B.2.1 - Exam Practice 1: Networking Concepts

What is a Content Delivery Network (CDN)?

A network of servers used to deliver content to users worldwide A Content Delivery Network (CDN) is a system of distributed servers that deliver web content and other web services to users based on their geographic locations. The goal is to provide high availability and performance by distributing the service spatially relative to end-users. CDNs do not provide tools for application development; they are focused on content delivery. CDNs are not a cloud service model like SaaS; they are a specific infrastructure setup for content delivery. While CDNs involve storage, they are not a type of IaaS focused solely on providing storage solutions; their primary purpose is efficient content delivery.

Why is a zero trust architecture important in modern data centers?

It requires each request between servers to be authorized. Zero trust architecture is crucial because it implies a highly segmented network where each server-to-server request must be authenticated and authorized, enhancing security. It does not eliminate physical security, allow unrestricted access, or simplify network design. Zero trust complements, rather than replaces, physical security measures. Zero trust does the opposite of allowing unrestricted access between servers by enforcing strict access controls. Zero trust can make network security more complex due to the need for continuous verification and authentication.

You're an application developer, and you're writing a program for exchanging video files through a TCP/IP network. You need to select a transport protocol that will guarantee delivery. Which TCP/IP protocol provides this capability?

TCP In this scenario, you should write the application to use Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). TCP guarantees delivery through error checking and acknowledgments. FTP provides a generic method for transferring files. It can protect access to files by requiring usernames and passwords. UDP is a host-to-host protocol like TCP, but it doesn't acknowledge that each packet was transmitted. SIP is an open-source VoIP protocol.

What does NFV infrastructure control?

The allocation of storage and networking resources NFV infrastructure controls the allocation of compute (CPU and memory), storage, and networking resources to each Virtual Network Function (VNF), enabling the virtualization of network functions. NFV infrastructure controls more than just networking resources; it also includes compute and storage. Similarly, it controls more than just storage; compute and networking resources are also managed. The physical infrastructure of a data center is beyond the scope of NFV infrastructure, which focuses on virtual resources.

What is a hybrid topology in networking?

A network topology that combines two or more different topologies A hybrid topology integrates various types of network topologies (e.g., point-to-point, star, mesh) to meet specific network requirements. A star configuration alone does not constitute a hybrid topology. Hybrid topologies involve a mixture of different network configurations. Relying solely on a mesh configuration does not define a hybrid topology, which requires a combination of different types. Using only point-to-point links does not create a hybrid topology. A hybrid topology involves mixing different types of network configurations.

What is one of the main benefits of using a proxy server?

It provides a degree of traffic management and security. Proxy servers offer significant advantages in terms of traffic management and security by controlling, monitoring, and potentially modifying the traffic that passes through them. A proxy server does not eliminate the need for a firewall; they serve complementary security functions. Proxy servers do not allow direct connections; they act as intermediaries. Proxy servers can actually improve network performance through caching, not decrease it.

A host has an address of 100.55.177.99/16. Which of the following is the broadcast address for the subnet?

100.55.255.255 The broadcast address for the subnet is the last address on the subnet. In this example, the address uses 16 bits in the subnet mask (255.255.0.0), meaning that the first two octets indicate the subnet address (100.55.0.0), and the last two octets are used for host addresses. The last possible address on this subnet is 100.55.255.255.

Which OSI model layer is a switch associated with?

Data Link Switches are associated with the Data Link layer of the OSI model. Switches examine the device address within a packet and forward messages directly to that device.

You work as the IT administrator for a growing corporate network. You created an iSCSI storage area network (SAN) on the CorpiSCSI server. You need to make this storage available to CorpFiles16 users. In this lab, your task is to:

Access the CorpFiles16 server running as a VM on CorpServer. Using the iSCSI Initiator, discover and log onto the CorpiSCSI target server. Bring the iSCSI disk online. Create a new volume using the following parameters: Use all available storage from the disk. Drive letter: G File system: NTFS Volume label: iSCSI 14.1.6 Lab: Configure an iSCSI Initiator

A company is planning to reorganize its network infrastructure to improve efficiency and reduce the complexity of its routing tables. They currently have eight /24 networks that are contiguous. The network administrator suggests using CIDR to summarize these networks into a single entry. What CIDR notation would achieve this?

/21 A /21 CIDR notation can summarize eight contiguous /24 networks into a single network. This is because a /21 network encompasses 2^11 = 2048 addresses, and since each /24 network represents 256 addresses, eight of them would total 2048 addresses. This summarization significantly simplifies the routing table by reducing eight entries to just one. A /22 network can summarize only four /24 networks, not eight. A /23 network can summarize only two /24 networks, making it insufficient for the given scenario. A /24 network represents a single network of 256 addresses and cannot be used to summarize multiple /24 networks.

You are configuring a network device and need to set its IP address to 192.168.1.1. However, the device requires you to enter the address in binary notation. What is the correct binary notation for the given IP address?

11000000.10101000.00000001.00000001 The binary notation for the decimal IP address 192.168.1.1 is 11000000.10101000.00000001.00000001. Each octet in the decimal address is converted to binary: 192 to 11000000, 168 to 10101000, 1 to 00000001, and the last 1 to 00000001 again. The following binary sequences are incorrect because they do not correspond to the decimal sequence of 192.168.1.1: 10101010.11001100.00010001.00010001 is 170.204.17.17 11110000.10011000.00000010.00000010 is 240.152.2.2 10000001.11111111.00000001.00000001 is 129.255.1.1

What is the correct binary form of the decimal IP address 192.168.1.1?

11000000.10101000.00000001.00000001 The decimal equivalent of the 11000000.10101000.00000001.00000001 IP address is 192.168.1.1. To convert from binary to decimal, use the decimal equivalent of the following binary numbers: 10000000: 128 01000000: 64 00100000: 32 00010000: 16 00001000: 8 00000100: 4 00000010: 2 00000001: 1 For each bit position with a 1 value in the binary form of the address, add the decimal values for that bit. For example, the decimal equivalent of 11000000 is 128 + 64 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 = 192 The decimal equivalent of 10101100.00010001.00000001.00000001 is 172.17.1.1. The decimal equivalent of 00001010.10101000.00000001.00000001 is 10.168.1.1. The decimal equivalent of 11000000.10101000.00000010.00000001 is 192.168.2.1.

A network administrator is configuring a subnet with the network address of 192.168.10.0/28. What is the range of usable host IP addresses for this subnet?

192.168.10.1 to 192.168.10.14 In a /28 subnet, there are 16 addresses in total. The first address (192.168.10.0) is the network address, and the last address (192.168.10.15) is the broadcast address. Therefore, the range of usable host IP addresses is from 192.168.10.1 to 192.168.10.14. 192.168.10.15 is the broadcast address for the subnet and cannot be assigned to a host. 192.168.10.0 is the network address and 192.168.10.15 is the broadcast address; neither can be used for hosts. 192.168.10.2 to 192.168.10.13 excludes two valid host addresses (192.168.10.1 and 192.168.10.14) that can be assigned to hosts.

In this lab, you explore different methods of troubleshooting network communication problems that may result from such things as bad network cards and cables. While troubleshooting, you will use the ping command, the link and network activity lights on network cards and switches, and the Windows Settings app. Use Exhibits to see the network diagram and wiring schematics of the network as needed.

2.6.10 Lab: Explore Physical Connectivity 1

A university is expanding its network to include a new building. The network address for this expansion is 10.0.0.0/16, and the university plans to create 14 subnets for various departments and functions within the building. What is the minimum subnet mask that can be used to accommodate at least 14 subnets?

255.255.240.0 To accommodate at least 14 subnets, you need to determine the minimum number of bits required. Borrowing 4 bits (2^4=16) from the host part of the address in a /16 network creates 16 subnets, which meets the requirement. This changes the subnet mask to /20, which in dotted decimal format is 255.255.240.0. A subnet mask of 255.255.248.0 (/21) would create 32 subnets, more than necessary, potentially leading to inefficient use of the address space. A subnet mask of 255.255.252.0 (/22) would create 64 subnets, far exceeding the required number. A subnet mask of 255.255.254.0 (/23) would create 128 subnets, significantly more than needed and would not be an efficient use of the address space for the given requirement.

You are a tech enthusiast living in an urban area. You are excited about the possibilities of the Internet of Things (IoT) and smart home technology. You are planning to upgrade your smartphone and are considering whether a 5G-enabled device would offer significant benefits over a 4G device in terms of IoT connectivity and overall data speeds. What should you consider in making your decision?

A 5G-enabled device would offer significant benefits in terms of higher data speeds and better support for IoT networks. Given your interest in IoT and smart home technology, a 5G-enabled device would be more beneficial due to 5G's higher data speeds, lower latency, and greater capacity to support a massive number of IoT devices simultaneously. These characteristics of 5G technology make it better suited for urban areas where network demand is high and for applications requiring quick, reliable connections. A 5G-enabled device would not offer any benefits over a 4G device for IoT connectivity is incorrect because 5G technology is specifically designed to better support IoT networks through higher data speeds, lower latency, and the ability to connect more devices simultaneously compared to 4G. While 4G LTE is widely available and reliable, a 5G device in an urban area would likely offer superior performance due to the deployment of 5G infrastructure designed to handle high-density usage and provide faster speeds. One of the key advantages of 5G over 4G is the significantly higher data speeds it offers, in addition to improved IoT connectivity.

Which of the following BEST describes the primary function of a SOHO router?

A device that primarily forwards traffic between the Local Area Network (LAN) and the Wide Area Network (WAN), while also providing additional functionalities The primary function of a SOHO router is to forward traffic between the LAN and the WAN. This includes connecting devices within a small office or home office to the Internet (WAN) and facilitating communication between devices on the local network (LAN). In addition to routing, SOHO routers often provide additional functionalities such as firewall protection, wireless connectivity, and sometimes even VPN support. Managing internal storage solutions is not the primary function of a SOHO router. This description more closely aligns with the role of a Network-Attached Storage (NAS) device, which provides centralized data storage and file sharing within a network. While enhancing network security is an important function of many SOHO routers, it is not their sole purpose. SOHO routers are multifunctional devices that provide connectivity and network management features in addition to security measures. The primary role of a SOHO router is not to increase the range of wireless signals for MAN connections. SOHO routers are designed for smaller networks, typically within a single building or home office, and their main function is to manage traffic between these local networks and the wider Internet. Extending wireless signal range, especially in the context of a MAN, would require different or additional networking equipment.

You work as the IT security administrator for a small corporate network. You recently set up the Remote Access VPN feature on your network security appliance to provide you and your fellow administrators with secure access to your network. You are currently at home and would like to connect your iPad to the VPN. Your iPad is connected to your home wireless network. In this lab, your task is to:

Add an IPSec VPN connection using the following values Turn on the VPN. Verify that a connection is established. The password for mbrown is L3tM31nN0w (0 = zero). 13.2.9 Lab: Configure an iPad VPN Connection

You are configuring a new application deployment on AWS and have set up several EC2 instances to host different components of your application. To ensure security, you decide to create a custom security group for these instances. After creating the security group, you realize you haven't added any rules to it yet. What will be the impact on your application's network traffic with the current configuration of the security group?

All inbound and outbound network traffic to the instances will be dropped. In AWS, a custom security group with no rules effectively acts as a deny-all firewall for the instances it is associated with. Since no allow rules have been defined, no inbound or outbound network traffic can reach or leave the instances. This means the application components will not be able to communicate with each other or with the Internet until specific allow rules are added to the security group. Without any rules, security groups do not allow any communication, even between instances within the same security group. AWS security groups do not have default allow rules for any ports, including 80 and 443. Rules must be explicitly defined by the user. The default state of a custom security group without any rules is to drop all traffic, both inbound and outbound, not just to block inbound traffic while allowing all outbound traffic.

A network engineer is tasked with designing a network for a company that has three departments with different IP address requirements. The Sales department needs 50 IP addresses, the Engineering department requires 120 IP addresses, and the HR department needs 25 IP addresses. The company has been allocated a /24 network. How should the engineer allocate the subnet sizes using VLSM to minimize wastage?

Allocate /25 to Engineering, /26 to Sales, and /27 to HR The correct answer is to allocate /25 to Engineering, /26 to Sales, and /27 to HR. The Engineering department requires 120 IP addresses, which can be accommodated by a /25 subnet (128 addresses). The Sales department needs 50 IP addresses, which fits within a /26 subnet (64 addresses). The HR department's requirement of 25 IP addresses can be met with a /27 subnet (32 addresses). Allocating a /27 to Sales and a /28 to HR does not provide enough addresses for those departments. A /26 subnet for Engineering does not provide enough IP addresses for their requirements.

You are configuring a router for a new remote office setup. To ensure reliable remote management, you plan to configure a virtual interface on the router. This virtual interface, often referred to as a loopback interface, will provide a stable IP address that does not depend on the physical status of the router's ports. Which of the following steps is crucial in setting up this virtual interface for remote management?

Assign the loopback interface an IP address that is routable within the internal network for remote management. The loopback interface should be assigned an IP address that is recognized and routable within the organization's internal network. This ensures that the router can be managed remotely even if physical interfaces are down, without exposing the management interface directly to the Internet. The loopback interface should be assigned an IP address that is recognized and routable within the organization's internal network. This ensures that the router can be managed remotely even if physical interfaces are down, without exposing the management interface directly to the Internet. Assigning a public IP address to the loopback interface for remote management exposes the router to potential security risks from the Internet. It's safer to manage routers through internal networks or via VPNs. Disabling all physical interfaces on the router is not practical or advisable, as this would prevent the router from performing its primary function of routing traffic between different networks. The loopback interface is intended for management purposes, not to handle all the router's traffic.

Why is VLSM considered a complementary technique to supernetting?

Because it allows for more efficient IP address allocation The correct answer is because it allows for more efficient IP address allocation. VLSM complements supernetting by allowing for more efficient allocation of IP addresses within a network. While supernetting aggregates multiple IP networks into a larger one to simplify routing, VLSM provides the flexibility to allocate IP address ranges to subnets based on actual needs, reducing wastage. VLSM is not specifically about allocating IP addresses to ISPs, but about efficient internal network design. VLSM actually adds complexity to network design due to its flexibility and the need for careful planning. VLSM does not increase the total IPv4 address space.

You are a network administrator for a medium-sized company. Recently, you've noticed an increase in suspicious network activity. To enhance your network's security, you decide to implement an Intrusion Detection System (IDS). Which of the following locations would be MOST appropriate for placing the IDS sensor?

Behind the network firewall to monitor internal and external traffic. The correct answer is to place it behind the network firewall to monitor internal and external traffic. Placing the IDS sensor behind the network firewall is the most appropriate choice because it allows the IDS to monitor both internal and external traffic that has already been filtered by the firewall. This positioning helps in detecting suspicious activities that might have passed through the firewall, providing an additional layer of security and ensuring defense in depth. The IDS can effectively monitor for malicious activities within the traffic entering and exiting the security zone, offering comprehensive coverage without being directly exposed to all incoming internet traffic. While placing the IDS outside the network firewall would allow it to monitor all incoming and outgoing traffic, this positioning would expose the IDS to a vast amount of traffic, including potential direct attacks. This could overwhelm the IDS with data, making it less effective in identifying genuine threats and increasing the likelihood of false positives. Placing the IDS directly on the company's web server is not ideal because it would limit the IDS's monitoring capabilities to the activities of that single server. This setup would not provide a comprehensive view of the network's overall security posture, leaving other parts of the network vulnerable to attacks. An IDS placed on a standalone computer disconnected from the network would be ineffective, as it would not be able to monitor any network traffic. The primary function of an IDS is to analyze network traffic or system and application logs for suspicious activities, which requires a direct connection to the network it is protecting.

How do CDN servers ensure that the content they deliver is current?

By replicating content to remain current with each other CDN servers replicate content among themselves to ensure that all nodes in the network have the latest version of the content. This replication process helps in maintaining consistency and delivering up-to-date content to users. Simply deleting outdated content does not ensure that the remaining content is current. The key is the replication process among CDN servers. While content owners may update their content, CDN servers automatically replicate these updates across the network. This process does not primarily rely on manual updates from the content owner. CDNs serve both static and dynamic content. The ability to keep content current is not limited to static content; it also applies to dynamic content through various caching and replication strategies.

You are setting up a wireless local area network (WLAN) in your new office. You want to ensure that the network is efficient and minimizes data collisions as much as possible. You remember reading about a specific access method used in IEEE 802.11 standards that could help. Which access method should you implement to achieve your goal?

Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) The correct answer is Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA). Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) is the access method used in IEEE 802.11 standards to manage data transmission and minimize collisions. It works by having the transmitting station check if the channel is clear before sending data and using acknowledgments (ACKs) to ensure data is received correctly. If an ACK is not received, the data is resent, thereby reducing the chances of data collisions in a busy network environment. TDMA divides the communication channel into distinct time slots assigned to each user, which is not the method used in IEEE 802.11 standards for minimizing collisions. FDMA divides the frequency band into individual channels assigned to each user, which is different from the collision avoidance strategy used in IEEE 802.11. CDMA allows multiple signals to occupy the same channel simultaneously by using unique codes, which, while effective in certain contexts, is not the method employed by IEEE 802.11 standards for collision avoidance.

An educational institution is planning to segment its network into three major sections: Administrative, Academic, and Student Residential. Each section requires a different number of IP addresses: Administrative needs up to 500 addresses, Academic needs up to 10,000 addresses, and Student Residential needs up to 2,000 addresses. Using classful addressing, which class of IP addresses would be most appropriate for the Academic section?

Class B Class B is the correct answer. A Class B network can support up to about 65,000 hosts, making it suitable for the Academic section, which requires up to 10,000 addresses. It provides a sufficient number of addresses without the excessive scale of a Class A network. While a Class A network could support the required number of addresses, it supports over 16 million hosts, which is far more than necessary and would lead to inefficient use of IP addresses. A Class C network supports only up to 254 hosts, which would not be sufficient for the Academic section's needs. Class D is used for multicast purposes and does not fit the requirement for standard host addressing in this scenario.

You are managing a cloud environment that hosts several applications. You notice that one of the applications is experiencing slow response times due to high traffic. You decide to isolate this application's resources by moving them to their own VPC. What must you ensure to maintain connectivity between this isolated application and the rest of the environment?

Configure a VPN connection between the new VPC and the existing environment. By configuring a VPN (Virtual Private Network) connection between the new VPC and the existing environment, you can ensure secure and private connectivity between the isolated application and other resources. This approach maintains the isolation of the application's resources while allowing necessary communication across the cloud environment, addressing the performance issues without compromising security or connectivity. Increasing the size of the CIDR block for the new VPC does not address the need for connectivity between the isolated application and the rest of the environment. It merely expands the address space available within the VPC. Merging the new VPC with an existing one would negate the purpose of isolating the application's resources, potentially reintroducing the performance issues you are trying to solve. Allocating additional physical servers to the new VPC might improve the application's capacity but does not address the connectivity issue between the isolated application and other resources in the environment.

You work as the IT administrator for a small corporate network. An employee requires an IP for her work assignments. However, the DHCP server is unable to automatically issue the IP configuration. In this lab, your task is to:

Configure a static IP address on the iPad using the following settings: IP address: 192.168.0.85 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0 Default gateway: 192.168.0.5 DNS: 192.168.0.11 Join the iPad to the CorpNet network. Use @CorpNetWeRSecure!& as the password. 4.2.10 Lab: Configure IP Addresses on Mobile Devices

You manage the IT infrastructure for a small office and have recently configured a SOHO router to enhance network security. You are aware that the office uses the Server Message Block (SMB) protocol extensively for file sharing within the local network. However, you want to ensure that these shared files are not accessible from the Internet for security reasons. Which of the following actions should you take on the SOHO router's firewall to achieve this goal?

Configure the firewall to block the SMB port on the WAN interface but allow it on the LAN and WLAN interfaces. The correct answer is to configure the firewall to block the SMB port on the WAN interface but allow it on the LAN and WLAN interfaces. Configuring the firewall to block the SMB port on the WAN interface while allowing it on the LAN and WLAN interfaces ensures that file sharing is available within the office network but not accessible from the Internet. This setup maintains the functionality of SMB for internal use while protecting against external threats. Allowing all SMB traffic on the WAN interface would expose the office's internal file shares to the Internet, creating a significant security risk. Unauthorized users could potentially access sensitive files. Disabling the firewall would remove a critical layer of network security, leaving the network vulnerable to various types of cyber attacks, including unauthorized access to SMB shares. Redirecting all SMB traffic to a public cloud storage service does not address the security concern of protecting internal file shares from internet access. Additionally, this approach could introduce new security and privacy concerns depending on the cloud service's security measures.

What is the MOST effective method for protecting the management interface of a SOHO router?

Configuring a strong administrative account passphrase Configuring a strong administrative account passphrase is a critical security measure for protecting the router's management interface. A strong passphrase helps prevent unauthorized access to the router's settings, where malicious changes could compromise the entire network's security. Enabling UPnP (Universal Plug and Play) is a convenience feature that allows devices to automatically discover and communicate with each other on a network. While it can simplify network setup and device interaction, it does not provide protection for the router's management interface. Disabling the firewall would decrease the network's security rather than protect the management interface. The firewall is an essential feature that helps block unauthorized access and potential attacks from the Internet. Setting the router to automatically accept firmware updates, while generally a good practice for ensuring the router is up-to-date with the latest security patches, does not directly protect the management interface. Unauthorized individuals could still attempt to access the interface if the administrative passphrase is weak or compromised.

You are a network technician for a small corporate network. You just installed a Ruckus zone controller and wireless access points throughout your office buildings using wired connections. You now need to configure basic wireless network settings.In this lab, your task is to:

Create a WLAN using the following settings: Name: CorpNet Wireless ESSID: CorpNet Type: Standard Usage Authentication: Open Encryption: WPA2 Encryption algorithm: AES Passphrase: @CorpNetWeRSecure! Connect the Exec-Laptop in the Executive office to the new wireless network. Launch Lab 12.2.10 Lab: Implement an Enterprise Wireless Network

An organization utilizing Zero Trust Architecture (ZTA) detects unusual behavior in a user's account, which is attempting to access highly confidential project documents late at night. The user's account typically accesses these documents during standard working hours. Based on ZTA principles, how should the system respond to this request?

Deny access and alert the security team to investigate the unusual behavior. The correct answer is to deny access and alert the security team to investigate the unusual behavior. ZTA operates on the principle of "never trust, always verify," with an emphasis on behavioral analytics to detect potential security threats. Unusual access patterns, such as attempting to access sensitive documents outside of typical hours, trigger alerts. Denying access and alerting the security team aligns with ZTA's proactive stance on security, ensuring that potential breaches are investigated before harm occurs. Automatically allowing access violates ZTA's core principles by not verifying the legitimacy of the request, especially when suspicious behavior is detected. Requesting additional authentication is a step in the right direction but may not be sufficient if the account is compromised or if the behavior indicates a potential security threat. Allowing access based on the assumption of trust, even with increased monitoring, contradicts ZTA's foundational approach of minimizing access until the legitimacy and security of the request are verified.

A multinational corporation is planning to expand its operations to a new location in another country. The IT department is tasked with ensuring seamless data communication between the new location and the headquarters. They decide to implement a WAN solution. Which of the following steps is most critical in the initial phase of setting up the WAN?

Determining the type of WAN technology and service provider Determining the type of WAN technology and selecting a service provider are the most critical initial steps in setting up a WAN. This decision will influence all subsequent choices, including the physical layer requirements, IP addressing scheme, and security measures. While choosing the right type of modem is important, it is a decision that comes after determining the WAN technology and service provider, as different technologies might require different types of modems. Selecting an appropriate public IP address range is also a subsequent step that depends on the service provider and the specific WAN technology chosen. Deciding on the encryption method for securing data, while crucial for the security of the WAN, is not the most critical initial step. The choice of encryption might also depend on the WAN technology and services provided.

Alice and Bob are setting up a VPN connection between their two offices. They decide to use IPsec for secure communication and start the process of establishing an Internet Key Exchange (IKE). During Phase I of their IKE negotiations, they opt for a method to authenticate each other. They choose to use digital certificates issued by a mutually trusted certificate authority. Which of the following statements best explains why Alice and Bob decided to use digital certificates for authentication in Phase I of IKE negotiations?

Digital certificates provide a way to authenticate without the need for a pre-shared key, reducing the risk of key compromise. The correct answer is that digital certificates provide a way to authenticate without the need for a pre-shared key, reducing the risk of key compromise. Digital certificates are used in IKE negotiations for authentication because they offer a secure and scalable way to confirm the identity of the peers without the need to distribute a pre-shared key, which could be compromised if not handled securely. Certificates issued by a trusted certificate authority help ensure that the identities of the peers can be verified securely and reliably. Digital certificates do not facilitate anonymous authentication; they are used precisely because they can securely tie identities to the parties involved in the communication. While digital certificates might seem more complex to set up initially due to the need for a certificate authority, they are preferred in scalable environments for their security benefits over pre-shared keys, which can be difficult to manage securely in large networks. The choice of using digital certificates has no direct impact on the encryption standard used in the VPN connection. The purpose of digital certificates is to authenticate the identities of the parties, not to influence the encryption strength directly.

A network administrator is setting up a new office space with a high density of wireless devices. The office is equipped with the latest Wi-Fi 6 access points (APs) that support both downlink and uplink MU-MIMO. The administrator wants to ensure that all employees have a fast and reliable Wi-Fi connection, regardless of their location within the office. To achieve this, which of the following strategies should the administrator prioritize?

Enable both downlink and uplink MU-MIMO on the Wi-Fi 6 APs. The correct answer is to enable both downlink and uplink MU-MIMO on the Wi-Fi 6 APs. Enabling both downlink and uplink MU-MIMO on Wi-Fi 6 APs allows the network to efficiently handle high-density wireless environments by supporting simultaneous communication with multiple devices in both directions (from AP to device and device to AP). This technology significantly improves network capacity and performance, making it the best strategy for ensuring a fast and reliable Wi-Fi connection throughout the office. Installing additional Wi-Fi 4 APs to increase network coverage would not be as effective because Wi-Fi 4 APs do not support MU-MIMO technology, which is crucial for managing high-density environments efficiently. Disabling the 2.4 GHz band could exclude devices that only support this band, reducing overall network accessibility. Using band steering to encourage devices to connect to the 2.4 GHz band is counterproductive in a high-density environment where the 5 GHz and 6 GHz bands would provide better performance due to less congestion and higher data rates.

Which of the following is a limitation of active FTP mode regarding firewalls?

It can cause configuration problems due to unpredictable port usage. Active mode FTP can lead to firewall configuration issues because the server initiates connections to random client ports, which can be blocked by firewalls not configured to allow such connections. FTP does not require HTTPS; this is a separate protocol used for secure web browsing. Active mode FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21, not 22, which is for SSH. FTP does not provide encryption by default; secure versions like FTPS or SFTP are needed for encryption.

A new apartment complex is being built in an urban area, and the developer wants to ensure that the building has the fastest internet access possible to attract tech-savvy tenants. The developer is considering whether to install a Fiber to the Premises (FTTP) connection with an Optical Network Terminal (ONT) in each apartment or to opt for a Fiber to the Curb (FTTC) solution with VDSL to each unit. The distance from the point of presence to the building is minimal. Which solution should the developer choose to ensure the fastest internet access for tenants?

FTTP with an ONT in each apartment For the developer aiming to provide the fastest internet access possible in a new apartment complex, FTTP with an ONT in each apartment is the best choice. This setup ensures that each apartment has a direct fiber connection, offering the highest speeds and best reliability. The minimal distance from the point of presence further supports the feasibility of this option, making it ideal for attracting tech-savvy tenants. FTTC with VDSL to each unit would provide high speeds but not as high as a direct fiber connection to each apartment. While VDSL is fast, it cannot match the speeds and reliability of a direct FTTP connection. FTTC with ADSL to each unit would offer the slowest speeds among the options, making it unsuitable for a developer looking to attract tenants with the promise of the fastest internet access. FTTP with a shared ONT for the building could create bottlenecks, as all internet traffic from the building would have to pass through a single ONT. This setup could potentially reduce the speed and quality of service for tenants, especially during peak usage times.

You work as a field engineer and frequently need to access sensitive project data stored on your company's network while visiting client sites. For security reasons, your company requires that all internet traffic, including browsing and email, be monitored and filtered through the corporate network's security appliances. Which VPN configuration would best suit your needs?

Full tunnel A full tunnel VPN configuration is the most suitable for your needs. In a full tunnel setup, all of your internet traffic, including access to sensitive project data and general internet browsing, is routed through the company's network. This allows the company to monitor and filter all internet traffic as per their security requirements, ensuring that your activities are secure and compliant with company policies, even when you are working from client sites. A split tunnel VPN configuration would allow you to access the Internet directly for personal browsing, bypassing the company's security appliances. This would not meet the company's requirement to monitor and filter all internet traffic. Peer-to-peer VPN is designed for direct connections between devices, not for secure remote access to a corporate network or for routing all internet traffic through the corporate network. Site-to-site VPN is used to connect two or more local networks over the Internet, which is not applicable to your need for secure remote access as an individual user.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a packet filtering firewall?

It can inspect only port numbers and not any other Layer 4 header information. The correct answer is that it can inspect only port numbers and not any other layer 4 header information. Packet filtering firewalls are limited to inspecting information available in the IP packet headers, such as IP addresses and port numbers, without delving into other Layer 4 (Transport Layer) details. Packet filtering firewalls are generally stateless, treating each packet in isolation without considering the state of the connection. Packet filtering firewalls operate at Layer 3, focusing on IP packet headers, not application layer data. Packet filtering firewalls do not inspect the content or payload of packets; they focus on header information.

A security analyst is reviewing the security measures of their company's network. The analyst discovers that one of the protocols used for internal communications sends passwords in Base64 encoding. Concerned about the security implications, the security analyst decides to recommend a change. Which of the following would be the MOST secure recommendation for transmitting passwords?

Implement end-to-end encryption using protocols like IPSec or TLS. The correct answer is to implement end-to-end encryption using protocols like IPSec or TLS. Implementing end-to-end encryption using protocols like IPSec or TLS is the most secure option for transmitting passwords. These protocols ensure that all data, including passwords, is encrypted during transmission, preventing unauthorized access or interception. Base64 is an encoding method, not an encryption method. It does not provide security against interception, and adding a disclaimer does not mitigate the risk. Sending passwords in cleartext is highly insecure as it allows anyone who can intercept the communication to read the passwords directly. Like Base64, hexadecimal encoding is not a form of encryption. It merely represents binary data in a different format and does not secure the data from interception.

What does flipping the 7th bit of the first octet in a MAC address to form an EUI-64 address accomplish?

It differentiates the modified address from the original MAC address. Flipping the 7th bit (U/L bit) of the first octet in a MAC address when forming an EUI-64 address serves to differentiate the modified, globally unique address from the original MAC address. This bit manipulation is part of the process to ensure that the resulting IPv6 address is unique and can be distinguished from the hardware MAC address. Flipping the 7th bit does not indicate that the address is multicast; it's part of creating a unique unicast address. The process does not signify that the address is now private; it's about ensuring global uniqueness. This process does not specifically convert the address to a link-local address; it's about forming a unique global or local unicast address.

How has the concept of the network edge changed due to the erosion of the perimeter security model?

It has expanded to include access switches and wireless access points. As the traditional perimeter security model has become less effective, the concept of the network edge, or perimeter, has expanded. It now includes not just the boundary between the private and public networks but also internal components like access switches and wireless access points, which were previously considered "internal." The change in the network edge concept is not about focusing more on physical location but expanding what is considered the edge. While firewalls are part of the network edge, the concept has expanded beyond just the firewall to include other components. The concept of the network edge has not been eliminated but rather expanded to adapt to new security challenges.

Why is Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) is often used with other protocols in a VPN solution?

It lacks mechanisms for authenticating users or devices. GRE is a tunneling protocol that can encapsulate a wide variety of network layer protocols but does not provide any mechanisms for authenticating users or devices. This is why it is often used in conjunction with other protocols that can provide these security features in a VPN solution. GRE itself does not provide data encryption; it is used with protocols that do. GRE operates at the Network layer, not the Application layer. GRE is designed to work with IP-based networks, encapsulating packets for transmission.

Why might TFTP not be suitable for transferring large files?

It operates over UDP, which does not guarantee delivery. The correct answer is that it operates over UDP, which does not guarantee delivery. TFTP's use of UDP means it lacks mechanisms like error checking and retransmission, making it unsuitable for large files where reliability is crucial. TFTP does not provide encryption; its unsuitability for large files is due to its use of UDP. TFTP's suitability is not limited by network scope but by its reliability and feature set. TFTP's limitations stem from its use of UDP, not from requiring manual packet confirmation.

What is the role of an Internet gateway in a subnet's Internet communications?

It performs 1:1 network address translation (NAT). An Internet gateway performs 1:1 NAT to route Internet communications to and from instances within a subnet, translating between public and private IP addresses. Encryption is not the primary role of an Internet gateway; it facilitates communication between the VPC and the Internet. Private IP addresses are assigned by the VPC configuration, not by the Internet gateway. Monitoring traffic for security threats is typically handled by other security services or devices, not by the Internet gateway.

A network technician wants to create efficiencies in network traffic by implementing a device which applies microsegmentation by establishing a point-to-point link between any two network nodes. Which of the following should they implement?

Layer 2 switch An Ethernet layer 2 switch performs the same sort of function as a bridge, but in a more granular way. In effect, the switch establishes a point-to-point link between any two network nodes. This is referred to as microsegmentation. An Ethernet bridge works at the data link layer (layer 2) to establish separate physical network segments while keeping all nodes in the same logical network. A hub acts like a multiport repeater so that every port receives transmissions sent from any other port. A wireless access point (AP) allows nodes with wireless network cards to communicate and creates a bridge between wireless networks and wired ones.

During a network audit, it was discovered that the distribution layer switches in a company's three-tiered network hierarchy are nearing their end of life and need to be replaced. The current switches are layer 2 only, and the company has been experiencing issues with network bottlenecks and inefficient traffic management. What type of switches should the company consider purchasing to replace the old distribution layer switches?

Layer 3 capable switches To address the issues of network bottlenecks and inefficient traffic management, the company should consider purchasing layer 3 capable switches for the distribution layer. Layer 3 switches can perform routing functions in addition to switching, allowing for better traffic management, implementation of routing policies, and alleviation of bottlenecks through more efficient paths. While layer 2 only switches with higher throughput might temporarily alleviate some bottlenecks, they would not address the core issue of inefficient traffic management that layer 3 capabilities can provide. Basic unmanaged switches offer limited functionality and no ability to configure traffic policies or routing, which would not solve the company's issues with traffic management. Wireless access points are used to provide wireless connectivity at the access layer and would not be suitable for replacing distribution layer switches or addressing the company's traffic management and bottleneck issues.

You are setting up a small office network with several computers, a printer, and a network storage device. All devices are connected to a single switch. You want to ensure that each device can communicate with the others on the network. To facilitate this communication, you need to consider the type of addressing that is used at the Data Link layer. What type of address is used at the Data Link layer to ensure each device can communicate with the others on the same network segment?

MAC addresses that are unique to each network interface The correct answer is MAC addresses that are unique to each network interface. MAC (Media Access Control) addresses are used at the Data Link layer to uniquely identify each network interface on a local network segment. These hardware addresses are essential for allowing devices to communicate with one another within the same broadcast domain, such as the one created by the switch in the scenario. IP addresses operate at the Network layer, not the Data Link layer. While they are crucial for routing packets across different network segments, they are not the addresses used for device communication within the same network segment at the Data Link layer. Hostnames are human-readable labels assigned to devices on a network, typically resolved to IP addresses at the Application layer. They are not used for direct device communication at the Data Link layer. Port numbers are used at the Transport layer to differentiate between different services or applications running on a device. They are not used for identifying devices at the Data Link layer and are not relevant to the communication between devices on the same network segment.

A large university is in the process of expanding its campus network to accommodate new buildings and an increasing number of connected devices. The network team is looking for a solution that allows for flexibility in the types and numbers of ports available, as different buildings have varying connectivity needs. Additionally, the solution must support high-speed connections between buildings and the main data center. Which type of switch would best meet the university's requirements?

Managed modular switches The correct answer is managed modular switches. Managed modular switches provide the necessary flexibility in port configurations, management features for advanced network control, and the ability to support high-speed interconnections, making them ideal for the university's expanding network. Unmanaged desktop switches lack the configurability, scalability, and high-speed connection capabilities required for a large and diverse campus network. Managed fixed configuration switches offer management capabilities but lack the modular flexibility needed to accommodate the varying connectivity needs of different buildings. Unmanaged stackable switches might offer some scalability in terms of managing multiple switches as a single unit, but they lack the port flexibility and management features required for the university's complex network environment.

Which type of switch is typically used in a corporate network environment?

Managed switch The correct answer is a managed switch. Managed switches are preferred in corporate environments for their configurability, which supports more complex network requirements and security policies. Unmanaged switches are more likely to be found in smaller or home office networks due to their lack of configurable settings. Desktop switches can be either managed or unmanaged and refer more to the form factor than to the suitability for a particular network environment. SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) switches are typically simpler and may not offer the advanced features required in a corporate network, which often necessitates managed switches.

You are working on a small network. Recently, you increased your wireless network's security. In this lab, your task is to:

Manually create a wireless network profile on Home-Laptop using the following information: Network name (SSID): PoliceVan (the SSID name is case sensitive) Security type: WPA2-Personal AES Security Key: 4WatchingU (the security key is case sensitive) Start the connection automatically. Connect even if the network is not broadcasting. Delete the out-of-date TrendNet-BGN wireless profile. 12.1.9 Lab: Configure Wireless Profiles

You manage a network with multiple subnets connected to the Internet. A user reports that they can't access the new server in the accounting department. You check the problem and find out that their computer can't access any server on that subnet. However, their computer can access computers on other subnets as well as the Internet. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the problem?

Missing route on the default gateway router The most likely cause of the problem is a missing route on one of your internal network routers (or that the router connecting that subnet to the network is down). Because the problem applies to all hosts on the remote subnet, you can suspect some type of router misconfiguration. The workstation's default gateway is configured properly because routing to other subnets and the internet works correctly, meaning that the workstation is able to send and receive packets from remote networks. A switching loop would affect devices within the subnet, not on other subnets. Incorrect server VLAN membership would only affect communications with the server, not all devices on the subnet (unless all switch ports on the remote subnet were assigned to the same VLAN).

A university's IT department is setting up a live lecture broadcasting system to allow students in remote locations to watch lectures in real-time. The system needs to efficiently distribute video streams to multiple recipients without overloading the network. Which IP addressing scheme would BEST meet the IT department requirements for this application?

Multicast The correct answer is multicast. Multicast addressing is designed for one-to-many communication, making it ideal for applications like live lecture broadcasting. It allows the video stream to be sent only once from the source, and routers then duplicate the stream only where necessary to reach multiple recipients. This method significantly reduces the network load compared to unicast and is more targeted than broadcast, as only hosts that have joined the multicast group will receive the content. Unicast addressing is used for one-to-one communication. If the IT department used unicast for the live lecture broadcasting system, it would require a separate stream for each student, significantly increasing the network load and potentially overloading the network. This method is not efficient for distributing the same content to multiple recipients simultaneously. Broadcast addressing sends data to all devices on the network. While this method can reach multiple recipients, it is not efficient for networks with devices that do not require the broadcasted content, as it would unnecessarily consume bandwidth and processing power on all devices, not just the intended recipients. Anycast addressing is used to send data to any one host from a group of potential hosts, typically the one closest to the source in terms of routing distance. This is useful for load balancing and redundancy but not suitable for broadcasting content to multiple recipients simultaneously, as required in the live lecture scenario.

Which of the following is a feature commonly supported by a VoIP PBX?

Music on hold A VoIP PBX supports various telephony features, including music on hold, which allows callers to listen to music while waiting for their call to be answered. Internet browsing is not a feature of a VoIP PBX; it is related to web browsers. File storage is not a primary function of a VoIP PBX; it is more focused on voice communications. Print services are unrelated to the functions of a VoIP PBX, which is dedicated to managing voice communications.

Which protocol performs functions in IPv6 similar to ARP and ICMP in IPv4?

Neighbor Discovery (ND) Protocol The Neighbor Discovery Protocol in IPv6 performs several key functions similar to ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) and ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) in IPv4, such as address autoconfiguration, prefix discovery, local address resolution, and redirection. DHCPv6 is used for stateful address configuration, not for the functions ARP and ICMP perform. SLAAC is a method of autoconfiguration, not a protocol that performs ARP and ICMP functions. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is a core protocol of the Internet Protocol Suite but does not perform the functions of ARP or ICMP.

A communications engineer notices that every time it rains the signal becomes very degraded. Which layer of the OSI model is the engineer most likely troubleshooting?

Physical The physical layer (PHY) of the OSI model (layer 1) is responsible for the transmission and receipt of the signals that represent bits of data from one node to another node. Wireless is one medium. The data link layer (layer 2) is responsible for transferring data between nodes on the same logical segment. At the transport layer on the sending host, the system packages data from the upper layers as a series of layer 4 protocol data units (PDUs), referred to as segments. The application layer (layer 7) is at the top of the OSI stack. An application-layer protocol does not encapsulate any other protocols or provide services to any protocol.

Your company is planning to upgrade its data center to improve network efficiency and support for Software-Defined Networking (SDN). The current network topology struggles with handling the increasing volume of east-west traffic. You are considering implementing a spine and leaf topology. Which of the following benefits should you expect from transitioning to a spine and leaf topology?

Reduced need for manual configuration of network paths Implementing a spine and leaf topology simplifies network design and operation by reducing the need for manual configuration of network paths. The topology inherently supports efficient routing and load balancing through protocols like Equal Cost Multipathing (ECMP), making it easier to manage and scale the network without extensive manual intervention. While a spine and leaf topology can make network latency more predictable due to its structured design, it does not eliminate all network latency. Latency can be influenced by various factors beyond topology. In a spine and leaf topology, spine switches do not have direct connections to each other. This design choice helps to prevent loops and supports efficient traffic distribution. The spine and leaf topology is inherently loop-free and does not require the use of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), which is typically used to prevent network loops in other types of topologies.

You often travel away from the office. While traveling, you would like to use a modem on your laptop computer to connect directly to a server in your office to access needed files. You want the connection to be as secure as possible. Which type of connection do you need?

Remote access Remote access is the correct answer because it specifically refers to the ability to access a computer or a network from a remote location. In the context of the question, using a modem to connect directly to a server in the office for accessing files aligns with the definition of remote access. This type of connection can be secured through various means, such as using secure authentication methods and encryption, to ensure that the data transmitted between the laptop and the office server remains confidential and protected from unauthorized access. Internet is incorrect because the Internet is a global network that connects millions of private, public, academic, business, and government networks. It is not a specific type of connection for securely accessing files on an office server. While the Internet can be used as the medium over which remote access occurs, by itself, it does not provide the direct and secure connection to an office server that the question implies. Although a VPN is a technology that creates a secure, encrypted connection over a less secure network, such as the Internet, and could technically be used for the scenario described, it is not the correct answer based on the provided options. The question specifies using a modem to connect directly to a server, which suggests a direct remote access method rather than connecting through a VPN. However, it's important to note that in practice, a VPN is often the preferred method for securely accessing files from a remote location due to its encryption capabilities and ability to secure data transmissions. An intranet is a private network accessible only to an organization's staff. It is incorrect in this context because the question involves an individual traveling away from the office and needing to access office files remotely.

Your company is planning to upgrade its data center to improve data access speeds and reliability for its critical applications. The current setup involves servers with direct-attached storage, which has led to issues with scalability and data sharing among applications. The IT department is considering implementing a storage solution that allows for shared access to storage resources, high-speed data transfers, and is isolated from the main network to ensure reliability and performance. Which storage solution should the IT department implement?

SAN (Storage Area Network) A SAN is the most suitable solution for the company's requirements. It provides shared access to storage resources, ensuring high-speed data transfers thanks to its block I/O mechanism. Additionally, a SAN is isolated from the main network, which enhances reliability and performance, making it ideal for critical applications that require fast and reliable access to large amounts of data. NAS is more suited for file-level storage and might not meet the high-speed data transfer requirements for critical applications. Cloud Storage could introduce latency and depend on internet connectivity, which might not be suitable for all critical applications. Enhanced Direct-Attached Storage would not solve the issues with scalability and data sharing among applications, as it is still directly attached to individual servers.

You work as the IT security administrator for a small corporate network. Occasionally, you and your co-administrators need to access internal resources when you are away from the office. You would like to set up a Remote Access VPN using pfSense to allow secure access. In this lab, your task is to use the pfSense wizard to create and configure an OpenVPN Remote Access server using the following guidelines:

Sign in to pfSense using: Username: admin Password: P@ssw0rd (zero) Create a new certificate authority certificate using the following settings: Name: CorpNet-CA Country Code: GB State: Cambridgeshire City: Woodwalton Organization: CorpNet Create a new server certificate using the following settings: Name: CorpNet Country Code: GB State: Cambridgeshire City: Woodwalton Configure the VPN server using the following settings: Interface: WAN Protocol: UDP on IPv4 only Description: CorpNet-VPN Tunnel network IP: 198.28.20.0/24 Local network IP: 198.28.56.18/24 Concurrent Connections: 4 DNS Server 1: 198.28.56.1 Configure the following: A firewall rule An OpenVPN rule Set the OpenVPN server just created to Remote Access (User Auth). Create and configure the following standard remote VPN users

A growing company has recently moved into a new office space. The company has 50 employees, each with their own workstation. The office also has multiple printers, a centralized server, and requires structured cabling for connectivity. Which type of network would be MOST effective for this setup?

Small and Medium-sized Enterprise (SME) network A Small and Medium-sized Enterprise (SME) network is the correct answer. An SME network is designed to support dozens of users and would use structured cabling and multiple switches and routers to provide connectivity. This is the most suitable type of network for a company with 50 employees. Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) networks are typically designed for smaller setups, often using a single Internet router/switch/access point to provide connectivity. A company with 50 employees would likely require a more robust network setup. Wide Area Networks (WANs) are typically used to connect multiple networks over long distances, such as connecting a main office site with multiple branch office sites, possibly in different countries. This is not the case for a company with a single office. A data center is a network that hosts only servers and storage, not end user client devices. In this scenario, the office has end user client devices (the employees' workstations), so a data center would not be appropriate.

A network administrator is looking at packet captures from the network and trying to isolate email traffic. Which of the following should the network administrator include? (Select two.)

TCP 143 TCP 25 Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) 25 is Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) traffic which the network administrator should include when searching for email traffic. TCP 143 is Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) traffic which would also be email traffic, and the administrator should include it as well. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) 161 is used for simple network management protocol (SNMP). UDP 161 is considered to be a common port, but is NOT used for email traffic. TCP 123 is not a common protocol. UDP 123 is Network Time Protocol/Simple NTP. This allows hosts to sync and set a common time, which is especially important for security.

What is the primary reason hubs are considered a security weakness in a network?

They broadcast all transmissions to every port, allowing for potential eavesdropping. Hubs broadcast all incoming transmissions to every port, regardless of the intended recipient. This behavior means that any device connected to the hub can potentially "listen in" on all network traffic, posing a significant security risk, especially if a device is set to promiscuous mode to capture all network traffic. While network security is a broad topic, the primary security weakness of hubs is not their susceptibility to hacking for network access, but their indiscriminate broadcasting of data. Hubs operate at the Physical layer (layer 1) of the OSI model, not the Network layer (layer 3), so they are not directly vulnerable to IP-based attacks. Hubs are actually quite simple devices with no configuration options, so their security weaknesses are not due to complex configurations.

What is the purpose of the 802.1Q standard in networking?

To define the operation of trunk ports in carrying multiple VLANs The 802.1Q standard defines VLAN tagging for Ethernet frames, allowing trunk ports to identify and manage traffic from multiple VLANs. This standard is crucial for VLAN implementation and inter-VLAN routing. The 802.1Q standard does not deal with encryption; it focuses on VLAN tagging. Physical layer specifications, such as those for Ethernet cables, are covered by other standards. Wireless communication protocols are defined by other standards, such as 802.11.

What is the primary function of a gateway in a VPC subnet?

To establish communications with other subnets The primary function of a gateway in a VPC subnet is to serve as a route for instances within the subnet to communicate with other subnets within the same VPC, subnets in other VPCs, or over the Internet. It acts as a bridge for data transmission. While security is a critical aspect of cloud networking, the primary function of a gateway is not to provide security through encryption but to facilitate communication. Security measures are typically implemented through other means, such as security groups and network ACLs. Gateways do not store data; they facilitate network traffic. Data storage is handled by cloud storage services such as Amazon S3 or databases. Monitoring cloud resource usage is the role of monitoring and management services, not gateways. Gateways focus on network traffic management.

What is the role of Router Advertisements (RAs) in the IPv6 address configuration process?

To inform hosts of network prefixes and autoconfiguration options Router Advertisements (RAs) are sent by routers to inform hosts on the network about available network prefixes and autoconfiguration options (stateless or stateful). This information is crucial for hosts to configure their IPv6 addresses properly. RAs do not request IP addresses; they provide information necessary for address configuration. RAs are not involved in encrypting data packets; they are used for network configuration. RAs do not assign static IP addresses; they provide information for automatic configuration.

What is the purpose of a demarcation point in a WAN provider link setup?

To mark the end of the telco's responsibility for cabling maintenance The demarcation point, or demarc, represents the boundary where the telecommunications provider's responsibility for maintaining the cabling ends. Beyond this point, any issues with the cabling are the customer's responsibility. This demarcation ensures clarity in maintenance responsibilities. The demarcation point does not directly provide additional security for data transmission; it is more about maintenance responsibility. The demarcation point does not directly affect the speed of the internet connection; it's a maintenance boundary. The demarcation point is not intended to serve as a backup connection point but as a clear boundary for maintenance responsibilities.

What is the purpose of Management and Orchestration (MANO) in NFV?

To position VNFs within workflows Management and Orchestration (MANO) in NFV architecture positions Virtual Network Functions (VNFs) within workflows to perform specific forwarding and filtering tasks, facilitating network function virtualization. MANO focuses on the management and orchestration of virtual functions, not physical servers and hardware. Providing internet services is not the specific role of MANO; it's more about managing virtual network functions. Developing new virtual appliances is a task for vendors or developers, not the MANO component of NFV.

What is the purpose of the ssh-agent command?

To store private keys securely\ ssh-agent is a program that holds private keys used for public key authentication, reducing the number of times a user needs to enter their passphrase. It acts as a secure key manager for SSH sessions. ssh-agent does not restart the SSH server; sshd is related to the server's operation. Generating new SSH keys is the function of ssh-keygen, not ssh-agent. Changing the default SSH port is done through the SSH configuration file, not with ssh-agent.

For what reason might a company deploy 10/40 GbE Ethernet in its network?

To support very high bandwidth data transfers A company might deploy 10/40 GbE Ethernet in its network to support very high bandwidth data transfers, which could be required for business operations such as TV and film production. 10/40 GbE might be used where a company's business requires very high bandwidth data transfers. The other options are incorrect because 10/40 GbE Ethernet is not deployed to reduce overall network costs (in fact, it is more expensive due to the cost of compatible network adapters and switch transceiver modules), it is not the standard for all new installations (Gigabit Ethernet is the mainstream choice), and avoiding the use of fiber optic cable is not a reason for its deployment (fiber optic cable is actually recommended for longer runs with 10/40 GbE Ethernet).

What does HTTPS use to ensure the security of data transmission?

Transport Layer Security (TLS) HTTPS uses Transport Layer Security (TLS) to ensure the security of data transmission between a web server and a browser. TLS encrypts the data, making it difficult for unauthorized parties to intercept or tamper with the information being exchanged. HyperText Markup Language (HTML) is used for structuring web pages and does not provide data transmission security. Cascading Style Sheets (CSS) is used for styling web pages and does not secure data transmission. JavaScript is a programming language used to create interactive effects within web browsers, not for securing data transmission.

You are the network administrator for a medium-sized data center that is undergoing an upgrade to improve its network infrastructure. The upgrade includes enhancing the connections between top-of-rack (ToR) switches and servers within the same racks to support 10 GbE speeds. The distance between the switches and servers does not exceed 5 meters. You need a cabling solution that offers high-speed data transfer, minimal latency, and is cost-effective for the short distances involved. Which type of cable would be MOST appropriate for connecting the ToR switches to the servers within the same racks to meet the 10 GbE speed requirement?

Twinaxial cables with DAC transceivers Twinaxial cables with DAC transceivers is the correct answer. Twinaxial cables with Direct Attach Copper (DAC) transceivers are ideal for this scenario. They are specifically mentioned as being used for data center interconnects at 10 GbE and 40 GbE speeds. Twinaxial cables are cost-effective for short distances like the 5 meters mentioned, and DAC transceivers provide a direct, high-speed connection with minimal latency, perfectly meeting the requirements of enhancing connections between ToR switches and servers. Cat 5e Ethernet cables are not suitable for 10 GbE speeds over the distances mentioned in the scenario. They are typically used for 1 GbE connections and would not meet the high-speed data transfer requirement. While multimode fiber optic cables can support 10 GbE speeds and beyond, they are more expensive and less necessary for the short distances involved in this scenario. Twinaxial cables with DAC transceivers offer a more cost-effective solution for short-distance, high-speed connections within data centers. RG-6 coaxial cables are primarily used for broadband cable modems and CATV, not for high-speed data center interconnects like 10 GbE. They would not be appropriate for the specified application of connecting ToR switches to servers within the same racks.

A network administrator notices that communication to a particular node in a star topology network consistently fails. The node is located at a significant distance from the central switch, further than any other node on the network. The administrator suspects that the distance may be causing signal degradation. What is the MOST appropriate solution to resolve this issue?

Use a repeater to strengthen the signal over the extended distance. Using a repeater is the most appropriate solution to overcome the distance limitation. Repeaters regenerate the signal, allowing it to travel further distances without degradation. This would likely resolve the communication failure to the distant node. Replacing the switch with a hub would not increase signal strength. Hubs are less sophisticated than switches and broadcast data to all nodes rather than directing data to the correct node. This would not solve the issue of signal degradation over distance. Implementing a mesh topology for the entire network is not necessary to address the issue with a single distant node. Mesh topologies are complex and involve creating multiple paths for redundancy, which would be an over-engineered solution for a problem that can be solved with a repeater. Increasing the bandwidth of the central switch may improve overall network performance but would not address the signal degradation issue caused by the distance to the node. Bandwidth refers to the volume of data that can be transmitted over a connection, not the strength or quality of the signal over long distances.

During a network audit, an IT manager discovers that some legacy devices in their organization only support IPv4, while the majority of the infrastructure is dual stack capable. The manager wants to ensure seamless communication within the network and with external IPv6 resources. What should the manager consider implementing to achieve this goal?

Use a tunneling mechanism for the legacy devices to communicate with external IPv6 resources. The correct answer is to use a tunneling mechanism for the legacy devices to communicate with external IPv6 resources. For legacy devices that only support IPv4, using a tunneling mechanism allows IPv6 packets to be encapsulated within IPv4 packets. This enables these devices to communicate with external IPv6 resources without requiring a direct upgrade to IPv6 support on the devices themselves. Converting all legacy devices to IPv6-only may not be possible due to hardware limitations or could be cost-prohibitive. It also doesn't directly address the compatibility with dual stack infrastructure. Implementing NAT64 for the entire network is not necessary when the majority of the infrastructure is already dual stack capable. NAT64 is more suited for scenarios where IPv6-only networks need to communicate with IPv4 resources, not the other way around. Dual stack devices do not automatically downgrade all communications to IPv4. Dual stack devices can communicate using either IPv4 or IPv6, depending on the destination's address availability and the network configuration.

A multinational corporation wants to securely connect its various offices located around the globe to ensure that sensitive data can be shared securely and efficiently. The IT department is considering implementing a technology that can create a logical network over the company's existing internet connections to achieve this goal. Which of the following technologies is MOST suitable for this scenario?

VPN A Virtual Private Network (VPN) is the most suitable technology for this scenario because it allows for the creation of secure, encrypted connections over the public Internet, effectively forming a private network that spans the globe. This enables the secure sharing of sensitive data between the company's offices. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is used to segment a single physical network into multiple logical networks at the layer 2 level. It is not suitable for creating secure connections over the Internet. OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a routing protocol used within a single autonomous system. It is not designed to create secure connections over the Internet. BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) is used for routing between autonomous systems on the internet. While it is crucial for the functioning of the Internet, it does not provide the secure, encrypted connections that a VPN does.

What is a common example of an overlay network?

Virtual Private Network (VPN) VPNs are a classic example of overlay networks because they create a secure logical network over the public Internet (or any other network), effectively hiding the complexity of the underlying network infrastructure. Ethernet is a technology used to connect devices within a LAN, not an overlay network. LAN is a type of network, not an overlay network. WAN connects different LANs over large geographical areas and is not an overlay network.

During a network audit, you discover that a switch port configured to connect to a server is set to autonegotiate speed and duplex settings. The server supports 1 Gbps full-duplex, but you notice performance issues. To optimize performance, you decide to manually configure the switch port speed and duplex settings. Which set of commands should you use for port GigabitEthernet 0/2?

interface GigabitEthernet 0/2; speed 1000; duplex full The interface GigabitEthernet 0/2; speed 1000; duplex full commands are correct because this sequence of commands first enters the interface configuration mode for the specified port and then correctly sets the speed to 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps) and the duplex to full, optimizing performance for the server's capabilities. The speed 1000; duplex full commands are incorrect because, while these commands correctly set the speed and duplex, they must be entered in the interface configuration mode, which is not indicated here. The speed auto; duplex auto commands are incorrect because they would set the port to autonegotiate, which is the current undesired configuration. The switchport speed 1000; switchport duplex full commands are incorrect because switchport speed and switchport duplex are not valid commands in Cisco IOS. The correct commands are simply speed and duplex within the interface configuration mode.

Which command allows you to connect to an SSH server using a specific username?

ssh Username@Host The correct syntax to connect to an SSH server with a specific username is ssh Username@Host. This tells the SSH client to use the specified username when authenticating with the server at the given host address. ssh connect Username@Host is not the correct syntax for SSH connections. ssh -u Username Host is not a valid option for specifying a username in SSH. ssh -username Username Host does not represent the correct way to specify a username for SSH connections.

David needs to execute a script named update.sh on a remote server update.example.com without starting an interactive shell session. His username on the server is david. Which command should he use?

ssh [email protected] "bash update.sh" The correct command is ssh [email protected] "bash update.sh". This command correctly uses SSH to execute the update.sh script on the remote server by specifying the command to run in quotes. It does not start an interactive shell session but directly executes the specified script. While scp update.sh [email protected]:/tmp/ && [email protected] "bash /tmp/update.sh" would work by first copying the script and then executing it, it's more complex than necessary for the scenario described. ssh [email protected] "execute update.sh" is incorrect because execute is not a valid command for running scripts in this context. ssh -x [email protected] "update.sh" is incorrect because -x disables X11 forwarding and does not affect how scripts are executed. Additionally, the command might fail if update.sh is not in a directory included in the PATH environment variable or if it's not executable.

Carol has just generated a new SSH key pair on her local machine and wants to add her public key to the authorized_keys file on a server server.example.net where her username is carol. Which command should she use to accomplish this?

ssh-copy-id [email protected] ssh-copy-id is the correct command to copy the local user's public key to the remote server's authorized_keys file for the specified user. This allows for passwordless authentication using the key pair. ssh-keygen -t rsa [email protected] is incorrect because ssh-keygen is used to generate a key pair locally, not to copy keys to a server. While scp ~/.ssh/id_rsa.pub [email protected]:~/.ssh/authorized_keys could technically copy the public key to the server, it would overwrite any existing keys in authorized_keys, which is not usually desirable. ssh-copy-id appends the key instead. ssh-add [email protected] is incorrect because ssh-add is used to add private keys to the local SSH agent, not to copy public keys to a server.