method calculation includes the difference between resting heart rate and maximum heart rate. This number, also known as heart rate reserve, is the number of beats the heart must increase to reach maximum from resting.

During a static postural assessment a client displays an anterior pelvic tilt. Which muscle is likely to be overactive?

Hip flexor complex................ An anterior pelvic tilt is characterized by the front of the pelvis dipping down, towards the floor. This movement occurs at the hip joint and lumbar spine, resulting in an increase in relative hip flexion. As such, the hip flexors and erector spinae are most likely short/overactive during the anterior pelvic tilt compensation.

Which of the following body composition assessment methods is based on the principle that lean mass sinks, whereas body fat floats?

Hydrostatic weighing................ Hydrodensitometry (hydrostatic or underwater weighing) uses specialized equipment to assess weight while underwater and compares it to weight while on dry land. Fat mass versus fat-free mass is then found with the use of a special calculation.

Which of the following assessments is commonly used in exercise physiology laboratories to measure body fat composition?

Hydrostatic weighing................... One of the most accurate measures of body fat is the use of underwater weighing because fat mass floats and fat-free mass sinks. However, the equipment used for hydrodensitometry (hydrostatic weighing) is often elaborate and very expensive found primarily in exercise physiology laboratories.

Which of the following is a site for testing in the Durnin-Womersley percent body fat test?

Iliac crest................. The Durnin-Womersley body fat test calculates body fat with skinfold measurements at four sites - biceps, triceps, subscapular, suprailiac crest.

In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is most likely lengthened?

Internal oblique, Gluteus maximus, Gluteus medius, Posterior tibialis, Transversus abdominis, Anterior tibialis, Posterior tibialis

The client's feet turn out when performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is likely the overactive muscle?

Lateral gastrocnemius............... The foot turn out compensation is a movement of external tibial rotation at the knee joint. Thus, muscles at the knee that produce lateral (external) tibial rotation are often short/overactive, such as the lateral gastrocnemius and biceps femoris.

During a pushing and pulling assessment, the personal trainer notices that a client demonstrates shoulder elevation. Which of the following muscles are most likely overactive?

Levator scapulae....... During the shoulder elevation compensation, the shoulder blades rise moving closer to the ears. Thus, muscles that lift the shoulder blades are a likely cause of the compensation. These primarily include the levator scapulae and upper trapezius.

Which of the following muscles is most likely overactive if a client's head protrudes forward during the pushing assessment?

Levator scapulae........ Forward head posture is when the head migrates forward resulting in short/overactive sternocleidomastoid, scalenese, and levator scapula.

While observing a new client perform the pushing assessment, the personal trainer notices that his head protrudes forward. Which of the following groups of muscles are probably overactive?

Levator scapulae............. Forward head posture is when the head migrates forward resulting in short/overactive sternocleidomastoid, scalenese, and levator scapula.

During a standing pulling assessment, a client compensates by moving his head forward. Which of the following static stretches would be appropriate for this client?

Levator scapulae.................. During the shoulder elevation compensation, the shoulder blades rise moving closer to the ears. Thus, muscles that lift the shoulder blades, such as the levator scapula and upper trapezius, are a likely cause of the compensation. The client with shoulder elevation compensation should perform static stretching on these short/overactive muscles.

A client's shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?

Lower trapezius........ During the shoulder elevation compensation, the lower trapezius are in a lengthened state. Thus, the lower trapezius are lengthened/underactive.

During a pulling assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client's shoulders elevate. Which of the following muscles is most likely underactive?

Lower trapezius......... During the shoulder elevation compensation, the lower trapezius are in a lengthened state. Thus, the lower trapezius are lengthened/underactive.

When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints is the fitness professional observing from the lateral view?

Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex and shoulder complex

When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints are you observing?

Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex and shoulder complex........ From the lateral view, sagittal plane movements that involve flexion/extension are observed. These will include movement at the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (i.e., hip flexion/extension and spinal flexion/extension) and at the shoulder complex (i.e., shoulder flexion/extension)

During the overhead squat assessment, the feet turn out, which of the following muscles are underactive?

Medial gastrocnemius

If a client's feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive?

Medial gastrocnemius

Obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension are all symptoms of which of the following?

Metabolic syndrome, Obesity, insulin resistance, high blood sugar, abnormal cholesterol, and hypertension are all conditions that interfere with the normal biochemical of the human body. The term for such processes is metabolic. Thus, they are symptoms of Metabolic Disease or Metabolic Syndrome.

During a pushing assessment your client's shoulders elevate, which of the following muscles would most likely be underactive?

Mid and lower trapezius........ During the shoulder elevation compensation, the mid and lower trapezius are in a lengthened state. Thus, the mid and lower trapezius are lengthened/underactive.

Circumference Measurements

Neck, Chest, Waist, Hips, Thighs, Calves, Biceps

Which of the following is part of the subjective information gathered in a fitness assessment?

Occupation........ Subjective information is that information that is not measurable and involves the recall of experiences and events from the client.

What is the likely cause of an excessive forward lean during the overhead squat assessment?

Overactive hip flexor complex and soleus............... Excessive forward lean is characterized by the torso falling or leaning forward, closer to the thighs during a squat. During this compensation, there is excessive hip flexion and a lack of ankle dorsiflexion. As such, the hip flexor complex and plantar flexors are most likely short/overactive.

Which of the following assessments will best allow the personal trainer to view potential postural imbalances surrounding the feet, ankles, knees, lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), shoulder, and cervical complex?

Overhead squat assessment

Which of the following requires a client to perform cardiorespiratory exercise at maximal effort while monitoring ventilation response?

Peak VO2 method.............. Maximal cardiorespiratory effort is best measured through the use of Peak VO2 testing. To obtain this measure, the person must perform a graded exercise test with sufficient duration and intensity to cause fatigue or failure. Ventilation is monitored to measure the oxygen and carbon dioxide concentration.

During the overhead squat assessment, the client's arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are considered to be overactive?

Pectoralis minor.............. One likely cause of the arms fall forward compensation is an anterior tipping of the scapula. The pectoralis minor attaches to the scapula and ribs and is a scapular depressor and anterior tilter of the scapula. As such, this muscle may be short/overactive contributing to the arms fall forward compensation.

Which of the following is a questionnaire designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise for a client?

Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)

Which of the following was designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise for a client based on the answers to specific health history questions?

Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q)............ The PAR-Q is a series of yes/no questions focused on the symptoms of heart disease and joint problems. If a client answers "no" to all questions then it reasonably safe to assume the client can begin an exercise program.

Which of the following is part of the objective information collected in a fitness assessment?

Physiological measurements.......... Objective information is that information which is measurable and requires little to no memory recall from the client.

Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following?

Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood.................... Diastolic blood pressure is the bottom number when taking a blood pressure reading. This is the measure of the force on the artery walls as the heart is refilling with blood and the period of time the heart is relaxing between beats. The top number, systolic, is the measure of force at it leaves the heart.

flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees

Pronation distortion syndrome

During an overhead squat assessment, a client's knees move inward. Which of the following exercises is the most appropriate to strengthen and activate the client's underactive musculature?

Proprioceptive plyometrics Ice skaters ****Tube walking: side-to-side Leg swings: side-to-side

Which of the following assessments is the MOST appropriate to evaluate any shoulder complex compensations?

Pushing assessment, lateral view

Which of the following would be most useful in determining shoulder complex compensations?

Pushing assessment, lateral view

Which of the following is an appropriate movement assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?

Pushing test.............. Sedentary senior clients can perform many of the transitional assessments, such as the overhead squat and pushing/pull assessments. Caution should be used if performing the single-leg assessments and assessments that include high-levels of eccentric strength (i.e., jumping tasks) may need to be avoided.

Which of the following assessments would be most important for a new client who recently recovered from a shoulder injury?

Pushing/pulling assessments, A client who has recently recovered from a shoulder injury needs to demonstrate shoulder range of motion, shoulder strength, and shoulder/scapular stability. A pushing, pulling, or push up test would be appropriate to obtain this information provided the client has been cleared by their physician to begin an exercise program.

During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices a client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight?

Quadriceps....... A arch in the low back is most likely the result of an anterior pelvic tilt. During the butt kick, the client is flexing the knee which requires optimal extensibility of the quadriceps. If there is an anterior pelvic tilt of the pelvis during the butt kick, the most likely cause is short/overactive quadriceps.

Which is the preferred pulse point to record a person's heart rate?

Radial artery.... It is recommended that the client's heart rate be recorded with an accurate heart rate monitor or at the radial artery. This position on the wrist is the most easily accessible and safest to measure while the client's heart rate is elevated.

Which of the following is recorded on the palm side of the wrist?

Radial pulse

What is the term for the client's pulse found on their wrist?

Radial pulse.......... The pulse found on the wrist is called the radial pulse as it is found on the radial bone (radius) of the forearm.

In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is shortened?

Scalenes....... Upper crossed syndrome is characterized by forward rounding shoulders, medially rotated arms, and a forward head posture. The forward head posture is an indication that the scalenes are short/overactive. The other muscles on the this are lengthened/underactive

Which of the following assessments is designed to assess lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?

Shark Skill test........ The Shark Skills test is a timed test that requires the individual to perform a single leg hop in a predetermined pattern. The quick single leg hops require balance, agility for change of direction, and neuromuscular control.

Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?

Shark Skill test........ The Shark Skills test is a timed test that requires the individual to perform a single leg hop in a predetermined pattern. The quick single leg hops require balance, agility for change of direction, and neuromuscular control.

Which of the following assessments involves positioning a client in the center box of a grid, with hands on hips, and standing on one leg?

Shark skill test

to assess lower-extremity agility and muscular control

Shark skill test

A client's head protrudes during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?

Sternocleidomastoid

During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. Which of the following muscles is most likely to be shortened?

Sternocleidomastoid and pectoralis major................. Protracted, or forward rounded, shoulders are most likely caused by short/overactive anterior thorax muscles. The pectoralis major is a muscle numerous attachments to the anterior thorax, that will adduct and medial rotate the humerus resulting in forward rounded shoulders. Forward head posture is when the head migrates forward resulting in short/overactive sternocleidomastoid, scalenese, and levator scapula.

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?

Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.... Clients with PAD are advised to perform light to moderate cardiovascular activities daily. While flexibility training is encourage, self-myofascial release should be used sparingly or avoided. Resistance training is important, but should not necessarily be the focus of a training program.

Which of the following is the appropriate method to estimate the maximum heart rate for a client?

Subtract the client's age from 220................ While it does involve some inaccuracies in those with very good aerobic health, one of the most basic calculations for findings an estimated maximum heart rate is 220-age.

During a single-leg squat assessment your client's knees move inward, which of the muscles would most likely be overactive?

TFL...................... Knees moving in or knee valgus is characterized by femoral adduction and internal rotation. Possible short/overactive muscles include the adductor complex, vastus lateralis, and TFL as it is a primary hip flexor and secondary internal rotator of the femur.

When performing the overhead squat assessment, your client's arms fall forward, which muscle would be considered most likely overactive?

Teres major...... Arms fall is associated with a lack of full shoulder flexion. Thus, muscles shoulder extensors are the most likely short/overactive. These include the pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi, and teres major.

Ruby performs an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following movement compensations indicates the need for a static standing TFL stretch?

The client's knees move inward............... The TFL is a muscle that functions as a hip flexor and internal rotator of the femur. Thus, when the TFL is tight (i.e., when it needs to be stretched) the client will demonstrate an anterior pelvic tilt and/or knee valgus during movement assessments.

David has a new client in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy. How should he modify the overhead squat assessment for her?

The range of motion should be decreased, In the 2nd trimester, the size of the fetus begins to increase and causes significant alterations in the mothers center of gravity, which may affect balance. Due to this, the range of motion in certain exercises and assessments may need to be reduced and single leg assessments may need to be avoided.

To which of the following does the term body composition refer?

The relative percentage of body weight that is fat versus fat-free tissue......... The term composition refers to the constituents or ingredients that comprise an object. In health and fitness, the term body composition is referring to the body fat percentage or relative percentage of body weight that is fat versus fat-free tissue.

Which of the following statements is true of the body mass index (BMI)?

The risk of disease increases in proportion to the rise in BMI in both adults and adolescents......... Increases in BMI are associated with an increase of a host of chronic and cardiovascular diseases, including Metabolic Syndrome.

What is the effect of beta-blockers on the heart?

They decrease the heart rate............... Beta-blockers reduce the effectiveness of the hormones adrenaline and noradrenaline. As a result, beta-blockers decrease blood pressure and maximal heart rate.

Which of the following is a true statement about dynamic assessments?

They help identify areas of dysfunction in an individual's movements........... Dynamic assessments differ from static in that they include movement and use to identify movement compensations and muscle imbalances. Such movements should be based on a standardized testing protocol and are not just a random series of movements.

Which of the following is one of the sites of skinfold measurement according to the Durnin formula to calculate a person's percentage of body fat?

Triceps........ The Durnin-Womersley body fat test calculates body fat with skinfold measurements at four sites = biceps, triceps, subscapular, suprailiac crest.

What is the most accurate time of day to conduct a resting heart rate measurement?

Upon waking in the morning........ Heart rate is generally at its lowest (i.e., true resting rate) first thing in the morning.

What time of day is it best to teach clients to record their resting heart rate?

Upon waking in the morning........ Heart rate is generally at its lowest (i.e., true resting rate) first thing in the morning.

What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate?

Upon waking in the morning.................. Heart rate is generally at its lowest (i.e., true resting rate) first thing in the morning.Create flashcard

Which of the following is the appropriate protocol with a client who has coronary heart disease, is obese, and is beginning an exercise program after receiving clearance from her physician?

Use the talk test to measure an exercise's intensity............... Coronary Artery Disease CAD) is the most common type of heart disease. Clients with CAD should be closely monitored during all forms of exercise. One of the most effective methods of monitoring is to make sure the client is still able to talk, using the Talk Test.

During the descent of a single-leg squat, a client's knee moves inward. Which of the following muscles should the trainer recognize as requiring static stretching?

Vastus lateralis......... Knees moving in or knee valgus is characterized by femoral adduction and internal rotation. Possible short/overactive muscles include the adductor complex, TFL, and vastus lateralis (VL). A client that demonstrates the knee valgus compensation should perform static stretches on one or all of the short/overactive muscles.

What measurement needs to be taken prior to the start of the Rockport walk test?

Weight........ The formula for the Rockport walk test includes the client's weight, age, walking time, and heart rate at the completion of the test. Therefore, before beginning test, the client's weight must be taken.

Which assessment provides an estimation of a client's cardiorespiratory fitness level?

YMCA step test

Working with the arms overhead for long periods can lead to shoulder and neck soreness as a result of which of the following?

result of tightness in the latissimus dorsi and weakness in the rotator cuff....Tightness in the latissimus dorsi....... Repetitive use and loading may lead to short and tightness of the tissues. Thus, overhead athletes or those that work with arms overhead may experience tightness in the latissimus dorsi.