BIO 1510 Exam 3 (Fall)

If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is 1x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase I would be...? A) 4x B) 1x C) 0.5x D) 2x

D) 2x

The mother does not have a particular genetic disorder, but the father is heterozygous for the same dominant disorder. What is the change of the parents passing on the trait to their children? A) 25% B) 0% C) 100% D) 50%

D) 50%

A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is...? A) An egg B) A zygote C) A somatic cell of a female D) A sperm

D) A sperm

Which of the following is an example of a somatic cell? A) White blood cell B) Skin cell C) Liver cell D) All are somatic cells

D) All are somatic cells

Germ line cells undergo meiosis to form A) Sperm or Egg B) Gametes C) Haploid cells D) All of the above

D) All of the above

Barr bodies - A) Influence calico cat coloration B) Are inactivated X chromosomes C) Can lead to genetic mosaics D) All of these

D) All of these

Choose the correct statement... A) X and Y chromosomes are the same size and shape in both sexes B) Females inherit a Y chromosome from their father C) Males inherit a Y chromosome from their mother D) Autosomes are the same size and shape in both sexes

D) Autosomes are the same size and shape in both sexes

What is chromatin composed of? A) RNA and phospholipids B) Steroids and proteins C) Proteins and carbohydrates D) DNA and protein

D) DNA and protein

Recent studies on cell cycle controls have revealed that animal cells can employ certain factors to override the inhibitory controls of cell division. These belong to the class of proteins called...? A) Histones B) Channel proteins C) Neurotransmitters D) Growth factors

D) Growth factors

Amniocentesis is a...? A) Spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) caused by chromosomal abnormalities B) Disorder in newborns in which phenylalanine is not properly metabolized C) Genetic disorder caused by translocation in chromosomes D) Medical procedures permitting prenatal diagnosis of many genetic disorders

D) Medical procedures permitting prenatal diagnosis of many genetic disorders

DNA replication occurs during which phase of the cell cycle? A) Metaphase B) Telophase C) Prophase D) None of these

D) None of these

How does maternal inheritance of mitochondrial genes differ from sex linkage? A) Mitochondrial genes must be dominant. Sex-linked are typically recessive B) Because mitochondria are inherited from the mother only females are affected C) Mitochondrial genes do not contribute to the phenotype of an individual D) Since mitochondria are inherited from the mother, females and males are equally affected

D) Since mitochondria are inherited from the mother, females and males are equally affected

Meiosis II is similar to mitosis in that...? A) The daughter cells are diploid B) Homologous chromosomes synapse C) DNA replicates before division D) Sister chromosomes separate during anaphase II

D) Sister chromosomes separate during anaphase II

Which statement about the daughter cells of mitosis is correct? A) They are genetically identical to one another, but different from the parent cell B) One of the daughter cells is identical to the parent cells and the other one isn't C) They differ genetically from one another and the parent cell D) They are genetically identical to one another and to the parent cells

D) They are genetically identical to one another and to the parent cells

What is the product of mitosis? A) Four haploid gametes B) Four diploid somatic cells C) Two diploid gametes D) Two diploid somatic cells

D) Two diploid somatic cells

(T or F) A human gamete cell with 23 chromosomes is an example of an aneuploid cell.

False

(T or F) All genes (nuclei, mitochondrial, chloroplasts) are inherited from both parents.

False

(T or F) Barr bodies are inactivated Y chromosomes that permit dosage compensation.

False

(T or F) In humans, meiosis produces 4 identical haploid gametes that combine with the gametes of another individual to form a diploid zygote.

False

(T or F) Septation is a process that occurs late in the cell cycle of animal cells.

False

(T or F) Tay-Sachs disease that causes abnormal hemoglobin molecules to form, is most frequently found in the African American population.

False

The A and B genes are 20 cM apart on a chromosome. If an A B/a b heterozygous is test crossed to a b/a b, how many of each progeny class would you expect out of 100 total progeny? A) 40 A B, 40 a b, 10 a B, 10 A b B) 10 A B, 10 a b C) 45 A B, 45 a b, 5 a B, 5 A b D) 25 A B, 25 a b, 25 a B, 25 A b

A) 40 A B, 40 a b, 10 a B, 10 A b

Only the infected individuals are shaded. What is the most likely mode of inheritance? (Parents not affected, some male offspring are affected, no females) A) Autosomal recessive B) Sex-linked recessive C) Autosomal dominant D) Sex-linked dominant

A) Autosomal recessive

In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in... A) Cells with more than one nucleus B) Cells lacking a nucleus C) Cell cycles lacking an S phase D) Cells that are unusually small

A) Cells with more than one nucleus

When two alternate forms of an allele contribute equally to a phenotype, it is called...? A) Incomplete dominance B) Multiple alleles C) Pleiotropy D) Polygenic

A) Incomplete dominance

A procedure that displays the pairs of chromosomes in a cell is called a(n)...? A) Karyotype B) Pedigree C) Autosome D) Punnet square

A) Karyotype

Homologous pairs of chromosomes align across the middle of the cell during...? A) Metaphase I B) Telophase II C) Metaphase II D) Anaphase I

A) Metaphase I

Lisa was told that her baby has Down's syndrome because it had two copies of the same chromosome from its dad. Which of the following would be most likely to have caused the Down syndrome? A) Nondisjunction B) Karyotyping C) Amniocentesis D) XYY father

A) Nondisjunction

Patients with Edward's syndrome have a trisomy of chromosome 18. What does this mean? A) The patient has three copies of chromosome 18 B) Chromosome 18 is haploid C) Chromosome 18 has been deleted from the patient D) None of these

A) The patient has three copies of chromosome 18

The kinetochore is a structure that functions to...? A) connect the centromere to microtubules B) Aid in chromosome condensation C) Connect the centrioles to microtubules D) Aid in chromosome cohesion

A) connect the centromere to microtubules

An organism's ( ) is/are determined by its ( ). A) Genes: alleles B) Phenotype: genotype C) Alleles: phenotype D) Genotype: phenotype

B) Phenotype: genotype

Reduction division occurs due to the lack of DNA replication between...? A) None of the above B) Telophase I and Prophase II C) Telophase II and Prophase I D) Prophase I and Metaphase I

B) Telophase I and Prophase II

Klinefelter Syndrome and Turner Syndrome are the result of...? A) Multiple births B) Abnormal numbers of sex chromosomes C) Trisomy D) Abnormal number of autosomes

B) Abnormal numbers of sex chromosomes

Binary fission in prokaryotes does not require the...? A) Elongation of the cell B) Assembly of the nuclear envelope C) Replication of DNA D) Separation of the daughter cells by septum formation

B) Assembly of the nuclear envelope

Which of these traits are associated with the phenotype described by, abnormal gland secretion, leading to liver degeneration and lung failure? A) Albinism B) Cystic fibrosis C) Duchenne muscular dystrophy D) Sickle cell anemia

B) Cystic fibrosis

What occurs at chiasma? A) Chromosomes are duplicated B) Exchange of genes between chromosomes C) Spindle fibers attach to chromosomes D) Chromosomes condense

B) Exchange of genes between chromosomes

A particular cell has half as much DNA as other cells in a mitotically active tissue. The cell in question is most likely in what phase of the cell cycle? A) G2 B) G1 C) Prophase D) Metaphase

B) G1

An example of a polygenic trait would be...? A) Widows peak B) Height C) Attached earlobes D) All of these

B) Height

Which of the following human genotypes would you be LEAST likely to observe? A) XXY B) OY C) XXY D) XO

B) OY

What happens to the spindle apparatus after telophase is complete? A) The protein monomers form the rough ER B) The protein monomers form the cytoskeleton C) The protein monomers form the cell wall D) The protein monomers form the daughter nuclei

B) The protein monomers form the cytoskeleton

Both p53 and Rb proteins are examples of...? A) Proto-oncogenes B) Tumor suppressors C) Intracellular receptors D) Hydrophilic ligands

B) Tumor suppressors

A human has how many sex chromosomes? A) 46 B) 23 C) 2 D) 22

C) 2

At metaphase I the kinetochores of sister chromatids are...? A) Not attached to any microtubules B) Held together with cohesion proteins C) Attached to microtubules from the same pole D) Attached to microtubules from opposite poles

C) Attached to microtubules from the same pole

Olivia, who has blood type B, had an immune reaction when transfused with blood type A. Her son, blood type AB had no such reaction when transfused with blood type A blood. Why? A) The gene for type A is incompletely dominant over the gene for type B B) The gene for type A is dominant over the gene for type B C) Both alleles are active in her son D) Blood type genes are sex-linked, so the type B gene is inactive in her son

C) Both alleles are active in her son

A diagram of genetic relationships among family members is called a(n)...? A) Punnet square B) Karyotype C) Pedigree D) Autosome

C) Pedigree

Homologous chromosomes are...? A) Two identical chromosome from one parent B) Two genetically identical chromosomes, one from each parent C) Two genetically similar chromosomes, one from each parent D) Two halves of a replicated chromosome

C) Two genetically similar chromosomes, one from each parent

(T or F) Homologous chromosomes contain the same genes but are inherited from different parents.

True

(T or F) Nondisjunction can occur in either the 1st or 2nd meiotic division when homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids do not separate.

True

(T or F) The four phases of meiosis II are essentially identical to the phases of mitosis.

True

(T or F) When conducting a test cross, you take an unknown dominant phenotype and cross it with a homozygous recessive in order to determine the genotype of the unknown.

True