ATI TEAS 6 Master Set

necessary for normal bone growth and function E) a constituent of orange-pigmented vegetables (carrots) and fruits (tomatoes), and part of the photoreceptor pigment involved in vision 33) The movement of ions across cell membranes is an example of: 33) ______ A) potential energy B) radiant energy C) mechanical energy D) electrical energy E) chemical energy 34) Shell 1 of an atom can hold a maximum of __________ electron(s). 34) ______ A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 8 E) 18

35) The subatomic particles that are responsible for the chemical behavior of atoms are the: 35) ______ A) electrons B) neutrons C) protons D) ions E) isotopes 36) Carbohydrates are built up from their basic building blocks by the: 36) ______ A) removal of a carbon atom B) addition of a water molecule between each unit C) removal of a water molecule between every two units D) addition of a carbon atom E) process termed ȈhydrolysisȈ 37) Which of the following solutions is the weakest acid: 37) ______ A) a solution with a pH of 8.6 B) a solution with a pH of 5.2 C) a solution with a pH of 2.4 D) a solution with a pH of 6.4 E) a solution with a pH of 10.1 38) An atom with an atomic number of 14 will have __________ electrons in its valence shell. 38) ______ A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 10 E) 14 39) An atom has 6 protons, 8 neutrons, and 6 electrons. Its atomic mass is: 39) ______ A) 20 B) 2 C) 14 D) 6 E) 8 40) The joining of amino acids to form a protein is an example of: 40) ______ A) a hydrolysis reaction B) a decomposition reaction C) a synthesis reaction D) an exchange reaction E) a denaturation reaction 41) Enzymes are classified as: 41) ______ A) triglycerides B) antibodies C) structural proteins D) functional proteins E) hormones 42) The atomic number of an atom reveals the number of: 42) ______ A) neutrons plus electrons B) protons plus electrons C) protons in the atomic nucleus D) protons plus neutrons E) electrons in the atomic nucleus 43) Water is useful in body processes because: 43) ______ A) it is a product in hydrolysis reactions B) it is a good solvent C) it acts as an enzyne D) it has a low heat capacity E) it is chemically inert 44) Glucose and starch are examples of: 44) ______ A) proteins B) triglycerides C) carbohydrates D) steroids E) phospholipids 45) Which of the following is an example of an inorganic molecule: 45) ______ A) an amino acid B) RNA C) cholesterol D) sodium chloride E) a fatty acid 46) Which of these factors will not increase the rate of a chemical reaction: 46) ______ A) increased temperature B) increased concentration of reacting particles C) decrease in particle size D) presence of catalysts E) decreased temperature 47) Trans fats are oils that have been solidified by the addition of: 47) ______ A) hydrogen atoms B) oxygen atoms C) phosphorus-containing groups D) nitrogen atoms E) carbon atoms 48) Which of the following statements about enzymes is true: 48) ______ A) they are carbohydrates B) they are required in large amounts in order to be effective C) they are biological catalysts D) they are not reuseable E) they are stable at high temperatures 49) Which of these substances is an enzyme: 49) ______ A) glucose B) omega-3 fatty acid C) triglyceride D) oxidase E) nucleotide 50) Saturated fats: 50) ______ A) are formed from 4 interlocking carbon rings B) exist as liquids and are derived from plants C) contain many double bonds D) exist as solids at room temperature E) have two fatty acid chains SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 51) Describe the role of the electron in chemical bond formation. 51) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 52) Isotopes differ from each other only in the number of __________ they possess. 52) _____________ 53) All __________ have an amine (N ) group. 53) _____________ 54) An acid is a molecule that releases (donates) __________. State the answer in two ways. 54) _____________ 55) Compounds that contain carbon-hydrogen bonding are collectively termed __________ compounds. 55) _____________ 56) Decomposition of a protein produces __________. 56) _____________ 57) The outermost shell of an atom is called the __________ shell. 57) _____________ 58) The building blocks of nucleic acids are called __________. 58) _____________ Figure 2.1 Using Figure 2.1, identify the following: 59) The structure of the polysaccharide is __________. 59) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 60) The universal energy compound that provides visible energy to cells is __________. 60) _____________ 61) Glycogen and starch are examples of a specific category of carbohydrates called __________. 61) _____________ 62) A solution with a pH of 11.7 is __________ times more acidic than a solution with a pH of 8.7. 62) _____________ 63) Enzymes are examples of __________ proteins. State the answer in two ways. 63) _____________ Figure 2.1 Using Figure 2.1, identify the following: 64) The structure of the monosaccharide is __________. 64) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 65) Polar molecules, like water, result when electrons are shared __________. 65) _____________ 66) When a change in matter alters the basic nature of the substance, it is called a __________ change. 66) _____________ 67) Cholesterol is an example of a __________, a specific category of lipids. 67) _____________ 68) Inactive or stored energy is called __________ energy. 68) _____________ Figure 2.1 Using Figure 2.1, identify the following: 69) The structure of the functional protein is __________. 69) _____________ 70) The structure of the nucleotide is __________. 70) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 71) The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom is called the __________. 71) _____________ TRUE/FALSE. Write ʹTʹ if the statement is true and ʹFʹ if the statement is false. 72) Atoms are the smallest particles of a compound that still retain the properties of that compound. 72) ______ 73) Negatively charged atoms are called cations. 73) ______ 74) Every atom in a molecule has a full valence shell. 74) ______ 75) Water is the single most abundant inorganic compound in the human body. 75) ______ 76) Inactive or stored energy is called kinetic energy. 76) ______ 77) When a solution produces equal numbers of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions, it is said to be neutral. 77) ______ 78) Stored energy is called potential energy. 78) ______ 79) Estrogen and cholesterol are both steroids. 79) ______ 80) Carbon is found in all inorganic compounds. 80) ______ 81) The lower the pH, the greater the number of hydrogen ions. 81) ______ 82) The normal pH of blood occupies a narrow range around 7.35-7.45. 82) ______ 83) Enzymes decrease the rates of chemical reactions. 83) ______ 84) Calcium is one of the major elements composing the human body. 84) ______ 85) Disruption of the hydrogen bonds of functional proteins leads to their denaturation. 85) ______ 86) Compounds that ionize completely, producing large numbers of hydrogen ions (protons), are termed weak bases. MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. Match the following: 86) ______ 87) Nucleotides form the building blocks of these organic compounds 88) Glycogen, glucose, and lactose are examples of these organic compounds Match the following: 89) The particle(s) contributing to the atomic number 90) The particle(s) contributing to the atomic mass A) carbohydrates 87) ______ B) nucleic acids 88) ______ A) proton(s) 89) ______ B) protons and neutrons 90) ______ Match the following: 91) A bond in which electrons are shared unequally Match the following: 92) The particle(s) that differ between isotopes Match the following: 93) A type of bond important in holding different parts of the same molecule together in three-dimensional structure 94) Type of bond exhibited by carbon dioxide Match the following: 95) DNA, RNA, and ATP are types of these organic compounds Match the following: 96) The number of protons is equal to the number of these subatomic particles Match the following: A) polar covalent bond 91) ______ B) nonpolar covalent bond A) neutron(s) 92) ______ A) polar covalent bond 93) ______ B) nonpolar covalent bond C) double bond 94) ______ D) hydrogen bond A) nucleic acids 95) ______ A) electron(s) 96) ______ 97) Building block is the monosaccharide A) lipids 97) ______ 98) Most of this organic compound group are water insoluble 99) Triglycerides, steroids, and fat soluble vitamins are types of these organic compounds Match the following: 100) A type of covalent bond formed when atoms share two pairs of electrons B) carbohydrates 98) ______ 99) ______ A) ionic bond 100) _____ B) single covalent bond Match the following: 101) Building blocks of these organic compounds are amino acids Match the following: 102) The particle(s) shared during covalent bond formation Match the following: 103) Antibodies, some hormones, and enzymes are types of these organic compounds Match the following: 104) The particle(s) lost during cation formation Match the following: 105) A bond in which electrons are completely lost or gained by the atoms involved A) proteins 101) _____ A) electron(s) 102) _____ A) proteins 103) _____ A) electron(s) 104) _____ A) covalent bond 105) _____ B) ionic bond Match the following: 106) The particle(s) located within the nucleus A) protons and neutrons 106) _____ ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 107) Explain why a denatured protein no longer functions. 108) Explain why enzymes are specific to their substrates. 109) Compare DNA and RNA from the standpoint of their location, role(s), number of chains, arrangement of nucleotides, and sugars and bases present. 110) Differentiate between a molecule and a compound. 111) Distinguish between a dehydration synthesis and a hydrolysis reaction. 112) Discuss the major properties of water that make it so vital to the proper functioning of the body. 113) Explain why hydrolysis (decomposition) reactions require the addition of water. 114) Explain why ATP is classified as a nucleic acid. 115) Explain how saturated fats are different from unsaturated fats. 116) List the three parts of a nucleotide. 117) Describe the difference between a polar and a nonpolar covalent bond. Give and explain an example of each type of bond. 118) Name this type of reaction and briefly explain what is happening in this reaction: glucose + fructose water + sucrose 1) E 2) C 3) A 4) A 5) D 6) B 7) E 8) A 9) B 10) C 11) C 12) B 13) D 14) A 15) D 16) D 17) A 18) C 19) E 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) E 26) A 27) A 28) C 29) A 30) E 31) B 32) D 33) D 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) D 38) B 39) C 40) C 41) D 42) C 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) E 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) D 51) When the valence shell of an atom contains fewer than 8 electrons, an atom will tend to gain, lose, or share electrons with other atoms to reach a stable state. As a result, chemical bonds such as covalent bonds or ionic bonds are formed. 52) neutrons 53) amino acids 54) protons

Joeʹs burn would best be described as a third-degree burn. 57) ______ 58) In first-degree burns, only the epidermis is damaged. 58) ______

59) The epidermis is made up of stratified squamous epithelium. 59) ______ 60) The reason that the nail bed appears pink is the presence of a large number of melanocytes in the underlying dermis. 60) ______ 61) Hair is produced by the hair bulb and is composed primarily of dead keratinized cells. 61) ______ 62) The major portion of the skin is comprised of the dermis. 62) ______ 63) The downy type of hair covering a newborn is called vernix caseosa. 63) ______ 64) Melanin is found in the uppermost layer of skin and helps prevent water loss. 64) ______ 65) The ABCD rule is used for classifying burns. 65) ______ 66) Squamous cell carcinoma arises from cells of the stratum spinosum. 66) ______ 67) The outermost layer of the epidermis is the stratum basale. 67) ______ 68) A serous membrane is composed of a layer of simple squamous epithelium resting on a thin layer of areolar connective tissue. 68) ______ 69) The nail is actually a modification of the skin and corresponds to the hooves of animals. 69) ______ 70) Skin is also known as a synovial membrane. 70) ______ 71) When an individual is exposed to extremely low air temperatures, the capillaries of the skin will dilate so that blood will flush into skin capillary beds and heat will be dissipated. 72) The thickened, proximal area of the nail is called the nail matrix, and it is responsible for nail growth. 73) Membranes that line body cavities that have openings to the exterior of the body are called mucous membranes. 74) The pinkish hue of healthy individuals with fair skin is the result of the crimson color of oxygenated hemoglobin circulating in the dermal capillaries and reflecting through the dermis. 71) ______ 72) ______ 73) ______ 74) ______ 75) The serous membrane that covers the external surface of both lungs is called the visceral pleura. 75) ______ MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. Match the following: 76) Type of membrane that lines open body cavities Match the following: A) mucous membrane 76) ______ 77) Apocrine gland A) sudoriferous glands largely confined to the axillary region Match the following: 78) Acne A) infection of the sebaceous glands accompanied by skin pimples Match the following: 77) ______ 78) ______ 79) Type of membrane adapted for absorption or secretion 80) Only example of a connective tissue membrane Match the following: A) mucous membrane 79) ______ A) synovial membrane 80) ______ 81) Hair root A) part of the hair projecting from the skin surf ace 81) ______ B) part of the hair enclosed in the follicle Match the following: 82) Impetigo A) staphylococcus bacterial infection causing water-filled lesions around the mouth and nose Match the following: 82) ______ 83) Peritoneum, pericardium, and pleura are examples of this type of membrane A) serous membrane 83) ______ B) synovial membrane 84) Type of membrane that has no epithelial cells at all Match the following: 84) ______ 85) Dermal sheath A) divides to form hair cells 85) ______ 86) Matrix B) outermost covering of the hair follicle 86) ______ Match the following: 87) Seborrhea A) overactivity of sebaceous glands that results in dandruff 87) ______ 88) Athleteʹs foot B) 88) ______ fungus infection between toes 89) Psoriasis C) 89) ______ overproduction of skin cells causing dry, silvery scales Match the following: 90) Type of membrane that contains a visceral and a partietal layer Match the following: A) serous membrane 90) ______ 91) Cold sores A) fluid-filled blisters caused by herpes simplex virus Match the following: 91) ______ 92) Type of membrane that is dry A) cutaneous membrane 92) ______ Match the following: 93) Eccrine gland A) sudoriferous glands found all over the body 93) ______ Match the following: 94) Decubitus ulcers A) malignancy of the lowest epidermal layer 94) ______ 95) Alopecia B) partial-thickness burn 95) ______ 96) Third-degree burns C) cancer of skin pigment cells 96) ______ 97) Basal cell carcinoma D) hair thinning and some degree of baldness 97) ______ 98) Malignant melanoma E) bedsores 98) ______ F) full-thickness burn Match the following: 99) Papillary layer A) upper layer of the dermis 99) ______ 100) Medulla B) central core of each hair 100) _____ C) lower layer of the dermis ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 101) Identify four changes that occur to the skin and subcutaneous connective tissue as a result of aging, and state how these changes can be delayed. 102) Explain how the skin helps regulate body temperature. 103) Define and explain the function of the arrector pili. 104) Thirteen-year-old John has been diagnosed with acne. Expain to him what causes acne. 105) Explain how the skin functions to protect deeper tissues. 106) Explain the ABCD rule. 107) List and describe the three types of epithelial membranes. 108) Distinguish between the appearances of partial-thickness and full-thickness burns. 1) C 2) D 3) D 4) A 5) A 6) C 7) E 8) A 9) A 10) E 11) B 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) E 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) D 20) D 21) A 22) E 23) C 24) A 25) C 26) C 27) B 28) E 29) C 30) A 31) E 32) C 33) A 34) B 35) E 36) visceral 37) cuticle 38) F 39) second 40) epithelial membranes

19) The bone cells within lacunae receive nourishment from blood vessels through passageways called:

A) perforating canals B) medullary cavities C) lamellae D) Haversian canals E) canaliculi

5) What type of cell does parathyroid hormone (PTH) activate:

A) periosteum B) lacunae C) osteoblast D) osteocyte E) osteoclast

20) The gluteal region is the:

A) posterior knee area B) posterior surface of the head C) shoulder blade region D) buttock E) curve of the shoulder

44) The tailbone is the:

A) pubis B) sacrum C) coccyx D) patella E) ischium

25) Four of the five answers listed below are parts of the same anatomical area. Select the exception.

A) radius B) clavicle C) fibula D) humerus E) scapula

9) Which of the following elements of a control system detects a change:

A) receptor B) control center C) effector D) stimulus E) efferent pathway

12) Which of the following is the correct order of elements in a control system:

A) receptor, stimulus, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response B) stimulus, receptor, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response C) receptor, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, effector, response D) stimulus, receptor, afferent pathway, control center, efferent pathway, effector, response E) effector, stimulus, efferent pathway, control center, afferent pathway, receptor, response

16) The sternum is the result of fusion of three bones called the:

A) ischium, ilium, coccyx B) true ribs, manubrium, xiphoid process C) manubrium, body, xiphoid process D) jugular notch, sternal angle, xiphisternal joint E) pubis, ischium, ilium

9) All of the following facial bones are paired except one. Which of the following is the unpaired facial bone:

A) maxillae B) lacrimal C) zygomatic D) palatine E) vomer

11) Which of these is NOT a survival need:

A) oxygen B) water C) reproduction D) body temperature E) nutrients

10) The sella turcica is part of the __________ bone.

A) ethmoid B) parietal C) frontal D) sphenoid E) temporal

9 46) ventral or anterior 47) Digestion 48) hypogastric 49) spinal 50) pelvic 51) anterior 52) tissues 53) cranial 54) mediastinum

55) skeletal 56) effector 57) superior 58) urinary or excretory 59) irritability

in RNA the bases are adenine (A), uracil (U), guanine (G) and cytosine (C). 110) Molecules are formed when two or more atoms of the same element combine chemically. Compounds result when two or more different atoms bind together to form a molecule. 111) In a dehydration synthesis reaction, a more complex molecule is formed from two simpler ones, and a water molecule is lost as each bond forms. An example of dehydration synthesis is seen when a disaccharide is formed from two monosaccharides. Hydrolysis is the breakdown of a more complex molecule into its building blocks. A water molecule is added to each bond, the bond is broken, and simpler molecules are formed. In the process, water is split into a hydrogen ion and a hydroxyl ion. An example of hydrolysis is seen when a disaccharide is broken down into two monosaccharides. 112) 1. It has a high heat capacity, and absorbs and releases large amounts of heat before its temperature changes appreciably. Therefore, it helps maintain homeostatic body temperature. 2. Because of its polarity, it is an excellent solvent in which electrolytes can ionize. Nutrients, respiratory gases, and wastes can dissolve in water, thereby allowing water to act as a transport and exchange medium in the body. Water is also used as a solvent in specialized molecules that lubricate the body, such as mucus that eases the movement of feces in the digestive tube, saliva that moistens food and prepares it for digestion, and synovial fluids that lubricate bone ends. 3. Water is a reactant in some types of chemical reactions, such as digestion and the breakdown of large biological molecules. Water is added to the bonds of the larger molecules in specific reactions termed hydrolysis reactions. 4. Water serves a protective function by forming a watery cushion (e.g., cerebrospinal fluid cushions the brain and amniotic fluid cushions the fetus). 113) Water molecules are added to the bonds of large organic molecules. When water is added to each bond, the bond is broken, and the molecule is broken down. 114) ATP is a modified nucleotide. Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids. ATP consists of a base (adenine), a sugar (ribose), and three phosphate groups. 115) Saturated fats: 1. tend to be animal fats 2. have all single bonds between carbon atoms 3. may be solid Unsaturated fats: 1. tend to be plant oils 2. have some double or triple bonds between carbon atoms 3. may be liquid 116) Nucleotides contain: 1. a nitrogen-containing base 2. a pentose (5-carbon) sugar 3. a phosphate group 117) 1. In polar covalent bonds, electrons are not shared equally. For instance, water is an example of a polar covalent bond. The electron pairs shared in water spend more time with the oxygen atom causing that end of the molecule to become slightly negative and the hydrogen end to become slightly positive. 2. In nonpolar covalent bonds, electrons are shared equally. For example, the electron pairs in carbon dioxide orbit the entire molecule. 118) Glucose and fructose are two monosaccharides. Sucrose is a disaccharide. Glucose and fructose are combining to form sucrose. This is an example of a dehydration synthesis reaction. A water molecule is lost from the two simple sugars as the bond forms to create the double sugar. Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Which of the following is NOT connective tissue: 1) _______ A) skeletal muscle B) cartilage C) bone D) adipose E) blood Figure 3.3 2) The tissue shown in Figure 3.3 most likely: 2) _______ A) transmits electrochemical impulses B) stores fat C) covers and lines body surfaces D) contracts to produce movement E) contains a matrix 3) Which type of tissue conducts electrochemical impulses: 3) _______ A) nervous tissue B) connective tissue C) muscle tissue D) dense tissue E) epithelial tissue 4) Goblet cells are found in: 4) _______ A) stratified squamous epithelium B) simple squamous epithelium C) simple cuboidal epithelium D) transitional epithelium E) simple columnar epithelium 5) The type of muscle found in the walls of hollow organs, such as the stomach, and in the walls of blood vessels is: A) both smooth muscle and skeletal muscle B) smooth muscle C) skeletal muscle D) cardiac muscle E) both cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle 5) _______ 6) The molecule that carries an amino acid to the ribosome for incorporation into a protein is: 6) _______ A) messenger RNA (mRNA) B) transfer RNA (tRNA) C) DNA D) ATP E) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) 7) The site where ribosomes assemble prior to their migration into the cytoplasm is the: 7) _______ A) plasma membrane B) chromatin C) chromosomes D) nuclear membrane E) nucleolus 8) Which cell structure forms an internal framework inside the cell and is made of microtubules, intermediate filaments, and microfilaments: A) nucleus B) plasma membrane C) mitochondria D) cytoplasm E) cytoskeleton 8) _______ 9) The tissue that is usually well vascularized and has an extensive extracellular matrix is called: 9) _______ A) connective tissue B) brain tissue C) nervous tissue D) muscle tissue E) epithelial tissue 10) Which of the following do not involve the movement of molecules from an area of greater concentration to an area of lower concentration: A) simple diffusion B) facilitated diffusion C) diffusion D) osmosis E) filtration 10) ______ 11) Two types of passive transport are: 11) ______ A) endocytosis and diffusion B) exocytosis and endocytosis C) diffusion and filtration D) osmosis and endocytosis E) filtration and exocytosis 12) The three major components of the cytoplasm are the: 12) ______ A) cytosol, organelles, and inclusions B) cytosol, inclusions, and nucleoli C) organelles, inclusions, and ribosomes D) organelles, inclusions, and nucleoli E) cytosol, organelles, and nucleoli 13) The type of tissue with a matrix that consists of rows of fibroblasts that manufacture collagen fibers is: A) adipose tissue B) areolar tissue C) loose connective tissue D) osseous tissue E) dense connective tissue 14) A patient arrives in the hospital extremely dehydrated. In order to fill his cells with fluid, he should be hooked to a(n) __________ intravenous drip. A) hypotonic B) isotonic C) hypertonic D) either hypertonic or hypotonic E) either isotonic or hyertonic 13) ______ 14) ______ 15) A solution that contains fewer solutes than the cell is: 15) ______ A) intravenous B) hypertonic C) hypotonic D) Ringerʹs lactate E) isotonic 16) DNA replication takes place during: 16) ______ A) prophase B) interphase C) metaphase D) telophase E) anaphase 17) If the sequence of nitrogenous bases in one strand of DNA is GTA-GCA, the sequence of bases on its complementary DNA strand would be: A) CAT-CGT B) CAU-CGU C) GAU-GCU D) ACG-ATT E) GAT-GCT 18) The molecules in the cell membrane that serve as receptors or binding sites for hormones or other chemical messengers are the: A) cholesterol molecules B) glycoproteins C) lipids D) proteins E) carbohydrates 17) ______ 18) ______ 19) Identify the type of tissue that is found in lymph nodes, the spleen, and bone marrow: 19) ______ A) dense connective tissue B) areolar tissue C) osseous tissue D) adipose tissue E) reticular connective tissue 20) Cells that are specialized to fight disease are called: 20) ______ A) macrophages B) epithelial cells C) oocytes D) nerve cells E) fibroblasts 21) The molecule that contains anticodons is: 21) ______ A) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) B) transfer RNA (tRNA) C) DNA D) messenger RNA (mRNA) E) ATP 22) The DNA segment that carries information coding for a particular amino acid is a:

22) ______ A) gene B) nucleotide C) phosphate group D) deoxyribose sugar E) triplet 23) Which type of epithelial tissue is found lining kidney tubules: 23) ______ A) simple columnar B) simple cuboidal C) simple squamous D) pseudostratified columnar E) stratified squamous 24) Perform transcription on this partial sequence of DNA into mRNA: TTA-GCT-ACT 24) ______ A) GGC-TAG-TAG B) AAT-CGA-TGA C) UUT-CGU-TGU D) UUA-CGU-AGU E) AAU-CGA-UGA 25) The last step in the process of tissue regeneration is: 25) ______ A) scab formation B) surface epithelium regenerates C) granulation tissue forms D) blood clot forms E) capillaries become very permeable 26) The phase of cell division during which the chromatids are pulled apart and move to the opposite ends of the cell is: A) telophase B) interphase C) prophase D) metaphase E) anaphase 26) ______ 27) Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as: 27) ___ ___ A) ceruminous B) sebaceous C) endocrine D) sudoriferous E) exocrine 28) Fat is: 28) ______ A) adipose tissue B) loose connective tissue C) osseous tissue D) areolar tissue E) dense connective tissue 29) A cancer drug interferes with the development of mitotic spindle fibers during cell division. Which phase is directly affected: A) interphase B) telophase C) metaphase D) prophase E) anaphase 30) A cell whose job is to detoxify harmful or poisonous substances such as alcohol would have many: A) peroxisomes B) lysosomes C) rough endoplasmic reticulum D) nuclei E) flagella 29) ______ 30) ______ 31) Which of the following statements about DNA is incorrect: 31) ______ A) it contains 2 chains B) it has the base uracil instead of thymine C) it contains deoxyribose sugars D) it is replicated in preparation for cell division E) it never leaves the nucleus 32) Microvilli are apt to be found in cells that are specialized for: 32) ______ A) division B) contraction C) absorption D) insulation E) protection 33) The movement of fluid through the cell membrane from a high pressure area to a lower pressure area is called: A) active transport B) bulk transport C) osmosis D) filtration 33) ______ E) diffusion 34) Ribosomes are found: 34) ______ A) in the cytoplasm B) on the Golgi apparatus C) on the rough endoplasmic reticulum D) in the cytoplasm and on the rough endoplasmic reticulum E) on smooth endoplasmic reticulum 35) Which of the following processes require the use of carrier molecules: 35) ______ A) osmosis and filtration B) filtration and cellular secretion C) facilitated diffusion and bulk transport D) bulk transport and osmosis E) facilitated diffusion and solute pumping 36) Which organelle uses molecular oxygen to convert and detoxify harmful substances such as alcohol and free radicals: A) secretory vesicles B) lysosomes C) ribosomes D) peroxisomes E) Golgi apparatus 36) ______ 37) Two types of endocytosis are: 37) ______ A) solute pumping and active transport B) pinocytosis and passive transport C) cellular secretion and solute pumping D) phagocytosis and pinocytosis E) active transport and phagocytosis 38) The molecule that is made during transcription is: 38) ______ A) transfer RNA (tRNA) B) ATP C) messenger RNA (mRNA) D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) E) DNA 39) Looking into a microscope, you notice cells swimming, propelled by a long tail. What cell structure must these cells have in order to be mobile: A) smooth ER B) flagella C) ribosomes D) cytoplasm E) peroxisomes 39) ______ 40) The events of prophase seem to be opposite of those that occur during: 40) ______ A) anaphase B) metaphase C) cytokinesis D) interphase E) telophase 41) The molecules that make the cell surface fuzzy, sticky, and sugar-rich are the: 41) ______ A) glycoproteins B) lipid molecules C) cholesterol molecules D) proteins E) phospholipids 42) Which one of the following is NOT true about the cell membrane: 42) ______ A) it allows water soluble molecules to pass through easily B) its lipid components are primarily phospholipids and cholesterol C) it consists of two lipid layers D) it regulates the entry and exit of cell materials E) it contains proteins for specialized functions 43) A cell ingests bacteria. What type of transport is likely responsible for this process: 43) ______ A) filtration B) osmosis C) diffusion D) exocytosis E) endocytosis 44) The epithelial tissue found in areas subject to considerable friction and abuse, such as the esophagus, is: A) transitional B) simple squamous epithelium C) pseudostratified columnar epithelium D) simple columnar epithelium E) stratified squamous epithelium 44) ______ 45) Which of these characteristics best describes cardiac muscle tissue: 45) ______ A) single nucleus and spindle-shaped cells B) attached to the skeleton C) movement is involuntary and cells possess striations D) multinucleate and long, cylindrical cells E) movement is voluntary and cells possess striations 46) Which of the following is NOT an active transport process: 46) ______ A) facilitated diffusion B) endocytosis C) pinocytosis D) phagocytosis E) exocytosis 47) What are the correct base-pairing rules for DNA: 47) ______ A) adenine bonds to guanine and thymine bones to cytosine B) adenine bonds to uracil and guanine bonds to cytosine C) adenine bonds to thymine and guanine bonds to cytosine D) adenine bonds to adenine and guanine bonds to guanine E) adenine bonds to cytosine and thymine bonds to guanine 48) The correct order of phases of the cell cycle is: 48) ______ A) telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase B) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase C) prophase, interphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase D) metaphase, anaphase, prophase, telophase E) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase 49) The tiny finger-like projections that increase the surface are of the cell for quicker absorption are called: A) gap junctions B) microvilli C) inclusions D) tight junctions E) desmosomes 49) ______ 50) Facilitated diffusion requires the use of: 50) ______ A) lysosomes B) protein channels or molecules C) Golgi apparatus D) ATP E) vacuoles 51) A cell would plump with water and possibly lyse in which of the following solutions: 51) ______ A) isotonic B) hypotonic C) intravenous D) Ringerʹs E) hypertonic SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 52) The cell type found in nervous tissue is the __________. 52) _____________ Figure 3.1 Using Figure 3.1, match the following: 53) The illustration of cardiac muscle tissue is __________. 53) _____________ 54) The type of connective tissue that contains fat stored in adipocytes is called __________. 54) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 55) The membrane connections that prevent the leaking of fluid between cells are called __________. 56) Whiplike cellular extensions that move substances along the cell surface are called __________. 57) The DNA segment that carries information for building one protein or polypeptide chain is called a __________. 55) _____________ 56) _____________ 57) _____________ 58) The type of muscle tissue that can be controlled voluntarily is called __________ muscle. 58) _____________ 59) The phospholipid tails are __________, which make the plasma membrane impermeable to water. Figure 3.1 Using Figure 3.1, match the following: 59) _____________ 60) The illustration of stratified squamous epithelium is __________. 60) _____________ 61) List, describe, and state the functions of the three types of membrane junctions. 61) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 62) The specialized cellular compartments within the cytosol of the cell are collectively call ed __________. 62) _____________ 63) The random movement of molecules (and ions) down their concentration gradient is called __________. Figure 3.1 Using Figure 3.1, match the following: 63) _____________ 64) The illustration of simple squamous epithelium is __________. 64) _____________ 65) The illustration of skeletal muscle tissue is __________. 65) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 66) The step, during protein synthesis, of assembling proteins by decoding the information in messenger RNA is called __________. 67) The rod-shaped bodies that lie at right angles to each other and internally are made up of fine microtubing called __________. 68) After DNA replication has occurred, each of the two strands making up a chromosome is called a __________. 69) Tiny finger-like projections of the plasma membrane that increase its surface area are called __________. 70) Epithelial tissue consisting of one layer of cells flattened like fish scales is called a __________ epithelium. 71) The movement of substances through the cell membrane against their concentration gradient is called __________. 66) _____________ 67) _____________ 68) _____________ 69) _____________ 70) _____________ 71) _____________ 72) Many layers of cube-shaped cells should be termed __________ epithelial tissue. 72) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 73) The component of a solution that is present in the smaller amount and is dissolved is the __________. Figure 3.2 73) _____________ 74) The cell shown in Figure 3.2 has been placed into a(n) __________ solution. 74) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 75) In cell division, the term that refers to division of the cytoplasm is __________. 75) _____________ 76) The period of the cell cycle when the cell grows and performs its metabolic activities is __________. 77) The type of tissue consisting of cells embedded in an extracellular matrix is __________ tissue. 78) The network of nuclear threads, composed of DNA and protein, that condense to form chromosomes during mitosis is called __________. 76) _____________ 77) _____________ 78) _____________ Figure 3.1 Using Figure 3.1, match the following: 79) The illustration of simple cuboidal epithelium is __________. 79) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 80) The nucleoplasm and cytosol make up the __________ fluid. 80) _____________ 81) This type of epithelial tissue found lining organs of the digestive system such as the small intestines is the __________. 81) _____________ 82) __________ tissue contains cells called fibroblasts that make fibers such as collagen. 82) _____________ 83) Tendons and ligaments are common to this type of connective tissue called __________. 83) _____________ TRUE/FALSE. Write ʹTʹ if the statement is true and ʹFʹ if the statement is false. 84) When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution it will swell and may rupture. 84) ______ 85) Stratified epithelium consists of one layer of epithelial cells. 85) ______ 86) The nonpolar tails of the plasma membrane are hydrophobic. 86) ______ 87) Protein synthesis cannot proceed without ribosomes. 87) ______ 88) Translation is the stage in protein synthesis during which a complementary mRNA molecule is synthesized from a DNA template. 88) ______ 89) Smooth muscle cells are uninucleated spindle-shaped cells that are voluntary. 89) ______ 90) The movement of substances from an area of higher hydrostatic pressure to an area of lower hydrostatic pressure is called diffusion. 90) ______ 91) The matrix of hyaline cartilage consists of abundant collagen fibers hidden in a rubbery matrix. 91) ______ 92) The four primary tissue types are epithelium, muscle, cutaneous, and connective. 92) ______ 93) Anaphase is the stage of cell division when the cleavage furrow first appears. 93) ______ 94) Desmosomes are junctions that allow cell communication. 94) ______ 95) Mitotic spindles guide the separation of chromosomes. 95) ______ 96) The Golgi apparatus consists of a stack of flattened membranous sacs associated with swarms of tiny vesicles that are found close to the nucleus. 96) ______ 97) The process of facilitated diffusion requires energy. 97) ______ 98) The greater the osmotic pressure, the greater the tendency of water to move into that area. 98) ______ MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. Match the following: 99) Mitochondria A) captures energy to produce ATP 99) ______ Match the following: 100) Type of tissue that consists of living cells surrounded by an extracellular matrix Match the following: 101) Centrioles separate and move toward opposite sides of the cell Match the following: A) connective tissue 100) _____ A) prophase 101) _____ 102) Lysosome A) uses oxygen to detoxify harmful substances 102) _____ 103) Peroxisomes B) 103) _____ digests worn-out or nonusable cell structures Match the following: 104) Nucleoli appear in each daughter cell A) telophase 104) _____ Match the following: 105) Protein A) synthesized during translation 105) _____ 106) mRNA A) synthesized during transcription and contains the codons Match the following: 106) _____ 107) Type of tissue whose two functional characteristics are irritability and conductivity A) nervous tissue 107) _____ B) connective tissue 108) Type of tissue that can be classified as ȈlooseȈ or ȈdenseȈ Match the following: 108) _____ 109) Ribosome A) site of protein synthesis 109) _____ Match the following: 110) Type of tissue that can be described as voluntary or involuntary Match the following: A) muscle tissue 110) _____ 111) Nucleolus A) site of ribosome synthesis 111) _____ Match the following: 112) Type of tissue that can be simple or stratified Match the following: A) epithelial tissue 112) _____ 113) Centriole A) directs formation of mitotic spindle 113) _____ Match the following: 114) Chromosomes cluster and align at the center of the spindle Match the following: A) metaphase 114) _____ 115) Microvilli A) increases surface area of plasma membrane for absorption Match the following: 115) _____ 116) Cleavage furrow squeezes the cell into two parts Match the following: 117) Type of tissue that contains collagen, elastic, or reticular fibers Match the following: A) telophase 116) _____ A) connective tissue 117) _____ 118) Centromeres split A) anaphase 118) _____ Match the following: 119) Type of tissue that has an apical surfa ce and a basement membrane A)epithe lial tissue 119) ____ _ Match the following: 120) Golgi apparatus A) packages substances for release from cell 120) _____ Match the following: 121) Nuclear envelope and nucleoid break down and disappear 122) Chromosomes move slowly apart toward opposite ends of the cell Match the following: A) anaphase 121) _____ B) prophase 122) _____ 123) Type of tissue that is avascular A) epithelial tissue 123) _____ Match the following: 124) Microtubule A) determines overall cell shape 124) _____ Match the following: 125) tRNA A) contains the anticodon 125) _____ B) contains the anticodon and carries amino acids to the ribosome Match the following: 126) Cytokinesis produces two separate daughter cells Match the following: 127) Type of tissue that consists of neurons and supporting cells 128) Type of tissue that is specialized to contract and produce movement Match the following: 129) Chromosomes align at the metaphase plate A) telophase 126) _____ A) muscle tissue 127) _____ B) nervous tissue 128) _____ A) metaphase 129) _____ B) telophase 130) Spindle breaks down and disappears 130) _____ Match the following: 131) DNA A) acts as a template during transcription 131) _____ B) acts as a template during transcription and is synthesized during translation Match the following: 132) Smooth ER A) synthesizes cholesterol and fat 132) _____ Match the following: 133) Type of tissue that makes up endocrine and exocrine glands A) epithelial tissue 133) _____ ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 134) Since epithelial tissues are avascular, explain how these tissues receive nourishment. 135) A fat-soluble vitamin, vitamin A, is moving down its concentration gradient into a cell. What type of membrane transport is responsible for its movement? Describe this process. 136) Discuss the four stages of mitosis. 137) Discuss the three steps in protein synthesis. 138) List, describe, and state the functions of the three major elements of the cytoplasm. 139) List the three different types of RNA and identify their functions. 140) Differentiate between the two types of endoplasmic reticulum. 141) Explain why an intravenous solution should be isotonic for a patient. 142) Explain the differences among the three types of muscle tissue. 143) Identify the five molecules found in the plasma membrane and state their functions. 1) A 2) C 3) A 4) E 5) B 6) B 7) E 8) E 9) A 10) E 11) C 12) A 13) E 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) E 20) A 21) B 22) E 23) B 24) E 25) B 26) E 27) C 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) B 32) C 33) D 34) D 35) E 36) D 37) D 38) C 39) B 40) E 41) A 42) A 43) E 44) E 45) C 46) A 47) C 48) E 49) B 50) B 51) B 52) neuron 53) C 54) adipose tissue 55) tight junctions 56) cilia 57) gene 58) skeletal 59) hydrophobic 60) D 61) 1. Tight junctions are areas where the membranes of adjacent cells fuse together. This creates an impermeable leak proof cellular sheet and prevents substances from passing between the cells. Tight junctions are found in epithelia lining fluid containing cavities, such as the small intestine. 2. Desmosomes are areas where fine protein filaments extend between two adjacent cells and are anchored in button-like thickenings of the cell membranes called plaque. This type of junction holds adjacent cells together very firmly and is found in areas where cellular sheets are subjected to considerable mechanical stress, such as the skin. Within each cell, the plaques on one side are connected to plaques on the opposite side by thicker protein filaments that act to internally anchor the plaques in place. 3. Gap junctions consist of hollow protein cylinders, called connexons, which extend completely through the plasma membrane of neighboring cells and meet and join together in the extracellular space. This creates a continuous channel for the passage of substances between the interiors of the two adjacent cells. Gap junctions, which promote intercellular communication, are found between the cardiac muscle cells in the heart. 62) organelles 63) diffusion 64) A 65) E 66) translation 67) centrioles 68) chromatid 69) microvilli 70) simple squamous 71) active transport 72) stratified cuboidal 73) solute 74) hypotonic 75) cytokinesis 76) interphase 77) connective 78) chromatin 79) B 80) intracellular 81) simple columnar 82) Connective 83) dense fibrous tissue 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) A 100) A 101) A 102) B 103) A 104) A 105) A 106) B 107) A 108) B 109) A 110) A 111) A 112) A 113) A 114) A 115) A 116) A 117) A 118) A 119) A 120) A 121) B 122) A 123) A 124) A 125) B 126) A 127) B 128) A 129) A 130) B 131) A 132) A 133) A 134) Epithelial tissues depend on diffusion for food and oxygen. Capillaries in deeper connective tissue carry this nourishment. 135) Vitamin A is moving via simple diffusion, a type of passive transport. Passive transport requires no energy input from the cell. Vitamin A is moving from an area where it is more concentrated to an area where it is less concentrated. This vitamin is moving without assistance through the plasma membrane. 136) 1. ProphaseNchromatin threads coil and shorten so that visible bar-like bodies, called chromosomes, appear. Each chromosome is made up of two strands, called chromatids, which are held together by a centromere. Additionally, the centrioles separate and move toward opposite sides of the cell, directing the assembly of the mitotic spindle (composed of microtubules) between them as they move. 2. MetaphaseNthe chromosomes cluster and align in the center of the spindle, midway between the centrioles, forming a straight line of chromosomes. 3. es split and the chromosomes move slowly apart toward opposite ends of the cell. A cleavage furrow appears over Ana the midline of the spindle and eventually pinches the cytoplasmic mass into two parts in a process called phas cytokinesis. eNth 4. TelophaseNthe chromosomes reach opposite ends of the cell and their movement ends, and they then uncoil and e become chromatin again. A nuclear membrane then forms around each chromatin mass, the spindle breaks down centr and disappears, and nucleoli re-appear in each of the daughter nuclei. Finally, cytokinesis produces two separate omer daughter cells. 137) 1. Uncoiling of DNANthe DNA segment or gene that specifies one polypeptide or protein uncoils. 2. Transcription (DNA-directed synthesis of mRNA)None strand of DNA acts as a template for the synthesis of the complementary mRNA molecule, and there is a transfer of information from the DNAʹs base sequence (code) into the complementary base sequence of mRNA (codon). 3. Translation (RNA-directed synthesis of a polypeptide or protein) involves five steps. First, mRNA leaves the nucleus and attaches to ribosomes. Second, tRNA (anticodon) transports an amino acid to the mRNA strand and recognizes a mRNA molecule (codon). Third, the codon and the anticodon bind. Fourth, the ribosome moves the mRNA strand along as each codon is read sequentially. Finally, as each amino acid is bound to the next by a polypeptide bond, its tRNA is released. The polypeptide or protein chain is released when the termination (stop) codon is read. 138) 1. The cytosol is a semitransparent fluid that is largely water, and contains dissolved nutrients and a variety of other solutes. Its function is to suspend the organelles and inclusions. 2. Organelles are the Ȉlittle organsȈ (specialized cellular compartments) within the cytosol that carry out specific functions for the cell as a whole in order to maintain its life. 3. Inclusions are chemical substances dispersed in the cytoplasm that may or may not be present, depending on the specific cell type. Most are stored nutrients or cell products, which are nonfunctioning units. 139) 1. Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries the ȈmessageȈ containing instructions for protein synthesis from the DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm. 2. Ribosomal RNA (rRNA) forms part of the ȈribosomalȈ structure and helps coordinate the protein building process. 3. Transfer RNA (tRNA) transports an amino acid to the ribosomal site and recognizes the mRNA codons. 140) 1. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER): a. is studded with ribosomes b. makes proteins on its ribosomes 2. The smooth ER: a. lacks ribosomes on its surface b. functions in lipid metabolism, drug and pesticide detoxification 141) Isotonic solutions have the same solute and water concentrations as the cell. Isotonic solutions cause no visible changes in cells since there is not an area more highly concentrated. The use of isotonic intravenous solutions allows red blood cells to retain their normal size and disc-like shape. 142) 1. Skeletal tissue: a. is attached to the skeleton b. is under voluntary control c. is multinucleate d. possesses striations e. is composed of long, cylindrical cells 2. Cardiac muscle: a. is found only in the heart b. is under involuntary control c. is uninucleate d. possesses striations e. is composed of cells that are short and branching f. possesses intercalated disks that contain gap junctions 3. Smooth muscle: a. is found in walls of hollow organs is uninucleate b. c. lacks striations d. possesses cells that are spindle shaped 143) 1. Lipid molecules (phospholipids) provide the medium in which protein molecules float, form the basic fabric of the membrane, and are relatively impermeable to most water-soluble molecules. 2. Cholesterol molecules have a stabilizing effect and help to keep the membrane fluid. 3. Protein molecules are responsible for the most specialized functions of the membrane. They act as enzymes, serve as receptors or binding sites for hormones and other chemical messengers, act as carriers that bind to substances and move them through the cell membrane, and form pores through which water and small molecules can move. 4. Carbohydrate molecules add an identification tag to mark protein molecules, and make the cell membrane a fuzzy, sticky, sugar-rich area. 5. Glycoprotein molecules determine blood type

atomic numbers 15) Inactive energy is referred to as: 15) ______ A) mechanical energy B) electrical energy C) radiant energy D) potential energy E) kinetic energy 16) Which of the following groups of chemicals includes ONLY monosaccharides: 16) ______ A) maltose, sucrose, lactose B) glucose, fructose, maltose C) fructose, maltose, lactose D) glucose, fructose, galactose E) fructose, maltose, sucrose Figure 2.2 17) What is the atomic number of the atom in Figure 2.2: 17) ______ A) 6 B) 2 C) 12 D) 3 E) 4 18) Which of the following statements about ATP is false: 18) ______ A) it provides the energy needed to drive energy-absorbing chemical reactions B) it drives the transport of certain solutes (e.g., amino acids) across cell membranes C) its energy is captured in high-energy hydrogen bonds D) it activates contractile proteins in muscle cells so that cells can shorten and perform mechanical work E) it is a modified nucleotide Figure 2.3 19) What type of chemical bond is pictured in Figure 2.3: 19) ______ A) single covalent bond B) nonpolar covalent bond C) double covalent bond D) polar covalent bond E) ionic bond 20) Glycogen is the storage form of __________ in animals. 20) ______ A) glucose B) lipids C) DNA D) protein E) amino acids 21) Vitamin D and sex hormones are both: 21) ______ A) nucleic acids B) steroids C) proteins D) polysaccharides E) enzymes 22) Which of these examples is a compound: 22) ______ A)

B) C) 2H D) E) 23) When a pair of electrons is shared equally between two atoms, the bond formed is called a(n): 23) ______ A) ionic bond B) hydrogen bond C) polar covalent bond D) nonpolar covalent bond E) carbon bond 24) The reaction A + B AB is an example of a(n): 24) ______ A) decomposition reaction B) dehydration reaction C) synthesis reaction D) denaturation reaction E) exchange reaction 25) A solution with a pH of 7: 25) ______ A) releases more hydrogen ions than hydroxyl ions into solution B) is acidic C) releases more hydroxyl ions than hydrogen ions into solution D) is basic E) is neutral 26) The nucleotide chains of DNA are held together by: 26) ______ A) hydrogen bonds B) carbon bonds C) polar covalent bonds D) nonpolar covalent bonds E) ionic bonds 27) Which of these elements composes bone: 27) ______ A) calcium B) chlorine C) sulfur D) iodine E) iron 28) The most abundant element in the human body is: 28) ______ A) carbon B) nitrogen C) oxygen D) calcium E) hydrogen 29) The sugar found in DNA is: 29) ______ A) deoxyribose B) lactose C) starch D) ribose E) sucrose 30) __________ are simple sugars containing between 3 and 7 carbon atoms. 30) ______ A) Steroids B) Proteins C) Polysaccharides D) Saturated fats E) Monosaccharides 31) Which of the following statements about RNA is true: 31) ______ A) RNA is composed of cytosine, guanine, adenine, and thymine B) RNA is single stranded C) RNA is found only in the nucleus of the cell D) RNA contains deoxyribose E) RNA is a double helix 32) Vitamin D can be described as: 32) ______ A) derivatives of fatty acids found in cell membranes

they are also abundant in the brain and in nervous tissue where they help to form insulating white matter E) include lipoid substances such as fat-soluble vitamins (e.g., vitamins A, E, and K), prostaglandins, and lipoproteins 3) Enzymes: 3) _______ A) increase the rates of chemical reactions by at least a millionfold B) are essential to virtually every biochemical reaction in the body

C) when absent or destroyed, cause all biochemical reactions to cease D) help regulate growth and development E) are highly specialized proteins that recognize, bind with, and inactivate bacteria, toxins, and some viruses 4) The simplest atomNcontaining one proton, one electron, and no neutronsNis: 4) _______ A) hydrogen B) nitrogen C) carbon D) sodium E) oxygen 5) An atom that has lost two electrons is called a(n): 5) _______ A) isotope B) proton C) radioisotope D) cation E) anion 6) An atom with 11 protons, 12 neutrons, and 10 electrons is a(n): 6) _______ A) anion B) cation C) isotope D) molecule E) radioisotope 7) In order to break a disaccharide down into simple sugar units: 7) _______ A) water molecules and carbon atoms must be removed from each bond B) carbon atoms must be added to each bond C) water molecules must be removed from each bond D) carbon atoms must be removed from each bond E) water molecules must be added to each bond 8) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the electrical charge of subatomic particles: A) protons are positively charged, electrons are negatively charged, and neutrons are neutral B) protons are positively charged, electrons are neutral, and neutrons are negatively charged C) protons are negatively charged, electrons are neutral, and neutrons are negatively charged D) protons are neutral, electrons are negatively charged, and neutrons are positively charged E) protons are negatively charged, electrons are positively charged, and neutrons are neutral 8) _______ 9) Which of the following substances below is matched with its correct organic group: 9) _______ A) steroids - carbohydrates B) enzymes - proteins C) DNA - lipids D) monosaccharides - nucleic acids E) glycerol - proteins 10) Which of the following is the role of magnesium: 10) ______ A) it is the major extracellular cation in its ionic form, and is important for water balance, conduction of nerve impulses, and muscle contraction B) it is a major extracellular anion in its ionic form C) it is present in bone, and is an important cofactor for enzyme activity in a number of metabolic reactions D) it is a component of the functional hemoglobin molecule that transports oxygen within red blood cells, as well as a component of some enzymes E) it is needed to make functional thyroid hormones 11) The organic compounds that function in building tissues and acting as enzymes are the: 11) ______ A) salts B) lipids C) proteins D) carbohydrates E) nucleic acids 12) Which one of the following DNA bases are complementary: 12) ______ A) adenine and guanine B) adenine and thymine C) cytosine and adenine D) guanine and uracil E) thymine and guanine 13) Atomic mass is equivalent to the number of __________ in an atom. 13) ______ A) protons B) neutrons C) protons and electrons D) protons and neutrons E) electrons 14) Isotopes have different numbers of __________

24) Elimination of metabolic wastes from the body is the function of the:

A) digestive and urinary systems B) digestive system C) urinary system D) respiratory system E) digestive and respiratory systems

26) The system that controls and coordinates the body through hormones is the:

A) digestive system B) nervous system C) endocrine system D) skeletal system E) integumentary system

27) Which type of section could be used to separate the thoracic cavity from the abdominopelvic cavity:

A) dorsal B) transverse C) sagittal D) coronal E) ventral

43) The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue fibers called:

A) endochondral bone B) Sharpeyʹs fibers C) articular cartilage D) a bony matrix with hyaline cartilage E) Volkmannʹs canals

7) The atlas is the:

A) last lumbar vertebra B) part of the sacrum C) first thoracic vertebra D) second cervical vertebra E) first cervical vertebra

20) Transverse foramina are found in the:

A) lumbar vertebrae B) thoracic vertebrae C) cervical vertebrae D) sacrum E) coccyx

6) Which system covers the external surface of the body and manufactures vitamin D:

A) endocrine system B) skeletal system C) nervous system D) integumentary system E) lymphatic system

21) A shallow, basin-like depression in a bone often serving as an articular surface is a:

A) meatus B) foramen C) fossa D) sinus E) groove

21) Which of the following orientation terms have opposite meanings (in humans):

A) medial and anterior B) superficial and proximal C) posterior and intermediate D) distal and proximal E) medial and distal

18) Which of these regions in the abdominopelvic cavity are medial:

A) epigastric, umbilical, and hypogastric regions B) umbilical, right lumbar, and left lumbar regions C) epigastric, right, and left hypochondriac regions D) iliac (inguinal), lumbar, and hypogastric regions E) right and left iliac (inguinal), and hypogastric regions

1) A section that divides the body on the longitudinal plane into equal right and left parts is called:

A) median (midsagittal) B) oblique C) transverse D) frontal E) coronal

16) Which of the following is NOT a necessary life function:

A) nutrients B) maintaining boundaries C) movement D) responsiveness E) metabolism

35) Positive feedback systems:

A) operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and increases B) regulate heart and breathing rates, and operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is shut off or reduced C) regulate heart and breathing rates, and operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is enhanced and increases D) operate in such a way that the initial stimulus is shut off or reduced E) regulate heart and breathing rates 36) Which of the following orientation and directional terms have the same meaning (in humans): 36) ______ A) superior and caudal B) inferior and cephalad C) anterior and dorsal D) inferior and cranial E) anterior and ventral 37) The system that takes in oxygen and releases carbon dioxide to the exterior is the: 37) ______ A) muscular system B) respiratory system C) urinary system D) cardiovascular system E) reproductive system 38) In describing the relationship between the patellar and popliteal regions: 38) ______ A) the patellar region is lateral to the popliteal region B) the patellar region is anterior to the popliteal region C) the patellar region is proximal to the popliteal region D) the patellar region is superior to the popliteal region E) the patellar region is distal to the popliteal region SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 39) A cut that is made along the midline is called a __________ section. 39) _____________ Figure 1.1 Using Figure 1.1, identify the following: 40) Label E points to the __________ cavity. 40) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 41) A control mechanism that responds to a stimulus by decreasing its intensity is called a __________ mechanism. 41) _____________ 42) The larynx is an organ of the __________ system. 42) _____________ Figure 1.2 Using Figure 1.2, identify the following: 43) Label A points to the __________ region. 43) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 44) The bodyʹs ability to maintain stable internal conditions is referred to as __________. 44) _____________ 45) The abdominal cavity has __________ quadrants and __________ regions. 45) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 46) The navel is __________ to the spine. 46) _____________ 47) __________ is the process of breaking down ingested food in preparation for absorption. 47) _____________ Figure 1.2 Using Figure 1.2, identify the following: 48) Label E points to the __________ region. 48) _____________ Figure 1.1 Using Figure 1.1, identify the following: 49) Label B points to the __________ cavity. 49) _____________ 50) Label F points to the __________ cavity. 50) _____________ 51) Ventral is a directional term synonymous with __________ in humans. 51) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 52) Groups of cells that have a common function are termed __________. 52) _____________ Figure 1.1 Using Figure 1.1, identify the following: 53) Label A points to the __________ cavity. 53) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 54) The central region of the thoracic cavity containing the heart is called the __________. 54) _____________ 55) The system that functions in the storage of minerals, such as calcium, is called the __________ system. 56) The component of a control system that provides the means for the control centerʹs response (output) is called the __________. 55) _____________ 56) _____________ 57) The thoracic cavity is __________ to the abdominopelvic cavity. 57) _____________ 58) The __________ system is composed of kidneys, bladder, ureters, and urethra. 58) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 59) The ability to sense changes and react to them is termed __________ or __________. 59) _____________ 60) The armpit area is called the __________ region. 60) _____________ 61) The epigastric region is __________ to the right hypochondriac region of the abdominopelvic cavity. 61) _____________ Figure 1.2 Using Figure 1.2, identify the following: 62) Label B points to the __________ region. 62) _____________ 63) Label C points to the __________ region. 63) _____________ 64) Blood is categorized as a __________ because it is compared of similar cells with a common function. 64) _____________ 65) The patellar region is __________ to the popliteal region. 65) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 66) The cranial and spinal cavities are subdivisions of the __________ cavity. 66) _____________ 67) The function of the __________ system is to control body activities via hormones. 67) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 68) __________ refers to all of the chemical reactions in the body. 68) _____________ Figure 1.1 Using Figure 1.1, identify the following: 69) Label D points to the __________. 69) _____________ Figure 1.2 Using Figure 1.2, identify the following: 70) Label F points to the __________ region. 70) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 71) The study of the bodyʹs small structures using a microscope is called __________. 71) _____________ Using Figure 1.2, identify the following: Figure 1.2 72) Label D points to the __________ region. 72) _____________ Figure 1.1 Using Figure 1.1, identify the following: 73) Label C points to the __________ cavity. 73) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 74) The right and left iliac (inguinal) regions are lateral to the __________ region. 74) _____________ 75) The breakdown of ingested foods into simple molecules that can then be absorbed into the bloodstream is termed __________. 76) The three medial regions of the abdominopelvic cavity are __________, __________, and __________. 77) Blood clotting and the birth of a baby are examples of the __________ feedback mechanism. TRUE/FALSE. Write ʹTʹ if the statement is true and ʹFʹ if the statement is false. 75) _____________ 76) _____________ 77) _____________ 78) The heel of the foot constitutes the plantar region. 78) ______ 79) The lymphatic system collects fluids leaked by the cardiovascular system and returns them to the bloodstream. 79) ______ 80) The spleen and the tonsils are part of the digestive system. 80) ______ 81) The endocrine system is the fast-acting body control system. 81) ______ 82) The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominopelvic cavity by the diaphragm. 82) ______ 83) The dorsal body cavity is subdivided into four quadrants and nine regions. 83) ______ 84) As body temperature drops below normal, chemical reactions proceed too rapidly and body proteins begin to break down. 84) ______ 85) The spinal cavity is part of the ventral body cavity. 85) ______ 86) The hypogastric region is directly superior to the umbilical region. 86) ______ 87) There is no physical structure that separates the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity. 87) ______ 88) The highest level of structural organization in humans is the organ level. 88) ______ 89) Most homeostatic control mechanisms are negative feedback reactions. 89) ______ 90) Proximal means farther from the origin of a body part. 90) ______ 91) The sacral region is on the ventral (anterior) body surface. 91) ______ 92) Excretion is the process of removing wastes from the body. 92) ______ MATCHING. Choose the item in column 2 that best matches each item in column 1. Match the following: 93) Tarsal A) ankle 93) ______ 94) Inguinal B) area where thigh meets body trunk 94) ______ 95) Umbilical C) navel 95) ______ Match the following: 96) Dorsal A) behind 96) ______ 97) Ventral B) toward the side 97) ______ 98) Lateral C) in front of 98) ______ 99) Superior D) above 99) ______ Match the following. 100) Regulation of water and electrolytes A) urinary system 100) _____ Match the following: 101) Popliteal A) posterior knee area 101) _____ 102) Oral B) mouth 102) _____ Match the following. 103) Heat production A) nervous system 103) _____ 104) Responds to stimuli (internal and external) Match the following: B) muscular system 104) _____ 105) Proximal A) close to the origin of the body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk Match the following. 105) _____ 106) Site of hematopoiesis A) skeletal system 106) _____ Match the following: 107) Patellar A) armpit 107) _____ 108) Axillary B) anterior knee 108) _____ Match the following: 109) Deep A) toward the body surface 109) _____ B) away from the body surface Match the following: 110) Femoral A) thigh 110) _____ Match the following: 111) Distal A) farther from the origin of a body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk 111) _____ Match the following: 112) Coxal A) hip 112) _____ Match the following. 113) Houses blood cells involved in immunity Match the following: A) lymphatic system 113) _____ B) respiratory system 114) Orbital A) eye area 114) _____ Match the following: 115) Inferior A) below 115) _____ Match the following. 116) Slow-acting body control system A) digestive system 116) _____ B) endocrine system Match the following: 117) Medial A) toward the midline 117) _____ ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper. 118) Describe anatomical position. Explain why anatomical position is used. 119) Explain the difference between homeostatis and metabolism. 120) List and explain the eight necessary human life functions. 121) Explain how scratching an itch is an example of the negative feedback mechanism. 122) Describe the role of the effector in the negative feedback system. 123) List, and briefly define, the human bodyʹs organization levels from smallest to largest. 124) List and explain the three major body planes and sections. 125) Distinguish between anatomy and physiology. 126) Identify the two dorsal body cavities, and state their locations and the organs contained therein. 127) List the four quadrants and nine regions of the abdominopelvic cavity. Explain why this cavity has these subdivisions. 128) List and explain the five survival needs of humans. 1) A 2) C 3) B 4) C 5) D 6) D 7) E 8) E 9) A 10) B 11) C 12) D 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) A 17) C 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) D 22) E 23) B 24) C 25) C 26) C 27) B 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) A 32) A 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) E 37) B 38) B 39) midsagittal or median 40) abdominal 41) negative feedback 42) respiratory 43) epigastric 44) homeostasis 45) 4

3) Which of these regions are associated with the parts of the arm:

A) femoral, popliteal, patellar B) brachial, antecubital, carpal C) nasal, oral, occipital D) pelvic, pubic, inguinal E) acromial, sacral, gluteal

28) Which of these bones is NOT a long bone found in the leg:

A) femur B) fibula C) metatarsals D) tibia E) patella

35) The greater trochanter is located on the:

A) femur B) humerus C) fibula D) tibia E) radius

45) Which of the following bone categories is composed of two layers of compact bone sandwiching a layer of spongy bone between them:

A) flat bone B) irregular bone C) compact bone D) long bone E) sesamoid bone

22) Which is the correct order of ribs, from superior to inferior:

A) floating ribs, true ribs, false ribs B) floating ribs, false ribs, true ribs C) true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs D) false ribs, floating ribs, true ribs E) true ribs, floating ribs, false ribs

32) A round or oval opening through a bone is a:

A) fossa B) fissure C) facet D) foramen E) trochanter

14) The dorsal body cavity houses the:

A) heart and lungs B) spinal cord and brain C) tongue D) urinary and reproductive organs E) digestive and reproductive organs

17) The study of the function of the body and body parts is called:

A) homeostasis B) anatomy C) physiology D) irritability E) negative feedback

12) The hyoid bone is unique because:

A) it has no specific function B) it largely consists of cartilage C) it has an unusual shape D) it is covered with mucosa E) it is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone

39) A fracture that is common in osteoporotic bones is a(n):

A) depressed fracture B) spiral fracture C) simple fracture D) compression fracture E) impacted fracture

23) The ovary is part of which of the following two systems:

A) digestive and respiratory systems B) reproductive and endocrine systems C) digestive and endocrine systems D) reproductive and respiratory systems E) endocrine and respiratory systems

7) Which of these regions are NOT associated with the ventral (anterior) portion of the head:

A) oral B) orbital C) buccal D) nasal E) occiptal

34) The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called:

A) lacunae B) lamellae C) trabeculae D) Volkmannʹs canals E) Haversian canals

connective 45) lunula 46) lucidum 47) A 48) reticular 49) shaft 50) root 51) synovial membrane 52) papillary 53) B 54) oil (sebum) 55) arrector pili 56) FALSE 57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) A 77) A 78) A 79) B 80) A 81) B 82) A 83) A 84) B 85) B 86) A 87) A 88) B 89) C 90) A 91) A 92) A 93) A 94) E 95) D 96) F 97) A 98) C 99) A 100) B 101) 1. The amount of subcutaneous tissue below the skin decreases, leading to an intolerance to cold in the elderly. 2. Because of decreased oil production and declining numbers of collagen fibers, the skin becomes drier and may become itchy and bothersome. 3. skin makes it more susceptible to bruising and other types of injuries. Thin 4. A decrease in elasticity of the skin, along with the loss of subcutaneous fat, allows bags to form under the eyes ning and causes jowls to sag. of To delay these changes, the skin should be kept clean and shielded from the sun, and a healthy diet with plenty of the fluids should be maintained. 102) The nervous system is responsible for controlling all temperature-regulating functions of the skin. When the temperature in the external environment is high, heat loss occurs as the nervous system activates sweat glands. Perspiration is produced, which evaporates from the skin surface, causing heat to be dissipated. At the same time, the nervous system causes blood to be flushed into skin capillary beds so that heat radiates from the body surface. In contrast, when the temperature in the external environment is low, the nervous system prevents blood from entering the skin capillary system and radiation to the body exterior is prevented so that perspiration does not occur. At the same time, blood is prevented from entering deeper tissues and the core temperature of the body is maintained. 103) The arrector pili are small bands of smooth muscle cells that connect each side of a hair follicle to the dermal tissue. They are activated by cold or fright and, when contracted, pull the hair follicle into an upright position, dimpling the skin surface with Ȉgoose bumps.Ȉ

104) Acne is an active infection of the sebaceous glands accompanied by pimples on the skin. Sebaceous glands release sebum, or oil, onto the skinʹs surface. 105) Skin contains: 1. keratin which toughens cells and serves as a barrier to mechanical damage and chemical damage

40) Which of these are bone-forming cells:

A) osteocytes B) osteoclasts C) lamellae D) canaliculi E) osteoblasts

responsiveness 60) axillary

61) medial 62) right hypochondriac 63) umbilical 64) tissue 65) ventral or anterior 66) dorsal 67) endocrine 68) Metabolism 69) diaphragm 70) right iliac (inguinal) 71) microscopic anatomy 72) right lumbar 73) thoracic 74) hypogastric 75) digestion 76) epigastric region, umbilical region, hypogastric region 77) positive 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) A 94) B 95) C 96) A 97) C 98) B 99) D 100) A 101) A 102) B 103) B 104) A 105) A 106) A 107) B 108) A 109) B 110) A 111) A 112) A 113) A 114) A 115) A 116) B 117) A 118) Anatomical position is defined as standing erect, feet parallel to the arms, palms facing forward. Anatomical position is used because it is a standard position

27) The axial skeleton contains: 1. skull 2. arms and legs 3. ribs and sternum 4. vertebrae 5. pelvic girdles

A) 1, 2, 3, 5 B) 1, 3, 4 C) 1, 3, 4, 5 D) 2, 5 E) 2, 3, 4, 5

41) There are four stages in the healing of a bone fracture. Which of the following best illustrates the sequence of these stages: 1. bony callus formation 3. fibrocartilage callus formation 2. bone remodeling 4. hematoma formation

A) 1, 3, 2, 4 B) 4, 3, 1, 2 C) 1, 2, 3, 4 D) 1, 3, 4, 2 E) 4, 3, 2, 1

6) The type of joint shown in Figure 5.4 is:

A) a suture B) a cartilaginous joint C) a fibrous joint D) an amphiarthrotic joint E) a synovial joint

30) Which of these structures is the most complex:

A) a tissue B) a molecule C) a cell D) organ system E) an organ

15) The stomach, liver, intestines, bladder, rectum, and reproductive organs are housed in the:

A) abdominopelvic cavity B) dorsal cavity C) spinal cavity D) cranial cavity E) thoracic cavity

3) Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are __________, whereas articulations permitting no movement are called __________.

A) amphiarthroses

14) A structure found on the femur is the:

A) anterior crest B) intercondylar fossa C) trochlea D) lateral malleolus E) medial malleolus

24) The type of tissue shown in Figure 5.3 is found mostly in:

A) articular cartilage B) short bones C) yellow marrow D) the epiphysis E) the diaphysis

17) The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that:

A) bone is dead B) bone diameter is decreasing C) bone diameter is increasing D) bone length is increasing E) bone length is no longer increasing

10) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the location of the spleen and stomach:

A) both of these organs are located medially B) both of these organs are located in the left upper quadrant C) the spleen is located in the left upper quadrant and the stomach is located in the right upper quadrant D) both of these organs are located in the right upper quadrant E) the spleen is located in the right upper quadrant and the stomach is located in the left upper quadrant

36) The most important minerals stored in bones are:

A) calcium and iron B) calcium and potassium C) sodium and potassium D) calcium and phosphorus E) sodium and phosphorus

2) Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the levels of structural organization of the human body:

A) chemical level, tissue level, cellular level, organ system level, organ level, organismal level B) cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ system level, organismal level, organ level C) chemical level, cellular level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level D) cellular level, chemical level, tissue level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level E) cellular level, tissue level, chemical level, organ level, organ system level, organismal level

29) Osteons are characteristic of __________.

A) compact bone B) articular cartilage C) yellow marrow D) spongy bone E) Sharpeyʹs fibers

37) A bone fracture where the bone is broken into many fragments is a:

A) compound fracture B) compression fracture C) simple fracture D) comminuted fracture E) greenstick fracture

18) The suture found between the parietal and temporal bone is the:

A) coronal suture B) sagittal suture C) both the squamous suture and the sagittal suture D) lambdoid suture E) squamous suture

13) Which of the following groups of bones in the human body, categorized according to shape, is correct:

A) coxal bones - irregular bones B) cranium - sesamoid bones C) skull bones - flat bones D) arm and leg bones - short bones E) wrist and ankle bones - long bones

11) In adults, the function of the yellow marrow is to:

A) decrease friction at joint surfaces B) store adipose tissue C) form blood cells D) store calcium and phosphorus E) cause lengthwise growth in long bones

15) What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo:

A) dense fibrous connective tissue B) hyaline cartilage C) fibrocartilage D) elastic connective tissue E) loose fibrous connective tissue

33) A fracture that is common in children, whose bones have relatively more collagen in their matrix and are more flexible than those of adults, is a(n):

A) depressed fracture B) spiral fracture C) open fracture D) impacted fracture E) greenstick fracture

serves as a protection against thermal damage 106) The ABCD rule describes the appearance of the most serious form of skin cancer, melanoma. The ȈAȈ is for asymmetry. In melanoma, the two sides of the pigmented spot or mole do not match. The ȈBȈ is for border irregularity. In melanoma, the borders of the lesion are not smooth but exhibit indentations. The ȈCȈ is for color. In melanoma, the pigmented spot contains areas of different colors (blacks, browns, tans, and sometimes blues and reds). The ȈDȈ is for diameter. In melanoma, the spot is larger than 6 mm in diameter (the size of a pencil eraser). 107) 1. Cutaneous membrane is: a. skin b. dry c. composed of keratinizing stratified squamous epithelium and the underlying connective tissue is often dense and fibrous. 2. Mucous membrane: a. is moist b. is found lining all body cavities that open to the exterior c. often contains stratified squamous epithelium or simple columnar epithelium 3. Serous membrane: a. is composed of two layers (visceral layer covers the organ in the cavity while the parietal layer lines a specific portion of the wall of the ventral body cavity) b. covers organs in body cavities that are closed to the exterior c. is contructed of simple squamous epithelium overlying a thin layer of areolar connective tissue 108) Partial thickness burns are burns that donʹt completely damage both layers of skin, and include first- and second degree burns. In first-degree burns only the epidermis is damaged, with redness and swelling and some pain. These burns typically heal in two to three days without special attention. Second-degree burns involve injury to the epidermis and upper region of the dermis. They are characterized by redness, blisters, and pain. Ordinarily, no permanent scars result if care is taken to prevent infection. Full-thickness burns destroy the entire thickness of skin and are also termed third-degree burns. In third-degree burns, the burned area appears blanched (gray-white) or blackened. The burned area is not painful since nerve endings in the area are destroyed. Regeneration is not possible, therefore skin grafting must be done to cover underlying exposed tissues. 1) The canal that runs through the core of each osteon contains:

A) red marrow B) cartilage and lamellae C) yellow marrow and Sharpeyʹs fibers D) osteoclasts and osteoblasts E) blood vessels and nerve fibers

8) Which of the following systems is matched most accurately to the life function it provides:

A) respiratory system - digestion B) nervous system - excretion C) muscular system - maintaining boundaries D) integumentary system - movement E) nervous system - responsiveness

34) The ribs are located in the:

A) right and left iliac regions B) right and left hypochondriac regions C) right and left pubic regions D) right and left lumbar regions E) right and left inguinal regions

4) There are __________ vertebrae in the neck region.

A) seven cervical B) five lumbar C) twelve thoracic D) seven lumbar E) five thoracic

23) The factor(s) that determine where bone matrix is to be remodeled is (are):

A) sex hormones B) stresses of gravity and muscle pull on the skeleton C) calcium level of the blood D) growth hormone E) parathyroid hormone (PTH)

38) The middle nasal conchae are part of the:

A) sphenoid bone B) vomer bone C) nasal bone D) ethmoid bone E) maxillae

25) Which ventral cavity subdivision has no bony protection:

A) spinal B) pelvic C) abdominal D) cranial E) thoracic

33) The lungs and heart are in the __________ body cavity.

A) spinal B) thoracic C) abdominopelvic D) cranial E) dorsal

22) Your body thermostat is located in a part of the brain called the hypothalamus. Which of the following elements of a control system does this area in the brain represent:

A) stimulus B) afferent pathway C) efferent pathway D) effector E) control center

5) The lymphatic system:

A) synthesizes vitamin D B) responds to internal and external changes by activating appropriate muscles and glands C) secretes hormones that regulate processes such as growth, reproduction, and nutrient use (metabolism) by body cells D) picks up fluid leaked from blood vessels and returns it to the blood E) produces heat

2) Which of these bones is NOT associated with the foot:

A) tarsals B) calcaneus C) metatarsals D) talus E) metacarpals

31) Fingers and toes are referred to as:

A) tarsals B) carpals C) metatarsals D) metacarpals E) phalanges

32) In anatomical position:

A) the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing forward B) the body is lying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms facing forward C) the body is erect with the feet parallel and the arms hanging at the sides with the palms facing backward D) the body is lying face up with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms facing backward E) the body is lying face down with the feet parallel and the arms at the sides with the palms facing backward

26) A compound fracture can be described as when:

A) the bone is broken into many fragments B) the bone is crushed C) the broken bone ends are forced into each other D) the broken bone is exposed to the outside E) adjacent bones fracture simultaneously

8) Which of the following is correct of the female pelvis when comparing it with the male pelvis:

A) the distance between the female ischial spines is greater B) the angle of the female pubic arch is smaller C) the female pelvis as a whole is deeper, and the bones are heavier and thicker D) the female iliac bones are less flared E) the distance between the female ischial tuberosities is less

29) In describing the relationship of the thoracic and spinal cavities:

A) the thoracic cavity is superior to the spinal cavity B) the thoracic cavity is medial to the spinal cavity C) the thoracic cavity is proximal to the spinal cavity D) the thoracic cavity is ventral to the spinal cavity E) the thoracic cavity is inferior to the spinal cavity

19) The region that contains the navel is the:

A) umbilical region B) orbital region C) carpal region D) anterior knee E) inguinal region

28) Which of the following regional terms means the anterior surface of the elbow:

A) vertebral region B) antecubital region C) calcaneal region D) scapular region E) gluteal region

13) Which of the following activities does not represent an anatomical study:

A) viewing muscle tissue through a microscope B) studying how the nerves conduct electrical impulses C) observing the parts of a reproducing cell D) examining the surface of a bone E) making a section through the heart to observe its interior

31) Sarah fell while ice skating and broke a bone in her carpal region. Where is this region?

A) wrist B) shoulder C) lower leg D) hip E) knee

and play a role in cell-to-cell interactions. Exam Name___________________________________ MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) Epidermal cells that are actively mitotic and replace superficial cells that are continually rubbed off are: A) stratum granulosum cells B) stratum lucidum cells C) stratum germinativum cells D) stratum spinosum cells E) stratum corneum cells 1) _______ 2) The uppermost layer of skin is: 2) _______ A) fed by a good supply of blood vessels B) called the dermis C) composed of dense connective tissue D) full of keratin E) called the hypodermis 3) The epidermis is composed of: 3) _______ A) simple columnar epithelium B) areolar tissue C) dense fibrous connective tissue D) stratified squamous epithelium E) adipose tissue 4) The ȈtanningȈ effect (darkening of the skin) that occurs when a person is exposed to the sun is due to: A) melanin B) keratin C) oil D) sweat E) Langerhans cells 4) _______ 5) Nails are composed of: 5) _______ A) keratin B) carotene C) hemoglobin D) melanin E) sebum 6) The categories of epithelial tissue membranes are: 6) _______ A) synovial, cutaneous, and serous membranes B) synovial, mucous, and cutaneous membranes C) mucous, cutaneous, and serous membranes D) synovial, mucous, and serous membranes E) synovial, cutaneous, and mucous membranes 7) Inflammation of the hair follicles and sebaceous glands is called: 7) _______ A) impetigo B) alopecia C) contact dermatitis D) psoriasis E) boils 8) Synovial membranes are found in the: 8) _______ A) joint cavities B) lining of the stomach cavity C) covering of the brain D) covering of the heart E) lining of the abdominal cavity wall 9) Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the papillary layer of the dermis: 9) _______ A) it is the deepest layer of the skin B) it is highly vascular C) it contains nerve endings that respond to touch and temperature stimuli D) it produces the pattern for fingerprints E) it is located immediately beneath the epidermis 10) The secretion of sweat is stimulated: 10) ______ A) by high temperatures B) by hormones, especially male sex hormones C) as a protective coating when one is swimming D) when the air temperature drops E) both by high temperatures and by hormones, especially male hormones 11) Melanocytes are found in the: 11) ______ A) stratum spinosum B) stratum basale C) stratum granulosum D) stratum lucidum E) stratum corneum 12) Finger-like upward projections of the dermis into the epidermis are called: 12) ______ A) hair bulbs B) dermal papillae C) Pacinian corpuscles D) hair follicles E) Meissnerʹs corpuscles 13) A physician estimates the volume of fluid lost in a severely burned patient by: 13) ______ A) measuring urinary output and fluid intake B) using the Ȉrule of ninesȈ C) performing enzyme studies D) blood analysis E) observing the tissues that are usually moist 14) The secretions of the eccrine glands are: 14) ______ A) solely metabolic wastes B) basic C) 99% water, sodium chloride, and trace amounts of wastes, lactic acid, and

D) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins E) primarily uric acid 15) The layer of the epidermis in which cells first die because of their inability to get nutrients and oxygen is the: A) stratum basale B) stratum corneum C) stratum spinosum D) stratum granulosum E) stratum lucidum 15) ______ 16) Acne and seborrhea are caused by problems with: 16) ______ A) nail beds B) sebaceous glands C) hair follicles D) sudoriferous glands E) eccrine glands 17) What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn: 17) ______ A) blood loss B) infection C) dehydration D) loss of immune function E) unbearable pain 18) In order to warm the body up when cold: 18) ______ A) sudoriferous glands release sweat B) melanin is produced C) vitamin D is synthesized D) the arrector pili muscles contract to stand hairs upright E) sebaceous glands release oil 19) Which of the following homoeostatic imbalances is caused by skin exposure to chemicals: 19) ______ A) impetigo B) athleteʹs foot C) cyanosis D) contact dermatitis E) cold sores 20) The only dry membrane is the: 20) ______ A) synovial membrane B) mucous membrane C) serous membrane D) cutaneous membrane E) basement membrane 21) Sweat glands associated with hair are: 21) ______ A) sudoriferous glands B) eccrine glands C) sudoriferous glands and eccrine glands D) sebaceous glands and eccrine glands E) sebaceous glands 22) Which of the following relationships is incorrect: 22) ______ A) visceral peritoneum - covers the outer surface of the small intestine B) parietal peritoneum - lines the wall of the abdominal cavity C) parietal pleura - lines the wall of thoracic cavity D) visceral pleura - lines the surface of the lungs E) parietal pericardium - covers the outer surface of the heart Figure 4.2 23) The membrane shown in Figure 4.2 is: 23) ______ A) synovial membrane B) cutaneous membrane C) pleura, a serous membrane D) pericardium, a serous membrane E) mucous membrane 24) The hypodermis consists of: 24) ______ A) adipose tissue B) loose connective tissue C) dense fibrous connective tissue D) stratified squamous epithelium E) simple columnar epithelium 25) Although you get wet while swimming, a tough protein within the skin prevents it from soaking up moisture like a sponge. This substance is: A) carotene B) mucus C) keratin D) melanin E) serous fluid 25) ______ 26) Male pattern baldness has a genetic switch that turns on in response to: 26) ______ A) weight B) female hormones C) age D) size E) male hormones 27) Which of the following is an indication of melanoma: 27) ______ A) a symmetrical mole B) a pigmented spot that contains areas of different colors C) a pigmented spot that is black D) a spot on the skin that is smaller than the size of a pencil eraser E) a pigmented spot that has smooth borders 28) A splinter penetrates to the deepest layer of the epidermis on your foot. This layer is: 28) ______ A) stratum granulosum B) stratum spinosum C) stratum corneum D) stratum lucidum E) stratum basale 29) A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order: 1. stratum basale 2. stratum corneum 3. stratum granulosum 4. stratum lucidum 5. stratum spinosum A) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 B) 2, 4, 3, 5, 1 C) 2, 3, 5, 1 D) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2 E) 2, 3, 4, 1, 5 29) ______ 30) Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of: 30) ______ A) diffusion B) evaporation C) osmosis D) absorption E) filtration 31) Which of the following is a connective tissue membrane: 31) ______ A) serous membrane B) pleural membrane C) cutaneous membrane D) mucous membrane E) synovial membrane 32) Sudoriferous glands are important for: 32) ______ A) production of keratin B) keeping skin and hair cells soft and flexible C) body heat regulation D) production of vitamin D E) production of sweat 33) Which type of membrane contains fluid between the visceral and perietal layers: 33) ______ A) serous B) cutaneous C) mucous D) connective E) synovial 34) Which of the following is a vital function of the skin: 34) ______ A) the cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy B) it converts modified epidermal cholesterol to vitamin D C) it aids in the transport of materials throughout the body D) it absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases E) it aids in desiccation SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question. 35) The gland that produces sweat is indicated by label __________. 35) _____________ 36) The layer of the serous membrane that covers an organ is known as the __________ layer. Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 37) In a hair, the outermost single layer of cells that overlap one another like shingles is called the __________. Figure 4.1 Using Figure 4.1, identify the following: 36) _____________ 37) _____________ 38) The hair follicle is indicated by letter __________. 38) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 39) The type of burn that involves injury to the epidermis and the upper region of the dermis and is red, blistered, and painful is termed as a __________-degree burn. 39) _____________ 40) The two major categories of membranes are __________ and __________. 40) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 41) The white, cheesy-looking substance that is produced by the sebaceous glands and protects a babyʹs skin while it is floating in its water-filled sac inside the mother is called __________. 41) _____________ 42) The gland that produces a mixture of oily substances and fragmented cells is indicated by label ________ __. 42) ___ ___ ___ ___ _ Figure 4.1 Using Figure 4.1, identify the following: 43) The region that contains adipose tissue is indicated by letter __________. 43) _____________ 44) Epithelial membranes contain two types of tissue, __________ and __________ tissue. 44) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 45) The white cresent area located over the nail matrix is called the __________. 45) _____________ 46) The skin that covers the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet has an extra layer of epidermis called the stratum __________. 46) _____________ Figure 4.1 Using Figure 4.1, identify the following: 47) The structure that is responsible for whorled ridges on the epidermal surfaces is indicated by letter __________. Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 47) _____________ 48) The deepest layer of the dermis is called the __________ layer. 48) _____________ 49) The part of a hair that projects from the surface of the scalp or skin is called the __________. 49) _____________ 50) The part of the hair enclosed in the follicle is known as the __________. 50) _____________ 51) The type of connective tissue membrane found in joints is the __________. 51) _____________ Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 52) The dermis is composed of the reticular and __________ layers. 52) _____________ Figure 4.1 Using Figure 4.1, identify the following: 53) The structure that pulls the hair follicle into an upright position is indicated by letter __________. Fill in the blank or provide a short answer: 53) _____________ 54) The sebaceous glands produce __________. 54) _____________ 55) ȈGoosebumpsȈ are caused by contractions of the __________ muscles. 55) _____________ TRUE/FALSE. Write ʹTʹ if the statement is true and ʹFʹ if the statement is false. 56) Eccrine and apocrine glands are the two types of sebaceous glands. 56) ______ 57) Joe just burned his hand on a hot pot. A blister forms and the burn is painful

constitutes a major role of the nervous system. 4. MetabolismNincludes all the chemical reactions that occur within the bodyʹs cells. 5. ExcretionNelimination of carbon dioxide by the lungs and nitrogenous wastes by the kidneys. 6. DigestionNthe process of breaking down ingested foodstuffs into simpler molecules that can then be absorbed into the blood for delivery to the bodyʹs cells. 7. GrowthNan increase in size, which is usually accompanied by an increase in the number of cells. 8. ReproductionNthe production of new cells for growth and repair, and also the production of offspring. 121) 1. Stimulus or input is the itch. 2. A receptor carries the information about the stimulus (itch) to the brain via an afferent pathway. 3. Control center (brain) analyzes this information an turns on an effector which will cancel the stimulus. 4. Information reaches the effector via the efferent pathway from the brain. Muscles move the hand to scratch the itch. 5. Scratching continues until the itch goes away. The brain shuts off the effector once homeostatis is restored. 122) The effector is the control centerʹs output and response to the stimulus. The effectorʹs job is to cancel or shut off the control mechanism. 123) 1. chemical level: a. atoms are the basic building blocks of matter b. molecules are units formed by atoms combining 2. cellular level: cells are the smallest living unit in living organisms 3. tissue level: tissues are groupings of cells performing a common function 4. organ level: an organ is a structure consisting of two or more tissue types 5. organ system level: an organ system describes a group of organs functioning

cooperatively for a common purpose 6. organism level: a human organism consists of all of the organ systems of the ody working together to promote healthy functioning b (homeostasis) 124) 1. SagittalNcut is made along the longitudinal (lengthwise) plane of the body (or an organ), dividing it into right and left parts. 2. Frontal (coronal)Ncut is made along the longitudinal (lengthwise) plane of the body (or an organ), dividing it into anterior and posterior parts. 3. Transverse (cross-section)Ncut is made along the transverse (horizontal) plane, dividing the body into superior and inferior parts. 125) Anatomy is the study of the structure and shape of the body and body parts, and their relationships to one another. Physiology is the study of how the body and its parts work or function. 126) 1. Cranial cavityNthe superior posterior space inside the bony skull that houses the brain. 2. Spinal cavityNthe inferior posterior space inside the bony vertebral column that houses the spinal cord. 127) 1. The four quadrants are: a. right upper quadrant b. right lower quadrant c. left upper quadrant d. right lower quadrant 2. The nine regions are: a. epigastric region b. umbilical region c. hypogastric region d. right hypochondriac region e. left hypochondriac region f. right lumbar region g. left lumbar region h. right iliac region i. left iliac region This cavity has been subdivided into these quadrants and regions because it is large and has many organs. 128) 1. NutrientsNinclude carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, which are taken in via the diet for energy and cell building. 2. OxygenNrequired to release energy from food. 3. WaterNaccounts for over 60% of the body weight, and provides the basis for various body fluids. 4. Appropriate body temperatureNwhen too high or too low, physiological activities cease, primarily because molecules are destroyed or become nonfunctional. 5. Appropriate atmospheric pressureNthe force exerted on the surface of the body by the weight of air