BB FINAL
Immunization of the mother can be caused by as little as ____________ D-positive fetal cells. 50 mL 20 mL 10 mL 1 mL
1 mL
What percentage of the type A population is A2? 10% 80% 20% 1%
1%
How many targets are required for HLA antibody screening? 40 30 10 20
10
What concentration of dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used to wash HPC product? 10% 1% 5% 2%
10%
What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential allogeneic donor? 11 g/dL 12.5 g/dL 12 g/dL 14 g/dL
12.5
Due to a short supply of O-negative packed cells, an Rh-negative patient was transfused with 1 unit of Rh-positive red blood cells. Calculate the number of Rh-immune globulin vials needed to protect against 250 mL of Rh-positive packed cells. 17 23 10 5
17
Cold hemagglutinin disease represents what percentage of autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) cases? 25 18 12 70
18
In what year did the FDA take over biologics regulation? 1972 1985 1976 1980
1972
A unit of whole blood must be stored at what temperature? - 10° to 2°C -65° to -20°C 8° to 20°C 1° to 6°C
1° to 6°C
During a plasmapheresis procedure, the red blood cells must be returned within how many hours of phlebotomy? 2 hours 6 hours 8 hours 4 hours
2 hours
At what temperature do IgM antibodies react? 37°C 22°C 42°C 56°C
22°C
How long is the donation deferral for persons who visit malaria-endemic countries? 11 year 3 year 2 year Indefinitely
3 year
A 300-µg dose of Rh-immune globulin contains sufficient anti-D to protect against how much whole blood? 30 mL 15 mL 100 mL 50 mL
30 mL
Frozen plasma is thawed at what temperature? 18° to 22°C 30° to 37°C 45° to 56°C 2° to 4°C
30° to 37°C
What is the shelf life of whole blood collected in citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine? 50 days 35 days 21 days 10 days
35 days
At what temperature do IgG antibodies react optimally? 37°C 56°C 22°C 4°C
37°C
At what temperature is the incubation phase of the AHG test? 56°C 4°C 37°C 22°C
37°C
A blood component should be transfused within: 1 hour 2 hours 4 hours 3 hours
4 hours
What percentage of the white population has type-O blood? 4% 32% 45% 10%
45%
How many chromosomes do somatic cells of humans have? 23 100 50 46
46
If a prospective blood donor has participated in a pheresis donation (platelets, plasma, granulocytes), at least how much time must pass before he or she can donate whole blood? 24 hours 48 hours 56 days 4 weeks
48 hours
What percentage of A2 individuals produce anti-A1? 5% 50% 80% 20%
5%
What is the minimal pH required for platelets? 6.0 7.2 6.2 7.0
6.2
The Kell gene is located on the long arm of which chromosome? 5 7 11 9
7
Within what time after collection of whole blood must RBCs be separated from whole blood in order for platelet and plasma components to be prepared? Immediately 2 to 5 hours 8 to 24 hours Any time
8 to 24 hours
Packed RBCs must have a final hematocrit of less than or equal to: 80%. 70%. 38%. 85%.
80%
The Rh antibody agglutinates what percentage of RBCs" 85% 50% 15% 35%
85%
What percentage of the white population inherits the Le gene? 25% 10% 90% 50%
90%
The following blood donors regularly give blood. Which donor may donate on September 11th? A 23-year-old woman who made a direct donation for her aunt on August 14th A 28-year-old man who had plateletpheresis on August 24th A 52-year-old man who made an autologous donation on September 9th A 40-year-old woman who last donated on July 25th
A 28-year-old man who had plateletpheresis on August 24th
Which platelet pheresis product should be irradiated? A directed donation given by an unrelated family friend Autologous unit collected prior to surgery Random stock unit going to a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) A directed donation given by a mother to her son
A directed donation given by a mother to her son
What is the definition of a blood group system? A group of antibodies produced by alleles at a single gene locus A group of antigens produced by alleles at a single gene locus A group of antigens produced by alleles at multiple genetic loci A group of antibodies produced by alleles at a single gene locus
A group of antigens produced by alleles at a single gene locus
Which of the following is an indication for therapeutic apheresis? A pathogenic substance exists in the blood that contributes to a disease process. A pathogenic substance exists in the blood that contributes to a disease process and A substance can be more effectively removed by apheresis than by the body's own homeostatic mechanisms. A substance can be more effectively removed by apheresis than by the body's own homeostatic mechanisms. Collection of neocytes to reduce the number of transfusions in patient with thalassemia major
A pathogenic substance exists in the blood that contributes to a disease process and A substance can be more effectively removed by apheresis than by the body's own homeostatic mechanisms.
What is the definition of an immunoglobulin? A protein molecule produced in response to an antibody A substance that aids in the primary immune response A substance that aids in the growth and proliferation of leukocytes A protein molecule produced in response to an antigen
A protein molecule produced in response to an antigen
What is an elution? A technique used to reduce the zeta potential enhancing antigen binding A technique used to dissociate IgG antibodies from sensitized RBCs None of the choices are correct A technique used to dissociate IgM antibodies from sensitized RBCs
A technique used to dissociate IgG antibodies from sensitized RBCs
A newborn is typed as Group O; her mother is Group A. Determine the maximum number of theoretical blood types that the father could be to produce a child of this ABO type. O A, B, O A, AB, O A, B, AB, O
A, B, O
Cold autoanti-H is more prevalent in which blood group? A2 B A1B O
A1B
What ABO group contains the least amount of H substance? A1 A2B A2 A1B
A1B
In paternity testing, which of the following systems is the first to be tested against samples drawn from the mother, alleged father, and child? Kell Rh Red blood cell enzymes ABO
ABO
Which blood group antibodies are known to activate complement, leading to intravascular hemolysis? Rh Duffy ABO Lewis
ABO
Which of the following is not characteristic of antibodies within the ABO system? ABO antibodies do not activate complement. Antibodies are of IgM Class. ABO antibodies may cause immediate intravascular hemolysis Antibodies are naturally occurring.
ABO antibodies do not activate complement.
The FDA has approved the ___________ for application of gel technology
ABO, Rh, DAT, antibody screen and identification, as well as crossmatching
What test(s) are involved when a physician orders a 4-unit crossmatch on a patient? ABO, Rh, antibody screen, IS crossmatch AHG crossmatch ABO, Rh, DAT, IS crossmatch IS crossmatch
ABO, Rh, antibody screen, IS crossmatch
What tests are indicated for cord blood specimens if the mother has made anti-K? ABO, Rh, DAT ABO, Rh, cold autoabsorption ABO, Rh, antibody screen Kleihauer-Betke
ABO, Rh, cold autoabsorption
What substances are found in a group A secretor? BH H AH ABH
AH
The indicator cells used to detect antibodies in a solid phase technology are: antibody screen cell I. anti-D coated RBCs. AHG-coated RBCs plain RBC suspension
AHG-coated RBCs
A woman with blood group A marries a man with blood group O. Their firstborn child has blood group O. The mother's most probable genotype is: OO AO AB AA
AO
Serum from a group B individual contains anti-A. When A2 cells are added to serum and centrifuged, the cells with attached anti-A are removed from serum. What is the name of this technique? Absorption Deglycerolization Elution Glycerolizatio
Absorption
A negative direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is found in all of the following transfusion reactions except: Transfusion-associated sepsis Acute nonimmune hemolytic transfusion reaction Acute immune hemolytic transfusion reaction Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
Acute immune hemolytic transfusion reaction
What test is used to remove autoantibodies from test serum? Direct Coombs' Adsorption Elution Indirect Coombs'
Adsorption
How does 25% albumin induce diuresis in liver disease patients? Albumin solution acts with diuretic drugs to concentrate plasma, driving water into extravascular spaces Albumin solution acts with diuretics and brings extravascular water into vascular space to dilute albumin Albumin inactivates antidiuretic hormone in diabetics None of the choices are correct
Albumin solution acts with diuretics and brings extravascular water into vascular space to dilute albumin
Bone marrow transplants and peripheral blood stem cell transplantation (PBSCT) are most commonly used in the treatment of which of the following diseases? Neuroblastoma Multiple myeloma All of the choices Lymphoma
All of the choices
If a false-positive reaction was suspected with anti-D in the forward grouping due to the presence of a cold autoantibody, which of the following would show reactivity? DAT Du test All of the choices v
All of the choices
Persons infected with the hepatitis C virus may develop what disease? All of the choices Hepatocellular carcinoma Cirrhosis Chronic liver disease
All of the choices
What cells are produced as a result of hematopoiesis? All of the choices Platelets Red blood cells White
All of the choices
Which of the following are approved preservative solutions for blood storage at 1°C to 6°C for 21 days? ACD CPD CP2D All of the choices
All of the choices
Which of the following serologic tests is required for directed donations? FTA HepB HIV All of the choices
All of the choices
Which of the following statements explains why bacterial contamination of blood is rarely a problem? Regulated procedures for arm preparation prevent most bacterial contamination from occurring during collection Citrate in the anticoagulant is not conducive to bacterial growth All of the choices The cold storage of blood is not conducive to bacterial growth.
All of the choices
A cord blood specimen from a jaundiced infant should be tested for which of the following? DAT Rh ABO All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
An AB male mates with an AB female. What could be the genotype of the offspring? AB AA All of the choices are correct BB
All of the choices are correct
Donor screening for HPC products includes: a physical examination. All of the choices are correct completion of screening questionnaire. review of relevant medical records.
All of the choices are correct
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) is not the optimal product for replacement fluids for a therapeutic plasma exchange procedure. For which patient is FFP the optimal product of choice? All of the choices are correct Patient scheduled to undergo an invasive procedure Patient with liver disease Patient with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
All of the choices are correct
HLA testing is useful in what other area of study? Paternity testing Disease correlation Anthropology All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
Hematopoietic progenitor cell transplantation has been used to treat which of the following diseases? Lysosomal disorders Aplastic anemia Adrenoleukodystrophy All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
How can T cells be differentiated from B cells? Agglutination of sheep erythrocytes CD2 marker Secretion of interleukin-2 All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
If a false-positive reaction was suspected with anti-D in the forward grouping due to the presence of a cold autoantibody, which of the following would show reactivity? All of the choices are correct Du test DAT Rh control
All of the choices are correct
In the Fisher-Race nomenclature what does "d" refer to? All of the choices are correct Amorph Absence of D Silent allele
All of the choices are correct
In which of the following circumstances will Hardy-Weinberg's principle fail? Genetic drift All of the choices are correct Mutation Nonrandom mating
All of the choices are correct
Name a lymphoid organ in which cells of the immune system can be found. Bone marrow All of the choices are correct Spleen Thymus
All of the choices are correct
Oncology patients usually receive repeated red blood cell and platelet transfusions because of: tumor infiltration of bone marrow All of the choices are correct radiation therapy chemotherapy
All of the choices are correct
The advantages of electronic crossmatching as compared to serologic crossmatch include automatic alters of discrepancy All of the choices are correct less specimen is required less time is required
All of the choices are correct
What does polyspecific AHG contain? C3d C3b All of the choices are correct IgG
All of the choices are correct
What is a disadvantage of choosing fresh frozen plasma for fluid replacement in persons undergoing therapeutic plasmapheresis? Citrate toxicity Disease transmission All of the choices are correct ABO incompatibility
All of the choices are correct
What is the purpose of Coombs' control cells? To ensure that AHG tests with negative results are not false-negatives To ensure that AHG was not omitted or inactivated All of the choices are correct To ensure that washing removed all unbound antibody
All of the choices are correct
What testing is available that will differentiate between a true B and an acquired B? Acidification of anti-B reagent Anti-B lectin Secretor studies All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
When might you suspect multiple antibodies in a patient's serum? Pattern of reactivity not fitting a single antibody Variation in antibody reactivity strength All of the choices are correct Variation in phase of reactivity
All of the choices are correct
Where are ABH substances detected in secretors? Tears All of the choices are correct Milk Saliva
All of the choices are correct
Where are Lewis antigens found? Plasma Saliva Milk All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
Which of the following factors are likely to cause false-positive results while using gel technology? Rouleaux Icteric sample Lipemia All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
Which of the following must be true when using the Hardy-Weinberg equation? Mutations cannot occur The population must be large Mating must occur randomly All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
Which of the following options are suitability requirements for product labeling? No discrepancies in ABO and Rh testing Absence of detectable antibodies Nonreactive viral marker tests All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
Which of the following would lead to nonacceptance of a blood bank specimen? Initials of phlebotomist not on specimen An erroneous Social Security number A patient name spelled incorrectly All of the choices are correct
All of the choices are correct
Why is reviewing a potential recipient's historical data important? All of these are reasons to review patient historical data. Donor units must be negative antigens to previous antibodies even if none are currently present. Current medications may produce unusual results Antibodies from previous transfusions can decrease to undetectable levels
All of these are reasons to review patient historical data.
Which of the following are produced after exposure to genetically different nonself antigens of the same species? Drug-induced antibodies Alloantibodies All of the choices are correct Autoantibodies
Alloantibodies
Which of the following provides just cause for a product recall by the FDA? A therapeutic whole blood unit had a hematocrit of greater than 80%. An autologous unit was found reactive for anti-HBc. An A-positive packed red blood cell unit was labeled as an A-negative packed red blood cell unit. The donor blood pressure reading was omitted in donor screening.
An A-positive packed red blood cell unit was labeled as an A-negative packed red blood cell unit.
What might a positive antibody screen and a negative auto control indicate? An alloantibody is coating donor cells after a transfusion An alloantibody has been detected Drug-induced antibody reacting with patient cells An autoantibody has been detected
An alloantibody has been detected
Which of the following patients would be at a greater risk for CMV infection? An autologous transplant recipient None of the choices .A low-birth-weight infant transfused with CMV-negative blood An allogenic bone marrow transplant recipient
An allogenic bone marrow transplant recipient
Donors of autologous HPC products have to be carefully screened for which of these? You Answered Congenital immune deficiencies Sickle cell disease Human leukocyte antigen (HLA) type Answer Infectious diseases
Answer Infectious diseases
Nonmyeloablative conditioning means: None of the choices are correct Answer intervention uses reduced amounts of chemotherapy and/or radiation. You Answered without intervention the bone marrow would not recover without HPC transplantation. without intervention immune function would not recover without HPC transplantation.
Answer intervention uses reduced amounts of chemotherapy and/or radiation.
What one forward-typing reagent can be used to confirm O units collected from another facility? Anti-B Anti-A Anti-A,B Anti-H
Anti-A,B
Rh-immune globulin is effective is preventing which type of hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)? Anti-C Anti-D Anti-E Anti-c
Anti-D
Which alloantibody is frequently present in the serum of i adults? Anti-H Anti-IH Anti-I All of the choices are correct
Anti-IH
Why is it strongly recommended that only homozygous cells be used when ruling out Kidd antibodies? Anti-Jka may appear compatible with homozygous cells [Jk(a+b-)]. Anti-Jka may appear compatible with homozygous cells [Jk(a+b-)] and It will reduce the number of false-positive results. It will reduce the number of false-positive results. Anti-Jka may appear compatible with heterozygous cells [Jk(a+b+)].
Anti-Jka may appear compatible with heterozygous cells [Jk(a+b+)].
Which of the following antibodies have not been known to cause HDFN? Anti-D Anti-S Anti-Lea Anti-C
Anti-Lea
Which of the following factors distinguishes a cold autoantibody produced in a patient with infectious mononucleosis from that produced in a patient with pneumonia? Anti-i specificity A wide thermal range A titer greater than 64 An IgM class of antibody
Anti-i specificity
Why is reverse grouping not performed on cord blood specimens? Antigens are too weak. Antigens are not present at birth. Antibody titer is too high. Antibodies are generally not present at birth
Antibodies are generally not present at birth
What is the main concern for obstetric patients in prenatal testing? Antibody that causes hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) Antibody that causes hemolytic transfusion reaction Autoantibodies Drug-induced antibody
Antibody that causes hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)
How are 8 units of cryoprecipitate usually issued? As eight individual units As four multiple units of two As one pooled unit None of the choices are correct
As one pooled unit
What is the physiological mechanism of Rh-immune globulin? Attachment of fetal Rh-positive red blood cells in fetal circulation, inhibiting production anti-D Attachment of fetal Rh-negative red blood cells in maternal circulation, inhibiting production of anti-D Attachment of fetal Rh-positive red blood cells in maternal circulation, inhibiting production of anti-D Attachment of maternal Rh-negative red blood cells in maternal circulation, inhibiting production of anti-D
Attachment of fetal Rh-positive red blood cells in maternal circulation, inhibiting production of anti-D
HLA-DR typing requires a __________ suspension. platelet T-lymphocyte- granulocyte B-lymphocyte-
B-lymphocyte
What is the source of anti-B lectin? Ulex europaeus Dolichos biflorus All of the choices are correct Bandeiraea simplicifolia
Bandeiraea simplicifolia
Who is NOT included in the documentation process in the decision to use preoperative autologous blood? Blood Bank staff Patient Patient's physician Blood Bank medical director
Blood Bank staff
Which of the following statements best describes the apheresis concept? Blood is removed from an individual, the desired component is retained, anticoagulated, and separated, and the remaining portion is returned to the donor/patient. Blood is removed from an individual, anticoagulated, and separated, the desired component is retained, and the remaining portions are returned to the donor/patient. None of the choices are correct Blood is removed from an individual and separated, the desired component is retained, and the remaining portions are returned to the donor/patient.Blood is removed from an individual and separated, the desired component is retained, and the remaining portions are returned to the donor/patient.
Blood is removed from an individual, anticoagulated, and separated, the desired component is retained, and the remaining portions are returned to the donor/patient.
How are RBC aliquots prepared for a neonate transfusion? Blood is withdrawn from collection bag using a syringe and diluted 1:2 with glycerol. None of the choices are correct Blood is withdrawn from collection bag using a syringe and diluted 1:2 with saline. Blood is transferred from collection bag to satellite bag and withdrawn using a syringe
Blood is transferred from collection bag to satellite bag and withdrawn using a syringe
How is induction of tolerance achieved in kidney transplantation? Blood transfusions before transplant Blood transfusions after transplant None of the choices are correct You Answered Administration of cytokines prior to transplant
Blood transfusions before transplant
What does the hh genotype refer to? Bombay Kell Sid Lewis
Bombay
Which of the following statements is false? ABO/RH is not relative to be bone transplantation. Bone can be made into screws, chips, spacers, and wedges for patient use. Bone can be sterilized and all living tissue removed prior to its use. Bone must be HLA typed to the recipient prior to implantation
Bone must be HLA typed to the recipient prior to implantation
Most cases of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia will be DAT-positive with which of the following? Both anti-IgG and Anti-C3d Anti-IgG only Anti-C3d only None of the choices are correct
Both anti-IgG and Anti-C3d
How is it genetically possible for a child to type Rh-negative? Mom is DD and Dad is Dd Both parents are Dd Both parents are DD Sibling is Rh positive
Both parents are Dd
How is the classical pathway of complement activated? By binding of antigen with antibody By enzyme catalysis By lipopolysaccharides on surface of red blood cells By polysaccharides on the surface of bacteria
By binding of antigen with antibody
According to federal law, what organization must be contacted when a biological deviation occurs in a blood bank and the error has the potential to affect the safety of the product or patient? Joint Commission CBER AABB CAP
CBER
All of the following viral tests are required for donor processing except: HBsAg anti-HIV CMV anti-HTLV-I
CMV
Why is EDTA not conducive to complement activation? It dilutes plasma Calcium is inactivated Antibodies are neutralized Antigens are destroyed
Calcium is inactivated
For which of the following cases would intraoperative autologous collection NOT be contraindicated? Surgery on a pregnant mother where there is potential for contamination of the surgical site by amniotic fluid Cardiac surgery where there is no risk of contamination with clotting agents Orthopedic surgery where there is a risk of bacterial contamination. Abdominal surgery where there is potential for contamination of the surgical site by bowel contents
Cardiac surgery where there is no risk of contamination with clotting agents
Which of the following best describes the process of mitosis? Cell division by which only one-half of the daughter cells produced are identical to the parent cell Cell division that produces two daughter cells having the same number of chromosomes as the parent Cell division of germ cells by which two successive divisions of the nucleus produce cells that contain half the number of chromosomes of somatic cells Cell division that produces four daughter cells (4n)
Cell division that produces two daughter cells having the same number of chromosomes as the parent
Donors for cornea transplants must be tested for all but which of the following diseases prior to transplant? Chlamydia trachomatis HIV-1 and -2 Hepatitis C Hepatitis B
Chlamydia trachomatis
Which of the following is a structure located within the cell nucleus that carries genes in a linear order as a part of the DNA molecule? Chromosome Antigen Karyosome Locus
Chromosome
What is the primary anticoagulant used in pheresis procedures? CPDA-1 Citrate Heparin EDTA
Citrate
What MHC Class encodes complement components? Class II Class III All of the choices are correct Class I
Class III
Most antigens in the various blood group systems follow what kind of inheritance patterns? Dominant Homozygous Autosomal Codominant
Codominant
How are the Rh antigens inherited? None of the choices are correct X-linked recessive Codominant alleles X-linked dominant
Codominant alleles
Which of the following procedures can be used to resolve interference due to anti-I? Cold autoadsorption Prewarm technique Warm adsorption Cold autoadsorption and prewarm technique
Cold autoadsorption and prewarm technique
In which of the following is the DAT reactive with anti-C3d only? Membrane modification Drug adsorption mechanism Cold hemagglutinin disease Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Cold hemagglutinin disease
Units of platelets are stored under which of these conditions? Hanging from a hook None of the choices Constant agitation Darkened chamber
Constant agitation
Photopheresis is effective against what malignant disorder? Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma Hairy cell leukemia Acute lymphocytic leukemia Hodgkin's lymphoma
Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
The most important serologic test for the diagnosis of HDFN is the ________ with anti-IgG reagents. DAT elution IAT fetal screen
DAT
Which of the following genotypes would demonstrate the strongest expression of D antigen? Dce/dCE dce/dce DCe/dce dCe/dcE
DCe/dce (trans-C)
In what disease state is acquired antithrombin III deficiency manifested? von Willebrand's disease Lupus erythematosus DIC Liver disease
DIC
What is the major constituent of chromosomes? Mitochondria Golgi bodies DNA RNA
DNA
Which gene combination is expressed in the greatest frequency in the black population? DCe DCE dce Dce
Dce
Why is suppression of erythropoiesis an advantage of exchange transfusions? Decreases the risk of iron overload Clears nucleated RBCs from circulation Reduces the production of incompatible RBCs Reduces the production of compatible RBCs
Decreases the risk of iron overload
What is the source of anti-A1 lectin? Ulex europaeus All of the choices are correct Bandeiraea simplicifolia Dolichos biflorus
Dolichos biflorus
Which of the follow is NOT considered in the preparation of Rho immunoglobulin? Donor plasmas contain IgG anti-D. Donor human plasmas are pooled. Donors are Rh-(D) positive. Donors have been hyperimmunized.
Donor human plasmas are pooled.
Which of the following is indicated when a recipient of blood or blood components develops a viral disease? Incident report Transfusion-reaction investigation Donor look-back Type and screen
Donor look-back
All of the following techniques are used in the laboratory to detect blood group antigens or antibodies except: hemolysis precipitation ELISA agglutination
ELISA
Kidney transplants are used to treat which disease? End-stage renal disease Erythropoietin deficiency Graves' disease Di Guglielmo's syndrome
End-stage renal disease
Why is an enzyme treatment used in antibody identification? Enzymes aid in the dissociation of antibody from antigen in a positive DAT. Enzymes aid in the separation and identification of multiple antibodies. Enzymes aid in the separation and identification of multiple antibodies and the absorption of autoantibody from patient serum. Enzymes aid in the absorption of autoantibody from patient serum
Enzymes aid in the separation and identification of multiple antibodies and the absorption of autoantibody from patient serum.
What is the most important step for increasing the number of bone marrow transplants performed? Expand the donor pool to include related individuals. Expand the donor pool to include both related and unrelated individuals. Expand the donor pool to include unrelated individuals. None of the choices are correct
Expand the donor pool to include both related and unrelated individuals.
Which of the following is not a function of the hospital transfusion committee? Submitting reports of committee recommendations to medical staff Reviewing transfusion reactions Ensuring proper procedures are upheld by hospital personnel FDA certification
FDA certification
Which of the following is not an indication for fresh frozen plasma (FFP) transfusion? Factor VIII deficiency Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) Vitamin K deficiency Massive transfusion
Factor VIII deficiency
A person with acute hepatitis B infection is immune to infection from other hepatitis viruses False true
False
Which offspring scenario could not be the result of the marriage shown. Father: MN/Mother: NN—Child: NN Father: MN/Mother: MM—Child: NN Father: NN/Mother: NN—Child: NN Father: MM/Mother: NN—Child: MN
Father: MN/Mother: MM—Child: NN
Which of the following is the most common transfusion reaction reported to blood banks? Extravascular hemolytic reaction Febrile reaction Anaphylactic reaction Intravascular hemolytic reaction
Febrile reaction
Which of the following best describes the principle of the Kleihauer-Betke test? Fetal hemoglobin is resistant to acid (alkali) and appears pink, whereas maternal red blood cells appear as ghost cells. D-positive indicator cells form rosettes around maternal Rh-positive RBCs. Maternal hemoglobin is resistant to acid (alkali), appearing pink, whereas fetal cells appear as ghost cells. D-positive indicator cells form rosettes around fetal Rh-positive red blood cells
Fetal hemoglobin is resistant to acid (alkali) and appears pink, whereas maternal red blood cells appear as ghost cells.
What groups are at risk for graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) as a result of transfusion? Fetuses receiving an intrauterine transfusion Fetuses receiving an intrauterine transfusion and Patients receiving a directed donation from a first-degree relative Patients receiving a directed donation from a first-degree relative Polycythemia vera patients undergoing a therapeutic phlebotomy
Fetuses receiving an intrauterine transfusion and Patients receiving a directed donation from a first-degree relative
What is the basic unit of inheritance that determines the production or nonproduction of specific markers? Gene Antigen Locus Chromosome
Gene
Which part of quality assurance ensures that products are consistently manufactured according to, and controlled by, the quality standards appropriate for their intended use? Quality control Reproducibility Good manufacturing practices
Good manufacturing practices
Which of the following results when large excesses of free hemoglobin are released into the blood? Hemoglobinuria Hemoglobinemia Hemosiderinuria Hematuria
Hemoglobinemia
The cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus belong to which family of viruses? Picornaviridae Herpesviridae Flaviviridae Retroviridae
Herpesviridae
Which of the following is not a clinical application for a direct antiglobulin test? HDN AIHA Heterophile detection HT
Heterophile detection
A bone flap is harvested by a physician for a patient at hospital X. The patient has an issue with hospital X and requests to go to hospital Y. The patient is transferred, but the physician wants to continue with the treatment. Which of the following scenarios is possible? Hospital X would need to be registered with the FDA as a tissue vendor in order to transfer the bone flap to hospital Y. The patient is allowed to take the bone flap with him to hospital Y, because it is autologous. The physician is licensed to practice at both hospitals, so he is allowed to transfer the bone flap. There is no tissue with transfer from one hospital to the next, because the material being transferred is bone.
Hospital X would need to be registered with the FDA as a tissue vendor in order to transfer the bone flap to hospital Y.
Which of the following questions should be asked when investigating a transfusion reaction? What was the donor unit hematocrit? What time of day was the donor unit collected? What methodology was used for serologic testing? How many milliliters of red blood cells were transfused?
How many milliliters of red blood cells were transfused?
What does "HLA" stand for? Human lymphocyte antibody Human lymphodenapathy Human liver antigen Human leukocyte antigen
Human leukocyte antigen
Which of these infectious diseases is not included in screening tests for donors of allogeneic HPC products? Human papilloma virus (HPV) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) Hepatitis C virus (HCV) Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
Human papilloma virus (HPV)
What is the most common clinical manifestation of ABO HDFN? Hyperkalemia Hypotension Severe anemia Hyperbilirubinemia
Hyperbilirubinemia
Immunoglobulin prepared from pooled plasma is primarily: IgE IgG IgM IgA
IgG
What class of immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta? IgD IgM IgE IgG
IgG
What immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta? IgG IgA All of the choices are correct IgM
IgG
Which immunoglobulin is found in greatest concentration in serum? IgA IgE IgM IgG
IgG
Which of the following antibodies is considered the most significant in blood banking because it reacts at body temperature? IgE IgM IgA IgG
IgG
HDN is most often associated with what class of antibody? IgE IgG4 IgG1 IgM
IgG1
Anti-A from a group B individual is primarily what class of immunoglobulin? IgM IgA IgG All of the choices are correct
IgM
Lewis antibodies are of what immunoglobulin class? IgE IgG IgM IgA
IgM
Plasma exchange is most effective when ________ is considered the pathological substance. IgM IgG IgA IgE
IgM
Which immunoglobulin exists in a pentameric configuration? IgA IgG IgE IgM
IgM
What would be the result of group B blood given to a group O patient? No reaction Nonimmune transfusion reaction Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
RBCs sensitized in which drug-induced hemolytic anemia mechanism act as "innocent bystanders"? Drug absorption Immune complex Autoantibody formation Membrane modification
Immune complex
How can hepatitis A infection be prevented? Immune serum globulin (ISG) Fresh frozen plasma (FPP) Normal serum albumin (NSA) Plasma protein fraction (PPF)
Immune serum globulin (ISG)
In interpreting an antibody screen, which of the following questions might be asked to decipher the class of antibody? Is rouleaux present? Is the autologous control positive or negative? Is hemolysis present? In what phase did the reaction occur?
In what phase did the reaction occur?
Which of the following is an indicator of acute immune hemolytic transfusion reaction? Decreased LDH Increased haptoglobin Increased bilirubin Increased hemoglobin
Increased bilirubin
What is the advantage of performing a type and screen for patients scheduled for surgery instead of crossmatching units for possible transfusion? Increases the availability of donor units in the inventory Increases the amount of crossmatch performed Decreases the number of panel studies done on positive antibody screens Contributes to outdating of blood products
Increases the availability of donor units in the inventory
How does LISS enhance antibody detection in the antibody screen? Increases the rate at which antibody binds to red blood cell antigens Increases the incubation times, which increases the sensitivity of the test Increases the zeta potential, promoting agglutination of sensitized red blood cells None of the choices are correct
Increases the rate at which antibody binds to red blood cell antigens
An elderly patient is documented as being type O. The forward grouping is negative with anti-A and anti-B. The reverse grouping shows no reactivity with A1 cells and B cells. What can be done to correct the discrepancy? Incubate the patient's serum and reagent cells for 15 minutes at room temperature. Perform an antibody screen. Incubate the patient's cells and serum for 15 minutes at room temperature. Incubate the patient's serum and reagent cells for 15 minutes at 37°C.
Incubate the patient's serum and reagent cells for 15 minutes at 37°C.
Which of the following AABB standards must be met in paternity testing? HLA and red blood cell antigen testing performed by two independent laboratories DNA testing using double-locus probes Independent reading of electrophoretograms by two technologists All of the choices are correct
Independent reading of electrophoretograms by two technologists
What is the physiological path of indirect bilirubin produced as a result of red blood cell destruction in HDFN? Indirect bilirubin is transported across the placenta and excreted via maternal kidneys. Indirect bilirubin crosses the placenta and is conjugated in the maternal liver to direct bilirubin. None of the choices are correct Indirect bilirubin is conjugated in the fetal liver to direct bilirubin.
Indirect bilirubin crosses the placenta and is conjugated in the maternal liver to direct bilirubin.
What is a cause of death in GVHD? Infection Cardiac arrest Renal failure Anemia
Infection
A physician has ordered a 2-unit transfusion on an outpatient. When the outpatient arrives, the patient's hemoglobin is 12. What is the most appropriate action? Call the physician's office and inform them of their mistake. Transfuse. A physicians order should not be questioned. Inform the pathologist or medical director and allow him to contact the physician. Cancel the transfusion and send the patient home.
Inform the pathologist or medical director and allow him to contact the physician.
Samples for paternity testing have arrived at Forensic Laboratories, Inc. What documentation should the shipping container contain? Department code Date of birth Social Security number Initials
Initials
Where is the Rh antigen located relative to the red blood cell membrane? Integrally None of the choices are correct Centrally Peripherally
Integrally
Why might some blood banking facilities prefer the use of monospecific IgG over polyspecifiic antihuman globulin (AHG) in their antibody screens? Interference from naturally occurring cold antibodies in patient serum is reduced Interference from naturally occurring warm antibodies in patient serum is reduced Monospecific IgG has been standardized There is more IgG in monospecific antisera than in polyspecific reagents
Interference from naturally occurring cold antibodies in patient serum is reduced
How is DNA testing advantageous to paternity cases? It provides visual insight into genetically inherited differences among individuals. It provides cloning capabilities in xenographic studies. It provides insight into approximate time of conception. It establishes a means of stem cell transplantation for related individuals.
It provides visual insight into genetically inherited
Which of the following is not involved in the Kell blood group system? K Jka Jsa Kpb
Jka
All of the following antigens are found on reagent screening cells except: Fyb D C Jsa
Jsa
In an immune response, what is the time called during which no antibody is detected in the test serum? Secondary response time Amnestic response time Latency period Primary response time
Latency period
An individual from Bombay who has inherited the Le gene will have a phenotype of: Le(a-b+) Le(a+b+) Le(a-b+) Le(a+b-)
Le(a+b-)
Which of the following terms is defined as the removal of white blood cells with the return of red blood cells, plasma, and platelets? Plateletpheresis Plasmapheresis Erythrocytapheresis Leukapheresis
Leukapheresis
Anti-M will react strongest with which cells? M-N- M+N+ M-N+ M+N-
M+N-
Which drug can cause production of autoantibody? Isoniazid Methyldopa Ibuprofen Tetracycline
Methyldopa
Which of the following is not true of monoclonal reagents? Monoclonal reagents are highly specific. Monoclonal reagents are highly characterized and are uniformly reactive. Monoclonal reagents are produced for single antigens with more than one epitope. Monoclonal reagents are produced by hybridoma technology.
Monoclonal reagents are produced for single antigens with more than one epitope.
IgG-coated RBCs will be phagocytized by what effector cells? Basophils Eosinophils T cells Monocytes/macrophages
Monocytes/macrophages
What are the dangers of transfusing donor Rh-negative RBCs to an Rh-positive patient? There are no dangers. A patient will be sensitized and will develop an Anti-D. Most Rh-negative blood is c- and e-positive, and because of their immunogenicity the patient may form an antibody to those antigens. A hemolytic transfusion reaction will occur.
Most Rh-negative blood is c- and e-positive, and because of their immunogenicity the patient may form an antibody to those antigens.
Why is transmission of cytomegalovirus (CMV) through blood components not a significant risk to most recipients? The CMV cannot tolerate cold storage temperatures. The CMV cannot tolerate cold storage temperatures. Most recipients are CMV-positive. Most recipients are CMV-negative.
Most recipients are CMV-positive.
Anti-I is found in association with what microorganism? Treponema pallidum Mycoplasma pneumoniae Proteus vulgaris Escherichia coli
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Why is reverse grouping omitted in neonate ABO grouping? Maternal ABO antibody is identical to newborn ABO antibody. Maternal antibodies mask the ABO antibodies of the neonate. Newborns do not produce isoagglutinins of their own. None of the choices are correct
Newborns do not produce isoagglutinins of their own.
A woman received a transfusion of packed RBCs while delivering her baby. Six months later she wanted to donate a unit of blood back to the American Red Cross. If the woman meets all other criteria for donation, is she allowed to donate at this time? No, she should be on permanent deferral. No, she needs to wait 6 more months. No, she needs to wait 3 more months. Yes, she can donate at this time.
No, she needs to wait 6 more months.
The laboratory is presented with a case of HDFN due to ABO incompatibility. The mother is Group O and the infant is Group B. The most appropriate type of blood to use for an exchange transfusion for this infant is: AB A O B
O
What is the only possible phenotype of an offspring produced from two group O parents? O AB A B
O
Which blood group contains the highest concentration of H antigen? AB A2 B O
O
A 40-year-old male presented in the ER with acute bleeding. The technologist received a specimen but was unable to resolve a typing discrepancy between the forward and reverse typings. What blood type should the patient receive for emergency transfusion? Electronic crossmatched blood Type-specific uncrossmatched packed RBCs O-negative crossmatched packed RBCs Answer O-negative uncrossmatched packed RBCs
O-negative uncrossmatched packed RBCs
If an intrauterine transfusion is indicated, which of the following is acceptable? Nonirradiated units of blood are preferred. Red blood cells typing the same the mother Only type O red blood cells Units with concentrated white blood cells
Only type O red blood cells
How is the hepatitis A virus usually spread? None of the choices Blood transfusion Sexual transmission Oral-fecal route
Oral-fecal route
Which of the following products may lead to sepsis in a patient when contaminated with Escherichia coli? Platelets Packed red blood cells, Normal saline, and Platelets Packed red blood cells Normal saline
Packed red blood cells, Normal saline, and Platelets
Of the three following categories of altered D antigen, in which variation of D antigen expression are you more likely to encounter an allo-anti-D? Partial D Weak D None of the choices are correct C in Trans to RhD
Partial D
Which cells are employed to remove autoantibody from patient serum without removing any alloantibody from serum? Coombs' control red blood cells Patient red blood cells Screening red blood cells Panel red blood cells
Patient red blood cells
Which of the following statements is correct concerning cold antibody screens? Patient serum is incubated with group O cord cells at 37°C Patient serum is incubated with group O adult and cord red blood cells at 4°C Patient serum is incubated with check cells at 18°C Patient serum is incubated with group A cord cells at room temperature
Patient serum is incubated with group O adult and cord red blood cells at 4°C
Why is rouleaux not usually found in the AHG phase of antibody screens? Patient cells are washed away before adding AHG Patient serum is washed away before adding AHG None of the choices High protein molecules are not reactive at 37°C
Patient serum is washed away before adding AHG
Which patient is most likely to require irradiated products? Geriatric patient Newborn Patient undergoing a bone marrow transplant Patient undergoing open heart surgery
Patient undergoing a bone marrow transplant
Why is it important to match the lot number on the panel sheet with the lot number on the panel cells? Pattern of reactions will change from lot to lot. It is a requirement of the FDA The ABO group will change from lot to lot All of the choices are correct
Pattern of reactions will change from lot to lot.
What is the most common drug associated with the drug-adsorption mechanism? Penicillin Insulin Erythromycin Methyldopa
Penicillin
When should mixing of the blood bag be performed? Periodically during collection After the bag is fully collected Never Constantly
Periodically during collection
Which of the following treatments uses ultraviolet light to treat hyperbilirubinemia after the infant is delivered? Amniocentesis Phototherapy Electrophoresis Plasma exchange
Phototherapy
A donor has fainted during blood collection. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action? Loosen tight clothing and secure airway. Remove the tourniquet and withdraw needle. Raise the donor's legs above the level of the head. Place warm compresses on the donor's forehead.
Place warm compresses on the donor's forehead.
Why is it important to use polyspecific AHG rather than monospecific? Polyspecific AHG is less sensitive to IgG antibodies Polyspecific AHG is easier to use than monospecific AHG Polyspecific AHG is better at detecting IgG antibodies Polyspecific AHG costs less than monospecific AHG
Polyspecific AHG is better at detecting IgG antibodies
Which cells are used for a donor's antibody screen? Autologous cells Screening cells (3 vials) Pooled screening cells (2 donors) Screening cells (2 vials)
Pooled screening cells (2 donors)
A 41-year-old multiparous woman was rushed to the emergency room after being shot in the chest. She received 8 units of packed red blood cells and 5 units of platelets. The hemoglobin and hematocrit determinations stabilized after 6 hours in surgery, but the platelet counts remained less than 50,000 per µL. She had received additional units of platelets at 48-hour intervals with little efficacy. Her serum was tested for platelet antibodies. She was placed on corticosteroids to control chest wound bleeding. Anti-PLA1 was identified in the patient's serum. This case is representative of what type of transfusion reaction? Post-transfusion purpura Circulatory overload Alloimmunization Graft-versus-host disease
Post-transfusion purpura
What effect does aspirin have on platelets? Prevents platelet adhesion Prevents release of ATP Inhibits antigen expression Prevents platelet aggregation
Prevents platelet aggregation
What technique can be used to identify an alloantibody in the presence of a cold autoagglutinin? Enzyme treatment Polyethylene glycol Prewarming Chloroquine treatment
Prewarming
What technique can be used to identify an alloantibody in the presence of a cold autoagglutinin? Polyethylene glycol Enzyme treatment Chloroquine treatment Prewarming
Prewarming
What test systems are used in the ascertainment of paternity? Viral antigens, RBC, HLA, serum proteins RBC, enzymes, HLA, hormones RBC, HLA, enzymes, serum proteins Endocrine, RBC, serum protein, enzymes
RBC, HLA, enzymes, serum proteins
How is an intrauterine transfusion performed? RBCs are injected into the fetal peritoneal cavity. RBCs are injected into the mother and diffused through the placenta to the fetus. RBCs are injected into the maternal peritoneal cavity. RBCs are injected into the placenta.
RBCs are injected into the fetal peritoneal cavity.
Cold-reactive autoantibodies can be selectively removed from patient serum by adsorption with autologous red blood cells (RBCs). What other cells can be used? Donor RBCs Rabbit RBCs Mouse RBCs Goat RBCs
Rabbit RBCs
Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) is used to wash HPC product in order to remove which cells? None of the choices are correct White blood cells Progenitor cells Red blood cells
Red blood cells
What whole blood component contained in pheresed granulocyte concentrate warrants crossmatching of this product? White blood cells Plasma Red blood cells Platelets
Red blood cells
Where are the Kidd antigens found? Monocytes Red blood cells Platelets Lymphocytes
Red blood cells
In plateletpheresis, which blood component is returned to the donor? Red blood cells and White blood cells Platelets White blood cells Red blood cells
Red blood cells and White blood cells
What kidney transplant strategy is satisfied through matching of the donor and recipient antigens? None of the choices are correct Reduction of graft "foreignness" Use of immunosuppressive agents Induction of tolerance
Reduction of graft "foreignness"
In what test might rouleaux cause an interference? Rh control Reverse ABO grouping DAT Forward ABO grouping
Reverse ABO grouping
Where will the ABO discrepancy occur in cis-AB individuals? Reverse grouping with A1 cells Forward grouping with anti-AB Forward grouping with anti-A Reverse grouping with B cell
Reverse grouping with B cell
In warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the autoantibody will frequently demonstrate _________ -like specificity. K Rh Jkb Fya
Rh
Neutralization of antibody is applicable to all of the following blood groups except: Chido Lewis Rh P1
Rh
Which blood group system is not based on carbohydrates? P ABO Rh Lewis
Rh
In the case of an AB-positive individual, what test must be performed to ensure that a warm-reacting autoantibody is not causing false-positive reactions? Rosette test IAT Rh control DAT
Rh control
In the case of an AB-positive individual, what test must be performed to ensure that a warm-reacting autoantibody is not causing false-positive reactions? Rosette test Rh control DAT IAT
Rh control
What does Rh genotype refer to? Antigens detected on a red blood cell by serologic methods Rh genes inherited from the mother Rh genes inherited from both parents Antibodies detected in serum by serologic methods
Rh genes inherited from both parents
Active immunization induced by Rh(D) antigen can be prevented by the concurrent administration of: Rh immunoglobulin gamma globulin. alpha-1 protease inhibitor. immune serum globulin
Rh immunoglobulin gamma globulin.
A cord blood sample was sent to the blood bank for a type and DAT. Cells were washed six times with saline before testing. The forward grouping typed as an O. There was no agglutination with anti-D and washed cord cells. The DAT was 3+ with polyspecific AHG. What is the Rh type of the baby? Rh-positive None of the choices are correct Rh type cannot be determined Rh-negative
Rh type cannot be determined
In order for the mother to be considered for Rh-immune globulin, her Rh type must be _________, and her newborn must be __________. Rh-positive/Rh-negative Du-positive/Rh-positive Du-negative/Du-negative Rh-negative/Rh-positive
Rh-negative/Rh-positive
Low ionic strength saline (LISS) is added to antibody screening methods for which of the following test systems? Gel Solid phase None of the choices SPRCA
SPRCA
What is a lectin? A substance that will agglutinate sensitized cells in the presence of complement Seed extracts that agglutinate human cells with moderate specificity A foreign protein that will elicit an immune response in most individuals A protein produced from immunized rabbits and cloned for specificity
Seed extracts that agglutinate human cells with moderate specificity
What is the statistical basis of the Hardy-Weinberg principle? Selection of mates is dependent on blood types and therefore is biased. Selection of mates is dependent on blood types and therefore is random. Selection of mates is independent of blood types and therefore is biased. Selection of mates is independent of blood types and therefore is random.
Selection of mates is independent of blood types and therefore is random.
What is the definition of apheresis? The process of freezing RBCs in liquid nitrogen Separation or removal of a blood component from whole blood The addition of EPO to red blood cells to increase 2,3 DPG levels The extraction of plasma from a whole blood unit
Separation or removal of a blood component from whole blood
What would be a realistic source of finding compatible units for a person with an antibody to a high-frequency antigen? Apheresis donors Random donor units Siblings A donor of similar ethnic background
Siblings
Which of the following is generally excluded from the tissue bank? Skin Heart valves Liver Corneas
Skin
The washing procedure is applicable to which of the following serologic methods? Gel technology and tube system Gel technology and solid phase Solid phase and affinity column Solid phase and tube system
Solid phase and tube system
What should be done in the transfusion process when the patient temperature spikes from 37.5°C to 38.5°C within 30 minutes of transfusion? Stop the transfusion and keep the intravenous line open. Treat with diphenhydramine (Benadryl). Affix a leukocyte filter to transfusion line. Continue the transfusion
Stop the transfusion and keep the intravenous line open.
Point mutations include which of the following? Substitutions, insertions, and deletions Deletions Insertions Substations
Substitutions, insertions, and deletions
An identical twin donating to his or her twin sibling is an example of what kind of hematopoietic progenitor cell donation? Autologous Allogeneic Syngeneic Philogeneic
Syngeneic
How is HLA serologic testing performed? B lymphocytes are harvested and introduced to a panel of test sera specific for antigens of the HLA system. T lymphocytes are harvested and introduced to a panel of test sera specific for antigens of the HLA system. DNA is isolated from peripheral white blood cells, fragmented, and hybridized. HLA antigens move through a limited pH gradient and are immobilized, complexed with antibody, and stained.
T lymphocytes are harvested and introduced to a panel of test sera specific for antigens of the HLA system.
FDA proposed regulations are published in ___________. Transfusion Medicine Immunohematology The Federal Register AABB Standards
The Federal Register
What is the physiological cause of citrate toxicity in cytapheresis procedures? The anticoagulant in plasma contains citrate, which binds calcium, lowering the body's ionized calcium. None of the choices are correct The extracorporeal blood volume leaks citrate into the reinfusion site of the donor. The anticoagulant in plasma contains citrate, which binds chloride, lowering the anion gap.
The anticoagulant in plasma contains citrate, which binds calcium, lowering the body's ionized calcium.
Why is histocompatibility testing negated in both lung and heart transplants? None of the choices are correct The cold ischemic time is too long. The cold ischemic time is too short. The donor must be living to perform HLA testing.
The cold ischemic time is too short.
Why is the Rh-positive firstborn of an Rh-negative mother unaffected by Rh hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (Rh HDFN)? The titer of anti-D is too low to cause destruction of fetal antigens. The plasma volume of the mother is tripled during the first pregnancy which dilutes anti-D. The mother has not been immunized to the D antigen before placental separation. None of the choices are correct
The mother has not been immunized to the D antigen before placental separation.
Which of the following characterizes an alloimmune response in immune hemolytic anemia? The patient produces an antibody to a prescribed antibiotic. None of the choices The patient produces anti-K to transfused red blood cells. The patient produces an antibody reactive with her own red blood cells.
The patient produces anti-K to transfused red blood cells.
An agglutination inhibition test is performed on a person whose blood type is A+. The person's saliva is mixed with type A antisera. After incubation, the solution is mixed with reagent A cells and no agglutination occurs. What can be deduced from this finding? The person is a secretor of O substance. The person is a nonsecretor of A substance. The person is a secretor of A substance. The person is a nonsecretor of O substance.
The person is a secretor of A substance.
Blood is collected Saturday in the emergency room for possible transfusion. The patient is admitted to the hospital and on Wednesday it is determined that the transfusion is truly needed. The specimen must be recollected because the patient's location at the facility has changed. The specimen can be used for a crossmatch because the patient did not yet receive blood The specimen must be recollected because it must be collected the same day as the crossmatch The specimen must be recollected because more than 3 days have passed.
The specimen must be recollected because more than 3 days have passed.
Why are fresh blood units (less than 7 days old) preferred for a neonate transfusion? They minimize 2,3 DPG levels. They reduce the risk of hyperkalemia. They reduce the risk of hypernatremia. They reduce the risk of hypokalemia.
They reduce the risk of hyperkalemia.
What is the primary focus of quality assurance? To place blame on employees who make recurring errors To amend the system, procedure, or standard operating procedures, if deemed faulty To rewrite employee job descriptions as needed To analyze post-market stability
To amend the system, procedure, or standard operating procedures, if deemed faulty
Why would an Rh type be ordered on a cord blood sample? Because the mother had a spontaneous abortion To determine mother's candidacy for RhIG if she is Rh-negative To determine mother's candidacy for RhIG if she is Rh-positive None of the choices
To determine mother's candidacy for RhIG if she is Rh-negative
Why are donors deferred for 6 months following receipt of blood products? To allow donor recovery from the condition that required transfusion To allow clearance of all transfused cells in the donor Because donation may cause recurrence of the condition that required transfusion To permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections
To permit adequate screening for transfusion-acquired viral infections
Why are screening cells group O? To prevent interference with A and B antigens on patient cells Because group O cells contain antigens to clinically significant antibodies Because group O cells are easier to acquire in random populations To prevent interference with anti-A and anti-B in patient serum
To prevent interference with anti-A and anti-B in patient serum
What is the purpose of washing cells in the AHG test? To dilute serum To remove all bound protein To exclude a low-affinity antibody To remove all unbound protein
To remove all unbound protein
What is meant by the term autosomal? Trait is not expressed in the parents Organism possesses different alleles for a given characteristic Trait is not carried on the sex chromosomes Trait is carried on sex chromosomes
Trait is not carried on the sex chromosomes
Which of the following best describes classical genetics? DNA alteration that is caused by a physical or chemical agent Transmission of characteristics from parents to offspring Possessing a pair of identical alleles The synthesis of RNA from DNA requiring RNA polymerase
Transmission of characteristics from parents to offspring
What is the primary goal for treatment in patients with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia? Reduce neoplastic tumors None of the choices are correct Treat the underlying disease Treat coexisting anemia
Treat the underlying disease
A blood donor's serologic tests were reactive for HIV-1/2 antibodies. The test was repeated, and both were reactive. A Western blot confirmatory test was done and was negative. What is the protocol for this donor? Unit is OK to use. Unit is discarded. Health department is notified. Donor is permanently deferred.
Unit is discarded.
A postpartum woman was crossmatched for 2 units of packed red blood cells. The first unit was issued at 3:15 a.m. At 3:45 a.m., the nurse called the blood bank and stated the patient was developing red hives and pruritus (itching). The transfusion was stopped and a post-transfusion specimen was drawn. The unit and identification tags were returned to the blood bank. The DAT on the specimen was negative, and hemolysis was absent. All visual and clerical checks were satisfactory. The pathologist ordered the treatment of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for all subsequent transfusions. What type of transfusion reaction has occurred in this patient? Post-transfusion purpura Anaphylactic Urticarial Alloimmunization
Urticarial
Liquid plasma is not indicated for factor ___________ deficiency. XI X V II
V
What is responsible for recognition of the antibody-binding site to homologous antigen? Solubility of antigen Complementarity Phenotype Variable region of light/heavy chain
Variable region of light/heavy chain
What test must be performed on a patient with a warm autoantibody in their serum before transfusing? Warm autoadsorption Prewarming Elution DAT
Warm autoadsorption
Using the gel test system, the technologist used a 3% cell solution. What would be the probable outcome? Normal Weaker results because of the increase in antigen/antibody ratio None of the choices are correct Stronger results because of the increase in antigen/antibody ratio
Weaker results because of the increase in antigen/antibody ratio
When a sample of whole blood is spun, distinct layers form. What cell line or lines make up the buffy coat? White blood cells only Cellular fragments Red blood cells White blood cells and platelets
White blood cells and platelets
Routine pretransfusion testing consists of all of the following except: ABO typing Rh typin an antibody screen a DAT
a DAT
All of the following are consistent with Mendel's basic rules of inheritance except: a pair of genes is rarely found in the same gamete. a pair of genes is always found in the same gamete. different pairs of genes are assorted independently of each other. the gene is transmitted through generations intact.
a pair of genes is always found in the same gamete.
Immune hemolytic anemia is defined as: an increased RBC destruction caused by radiation exposure. a shortened RBC survival mediated through humoral antibody production an increased RBC destruction caused by enzyme defects. a shortened RBC survival caused by defective DNA synthesis.
a shortened RBC survival mediated through humoral antibody production
The process of removing antibody from serum by combining a serum sample with appropriate red blood cells under optimal conditions is called: enzyme treatment sensitization elution absorption
absorption
The "look-back" process includes notifying donors of abnormality with: recipient follow-up. predonation evaluation laboratory testing. all of the choices
all of the choices
The onset of warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA) may be precipitated by: pregnancy. bacterial infection. trauma. all of the choices
all of the choices
A positive DAT may be seen in: cold agglutinin syndrome. hemolytic transfusion reaction. hemolytic transfusion reaction. all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
False-negative results in antihuman globulin testing can be caused by: overcentrifugation cell suspensions that are too weak or too heavy undercentrifugation all of the choices are correct
all of the choices are correct
Alternate forms of a gene that can occur at a single chromosome locus are referred to as: ecessiver amorphs traits alleles
alleles
In a patient who has been recently transfused, a positive DAT may be due to: alloantibody coating patient cells. None of the choices are correct antibodies to a drug coating donor cells. alloantibody coating transfused donor cells.
alloantibody coating transfused donor cells.
Which of the following prevents interstate shipment of biological products by an establishment? FDA form 483 short supply an FDA warning letter an FDA suspension
an FDA suspension
A gene, such as the O gene, that produces no detectable product is called: an amorph recessive a trait an allele
an amorph
An O-positive mother gave birth to an A- negative baby. After 24 hours the newborn's bilirubin level rose to 18 mg/dL. A DAT performed on the cord blood specimen was positive with polyspecific AHG and anti-IgG reagents. It is probable that _______ from maternal circulation is coating the newborn's red blood cells. anti-A anti-B anti-A, B anti-D
anti-A, B
An immunogenic substance that reacts with an antibody is: antigen agglutinin immunoglobulin chromogen
antigen
In 1970, the Public Health Service Act was expanded to include: guidelines for suspending licenses for violations. provisions for licensing products. authorization for facility inspection. blood and blood components and derivatives
blood and blood components and derivatives
What does hr' refer to in the Weiner nomenclature? c E e C
c
Most blood group alleles are: codominant X-linked dominant None of the choices are correct X-linked recessive
codominant
Immediate spin resulting in agglutination may be caused by cold reacting allo- or autoantibodies prewarming the specimens too much saline in the reagents used matching ABO groups between donor and recipient
cold reacting allo- or autoantibodies
All of the following are included in the actions of cytokines except: binding to target cell receptors possible production of a synergistic effect when used together regulation of growth and mobility and differentiation of leukocytes decrease in the number of cell receptors when going from a resting to a reactive state
decrease in the number of cell receptors when going from a resting to a reactive state
All of the following are functions performed by the complement system except: smooth muscle contraction promotion of phagocytosis direct lysis of bacteria decreased vascular permeability
decreased vascular permeability
A patient transfused with 2 units of packed cells spiked a fever of 99.5°F and complained of chills 3 days after transfusion. The DAT was positive with polyspecific antisera and anti-IgG but negative with anti-C3d. Compatibility testing was performed on the pre- and post-transfusion specimens. The latter was incompatible with one of the donor units transfused. An antibody screen was done on both the pre- and post-transfusion specimens. An antibody was detected in the post-transfusion specimen only and identified by panel studies as anti-Jka. This transfusion reaction is most likely caused by: an anaphylactic response. delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR) caused by anamnestic response DHTR caused by primary alloimmunization post-transfusion purpura
delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR)
The gel system has all of the following advantages over the traditional tube procedure except: replicability of the test results. standardization in reading technique. stability of the test reaction. different grading system
different grading system
One change that occurred under the FDA for oversight of biologics was that the FD&C Act now labeled biologics as: drugs blood products reagents growth factors
drugs
Bleeding disorders may be caused by: dysfunction of lymphocytes. dysfunction of platelets dysfunction of erythrocytes dysfunction of neutrophils
dysfunction of platelets
Persons who inherit the Se and Le genes will have _______ A or B glycolipids in plasma than persons who are Se le. None of the choices are correct more inactive fewer
fewer
The specific cell product used for treating sepsis is the: granulocyte lymphocyte plasmacyte monocyte
granulocyte
Methods to isolate intact DNA in order for it to be studied include all of the following except: detergent lysis pH change heat treatment. enzyme activation
heat treatment.
The portion of the immunoglobulin molecule that determines class is the: heavy chain kappa chain lambda chain light chain
heavy chain
The condition in which one chromosome has a copy of the gene and the other chromosome has that gene deleted or absent is referred to as: heterozygous hemizygous recessive homozygous
hemizygous
In Mendel's law of separation, the first-filial generation is: heterozygous homozygous autologous recessive
heterozygous
The D-positive fetal cells in Rh-HDN are __________. heterozygous amorphic homologous homozygous
heterozygous
All of the following are classifications of immune hemolytic anemia except: drug-induced autoimmune hyperimmune. alloimmune.
hyperimmune.
At birth, infant cells are rich in ______, and ______ is nearly undetectable. i/I I/H H/i I/i
i/I
Anti-i is found in association with what disease? Pneumonia Gonorrhea infectious mononucleosis Syphilis
infectious mononucleosis
All of the following is correct regarding recovered plasma except: it is a licensed source material used in the manufacturing of licensed products. it is derived from single units of unexpired whole blood. it is derived from single units of expired whole blood. it is an unlicensed source material used in the manufacturing of licensed products.
it is an unlicensed source material used in the manufacturing of licensed products.
A patient with two or more documented febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reactions (FNHTRs) should receive __________ blood components. cytomegalovirus-negative irradiated hemoglobin S-negative leukopoor
leukopoor
Nausea, twitching, and muscle spasm during blood donations are categorized as: normal reactions. mild reactions. severe reactions. moderate reactions.
mild reactions.
Electronic crossmatching disregards discrepancies between recipient and donor unit. allows the antibody screening to be eliminated. does not eliminate the need for a serologic crossmatch. must confirm current with historical recipient's ABO group
must confirm current with historical recipient's ABO group
The ABO group antibodies are primarily: alloantibodies autoantibodies naturally occurring drug induced
naturally occurring
Which of the following statements is the most accurate? A mixed-field in the gel system: can be ignored without further workup can be resolved by respinning the gel card can be caused by fibrin found in plasma and can be corrected by using fresh serum needs to have further testing performed
needs to have further testing performed
A transfusion reaction investigation should include all of the following except: current medication. neocyte transfusion diagnosis. washed RBCs.
neocyte transfusion
All of the following procedures might be done in an investigation of an ABO discrepancy except: testing with anti-A1 lectin neutralization studies with urine increasing incubation time for reverse grouping. secretor studies
neutralization studies with urine
Which constituent in the Hardy-Weinberg equation represents the total number of alleles? q2 q 2pq p
p
A whole blood donor who has taken Tegison should be: accepted. permanently deferred. deferred for 3 months. deferred for 6 months.
permanently deferred.
Pathogen inactivation using psoralen activated by ultraviolet light is most effective in: whole blood. plasma. platelet concentrates RBC concentrates.
platelet concentrates
The rejection of the transplantation of platelets from one individual to another is termed or defined as: none of the choices are correct graft-versus-host disease. platelet refractoriness a hemolytic transfusion reaction
platelet refractoriness
A positive autocontrol in antibody detection procedures is usually indicative of: inadequate washing positive DAT positive IAT none of the choices are correct
positive DAT
The principle clinical signs of extravascular hemolysis include: positive DAT bilirubinemia and positive DAT bilirubinemia mostly of the direct type hemoglobinuria
positive DAT
A group O person with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia may demonstrate weak reactions in the forward grouping due to: red blood cells being coated with antibody. red blood cells being coated with antigen. acquired B-like syndrome. exposure of T antigen.
red blood cells being coated with antibody.
Treating an occurrence of hematoma development during blood donation involves: keeping the donor's arm lowered. removing the tourniquet and needle from donor's arm. ensuring no pressure is placed on the site. applying a warm compress to the site
removing the tourniquet and needle from donor's arm.
Which of these infectious diseases is not included in screening tests for donors of allogeneic HPC products? human T-cell lymphotrophic virus (HTLV) cytomegalovirus (CMV) respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) syphilis
respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
The FDA-directed civil action that calls for removal of products from distribution channels is known as: seizure prosecution quarantine injunction
seizure
When antigen and antibody combine, they are held together by noncovalent forces. With the absence of a visible lattice, this stage is called ___________. adhesion inhibition sensitization agglutination
sensitization
Establishments that hold U.S. licenses for a biological product can: only ship and sell products interstate. ship products interstate and internationally for sale or exchange. All of the choices are correct market multiple trademark for their product.
ship products interstate and internationally for sale or exchange.
All of the following are characteristic of ABO hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) except: the infant has mild HDFN. the mother is group O the antibody is IgM. the mother has anti-A, B
the antibody is IgM.
The short supply agreement is between the blood establishment and: the donor. none of the choices are correct the final product manufacturer the broker.
the final product manufacturer
The focus of most blood utilization programs is: the underutilization of blood products of a facility. the overutilization of blood products by a facility. to evaluate the need for ordering more product. to reduce cost.
the overutilization of blood products by a facility.
When performing an antibody screen by gel technology, the following steps are eliminated: the AHG reagent and control checked cells the cells I and II and saline wash. the centrifugation and saline wash. the saline wash and control check cells.
the saline wash and control check cells.
All of the following are goals of an exchange transfusion except: to remove high levels of maternal antibody. to remove high levels of conjugated bilirubin. to remove high levels of unconjugated bilirubin. to correct anemia.
to remove high levels of conjugated bilirubin.
All of the following are consistent with graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) except: an immunocompromised recipient. HLA incompatibility between graft and recipient. transplantation of immunocompetent T lymphocytes. transplantation of "immunologically naive" T lymphocytes.
transplantation of "immunologically naive" T lymphocytes.
All coagulation factors are produced in the liver except: antihemophilic factor (AHF). factor VII vWF factor I
vWF
Cryoprecipitated AHF can be used in the treatment of: Bernard-Soulier syndrome. antithrombin III deficiency. von Willebrand's disease (vWD) hemolytic uremic syndrome
von Willebrand's disease (vWD)
Persons with a documented history of anaphylactic reactions should be transfused with _________ blood products. washed irradiated leukodepleted IgE-deficient
washed
