AST 1002 Final Review
10. The maria regions on the Moon turn out to be about _____ years old, whereas the highlands appear to be _____ .(choose best answer) A. 3.5 billion; a billion years older B. 3.5 billion; a billion years younger C. 1 billion; about the same D. 1 billion; younger E. 1 billion; older
A
10. The _____ the frequency of light, the ______are the photons of which it is composed. A. higher, more energetic B. higher, less energetic C. lower, more energetic D. higher, faster E. lower, bluer
A
10. The look-back time of an object is directly related to its: a) Distance. b) Variability. c) Luminosity. d) Size.
A
1. In the Hertzsprung-Russell (H-R) diagram, a star less luminous and hotter than the Sun would be found A. below and to the left of the Sun B. above and to the left of the Sun C. below and to the right of the Sun D. above and to the right of the Sun E. at the top end of the main sequence
A
1. What is the primary chemical constituent of the present day atmosphere of Mars? A. carbon dioxide B. nitrogen C. hydrogen D. oxygen E. sodium
A
1. Who was the scientist who first suggested that the Earth circles the Sun and found the relative sizes of the Earth, Moon, and Sun? A. Aristarchus. B. Hipparchus. C. Ptolemy. D. Copernicus. E. Eratosthenes.
A
10. Magnetic fields inside sunspots are __________ those in surrounding regions. A. much stronger than B. the same as C. much weaker than
A
10. What is thought to have caused Mercury's scarp cliffs? A. compression and shrinking during the crust's cooling B. extremely large seismic events, which cracked open the hard surface C. extensive lava flows early in the planet's history when the crust was still soft D. the motion of continental plates E. large impact events
A
11. What is Olympus Mons? A. a giant shield volcano on Mars B. the tallest mountain on Mercury C. one of Mars' moons D. a mountain on the Moon that is higher than Mt. Everest E. a volcano discovered on Mercury
A
11. Which of the following exoplanets is easiest to find using the Radial Velocity (Doppler) method? a) a massive planet, close to its host star b) a low-mass planet, distant from its host star c) a massive planet, distance from its host star d) a low-mass planet, close to its host star e) a planet within its host star's Habitable Zone, regardless of how massive it is
A
12. Which of the following exoplanets is easiest to find using the Transit method? a) a large planet, close to its host star b) a small planet, distant from its host star c) a large planet, distance from its host star d) a small planet, close to its host star e) a planet within its host star's Habitable Zone, regardless of how large it is
A
13. A surface explosion on a white dwarf, caused by nuclear fusion of fallen matter from a binary companion, creates what kind of object? A. Nova B. Type-I supernova C. Planetary Nebula D. Contact binary
A
13. What type of variable star is used to determine the distances to globular clusters? a) RR Lyrae stars b) Cepheids c) T Tauri d) flare stars e) novae
A
14. Apart from the Earth, which one of the terrestrial planets and moons is the most likely place where life may have arisen? A. Mars B. Mercury C. Venus D. The Moon
A
14. The word "ecliptic" refers to A. the apparent path of the Sun among the stars during the year. B. the apparent path of the Moon through the celestial sphere C. the orbital plane of the Sun in the Galaxy. D. the non-circularity of the orbits of the planets. E. the extension of the Earth's equator out to the plane of the sky.
A
15. A friend of yours argues that Pluto is probably an escaped satellite of one of the giant planets. What piece of evidence could you cite that would best argue -against- this idea? A. Pluto has a Moon of its own. B. The inclination of Pluto's orbit to the ecliptic plane. C. Pluto has a very low mass. D. The eccentricity of Pluto's orbit. E. Pluto would be orbiting in the other direction if this idea was true.
A
15. What is the main cause of the 2 daily high tides in the Earth's oceans? A. the gravitational force from the Moon and the rotation of the Earth. B. the gravitational force from the Moon and the rotation of the Moon. C. the gravitational force from the Sun and the rotation of the Earth. D. the gravitational force from the Earth and the rotation of the Earth. E. the gravitational force from the Earth and the rotation of the Moon.
A
15. You are kidnapped, drugged and flown somewhere. After an indefinite time in a dark cell you escape and start sky observations to tell where you are and what time of the year it is. Which of the following statements would be true for certain about your location and time of year if you observe that night and day are each exactly 12 hours long. A. You could be anywhere on Earth (except the polar regions) if it is at an equinox. B. You could be anywhere on Earth (except the polar regions) if it is at the June solstice. C. You are at one of the poles. D. You are in the Northern Hemisphere at the December solstice. E. You are in the Southern Hemisphere at the December solstice.
A
16. Astronomers have found that the galaxies in clusters are moving around with unexpectedly high velocities. The explanation accepted by astronomers is that a) there is apparently much more mass in the clusters of galaxies than we have detected so far. b) there must be quite a few binary systems consisting of a galaxy and a supermassive black hole. c) the clusters are flying apart and will not last long. d) it is observational error and the member galaxies are not in fact moving rapidly.
A
18. What kind of pressure supports a white dwarf? A. electron degeneracy pressure B. gas pressure C. radiation pressure D. convection E. fusion
A
19. A high-mass star dies more violently than a low-mass star because: A. It eventually produces a massive core that cannot be supported by nuclear fusion, and so collapses very rapidly. B. It cannot fuse elements heavier than carbon. C. Gravity is weakened by its high luminosity. D. It is most often found as part of a binary system.
A
21. The heaviest nuclei of all are formed: A. During a supernova explosion B. During a nova explosion C. During carbon burning D. During all stages of stellar evolution of massive stars
A
21. When do lunar eclipses occur? A. at full Moon. B. at new Moon. C. at quarter Moon. D. at random phases of the Moon. E. at any time because lunar phase is not involved.
A
22. Which is the correct statement about the main sequence? A. It is the result of a sequence of equilibrium structures of stars of different masses. B. It stretches from high temperature low luminosities to low temperature high luminosities. C. It delineates the properties of stars that are powered by gravitational contraction. D. It delineates the properties of stars that are powered by nuclear fission.
A
25. Two astronauts, Jack (mass = 100 kg) and Kate, are floating in space 2m apart, far away from any massive sources, and are deeply in love. The love they feel is actually the gravitational force between them. Meanwhile, 10^13m away from Kate, a menacing Jupiter (mass = 2 x 10^27 kg), seeks to destroy their love. Jack and Jupiter are situated on opposite sides of Kate. Does "love" prevail? (in other words, does Jack's gravitational force exceed that of Jupiter?) A. Yes B. No C. Not enough information to answer
A
27. A jet travels 300 km in 15 minutes. Did it break the sound barrier? (Assume the speed of sound is 330 m/s). A. Yes B. No C. Not enough information
A
3. The difference between visible light and radio waves is that A. radio waves have longer wavelengths than visible light. B. radio waves have shorter wavelengths than visible light. C. visible light is electromagnetic radiation, but radio waves are not. D. radio waves can be heard, whereas visible light cannot be heard. E. there is no difference between the two.
A
3. Which forces were thought to be unified just before Inflation began? a) Strong nuclear, weak, electromagnetic b) Gravity, weak, electromagnetic c) Weak, strong nuclear, gravity d) Electromagnetic, gravity e) Gravity, strong nuclear
A
3. Which of the following type of galaxies are most similar to the Milky Way Galaxy? a) spirals b) irregulars c) giant ellipticals d) dwarf ellipticals
A
3. You measure the length of a stationary stick to be one meter. What do you observe if you see the same stick on a VERY fast train moving by you? A. The stick appears to be shorter. B. The stick appears to be longer. C. The stick appears to be the same length. D. The stick is infinitely thin and cannot be seen.
A
4. The constellation Gatorius consists of five stars, all of which appear equally bright to the eye. Star A is an O supergiant, B is an M giant, C is an M main sequence star, D is a G main-sequence star, and E is a B white dwarf. Which star is intrinsically the most luminous? A B C D E
A
5. The Earth's magnetic field is thought to be caused by a combination of convection in a molten core and A. rotation. B. charged particles from space falling on the Earth. C. lunar tidal effects. D. the Sun's strong gravitational pull on the Earth's equatorial bulge. E. convection in the Earth's atmosphere
A
5. The Ptolemaic picture of the geocentric universe probably survived for so long because: A. It worked well in explaining the motions of the planets. B. It also helped to predicted the motions of objects on the Earth. C. It is correct. D. It was based on Kepler's laws.
A
5. Young, forming stars appear in which part of the HR diagram? A. upper right B. upper left C. lower right D. lower left E. the main sequence
A
7. Which of the following factors from the Drake equation has a value which is currently the best constrained from measurements? a) Rate of star formation. b) Average lifetime of a civilization. c) Fraction of habitable planets where life arises. d) Fraction of life-bearing planets on which intelligence evolves. e) Fraction of intelligent-life planets that develop technology.
A
8. Assuming that conditions ripe for life and intelligence abound in the Galaxy, what factor limits the number of Galactic civilizations? a) The average survival time for civilizations. b) The distance between civilizations. c) The distance of civilization from the center of the Galaxy. d) The main sequence lifetime of low-mass stars.
A
8. At the Earth's equator, you could see A. all of the sky during the course of a day at some time of the year or another. B. no more than 50% of the sky during the course of a day at some time of the year or another. C. the same thing that an observer anywhere else on Earth sees. D. stars moving parallel to the horizon. E. the Sun at its highest altitude on the summer solstice (June 21st).
A
8. The Earth's primordial atmosphere probably consisted of substantial amounts of A. hydrogen. B. methane. C. ammonia. D. oxygen. E. carbon dioxide
A
8. What was the importance of Kepler's third law? A. It relates the distances of the planets from the Sun to their orbital periods. B. It gives the relative distances of the planets from the Earth. C. It says that forces act in pairs and in opposite directions. D. It explains why the planets all orbit close to the ecliptic plane E. It explained the first observation of stellar parallax.
A
8. Which of the following is the Hubble Law? a) The greater the distance to a galaxy, the greater its redshift. b) The greater the distance to a galaxy, the fainter it is. c) The more distant a galaxy is, the younger it appears. d) Most galaxies belong to a cluster; most clusters are part of a super cluster.
A
9. About how much time does the Sun have left to shine by nuclear fusion? A. 5 billion years B. 5 million years C. 10,000 years D. 10 billion years E. 10 million years
A
9. If the average density of the Earth is 5.5 grams per cubic centimeter but the density of a typical rock you pick up is 3 grams per cubic centimeter, what is the most reasonable conclusion? A. The Earth is differentiated. B. There is an error in the statement. C. The Earth's density changes with the inverse square of the distance from the center. D. The Earth's surface consists of large amounts of iron. E. The Earth's interior is mostly molten.
A
9. What does the Hubble Law measure? a) The rate of expansion of the universe. b) How galaxies are distributed in the universe. c) How light gets fainter with increasing distance. d) Light travels at a finite speed; we see objects the way they were when the light left them, not the way they are when we make our observation.
A
9. Which of the following observations provide evidence that Mars had substantial water in the past? A. channels that meander over the surface B. small pools of water today indicate more water in the past C. large amounts of water vapor in the atmosphere D. Mars' satellites, which consist primarily of water ice E. an extensive ocean in the northern hemisphere
A
1. Which of the following lists the various forms of electromagnetic radiation in order of -longest- to -shortest- wavelength? A. radio, microwave, visible, infrared B. visible, ultraviolet, X-ray, gamma rays C. ultraviolet, gamma rays, infrared, radio D. X-rays, microwaves, ultraviolet, infrared E. microwaves, infrared, radio, X-rays
B
1. Which type of galaxy has a small bulge and loose, poorly defined spiral pattern? a) S0 b) Sc c) Sa d) SBa e) Sb
B
1. Why did proto-terrestrial planets have a different chemical composition than proto-jovian planets? A. Terrestrial planets are denser than Jovian planets. B. High temperatures in the inner solar system made the difference. C. The many satellites of the Jovian planets changed the planet's atmosphere. D. Jovian planets have much faster rotation rates than terrestrial planets.
B
10. Harlow Shapley determined the location of the center of the Galaxy by observations of: a) Cepheids. b) Globular clusters. c) The spiral arms. d) A visually bright, massive, object around which all objects in the Galaxy move.
B
10. The celestial equator refers to A. the projection of your horizon onto the sky. B. the great circle on the sky that would result from extending the plane of the Earth's equator out to the celestial sphere. C. the apparent path of the Sun among the stars during the Solar year. D. the appearance of the celestial sphere as seen by an observer located somewhere on the Earth's equator. E. the great circle on the celestial sphere that traces the path of the Milky Way across the sky.
B
10. What might you reasonably conclude about the origin of small Jovian satellites that orbit in a direction opposite to the largest satellites? A. They were ejected by the larger Galilean satellites. B. They are captured comets. C. They formed from debris left over after the larger satellites formed. D. They formed from debris that was produced when two other Jovian satellites collided. E. They were ejected by Jupiter when it suffered a major impact.
B
11. Consider an observer at the equator. The Sun will be at its highest point above the horizon at noon A. on the day of the summer solstice. B. on the day of either equinox. C. on the day of the winter solstice. D. any day of the year because the altitude does not change with season anywhere on Earth. E. any day of the year because the altitude does not change with season at the equator.
B
11. How long is the sunspot cycle, on average? A. 100 days B. 11 years C. 2 years D. 70 years
B
13. Because essentially all galaxies are redshifted, we know that: a) We are at the center of the universe. b) The universe is expanding. c) The universe is homogeneous. d) all of the above e) none of the above
B
13. The light we see from the Sun comes from which layer? A. chromosphere B. photosphere C. corona D. convective zone
B
14. What is the net result of the proton-proton chain of nuclear fusion? A. 2 heliums are fused into 1 carbon, 1 neutrinos + energy B. 4 hydrogens are fused into 1 helium, 2 neutrinos + energy C. 2 hydrogens and 1 helium are fused into 1 carbon + energy D. 2 protons and 2 neutrons are fused into 1 carbon + energy
B
14. Which of the following stars has the largest habitable zone? a) M star b) A star c) G star d) F star
B
14. Why was Galileo's observation that Venus exhibited phases important? A. It proved that the theory of Copernicus was 100% correct. B. It proved that at least Venus orbited the Sun C. It demonstrated that Venus was more distant from the Sun than the Earth D. It showed that Venus had an elliptical orbit. E. It showed that Venus deviated from the ecliptic plane as it orbited
B
15. Wien's Law A. describes the changing density of an object as its temperature changes. B. relates the temperature of a radiating object to the wavelength at which it will emit the most energy. C. gives a mathematical relationship between the color of an object and its reflective properties. D. says that rarefied gases will emit energy only at certain discrete wavelengths. E. is the reason the sky is blue and sunsets are red.
B
16. Suppose the Earth started spiraling in gradually towards the Sun. As the orbit became smaller, what would happen to the speed of the Earth in its orbit? A. It would stay the same. B. It would go faster. C. It would go slower. D. There is not enough information to answer the question.
B
17. If the Sun sets at 6:00P.M., at about what time does the third quarter Moon set? A. 9 A.M. B. noon C. 6 P.M. D. 9 P.M. E. midnight
B
17. In finding the distance to a galaxy using Cepheid variables, the star's luminosity is determined a) from the fact that all Cepheids, inside or outside the Milky Way, have the same luminosity. b) from the period-luminosity relation. c) from the H-R diagram. d) from the mass-luminosity relation. e) from Hubble's luminosity law.
B
17. Which one of the following statements concerning comets is correct? A. Comets appear to come primarily from the direction of the constellation Hercules. B. Comets are observed in all directions on the celestial sphere. C. Comets are best seen around midnight. D. Comets orbit the Sun in nearly circular orbits. E. Comets are primarily rocky objects.
B
18. Hubble's constant is 70 km/s per Mpc. A distant galaxy is observed to be receding from us at 1400 km/s. How far away is it? a) 10 Mpc b) 20 Mpc c) 70 Mpc d) 100 Mpc e) 200 Mpc
B
19. A nova happens in a distant galaxy. You -think- it is a supernova. How will the distance you calculate from the observed flux compare with the true distance? a) Your calculated distance will be smaller than the true distance. b) Your calculated distance will be larger than the true distance. c) Your calculated distance will be the same as the true distance.
B
19. Tides are causing the Earth's... A. rotation period to get shorter. B. rotation period to get longer. C. distance to the Moon to get smaller. D. distance to the Sun to get smaller.
B
2. Jupiter gives off more energy than it receives from the Sun. What is the source of this excess energy? A. lightning bolts in the atmosphere B. internal heat left over from its formation C. the tidal force between the planet and the Sun D. energy absorbed from beyond the solar system and then re-emitted
B
2. The speed of light is 3 x 105 km/s and the Moon is about 400,000 km from Earth. About how long would it take a radar signal from Earth to reach the Moon? A. a fraction of a second B. 1.3 seconds C. 2.6 seconds D. about 1 minute E. It would be virtually instantaneous
B
2. What do you observe if you see a clock on a VERY fast train moving by you? A. The moving clock ticks faster than your own clock. B. The moving clock ticks more slowly than your own clock. C. The moving clock ticks at the same rate as your own clock. D. The moving clock does not tick: it has stopped.
B
20. A space probe is boosted by a rocket until it is out of the solar system. In deep space, far away from all stars and other masses, the rocket engine stops. What will happen to the space probe? A. It will slow down and comes to rest. B. It will cruise in a straight line at constant speed. C. It will move at a speed depending upon its temperature. D. It will eventually reverse in direction and return to the Earth. E. It will continue with constant acceleration in a straight line.
B
20. An iron core cannot support a star because: A. Iron has poor nuclear binding energy. B. Iron cannot fuse with other nuclei to produce energy. C. Iron supplies too much pressure. D. Iron is in the form of a gas, not a solid, in the center of a star.
B
20. If the Earth had its rotation axis perpendicular to its orbital plane A. its seasons would be the same as they are now because the Earth's rotation is perpendicular to its orbital plane. B. it would not have any appreciable seasons. C. its seasonal changes would be more intense than they are now. D. its seasons would be the same as they are now because the angle of the axis tilt has nothing to do with seasons.
B
20. Which of the following observations has the most light gathering power? a) 10 second exposure on a 10 meter diameter telescope b) 1 second exposure on a 100 meter diameter telescope c) 100 second exposure on a 1 meter diameter telescope d) 5 second exposure on a 20 meter diameter telescope e) 20 second exposure on a 2 meter diameter telescope
B
21. Which is the correct statement about neutrinos? A. They are a form of electro-magnetic radiation B. They are a signature of nuclear fusion. C. They are produced in the corona of the Sun. D. They are produced in sunspots E. They are easy to detect.
B
22. The mass of the Earth can be determined using the Moon and by applying A. Newton's first law of motion. B. Newton's form of Kepler's 3rd law of planetary motion. C. Newton's form of Kepler's first law of planetary motion. D. Newton's 3rd law. E. Kepler's 1st law.
B
22. The spectral type of the Sun is A. K B. G C. F D. A E. B
B
22. What phase will Venus have when it is at its closest to the Earth? A. full B. new C. gibbous D. crescent E. none; Venus does not show phases.
B
23. For an observer at the equator, where on the celestial sphere will the north celestial pole be located? A. on the eastern horizon B. on the northern horizon C. on the western horizon D. on the southern horizon E. directly overhead
B
23. What is Cygnus X-1? A. an experimental spacecraft designed to travel close to the speed of light B. a leading candidate for being a black hole C. a binary neutron star system D. a millisecond pulsar with two planets E. the first discovered X-ray burster
B
23. What was one of Newton's major contributions to astronomy? A. He discovered that the planets move around the Sun in elliptical orbits. B. He developed a theory of gravity that could explain orbital motion. C. He was the first to propose the Earth is not at the center of the universe. D. He used a telescope to observe the heavens, thereby reinforcing the notion of geocentricity. E. He made extensive and detailed observations of the positions of planets.
B
24. A star whose parallax is 0.1 second of arc is at a distance of A. 1 parsec B. 10 parsecs C. 100 parsecs D. 0.1 parsecs E. 1 light year
B
24. The key to identifying a black hole candidate in a binary system is the following. A. one of the two stars cannot be seen B. the unseen companion in the system must have a sufficiently high mass C. the system must be a very strong source of radio emissions D. the seen companion must be an evolving main sequence or giant star E. matter must be seen disappearing into the black hole
B
25. If a star is observed from Earth to have a parallax of 0.25 seconds of arc, what would the parallax be if the star were observed from telescopes in Saturn's orbit, which is 10 times larger? (Hint: a drawing may be helpful) A. the same, 0.25 seconds of arc B. 10 times larger, 2.5 seconds of arc C. 100 (10 squared) times larger, 25 seconds of arc D. 10 times smaller, 0.025 seconds of arc E. 100 (10 squared) times smaller, 0.0025 seconds of arc
B
25. Polaris, the North Star, does not appear to move in the sky because: A. The stars are fixed relative to each other. B. It lies approximately over the northern rotation axis of the Earth. C. It is too nearby for its motion to be discernible. D. It is located directly overhead for everyone on Earth.
B
3. Divide 4x1021 by 2x107. A. 2 x 103 B. 2 x 1014 C. 2 x 1028 D. 8 x 1028 E. 8 x 1014
B
3. If two stars A and B have the same surface temperature, yet star A has a lower luminosity than star B, then A. A must be larger than B B. A must be smaller than B C. A is further away than B D. A is nearer to us than B E. A is must have a smaller observed flux than B
B
5. What makes it possible for astronomers to calculate the masses of the Jovian planets? A. the presence of magnetic fields. B. the presence of moons. C. their measured rotation rates. D. their measured chemical compositions of their atmospheres. E. their known distances.
B
5. Which of the following is not a characteristic of active galaxies? a) They are generally more luminous than fairly bright normal galaxies. b) Their energy emission can be explained as the accumulated emission of billions of stars. c) Their energy output can be highly variable. d) They often exhibit jets and other signs of explosive activity. e) Their optical spectra may show broad emission lines, indicating rapid internal motion.
B
6. The tendency of light to bend at the edge of an opening is called? A. differentiation. B. diffraction. C. interference. D. reflection. E. ionization.
B
6. What do astronomers infer about Jupiter from the presence of its magnetic field? A. the presence of a small rocky core. B. the presence of a rotating core of liquid metallic hydrogen in the interior. C. the presence of a planetary ring. D. the presence of extensive storm systems on the planet's surface. E. the emission of about twice as much energy as is received from the Sun.
B
6. What is the importance of Kepler's first law? A. It fully explains the motion of bodies in the solar system. B. It shows that the Greek notion of circular motion was wrong. C. It explains retrograde motion. D. It gave the first explanation of gravity. E. It provided a way to determine the distances to planets.
B
6. Which of the following is a true observation of Mars indicating the presence of annual seasons? A. Plant growth has been detected in the springtime. B. In each hemisphere, the polar cap changes in size as Mars orbits the Sun. C. Volcanism shows a seasonal dependence. D. Seasonal floods have been detected. E. The magnetic field varies with orbital position.
B
7. What is *not* approximately the same for each star in a cluster? A. age B. mass C. composition D. distance from Earth
B
8. What do you observe if you see a clock that is near to a black hole? A. The clock ticks faster than your own clock. B. The clock ticks more slowly than your own clock. C. The clock ticks at the same rate as your own clock. D. The clock does not tick: it has stopped.
B
8. Which of the following lists the various forms of radiation in order of -longest- to -shortest- wavelength? A. radio, microwave, visible, infrared B. visible, ultraviolet, X-ray, gamma rays C. ultraviolet, gamma rays, infrared, radio D. X-rays, microwaves, ultraviolet, infrared E. microwaves, infrared, radio, X-rays
B
9. A man accused of running a red light claims that what really happened was that he was going so fast that it Doppler shifted to green. So the judge decides to fine him $1 for every kilometer per second he is going over the speed limit. Assume that the shift between red and green in the spectrum is 700 Angstroms, and that red light has a wavelength of about 7000 Angstroms. How much is his fine? A. About $3,000. B. About $30,000. C. About $5,000. D. About $300,000. E. About $186,000.
B
9. The Moon is about 400,000 km from Earth. About how long would it take a radar signal from Earth to reach the Moon? A. a fraction of a second B. 1.3 seconds C. 2.6 seconds D. about 1 minute E. It would be virtually instantaneous.
B
9. Which of the following is not evidence in favor of General Relativity? A. The precession of Mercury. B. The slow rotation of Venus. C. Gravitational redshift. D. Bending of starlight by the Sun.
B
9. You are kidnapped, drugged, and flown somewhere. After an indefinite time in a dark cell, you escape and try to determine from the sky where you are and what time of year it is. What could you say about your location on Earth if you find the North Pole Star Polaris and estimate its altitude to be 70 degrees above the north horizon. A. You are at 20 degrees north latitude. B. You are at 70 degrees north latitude. C. You are at the North Pole. D. You are located on the ecliptic. E. There is not enough information to answer.
B
11. What was discovered about the spectra of quasars? a) The emission lines were from completely unknown elements. b) The emission lines were formed by completely new processes never before observed. c) They contained normal emission lines that were highly redshifted. d) For the first time, stars were discovered to have radio emission lines.
C
1. How do Saturn's rings rotate? A. like a solid body B. slowly in the inner and outer regions and rapidly in the middle areas C. slowly in the outer regions and rapidly in the inner regions D. rapidly in the outer regions and slowly in the inner regions E. on very elliptical orbits
C
1. In scientific notation, we would express the number 99,000 as A. 9.9 X 10-3. B. 9 orders of magnitude. C. 9.9 X 104. D. 9.9 X 103. E. 100,000
C
1. The Big Bang theory explains a) the ratio of numbers of spiral to elliptical galaxies b) the presence of supermassive black holes in the centers of galaxies c) the abundance of helium in interstellar gas d) the acceleration of the Universe e) the emergence of life in the Universe
C
1. What wavelength of electromagnetic radiation is best to study a star that is forming from a dense dust cloud? A. ultraviolet B. optical C. infrared D. gamma-ray
C
10. What inevitably forces a star like the Sun to evolve away from being a main sequence star? A. It completely runs out of hydrogen. B. It explodes violently. C. It builds up a core of helium. D. The core becomes too cool to fuse hydrogen. E. The core loses all of its neutrinos, so fusion ceases.
C
10. Which out of the following methods for finding extrasolar planets has been the most successful? a) Direct Optical Imaging b) Radial Velocity (Doppler) c) Transits d) Gravitational Microlensing e) Pulsar Timing
C
11. What features characterize Titan? A. a strong magnetic field B. the presence of an extremely large crater C. the presence of an atmosphere D. liquid water
C
11. When an electron jumps from an excited state to the ground state in an atom, A. the atom is said to be ionized. B. the electron gains energy. C. a photon is emitted. D. a photon is absorbed. E. the process is called interference.
C
11. Which of the following is true regarding planetary nebulae? A. They are the result of the mass lost during the main sequence stage. B. They are the rings of material surrounding newly formed stars that will eventually form the planetary systems. C. They are the ejected envelopes of highly evolved low-mass stars. D. They are the cores of gas surrounding protostars.
C
12. Why are the lunar mare smooth? A. because of continental motions over billions of years B. because of erosion from a primitive lunar atmosphere C. because of past lava flows D. because of erosion from a primitive lunar ocean E. because of the strong tidal effects Earth exerts on the Moon
C
13. If a star rises at midnight, then two weeks -later- it will rise at approximately A. midnight. B. 11:30 P.M. C. 11:00 P.M. D. 12:30 A.M. E. 1:00 A.M.
C
13. Which of the following planets would come closest to floating in a giant interplanetary bathtub filled with water? A. Jupiter B. Mercury C. Saturn D. Neptune E. Uranus
C
13. Which one of the terrestrial planets and moons can be considered a "sister" planet to the Earth in terms of mass and size? A. Mars B. Mercury C. Venus D. The Moon
C
14. What is the only way that a white dwarf can suddenly explode? A. it never can explode B. if it passes through a large dust cloud C. if it gains sufficient mass from a binary companion to exceed the Chandrasekhar mass D. if it finally cools off to under 2000 K
C
14. Which of the following statements about the electromagnetic radiation is true? A. The higher the frequency the faster the waves B. Shorter wavelength waves have a lower frequency C. Electromagnetic waves are created by vibrating electric charges D. Cooler objects emit more smaller wavelength radiation than hotter objects E. Like sound waves, electromagnetic waves need a material medium in which to travel
C
15. The object located at the very center of the Galaxy is believed to be a ________. a) a large cluster of stars b) an enormous emission nebula c) a black hole d) a massive supernova e) a massive star formation region
C
16. About how many galaxies are believed to exist in the observable universe? a) about 20 million b) about 2 billion c) about 20 billion or more d) about 20 thousand or fewer
C
16. When a cool gas cloud intervenes between an observer and a source of light that emits light of all wavelengths, the observer would see A. an emission spectrum characteristic of the gas cloud. B. a magnified image of the gas cloud. C. an absorption spectrum characteristic of the gas cloud. D. no change in the spectrum of the source of light. E. a complete continuous spectrum.
C
16. Which planet has been visited by several rovers, including Spirit, Opportunity and Curiosity? A. Mercury B. Venus C. Mars D. Jupiter E. Saturn
C
16. Which star will live a longer life on the main sequence? A. A star with the same mass as the Sun. B. A star with 10 times the mass of the Sun. C. A star with 0.1 times the mass of the Sun. D. They all have the same main sequence lifetime since they are all fusing Hydrogen into Helium.
C
17. Ionization means that an atom A. jumps into the ground state. B. jumps into an excited state. C. loses an electron. D. absorbs a photon. E. becomes a molecule.
C
17. What is the final fate of the Sun? A. brown dwarf B. black hole C. white dwarf D. planetary nebula E. red giant
C
18. A radio telescope with a diameter of 100m detects electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 1cm. Your eye sees light with a wavelength as short as 3000 Angstroms = 0.3 microns, and has a pupil diameter of 0.3cm = 3000 microns. Which can see the finer detail? A. The radio telescope B. Your eye. C. They are equally good at resolving detail.
C
18. The center of our galaxy is in the direction of the constellation a) Hercules. b) Cygnus. c) Sagittarius. d) Centrum. e) Corona.
C
18. What is the source of particles that impinge on the Earth during a meteor shower? A. stray material from the asteroid belt B. the zodiacal dust: a pervasive distribution of dust particles that exists throughout the ecliptic plane of the solar system C. material evaporated from and strewn out along the orbits of comets D. ejecta from impacts on the lunar surface that fall to Earth E. ejecta from impacts on Mars that then orbit and fall to Earth
C
19. Summers are warmer than winters primarily because A. the Earth is closer to the Sun in summer. B. the days are longer in the summer. C. the Sun is at a higher altitude in the sky. D. the Sun emits more energy in the summer. E. the Moon contributes more to Earth's heat in the summer than it does in the winter.
C
2. Suppose you wanted to study objects whose chemical make-up was most like that of the solar system at the time it formed. Thus, you would want to study objects that had undergone the least amount of chemical change. Which one of the following would contain such material and thus be the best to study? A. the Moon B. the asteroids C. the comets D. iron meteorites E. the Earth
C
2. What statement concerning volcanoes on Mars is true? A. They indicate that the core of Mars is much larger than the Earth's. B. They are probably due to meteoric impact. C. They are larger than those on Earth. D. They are the source of oxygen in Mars' atmosphere. E. They may actually just be mountains raised up by continental drift.
C
21. If a comet has a very eccentric (i.e. very elliptical) orbit and has an orbital period of 1000 years, what is its maximum distance from the Sun? A. 1,000 AU B. 100 AU C. 200 AU D. 100,000 AU E. 2,000 AU
C
21. What do we find when we compare the effect of the Earth's gravity on the Moon with the effect of the Moon's gravity on the Earth? A. The forces are the same strength but the Moon's acceleration is less. B. The force on the Moon is greater, but acceleration is the same. C. The forces are the same strength, but the Moon's acceleration is greater. D. The force on the Moon is less, but its acceleration is greater. E. The force on the Moon and Moon's acceleration are greater.
C
22. A star can be a supernova: A. Many times. B. At various times, depending on the mass of the star. C. Once. D. Early in its evolution.
C
25. What characteristic of a star cluster is used to determine its age? A. The number of red giants. B. The faintest stars seen in the cluster. C. The position of the main sequence turnoff in the HR diagram. D. The total number of stars in the cluster.
C
3. What does the presence of a planetary magnetic field suggest about its structure? (Choose best answer) A. Its core is probably composed of solid iron. B. It has a rocky surface, with magnetism locked up in rocks as iron oxides. C. It probably has a molten iron core, and the rotation of the planet generates the field. D. The planet has been magnetized in the past by some passing object. E. The planet has been disrupted at some time, so that material from its magnetic interior has gotten out.
C
3. What is Jupiter's Great Red Spot thought to be? A. a disturbance in its atmosphere where some type of asteroid hit the planet B. the outgassing of an enormous volcano C. a violent and long-lived storm, like a cyclone or hurricane D. a transient collection of clouds E. an enormous lake of burning sulfur
C
4. From the observed densities of Jupiter and Saturn, we infer that they are made primarily of ? A. sulphur. B. iron. C. hydrogen. D. carbon dioxide. E. nitrogen.
C
4. Two sets of waves can combine with each other to produce a resultant wave. This phenomenon is called? A. differentiation. B. diffraction. C. interference. D. reflection. E. ionization.
C
4. Why is the Earth's atmosphere so different from that of the other terrestrial planets? A. Planetary atmospheres are entirely due to materials outgassed from the interior, so the Earth must have just erupted different elements. B. The Earth is less massive, so the other elements seen elsewhere are not on Earth because they escaped from its weak gravity. C. On the Earth, water dissolved the carbon dioxide and plants made oxygen. D. Mars has more iron, and this plus oxygen made rust. E. The strong intensity of sunlight at Earth's location created the oxygen from water.
C
5. Into which category do the majority of stars fall? A. red giants B. white dwarfs C. main sequence D. supergiants E. hotter than the Sun
C
5. What do all kinds of electromagnetic energy have in common? A. all have the same wavelength. B. all are observed in the same way. C. all have the same speed in a vacuum. D. all have the same frequency.
C
5. What is a pulsar? A. A rotating, magnetized white dwarf. B. A periodic nova explosion. C. The remnant of some type II supernova explosions. D. A burst of magnetic energy from the Sun.
C
6. Why is the energy source of Active Galactic Nuclei (AGN) thought to be extremely compact? a) Their energy is totally nonstellar in origin. b) Their spectra are like those produced by ordinary stars. c) They vary on rapid time scales. d) AGN can always be seen clearly; we can see that the energy source is compact.
C
7. What is the Great Wall? a) It is not a structure but a distance beyond which astronomers cannot view galaxies. b) It is the time before the universe started expanding; a time about which we can never know anything. c) It is a large sheet of galaxies measuring about 70 Mpc by 200 Mpc. d) It is an enormous intergalactic cloud of dust and gas that hides more distant galaxies.
C
8. What distinguishes a brown dwarf from a normal star? A. They are always found as single stars. B. They are more massive than 150 times the mass of the Sun. C. Their centers are too cool for fusion of hydrogen to helium. D. They are always found on the main sequence.
C
8. Which features characterize Io? A. a heavily cratered surface B. a smooth, featureless surface C. volcanic flows D. cratered regions as well as smooth, mare-like areas E. regions containing linear fault-like structures
C
9. Freddy's Comet is an impressive naked-eye comet that was seen in 1997 and 2005 (and not in between). What is the comet's average distance from the Sun? A. 1 AU B. 2 AU C. 4 AU D. 8 AU E. 64 AU
C
1. The final element produced by fusion in a massive star before it dies is A. carbon B. oxygen C. silicon D. iron
D
10. Which of the following was -not- an observational discovery of Galileo? A. the period of rotation of the Sun B. the phases of Venus C. the motions of the satellites of Jupiter D. precession of the Earth's rotation axis E. the Milky Way being made of large numbers of faint stars
D
11. What was Tycho Brahe's principal contribution to astronomy? A. his open support of the Copernican model of the cosmos. B. his suggested model for the solar system (which had a fixed Earth with the Sun revolving about it but the rest of the plane revolving about the Sun). C. his choice of Galileo as an assistant. D. the accuracy of his observations and the completeness of his records. E. etiquette lessons on drinking large quantities of alcohol at important social functions.
D
11. Which is the correct description of the Sun's location within the Milky Way? a) In the galactic bulge and also in the plane of the disc. b) In the disc at its outer edge. c) Above the disc and about one-third of the galactic radius from the center. d) In the disc and about one-half a galactic radius from the center.
D
12. Nearly all the elements were formed inside stars. A major exception is: A. Iron B. Oxygen C. Carbon D. Hydrogen
D
12. What two observations of an object orbiting in the Milky Way allow for a determination of the Milky Way's mass? a) Object's mass and velocity. b) Object's age and distance from the Galactic center. c) Object's mass and age. d) Object's velocity and distance from the Galactic center.
D
12. When an atom changes from a lower to a higher energy level, the process is called A. neutralization. B. ionization. C. perturbation. D. excitation. E. recombination.
D
12. When does the Sun reach its maximum altitude in the sky for an observer south of latitude 23.5 degrees south? A. on the vernal equinox. B. on the June solstice. C. on the autumnal equinox. D. on the December solstice.
D
13. Copernicus explained the retrograde motions of the planets A. as natural motions B. using epicycles C. as result of the Moon's gravity pulling on the Earth D. as resulting from the relative motions of the planets and the Earth around the Sun E. as a result the planets' orbits around the Earth
D
13. Suppose you have a detector that captures 1000 photons with a wavelength of 100 Angstroms each. How many photons would you need to collect in order to have the same total amount of energy if the photons had a wavelength of 20 Angstroms? A. 5 B. 10 C. 50 D. 200 E. 1,000
D
13. Why is direct imaging of exoplanets difficult? a) planets are rare around other stars b) planets do not reflect much light from their host star c) planets are well separated from their host stars d) planets are cooler and smaller than their host stars
D
14. Homogeneity and isotropy, taken as assumptions regarding the structure and evolution of the universe, are known as: a) The Hubble Law. b) The Big Bang Theory. c) The Doppler Shift. d) The Cosmological Principle.
D
15. Type I supernovae _______ A. are the fate of all low mass stars. B. repeat every 50 to 100 years. C. are the collapse of massive stars to black holes or neutron stars. D. are explosions which destroy white dwarfs. E. are the collision between two red giant stars.
D
15. We have been sending strong radio signals into space for about 70 years, so that about 20,000 star systems have had the chance to detect our signals. How many star systems will have had this chance by 2086? a) About 20,000 b) About 40,000 c) About 80,000 d) About 160,000
D
15. What is the Local Group? a) the galaxies found within a few billion light years of us. b) the nearby supercluster we are a part of. c) something composed of nearby stars and star clusters. d) the galaxies found with a few million light years of us. e) a nearby cluster of galaxies in the direction of Virgo.
D
15. What is the critical temperature at which hydrogen can begin to fuse into helium in the core of a star? A. 10,000 K. B. 100,000 K. C. 1 million K. D. 10 million K. E. 1000 million K.
D
15. Why does an astronaut float inside the space shuttle? A. Because there is no gravity in space. B. Because the pull from the Moon equalizes the pull from the Earth. C. Because the astronaut's orbital motion cancels out the force of gravity D. Because both the astronaut and the shuttle are accelerating toward the Earth at the same rate. E. Because uniform forces from the cylindrical shuttle are the same on all sides of the astronaut, cancelling out and making the astronaut appear to float.
D
16. Which of these nebulae are not associated with star-forming regions? A. dark nebula B. emission nebula C. reflection nebula D. planetary nebula
D
17. A Universe with a density _____ the critical density will ______ . a) higher than; expand forever b) lower than; end in a big crunch c) the same as; end in a big crunch d) lower than; expand forever e) higher than; have an infinite volume
D
17. A spectral line in a particular star is observed to be at a wavelength of 5500 Angstroms instead of the normal 5000 Angstroms. How fast is the star moving? (the speed of light is 300,000 km/s) a) 3,000 km/s towards us b) 3,000 km/s away from us c) 30,000 km/s towards us d) 30,000 km/s away from us
D
17. Which is the correct statement about radioactivity? A. All radioactive material is man-made. B. After three half-lives, one quarter of the original radioactive material remains. C. Radioactive atoms have stable atomic nuclei. D. Radioactive decay can involve "alchemy", i.e., the transformation of one element into another. E. After two half-lives, one half of the original radioactive material remains.
D
17. Why does the Earth have a more active geology than Mars? A. Earth is closer to the Sun, thus receiving greater heating. B. Earth has more extreme seasons. C. Earth's Moon is more massive than Mars' moons. D. Earth is more massive than Mars. E. Earth has a thicker atmosphere than Mars.
D
18. Newton's modification of Kepler's 3rd law is useful because it allows astronomers to determine _____. A. angular size B. precession C. diameter, i.e. true physical size D. mass E. rotation period
D
18. What makes it possible for astronomers to calculate the mass of Mars? A. the presence of magnetic fields. B. the measured rotation rate. C. measuring the orbital period of Mars around the Sun. D. Phobos and Deimos. E. the chemical composition of surface rocks.
D
18. Who discovered that the Sun and other stars are mostly made of hydrogen? A. Isaac Newton B. Galileo Galilei C. Albert Einstein D. Cecilia Payne-Gaposchkin E. Annie Jump Cannon
D
18. You move to a planet with only 1/3 of the mass of the Earth and 1/3 of the radius of the Earth. What happens to your weight on this new planet compared to that you have on the Earth? A. It is 9 times smaller. B. It is 3 times smaller. C. It is the same. D. It is 3 times greater. E. It is 9 times greater.
D
19. Which of the following has the stellar spectral classes correctly ordered from coolest to hottest? A. ABCDEFG B. ABFGKMO C. FGKOBAM D. MKGFABO E. OBAFGKM
D
19. Which of the following properties is NOT desirable for a good telescope? a) large diameter b) high altitude above sea level c) smooth surface d) refracting lenses rather than reflecting mirrors e) remote location rather than near urban areas
D
19. Which one of these planets has the most extreme seasonal variations? A. Saturn B. Venus C. Jupiter D. Uranus E. Neptune
D
2. How much more energy does each unit area of a 25,000 K star radiate than a 5,000 K star? A. 5 times B. 25 times C. 125 times D. 625 times E. The answer depends on the size of the star, which is not given.
D
2. Which of the following statements would best describe the color of an elliptical galaxy? a) It would be bluish, because star formation is going on actively now. b) It would be reddish because they have large amount of dust c) Reddish in the nucleus and bluish in outer regions, indicating regions of past and present star formation. d) Reddish, because most of the star formation was long ago and no blue stars are left. e) It would be whitish overall, with very little color differentiation.
D
2. Which problems does Inflation solve for the Big Bang Theory? a) Flatness problem, Helium Nucleosynthesis problem b) Horizon problem, Microwave Background problem c) Flatness problem, Fermi paradox d) Flatness problem, Horizon problem e) Horizon problem, Steady State problem
D
20. In which of the following characteristics is there NOT a MAJOR difference between Pluto and the Jovian planets? A. Mass B. Inclination of orbital plane relative to ecliptic plane C. Number of moons D. Distance from Sun E. Chemical composition
D
20. We know most about the center of the Earth because of A. radioactivity B. aurora C. erosion D. earthquakes E. deep mining and drilling
D
20. You would expect to find the highest degree of ionization in the atmosphere of A. the Sun. B. an A-type main-sequence star. C. an M-type star. D. an O-type star. E. a planet like Venus.
D
23. What quantity has the biggest influence in determining the spectral type of a star? A. its chemical composition B. its pressure C. its magnetic field D. its surface temperature E. its size
D
24. What are constellations? A. Groups of galaxies seen clustered in the night sky. B. Groups of stars that are gravitationally bound to each other. C. Groups of bright stars that are all about the same distance from the Earth. D. Groups of stars that make an apparent pattern in the sky.
D
26. The dividing line between the sunlit and night portions of a planet is known as the "Terminator". How fast is Terminator moving over the Earth's surface at the equator? A. 30 m/s B. 80 m/s C. 330 m/s D. 470 m/s E. 1000 m/s
D
3. Why could serious thinkers of the time object to the heliocentric model of the solar system put forth by Copernicus? A. It could not explain retrograde motion. B. It used epicycles to explain planetary motions. C. Kepler had already demonstrated that the orbits were not circles. D. The stars did not show parallax motions. E. Newton had proposed that the natural state of motion was being at rest or at constant velocity.
D
4. Divide 8x1080 by 2x1040. A. 4 x 102 B. 2 x 1020 C. 4 x 1020 D. 4 x 1040 E. 2 x 1040
D
4. In a radio galaxy, the ultimate energy source for the entire radio lobe source is thought to be: a) in the lobes b) the galaxy's stars c) supernovae d) a black hole in the center of the galaxy e) none of the above
D
4. Most of the gas in the interstellar medium is made of ... A. dust B. oxygen C. carbon monoxide (CO) D. hydrogen E. helium
D
4. The measured speed of light in a vacuum A. depends on the frequency of light. B. depends on the wavelength of light. C. depends on the size of the Doppler effect. D. does not depend on the inertial reference frame.
D
4. We observe an absorption line of Oxygen in a galaxy at a wavelength of 5350 Angstroms, but in the Milky Way this line is seen to be at 5000 Angstroms. What is the distance to the galaxy? (Hubble's constant is 70 km/s per Mpc). a) 30 Mpc b) 60 Mpc c) 100 Mpc d) 300 Mpc e) 1000 Mpc
D
4. What is the correct ordering of the electromagnetic spectrum in increasing wavelength? A. infrared, visible, ultraviolet B. visible, infrared, ultraviolet C. ultraviolet, infrared, visible D. ultraviolet, visible, infrared E. infrared, ultraviolet, visible
D
4. What is the major source of the Earth's interior heat? A. the high pressures of the overlying material. B. the high densities at the Earth's center. C. tidal friction caused by the Moon. D. decay of radioactive elements E. solar energy, which heated the material when it was forming the Earth
D
5. What does the observed angular size of an object depend upon? A. apparent size divided distance. B. apparent size times true size. C. diameter times apparent size. D. true physical size divided by distance. E. true physical size times distance.
D
5. What is the primary reason why Mercury is difficult to see from the Earth? A. It is a very small planet. B. It is very faint. C. It rotates very slowly. D. It always appears near the bright Sun. E. Its orbit is highly elliptical.
D
5. Which of the following is not a factor in the Drake equation for estimating the number of technological civilizations in the Galaxy? a) the star formation rate of the Galaxy b) the fraction of stars with planets c) the fraction of planets suitable for life d) the number of planetary nebulae in the Galaxy e) the average lifetime of technological civilizations
D
6. The Hertzsprung-Russell diagram is A. a graph of stellar luminosity versus stellar mass. B. a graph of surface temperature versus stellar mass C. a plot of the color of a star versus its surface temperature D. a graph of stellar luminosity versus surface temperature E. a graph of luminosity versus apparent brightness
D
6. What causes the aurora borealis? A. electrical storms near the Earth's surface B. electrical storms near the top of the Earth's atmosphere C. the Moon's tidal effects on the Earth's atmosphere D. solar particles interacting with the Earth's magnetic field and atmosphere E. unknown electrical effects associated with the subduction zones between continental plates
D
6. What is the correct ordering from largest to smallest? A. Red giant star, white dwarf, neutron star, G main sequence star B. Super giant star, white dwarf, Jupiter, neutron star C. Red giant star, white dwarf, neutron star, the Earth D. Super giant star, white dwarf, neutron star, 3 solar mass black hole
D
6. Which is not a potential solution of the "rotation problem"? A. Launching of outflows B. Formation of binary stars C. Formation of planets D. The conservation of angular momentum
D
7. Imagine a star travelling towards the Earth at a speed of 300 km/sec and emitting a spectral emission line that is normally at a wavelength of 10,000 Angstroms when there is no motion. Recall that the speed of light is 300,000 km/s. An astronomer on Earth would observe that this emission line is at a wavelength of A. 10,020 Angstroms B. 10,010 Angstroms C. 10,000 Angstroms D. 9,990 Angstroms E. 9,980 Angstroms
D
7. Jupiter's Galilean satellites have higher densities than the satellites of the other Jovian planets. We can infer that the Galilean satellites contain more _____ than the satellites of the other Jovian planets. A. water ice B. methane and ammonia ices C. liquid water D. rocky silicate materials like the Moon E. hydrogen
D
7. What do we mean by the ZENITH? A. The direction parallel to the Earth's rotation axis, pointing north. B. The north celestial pole. C. The direction due north from your position. D. The direction directly above you. E. The direction to an object when it is at its highest altitude on the meridian.
D
7. What was the importance of Kepler's second law? A. It showed that orbits are ellipses. B. It provided a way to determine the distances to planets. C. It provided an understanding of the concept of gravitational force. D. It shows that planets do not move at uniform speed in their orbits. E. It shows that the Greek notion of circular motion was wrong.
D
8. Imagine a star travelling at a speed of 600 km/sec, perpendicular to the line of sight from the Earth to the star. An astronomer on Earth would observe the hydrogen spectral line that is normally at 4861 Angstroms at a wavelength of A. 4855 Angstroms B. 4860 Angstroms C. 4851 Angstroms D. 4861 Angstroms E. 4871 Angstroms
D
1. The Earth and the Moon have nearly identical relative abundances of the various types of oxygen atoms in their surface rocks, but the overall density of the Moon is smaller than the Earth. What can we conclude from these facts? A. The relative abundances of oxygen atom types are the same all over the universe. B. The Moon was probably formed elsewhere and then captured. C. The Moon formed in the same way and at the same time as the Earth. D. The Moon and the Earth are not differentiated. E. The Moon formed from surface material from the forming Earth, thrown out by a large impact.
E
11. What are most lunar craters caused by? A. volcano-like activity on the Moon. B. a local collapse of the surface into subsurface caverns. C. equal number of volcanic and impact events. D. crustal movements similar to continental drift. E. impact events from meteoritic material.
E
12. How does energy escape from the center of the Sun? A. By convection in the center; radiation in the outer region B. By convection only C. By radiation only D. By nuclear fusion E. By radiation in the center; convection in the outer region
E
12. Quasars have their distances measured by what technique? a) Cepheids b) flux-luminosity equation c) Supernovae d) parallax e) Hubble law
E
12. What is at least one reason why rings are thought to be sharp-edged, rather than fuzzy-edged? A. Saturn's gravity does not act beyond the edge of the ring B. Saturn's magnetic field C. passing comets disrupt material outside the ring, thus making it sharp-edged D. Collisions between the ring particles E. The presence of shepherd satellites
E
12. What is the mean distance from the Sun of a planet whose orbital period is 32 years? A. impossible to calculate without knowing the eccentricity B. about 32 AU C. about 64 AU D. about 3 AU E. about 10 AU
E
12. Which one of the following surface features is found on all terrestrial planets and the Moon? A. maria B. large volcanoes C. river beds D. large wrinkled ridges (scarps) E. craters
E
13. If you lived on the far side of the Moon, how often would you see the Earth? A. once every 24 hours B. once every 27.3 days C. once every 29.5 days D. once every year E. never
E
14. In an atom that absorbs a photon, A. an electron moves to a larger orbit. B. an electron moves to a higher energy level. C. the atom may become ionized. D. it is possible it will spontaneously change its energy state again soon. E. all of the above.
E
14. Which of the following is not found in the Galaxy's halo? a) globular clusters b) old stars c) stars with random, three dimensional orbits d) red stars e) emission nebulae containing young stars
E
14. Why is the interior of Io so hot? A. Jupiter's magnetic field causes an electrical current to flow through it. B. Jupiter bombards Io with radioactivity from its Van Allen belts. C. It has active volcanoes. D. It is often struck by passing comets and asteroids. E. Jupiter exerts strong tidal forces on it.
E
15. Which of the following quantities determines whether a planet will exhibit seasons? A. average distance from the Sun B. rotation period C. density D. atmospheric composition E. axial tilt
E
16. At the south pole, how long is it between the time when a star is observed to rise in the east and set in the west? A. one Solar day B. one sidereal day C. half a sidereal day D. Half a Solar day E. Stars don't rise and set at the south pole.
E
16. Which is the correct statement about the nucleus of an atom? A. The nucleus contains almost all the charge of an atom B. The nucleus consists of protons and electrons C. The nucleus occupies most of the volume of an atom D. The nucleus has a strong negative electric charge E. The nucleus contains most of the mass of an atom
E
16. Which of the following is -not- characteristic of the terrestrial planets? A. relatively short orbital period around the Sun B. closeness to the Sun C. small number of natural satellites D. high density E. short rotation periods
E
17. If something were to cause the Earth to squeeze all its mass down into a ball only one-tenth the size of the present Earth, what would happen to the Moon? A. The smaller Earth could not hold onto the Moon, and it would go flying away. B. The smaller Earth would generate a stronger force on the Moon. C. The Moon's orbit would become more elliptical. D. The Moon's orbit would shrink to one tenth its present size. E. You would not see any change in the Moon's orbit, as the gravitational force on the Moon would stay the same.
E
18. Which of the following would you expect to observe from a round Earth? A. The Sun's height above the horizon should always be nearly the same. B. The shadow on the Moon during an eclipse should be a straight line. C. The stars should rise and set every 24 hours. D. The constellations that are visible should change as the observer changes longitude. E. The constellations that are visible should change as the observer changes latitude
E
19. Astronomers believe in the existence of Dark Matter because a) the orbital velocity of stars and gas in the Milky Way are fairly constant with Galactic radius b) galaxies in clusters have quite high velocities c) very hot gas is seen in clusters of galaxies d) galaxy clusters act as strong gravitational lenses e) all of the other answers
E
19. If the distance between two masses is doubled, what happens to the gravitational force between them? A. It stays the same. B. It increases by a factor of two. C. It increases by a factor of four. D. It decreases by a factor of two. E. It decreases by a factor of four.
E
2. The Astronomical Unit (AU) is defined as A. the distance between the Earth and the center of our Galaxy. B. the distance between the Earth and the Moon. C. the time it takes light to travel from the Sun to Earth. D. the typical distance between stars in the Galaxy. E. the average distance between the Sun and the Earth.
E
2. What is density? A. the volume containing a mass of 1 mass unit. B. the weight contained inside a volume of 1 volume unit. C. the amount by which something is condensed. D. the number of molecules of air inside one square centimeter. E. the amount of mass inside a volume of 1 volume unit.
E
2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of giant molecular clouds? A. high mass B. low temperature C. dusty D. stellar nursery E. simple structure
E
2. Who described the characteristics of an Earth-centered universe in a book called the ALMAGEST? A. Aristarchus. B. Aristotle. C. Copernicus. D. Hipparchus. E. Ptolemy.
E
21. We can measure the temperatures of stars from a study of their A. velocities B. brightnesses C. distances D. masses E. spectra and colors
E
22. What is the Oort cloud? A. A disk-like distribution of icy objects, that spawns short period comets B. A 100,000 km cloud of gas and dust around the nucleus of a comet C. A type of methane and ammonia cloud found high in the atmosphere of Neptune D. The remnant nebula from which the solar system formed E. A nearly spherical distribution of comets, that have been flung out from the inner Solar system by the Jovian planets
E
24. How does the period of a circular orbit at 2 AU differ from that of an eccentric (0.5) orbit whose semi-major axis is 2 AU? A. The eccentric orbit takes half as long. B. The eccentric orbit takes twice as long. C. The eccentric orbit takes a quarter as long. D. The eccentric orbit takes four times as long. E. Both orbits take equally as long.
E
28. How could Aristotle tell that the Earth was spherical? A. Travellers told him the Pole star stayed at a fixed angle in the sky as they journeyed east to west B. Travellers told him the Pole star stayed at a fixed angle in the sky as they journeyed north to south C. From the shape of the Moon's shadow during a solar eclipse D. From the shape of the Earth's shadow during a solar eclipse E. He saw a ship mast was the last part to be visible as it sailed into the distance
E
3. In scientific notation, we would express the number 35,000 as A. 3.5 x 10-3 B. 3 orders of magnitude C. 3 x 104 D. 3.5 x 103 E. 3.5 x 104
E
3. The interstellar medium of our Galaxy... A. is a perfect vacuum. B. has most of its volume filled with molecular gas. C. has most of its mass made up of atomic gas D. has a small fraction of its mass made up of dust grains. E. both C and D.
E
3. Why is the Earth is a differentiated body? A. denser materials formed near the core B. denser objects rise toward the surface C. the core has a high temperature D. the core has a high pressure E. gravity pulls denser materials toward the core more strongly
E
4. Which Ancient Greek Astronomer determined the size of the Earth? A. Aristarchus B. Ptolemy C. Pythagoras D. Aristotle E. Erastothenes
E
5. About how long would it take to send and receive a radio signal to and from a space probe orbiting around the nearest star to the Sun? A. 1 day B. 1 week C. 1 month D. 1 year E. 1 decade
E
6. Suppose you measure the angular size of an object that you think is 10 feet in width and located 100 feet away from you. You later discover that the object is actually 20 feet in width and that it was located 200 feet away from you. How should you modify your conclusion about its angular size, based on this information? A. You should double it. B. You should cut it in half. C. All you can do is remeasure. D. There is not enough information to answer this question. E. Both situations result in the same angular size.
E
6. What important molecules for life were found in the first Miller-Urey experiment? a) Simple DNA. b) Fatty acids. c) Proteins. d) Simple RNA. e) Amino acids.
E
7. Star cluster A is 10 billion years old and star cluster B is one million years old. At birth they had the same mass. Which statement is correct? a) A contains more massive stars than B b) B contains more white dwarf stars than A c) A is bluer than B d) A is more luminous than B e) A contains more red giant stars than B
E
7. What statement about the greenhouse effect is true? A. It causes planets to be green. B. It helps cool the Earth and keep it from becoming much warmer than it is. C. It is produced by the small amount of ozone in the atmosphere. D. It balances out the effects of the ozone hole. E. It comes about when re-radiated solar energy cannot escape the Earth's atmosphere.
E
7. Which of the following effects demonstrates the wave-nature rather than the particle-nature of light? A. diffraction B. interference C. reflection D. ionization E. both A and B
E
7. Which surface feature is prominent on both Mercury and Mars? A. maria B. large active volcanoes C. river beds D. large wrinkled ridges (scarps) E. craters
E
8. Why is Mars red? A. Its surface rocks are highly radioactive. B. Because of the way sunlight refracts through the Martian atmosphere. C. Because of dust lifted into the atmosphere by Mars' high winds. D. Its distance from the Sun keeps it cool and therefore red. E. Iron oxide (rust) on the surface
E
9. About how many extrasolar planets have been discovered to date? a) fewer than 10 b) 30 c) 100 d) 300 e) more than 3000
E
9. What features characterize Europa? A. a heavily cratered surface B. a smooth, featureless surface C. volcanic flows D. cratered regions as well as smooth, mare-like areas E. an ice-covered ocean of water
E
