BIO 201 Master Review Questions Chapters 1-15
Supination is the motion that moves the ________. a. hand from the palm backward position to the palm forward position b. foot so that the bottom of the foot faces the midline of the body c. hand from the palm forward position to the palm backward position d. scapula in an upward direction
A
The epiphyseal plate of a growing long bone in a child is classified as a ________. a. synchondrosis b. synostosis c. symphysis d. syndesmosis
A
The joints between the articular processes of adjacent vertebrae can contribute to which movement? a. lateral flexion b. circumduction c. dorsiflexion d. abduction
A
The proximal radioulnar joint ________. a. is supported by the annular ligament b. contains an articular disc that strongly unites the bones c. is supported by the ulnar collateral ligament d. is a hinge joint that allows for flexion/extension of the forearm
A
Which of the following are joined by a symphysis? a. adjacent vertebrae b. the first rib and the sternum c. the end and shaft of a long bone d. the radius and ulna bones
A
Which of these joints is classified as a biaxial diarthrosis? a. the metacarpophalangeal joint b. the hip joint c. the elbow joint d. the pubic symphysis
A
Which type of joint provides the greatest range of motion? a. ball-and-socket b. hinge c. condyloid d. plane
A
Which region of the vertebral column has the greatest range of motion for rotation? a. cervical b. thoracic c. lumbar d. sacral
B
Which type of joint allows for only uniaxial movement? a. saddle joint b. hinge joint c. condyloid joint d. ball-and-socket joint
B
A syndesmosis is ________. a. a narrow fibrous joint b. the type of joint that unites bones of the skull c. a fibrous joint that unites parallel bones d. the type of joint that anchors the teeth in the jaws
C
Which of the following is a type of synovial joint? a. a synostosis b. a suture c. a plane joint d. a synchondrosis
C
What is the difference between 1st, 2nd, and 3rd degree burns?
First degree burns effects only the epidermis. Second degree burn goes deeper and effects both epidermis and dermis. Third degree burn extends through the epidermis and dermis to damage underlying tissue and nerve endings
Why do scars look different from surround skin?
Scars occur when there is repair of skin damage. fibroblasts generate scar tissue in the form of collagen, which forms a basket-weave pattern that looks different from normal skin
List the subdivisions of the dermis
Stratum Basale, Stratum Spinosum, Stratum Granulosum, Stratum Lucidum, Stratum Corneum
Which hormones control bone growth and maintenance?
Testosterone and growth hormones
If the articular cartilage at the end of one of your long bones were to degenerate, what symptoms do you think you would experience? Why?
The articular cartilage is a thin layer of cartilage covering an epiphysis; reduces friction and acts as a shock absorber. If it degenerates, the first symptom that will be observed will be pain since movement will be limited and the friction is intense. Swelling will also be observed since there will be injury from the constant grinding of the bones.
Define the integumentary system and list its components.
The integumentary system is the body's outermost layer, with the main job to protect your insides from elements in your environment. It is composed of skin, hair, nails, glands, and nerves.
A phospholipid ________. a. has both polar and nonpolar regions b. is made up of a triglyceride bonded to a phosphate group c. is a building block of ATP d. can donate both cations and anions in solutions
a
In observing epithelial cells under a microscope, the cells are arranged in a single layer and look tall and narrow, and the nucleus is located close to the basal side of the cell. The specimen is what type of epithelial tissue? a. columnar b. stratified c. squamous d. transitional
a
Smooth muscles differ from skeletal and cardiac muscles in that they ________. a. lack myofibrils b. are under voluntary control c. lack myosin d. lack
a
The area of a bone where the nutrient foramen passes forms what kind of bone marking? a. a hole b. a facet c. a canal d. a fissure
a
The basic cells that the body uses for rapid communication and control are a. neurons. b. neuroglia. c. chondrocytes. d. formed elements. e. nerves.
a
The principal difference between simple and stratified epithelium is in the number of a. cell layers. b. total cells. c. nuclei per cell. d. free surfaces. e. microvilli.
a
Which of the following organelles produces large quantities of ATP when both glucose and oxygen are available to the cell? a. mitochondria b. peroxisomes c. lysosomes d. ER
a
The hair matrix contains _______
a layer of basal cells
assembly of more complex molecules from simpler molecules
anabolism
science that studies the form and composition of the body's structures
anatomy
Bedsores _____________
are preventable by eliminating pressure points
In response to stimuli from the sympathetic nervous system, the arrector pili ____.
are responsible for goose bumps
Adipose tissue cells are filled with a. minerals. b. fat. c. cartilage. d. fibers. e. muscles.
b
Because they are embedded within the membrane, ion channels are examples of ________. a. receptor proteins a. b. integral proteins c. peripheral proteins d. glycoproteins
b
Bones grow in diameter due to bone formation ________. a. in the medullary cavity b. beneath the periosteum c. in the epiphyseal plate d. within the metaphysis
b
CH4 is methane. This compound is ________. a. inorganic b. organic c. reactive d. a crystal
b
Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident? a. storage of minerals b. protection of internal organs c. facilitation of movement d. fat storage
b
Which of the following can be found in areas of movement? a. hematopoiesis b. cartilage c. yellow marrow d. red marrow
b
Which of the following is NOT included in connective tissues? a. bone b. skeletal muscle c. cartilage d. collagen e. blood
b
Which of the following is an example of a normal physiologic process that uses a positive feedback loop? A. blood pressure regulation B. childbirth C. regulation of fluid balance D. temperature regulation
b
Which of the following is most likely to be released when blood calcium levels are elevated? a. thyroxine b. calcitonin c. parathyroid hormone d. vitamin D
b
Which of the following statements is correct about what happens during flexion? a. The angle between bones is increased. b. The angle between bones is decreased. c. The bone moves away from the body. d. The bone moves toward the center of the body
b
A molecule of ammonia contains one atom of nitrogen and three atoms of hydrogen. These are linked with ________. a. ionic bonds b. nonpolar covalent bonds c. polar covalent bonds d. hydrogen bonds
c
A muscle that has a pattern of fascicles running along the long axis of the muscle has which of the following fascicle arrangements? a. circular b. pennate c. parallel d. rectus
c
AB → A + B is a general notation for a(n) ________ reaction. a. anabolic b. endergonic c. decomposition d. exchange
c
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is an important molecule because it ________. A.is the result of catabolism B. release energy in uncontrolled bursts C.stores energy for use by body cells D.All of the above
c
Cartilage lacks a. matrix. b. collagen. c. blood vessels. d. cells. e. ground substance.
c
Cells that remove debris, provide support, bring nutrients and produce nerve insulation are a. neurons. b. chondrocytes. c. neuroglia. d. osteocytes. e. hepatocytes.
c
Dense, regular tissues that connect bone to bone are called a. muscles. b. cartilage. c. ligaments. d. tendons. e. all of these
c
During endochondral ossification of a long bone, _________. A. a primary ossification center will develop within the epiphysis B. mesenchyme will differentiate directly into bone tissue C. growth of the epiphyseal plate will produce bone lengthening D. all epiphyseal plates will disappear before birth
c
During muscle contraction, the cross-bridge detaches when ________. a. the myosin head binds to an ADP molecule b. the myosin head binds to an ATP molecule c. calcium ions bind to troponin d. calcium ions bind to actin
c
Long bones enable body movement by acting as a ________. a. counterweight b. resistive force c. lever d. fulcrum
c
Marrow is found a. in compact bone. b. embedded in subcutaneous adipose. c. in spongy bone. d. in blood. e. between the dermis and epidermis.
c
Which of the following properties is not common to all three muscle tissues? a. excitability b. the need for ATP c. at rest, uses shielding proteins to cover actin-binding sites d. elasticity
c
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of zones in the epiphyseal plate? a. proliferation, reserved, maturation, calcification b. maturation, proliferation, reserved, calcification c. calcification, maturation, proliferation, reserved d. calcification, reserved, proliferation, maturation
c
Which of the following specialties might focus on studying all of the structures of the ankle and foot? a.microscopic anatomy b.muscle anatomy c.regional anatomy d.systemic anatomy
c
Which one of the following foods is best for bone health? a. carrots b. liver c. leafy green vegetables d. oranges
c
In general, skin cancers ___________.
can be reduced by limiting exposure to the sun
breaking down of more complex molecules into simpler molecules
catabolism
What is the Haversian canal?
channels in bone that contain blood vessels and nerves
Describe the structure of nails
composed of the nail plate, nail matrix and nail bed. The nail plate forms from the cells of the nail matrix and becomes keratinized. The nail plates grow and move over the nail bed.
The papillary and reticular layers of the dermis are composed mainly of _____
connective tissue
A nerve may be as long as a. one inch. b. 12 inches. c. a few millimeters. d. 3 or 4 feet. e. one foot.
d
According to the sliding filament model, binding sites on actin open when ________. a. creatine phosphate levels rise b. ATP levels rise c. acetylcholine levels rise d. calcium ion levels rise
d
Bone cells are called a. chondrocytes. b. macrophages. c. lacunae. d. osteocytes. e. fibroblasts.
d
Bone tissue can be described as ________. a. dead calcified tissue b. cartilage c. the skeletal system d. dense, hard connective tissue
d
Which cells do not originate from osteogenic cells? a. osteoblasts b. osteoclasts c. osteocytes d. osteoprogenitor cells
d
Which muscle name does not make sense? a. extensor digitorum b. gluteus minimus c. biceps femoris d. extensor minimus longus
d
Which muscle pair plays a role in respiration? a. intertransversarii, interspinales b. semispinalis cervicis, semispinalis thoracis c. trapezius, rhomboids d. diaphragm, scalene
d
Which of the following bones is (are) formed by intramembranous ossification? a. the metatarsals b. the femur c. the ribs d. the flat bones of the cranium
d
Which of the following central nervous system cells regulate ions, regulate the uptake and/or breakdown of some neurotransmitters, and contribute to the formation of the blood-brain barrier? a. microglia b. neuroglia c. oligodendrocytes d. astrocytes
d
Which of the following is unique to the muscles of facial expression? a. They all originate from the scalp musculature. b. They insert onto the cartilage found around the face c. They only insert onto the facial bones d. They insert into the skin.
d
Cardiac muscle cells are a. involuntary. b. voluntary. c. striated. d. slow contracting. e. both involuntary and striated.
e
Cartilage is found a. in the nose. b. at the ends of bones. c. in the external ear. d. between vertebrae. e. all of these
e
Connective tissues include all the following EXCEPT a. cartilage. b. blood. c. bone. d. fat. e. outer skin.
e
Smooth muscle cells are a. striated and voluntary. b. isolated, spindle-shaped cells. c. found in the walls of hollow structures such as blood vessels and the stomach. d. involuntary and nonstriated. e. all except striated and voluntary
e
Which of the following is not a function of the integument? a. protection from pathogen invasion b. inhibition of water loss c. regulation of body temperature d. synthesis of vitamin D e. production of white blood cells
e
An individual has spent too much time sunbathing. Not only is his skin painful to touch, but small blisters have appeared in the affected areas. This indicates that he has damaged which layer of his skin?
epidermis and dermis
One of the functions of the integumentary system is protection. Which of the following does not directly contribute to that function?
folic acid synthesis
study of the larger structures of the body, typically with the unaided eye; also referred to macroscopic anatomy
gross anatomy
steady state of body systems that living organisms maintain
homeostasis
The____________ is a thickened layer of stratum corneum that lies below the free edge of the nail and is the farthest from the growth center.
hyponychium
Explain your skin's response to a drop in body core temperature.
in cold environments, blood supply to the skin minimized in order to redirect the warm blood into body core (head, thorax, abdomen). skin on the hands and fingers may become more white than usual. sweat glands excrete minimally so the body wouldn't lose heat by sweat evaporation
After a skin injury, the body initiates a wound-healing response. The first step of this response is the formation of a blood clot to stop bleeding. Which of the following would be the next response?
increased production of connective tissue
study of very small structures of the body using magnification
microscopic anatomy
homeostatic mechanism that tends to stabilize an upset in the body's physiological condition by preventing an excessive response to a stimulus, typically as the stimulus is removed
negative feedback
range of values around the set point that do not cause a reaction by the control center
normal range
chemical obtained from foods and beverages that is critical to human survival
nutrient
An individual using a sharp knife notices a small amount of blood where he just cut himself. Which of the following layers of skin did he have to cut in order to bleed?
papillary dermis
List the subdivisions of the epidermis.
papillary layer, reticular layer, cleavage lines
Cells of the epidermis derive from stem cells of the __________.
stratum basale
The papillary layers of the dermis is most closely associated with which layer of the epidermis?
stratum basale
As you are walking down the beach, you see a dead, dry, shriveled-up fish. Which layer of your epidermis keeps you from drying out?
stratum corneum
The _________ is a good barrier that protects from the external elements including viruses and bacteria. It also creates a seal to prevent water loss.
stratum corneum
Langerhans cells are commonly found in the _____
stratum spinosum
Squamous cell carcinoma is a cancer that affects the keratinocytes of the ___________ and presents as lesions commonly found on the scalp, ears, and hands.
stratum spinosum
Collagen lends ________ to the skin.
structure
In humans, exposure of the skin to sunlight is required for ________.
vitamin D synthesis
A meniscus is ________. a. a fibrocartilage pad that provides padding between bones b. a fluid-filled space that prevents friction between a muscle tendon and underlying bone c. the articular cartilage that covers the ends of a bone at a synovial joint d. the lubricating fluid within a synovial joint
A
Endochondral ossification is ________. a. the process that replaces hyaline cartilage with bone tissue b. the process by which mesenchyme differentiates directly into bone tissue c. completed before birth d. the process that gives rise to the joint interzone and future joint cavity
A
_______ are smooth muscle that is activated in response to external stimuli that pull on hair follicles and make the hair "stand up" or produce goose bumps.
Arrector pili
A cartilaginous joint ________. a. has a joint cavity b. is called a symphysis when the bones are united by fibrocartilage c. anchors the teeth to the jaws d. is formed by a wide sheet of fibrous connective tissue
B
Condyloid joints ________. a. are a type of ball-and-socket joint b. include the radiocarpal joint c. are a uniaxial diarthrosis joint d. are found at the proximal radioulnar joint
B
Intramembranous ossification ________. a. gives rise to the bones of the limbs b. produces the bones of the top and sides of the skull c. produces the bones of the face and base of the skull d. involves the conversion of a hyaline cartilage model into bone
B
Which of these joints is classified as a synarthrosis? a. the pubic symphysis b. the manubriosternal joint c. an invertebral disc d. the shoulder joint
B
A bursa ________. a. surrounds a tendon at the point where the tendon crosses a joint b. secretes the lubricating fluid for a synovial joint c. prevents friction between skin and bone, or a muscle tendon and bone d. is the strong band of connective tissue that holds bones together at a synovial joint
C
Movement at the shoulder joint that moves the upper limb laterally away from the body is called ________. a. elevation b. eversion c. abduction d. lateral rotation
C
Synovial joints ________. a. are derived from fontanelles b. are produced by intramembranous ossification c. develop at an interzone site d. are produced by endochondral ossification
C
The ankle joint ________. a. is also called the subtalar joint b. allows for gliding movements that produce inversion/eversion of the foot c. is a uniaxial hinge joint d. is supported by the tibial collateral ligament on the lateral side
C
The primary support for the glenohumeral joint is provided by the ________. a. coracohumeral ligament b. glenoid labrum c. rotator cuff muscles d. subacromial bursa
C
Which motion moves the bottom of the foot away from the midline of the body? a. elevation b. dorsiflexion c. eversion d. plantar flexion
C
A gomphosis ________. a. is formed by an interosseous membrane b. connects the tibia and fibula bones of the leg c. contains a joint cavity d. anchors a tooth to the jaw
D
A synchondrosis is ________. a. found at the pubic symphysis b. where bones are connected together with fibrocartilage c. a type of fibrous joint d. found at the first sternocostal joint of the thoracic cage
D
At a synovial joint, the synovial membrane ________. a. forms the fibrous connective walls of the joint cavity b. is the layer of cartilage that covers the articulating surfaces of the bones c. forms the intracapsular ligaments d. secretes the lubricating synovial fluid
D
At synovial joints, ________. a. the articulating ends of the bones are directly connected by fibrous connective tissue b. the ends of the bones are enclosed within a space called a subcutaneous bursa c. intrinsic ligaments are located entirely inside of the articular capsule d. the joint cavity is filled with a thick, lubricating fluid
D
Movement of a body region in a circular movement at a condyloid joint is what type of motion? a. rotation b. elevation c. abduction d. circumduction
D
Muscle that has a striped appearance is described as being ____________. a. elastic b. nonstriated c. excitable d. striated
D
Synovial joints ________. a. may be functionally classified as a synarthrosis b. are joints where the bones are connected to each other by hyaline cartilage c. may be functionally classified as a amphiarthrosis d. are joints where the bones articulate with each other within a fluid-filled joint cavity
D
Which statement is true concerning the knee joint? a. The lateral meniscus is an intrinsic ligament located on the lateral side of the knee joint. b. Hyperextension is resisted by the posterior cruciate ligament. c. The anterior cruciate ligament supports the knee when it is flexed and weight bearing. d. The medial meniscus is attached to the tibial collateral ligament.
D
The cells in outer layers are tightly packed and and stained in deep color. These cells are dead and usually slough off to give way to new ones.
Epidermal cell
If you cut yourself and bacteria enter the wound, which of the following cells would help get rid of the bacteria?
Langerhans cells
What are the structural and functional differences between tarsals and metatarsals?
Metatarsals are groups of five long bones that are cylindrical in shape. Tarsals are groups of seven short bones that cube-like. in appearance. Metatarsals functions as a leverage while tarsals are for stability, support while allowing some motion.
11. When an atom donates an electron to another atom, it becomes a. an ion b. an anion c. nonpolar d. all of the above
a
A sprinter would experience muscle fatigue sooner thana marathon runner due to ________. a. anaerobic metabolism in the muscles of the sprinter b. anaerobic metabolism in the muscles of the marathon runner c. aerobic metabolism in the muscles of the sprinter d. glycolysis in the muscles of the marathon runner
a
All of the following play a role in calcium homeostasis except a. thyroxine b. calcitonin c. parathyroid hormone d. vitamin D
a
Bones grow in length due to activity in the ________. a. epiphyseal plate b. perichondrium c. periosteum d. medullary cavity
a
Bones that surround the spinal cord are classified as ________ bones. a. irregular b. sesamoid c. flat d. short
a
The muscles of a professional sprinter are most likely to have ________. a. 80 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 20percent slow-twitch muscle fibers b. 20 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 80percent slow-twitch muscle fibers c. 50 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 50percent slow-twitch muscle fibers d. 40 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 60percent slow-twitch muscle fibers
a
The process by which a less specialized cell matures into a more specialized cell is called ________. a. differentiation b. maturation c. modification d. specialization
a
What organic compound do brain cells primarily rely on for fuel? a. glucose b. glycogen c. galactose d. glycerol
a
Which arrangement best describes a bipennate muscle? a. The muscle fibers feed in on an angle to a long tendon from both sides .b. The muscle fibers feed in on an angle to a long tendon from all directions c. The muscle fibers feed in on an angle to a long tendon from one side. d. The muscle fibers on one side of a tendon feed into it at a certain angle and muscle fibers on the other side of the tendon feed into it at the opposite angle.
a
Choose the answer that best completes the following analogy: Diffusion is to ________ as endocytosis is to ________. a. filtration; phagocytosis b. osmosis; pinocytosis c. solutes; fluid d. gradient; chemical energy
b
In endochondral ossification, what happens to the chondrocytes? a. they develop into osteocytes b. they die in the calcified matrix that surrounds them and form the medullary cavity c. they grow and form the periosteum d. they group together to form the primary ossification center
b
Most of the bones of the arms and hands are long bones; however, the bones in the wrist are categorized as ________. a. flat bones b. short bones c. sesamoid bones d. irregular bones
b
Muscle fatigue is caused by ________. a. build up of ATP and lactic acid levels b. exhaustion of energy reserves and buildup of lactic acid levels c. buildup of ATP and pyruvic acid levels d. exhaustion of energy reserves and buildup pyruvic acid levels
b
The nerve impulse travels down a(n) ________, away from the cell body. a. dendrite b. axon c. microglia d. collagen fiber
b
During which phase of a twitch in a muscle fiber is tension the greatest? a. resting phase b. repolarization phase c. contraction phased
c
From which embryonic cell type does muscle tissue develop? a. ganglion cells b. myotube cells c. myoblast cells d. satellite cells
c
Humans have the most urgent need for a continuous supply of ________. a. food b. nitrogen c. oxygen d. water
c
If cardiac muscle cells were prevented from undergoing aerobic metabolism, they ultimately would ________. a. undergo glycolysis b. synthesize ATP c. stop contracting d. start contracting
c
Ion pumps and phagocytosis are both examples of ________. a. endocytosis b. passive transport c. active transport d. facilitated diffusion
c
Drug X blocks ATP regeneration from ADP and phosphate. How will muscle cells respond to this drug? a. by absorbing ATP from the bloodstream b. by using ADP as an energy source c. by using glycogen as an energy sourced. d. none of the above
d
Embryonic development of the axial skeleton involves ________. A. intramembranous ossification, which forms the facial bones B. endochondral ossification, which forms the ribs and sternum C. the notochord, which produces the cartilage models for the vertebrae D. the formation of hyaline cartilage models, which give rise to the flat bones of the skull
d
Epithelial cells are specialized for all of the following functions EXCEPT a. secretion. b. protection. c. filtration. d. contraction. e. absorption
d
In epithelial tissues, what serves to anchor the epithelial tissue to underlying connective tissue? a. ependymal cells b. plasma membrane c. synovial membrane d. basement membrane e. transitional membrane
d
Sesamoid bones are found embedded in _________. a. joints b. muscles c. ligaments d. tendons
d
What is the difference between endochondral ossification and membranous ossification?
Intramembranous ossification : flat bones of face, cranial bones, clavicles bones develop directly from mesenchymal tissue only one ossification center - primary begins in utero, continues in adolescence Endochondral ossification Endochondral ossification : bones of the base of the skull, long bones mesenchymal tissue differentiates into chondrocytes which serve as a template for bone production primary ossification center is located in diaphysis in the region of periostal collarwhile the secondary ossification center forms after birth in the epiphyseal plate takes longer than intramembranous ossification
List the two main divisions of the skin and the dominant histology of each division
The epidermis consists of stratified squamous, and the dermis consists of papillary layers of areolar tissue and a reticular layer of dense regular connective tissue
Calcium cannot be absorbed from the small intestine if ________ is lacking. a. vitamin D b. vitamin K c. calcitonin d. fluoride
a
Depolarization of the sarcolemma means ________. a. the inside of the membrane has become less negative as sodium ions accumulate b. the outside of the membrane has become less negative as sodium ions accumulate c. the inside of the membrane has become more negative as sodium ions accumulate d. the sarcolemma has completely lost any electrical charge
a
Outgoing messages are conducted by a. an axon. b. any process that is long enough to reach the receptor. c. numerous dendrites. d. the intervention of the neuroglia. e. chondrocytes.
a
Stratified epithelium is typically used for a. protection. b. secretion. c. absorption. d. excretion. e. reproduction.
a
The cells responsible for the transmission of the nerve impulse are ________. a. neurons b. oligodendrocytes c. astrocytes d. microglia
a
The characteristic that gives an element its distinctive properties is its number of ________. a. protons b. neutrons c. electrons d. atoms
a
The energy stored in a foot of snow on a steep roof is ________. a. potential energy b. kinetic energy c. radiant energy d. activation energy
a
The epithelial lining of the small intestine is modified for what function? a. absorption b. secretion c. excretion d. removing debris e. protection
a
The fibrous membrane covering the outer surface of the bones is the _______________. a. periosteum b. epiphysis c. endosteum d. diaphysis
a
The location of a muscle's insertion and origin can determine ________. a. action b. the force of contraction c. muscle name d. the load a muscle can carry
a
Which bony landmark is located on the lateral side of the proximal humerus? A. greater tubercule B. trochlea C. lateral epicondyle D. lesser tubercule
a
Which category of bone is among the most numerous in the skeleton? a. long bone b. sesamoid bone c. short bone d. flat bone
a
Which cell type helps to repair injured muscle fibers? a. ganglion cells b. myotube cells c. myoblast cells d. satellite cells
a
Which is moved the least during muscle contraction? a. the origin b. the insertion c. the ligaments d. the joints
a
Which of the following helps an agonist work? a. a synergist b. a fixator c. an insertion d. an antagonist
a
Which of the following hormones are responsible for the adolescent growth spurt? a. estrogen and testosterone b. calcitonin and calcitriol c. growth hormone and parathyroid hormone d. thyroxine and progesterone
a
Which of the following is a function of the rough ER? a. production of proteins b. detoxification of certain substances c. synthesis of steroid hormones d. regulation of intracellular calcium concentrations
a
Which of the following statements about nutrients is true? a. All classes of nutrients are essential to human survival. b. Because the body cannot store any micronutrients, they need to be consumed nearly every day. c. Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are micronutrients. d. Macronutrients are vitamins and minerals.
a
Which of the following statements describes smooth muscle cells? a. They are resistant to fatigue. b. They have a rapid onset of contractions .c. They cannot exhibit tetanus .d. They primarily use anaerobic metabolism.
a
Which of the following statements is true? a. Fast fibers have a small diameter. b. Fast fibers contain loosely packed myofibrils. c. Fast fibers have large glycogen reserves. d. Fast fibers have many mitochondria.
a
Which type of tissue covers body surfaces and lines body cavities? a. epithelial tissue b. connective tissue c. muscular tissue d. nervous tissue e. vascular tissue
a
Yellow marrow has been identified as ________. a. an area of fat storage b. a point of attachment for muscles c. the hard portion of bone d. the cause of kyphosis
a
Sebaceous glands ________
are associated with hair follicles
Eccrine sweat glands _________
are present in the skin throughout the body and produce and watery sweat
The cell membrane of a muscle fiber is called________. a. myofibril b. sarcolemma c. sarcoplasm d. myofilament
b
The correct order for the smallest to the largest unit of organization in muscle tissue is ________ a. fascicles, filament, muscle fiber, myofibril b. filament, myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle c. muscle fiber, fascicle, filament, myofibril d. myofibril, muscle fiber, filament, fascicle
b
The diaphysis contains ____________. a. the metaphysis b. fat stores c. spongy bone d. compact bone
b
The internal and external calli are replaced by _____________. a. hyaline cartilage b. trabecular bone c. osteogenic cells d. osteoclasts
b
The muscles of a professional marathon runner are most likely to have ________. a. 80 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 20 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers b. 20 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 80 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers c. 50 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 50percent slow-twitch muscle fibers d. 40 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 60percent slow-twitch muscle fibers
b
The names of the extrinsic tongue muscles commonly end in ________. a. -glottis b. -glossus c. -gluteus d. -hyoid
b
The nucleus and mitochondria share which of the following features? a. protein-lined membrane pores b. a double cell membrane c. the synthesis of ribosomes d. the production of cellular energy
b
The rough ER has its name due to what associated structures? a. Golgi apparatus b. ribosomes c. lysosomes d. proteins
b
The skeletal system is made of __________. a. muscles and tendons b. bones and cartilage c. vitreous humor d. minerals and fat
b
The smallest unit of an element that still retains the distinctive behavior of that element is an ________. a. electron b. atom c. elemental particle d. isotope
b
What aspect of creatine phosphate allows it to supply energy to muscles? a. ATPase activity b. phosphate bonds c. carbon bonds d. hydrogen bonds
b
What is the largest muscle in the lower leg? a. soleus b. gastrocnemius c. tibialis anterior d. tibialis posterior
b
Which connective tissue specializes in storage of fat? a. tendon b. adipose tissue c. reticular tissue d. dense connective tissue
b
Which element is important in directly triggering contraction? a. sodium b. calcium c. potassium d. chloride
b
The inner surface of epithelial tissue rests on a a. layer of adipose tissue. b. basement membrane. c. layer of connective tissue. d. mix of cells and proteins. e. mix of cells and polysaccharides.
b.
In turning a page, you would mainly be using what type of tissue? a. cardiac muscle b. smooth muscle c. skeletal muscle d. adipose tissue e. epithelial tissue
c
Muscle relaxation occurs when ________. a. calcium ions are actively transported out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum b. calcium ions diffuse out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum c. calcium ions are actively transported into the sarcoplasmic reticulum d. calcium ions diffuse into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c
Tendons connect ________ a. bones to bones. b. bones to ligaments. c. muscles to bones. d. bones to cartilage. e. all of these
c
What characteristic can be used to differentiate bone and cartilage? a. whether the matrix is solid or liquid b. the presence or absence of cells c. the flexibility of the matrix d. the presence of fibers in the matrix e. whether it is fibrous or specialized connective tissue
c
What type of tissue is blood? a. epithelial b. muscular c. connective d. adipose e. noncellular fluid
c
Which muscle has a convergent pattern of fascicles? a. biceps brachii b. gluteus maximus c. pectoralis major d. rectus femoris
c
Which of the following are found in compact bone and cancellous bone? a. Haversian systems b. Haversian canals c. lamellae d. lacunae
c
Which of the following are incapable of undergoing mitosis? a. osteoblasts and osteoclasts b. osteocytes and osteoclasts c. osteoblasts and osteocytes d. osteogenic cells and osteoclasts
c
Which of the following are only found in cancellous bone? a. canaliculi b. Volkmann's canals c. trabeculae d. Calcium salts
c
Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton? A. allows for movement of the wrist and hand B. protects nerves and blood vessels at the elbow C. supports the trunk of body D. allows for movement of the ankle and foot
c
Which of the following is a functional group that is part of a building block of proteins? a. phosphate b. adenine c. amino d. ribose
c
Which of the following is a prime mover in head flexion? a. occipitofrontalis b. corrugator supercilii c. sternocleidomastoid d. masseter
c
Which of the following occurs in the spongy bone of the epiphysis? a. bone growth b. bone remodeling c. hematopoiesis d. shock absorption
c
Which type of stem cell gives rise to red and white blood cells? a. endothelial b. epithelial c. hematopoietic d. mesenchymal
c
Why is cartilage slow to heal? a. because it eventually develops into bone b. because it is semi-solid and flexible c. because it does not have a blood supply d. because endochondral ossification replaces all cartilage with bone
c
Without red marrow, bones would not be able to ________. a. store phosphate b. store calcium c. make blood cells d. move like levers
c
Cardiac muscles differ from skeletal muscles in that they ________ a. are striated b. utilize aerobic metabolism c. contain myofibrils d. contain intercalated discs
d
In relaxed muscle, the myosin-binding site on actin is blocked by ________. a. titin b. troponin c. myoglobin d. tropomyosin
d
Metabolism can be defined as the ________. A. adjustment by an organism to external or internal change B. process whereby all unspecialized cells become specialized to perform distinct functions C. process whereby new cells are formed to replace worn-out cells D. sum of all chemical reactions in an organism
d
Muscle that is NOT striped and is involuntary is a. cardiac. b. skeletal. c. striated. d. smooth. e. both cardiac and smooth.
d
Outside the brain and spinal cord, which cells provide insulation to nerves? a. microglia b. astrocytes c. oligodendrocytes d. Schwann cells e. satellite cells
d
Striated means a. multinucleated. b. fibrous. c. voluntary. d. striped. e. bundled.
d
The body system responsible for structural support and movement is the ________. a.cardiovascular system b.endocrine system c.muscular system d.skeletal system
d
The diffusion of substances within a solution tends to move those substances ________ their ________ gradient. a. up; electrical b. up; electrochemical c. down; pressure d. down; concentration
d
Thin and thick filaments are organized into functional units called ________. a. myofibrils b. myofilaments c. T-tubules d. sarcomeres
d
Together, just four elements make up more than 95 percent of the body's mass. These include ________. a. calcium, magnesium, iron, and carbon b. oxygen, calcium, iron, and nitrogen c. sodium, chlorine, carbon, and hydrogen d. oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen
d
True ribs are _______. A. ribs 8-12 B. attached via their costal cartilage to the next higher rib C. made entirely of bone, and thus do not have a costal cartilage D. attached via their costal cartilage directly to the sternum
d
Under the microscope, a tissue specimen shows cells located in spaces scattered in a transparent background. This is probably ________. a. loose connective tissue b. a tendon c. bone d. hyaline cartilage
d
What type of tissue receives sensory input, integrates data, and conducts impulses? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscular tissue d. Nervous tissue e. Vascular tissue
d
When calcium levels are too high or too low, which body system is primarily affected? a. skeletal system b. endocrine system c. digestive system d. nervous system
d
Which of the following terms would be used in the name of a muscle that moves the leg away from the body? a. flexor b. adductor c. extensor d. abductor
d
Which type of neuroglia cell is found outside of the brain? a. astrocytes b. microglia c. oligodendrocytes d. Schwann cells e. axons
d
Why are osteocytes spread out in bone tissue? a. They develop from mesenchymal cells. b. They are surrounded by osteoid. c. They travel through the capillaries. d. Formation of osteoid spreads out the osteoblasts that formed the ossification centers.
d
With respect to their direct effects on osseous tissue, which pair of hormones has actions that oppose each other? a. estrogen and testosterone b. calcitonin and calcitriol c. estrogen and progesterone d. calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
d
The _______ secrete water to the skin surface, where it cools the body by evaporation. Thus, eccrine sweat is an important mechanism for temperature control.
eccrine sweat glands
Squamous cell carcinomas are the second most common of the skin cancers and are capable of metastasizing if not treated. This cancer affects which cells?
keratinocytes of the stratum spinosum
science that studies the chemistry, biochemistry, and physics of the body's functions
physiology
Describe the composition of nails
plates are heavily compacted, heavily keratinized epithelial cells that form the nail bed, which is lying on the epidermis. The nail plate lacks nuclei and organelles
mechanism that intensifies a change in the body's physiological condition in response to a stimulus
positive feedback
study of the structures that contribute to specific body regions
regional anatomy
Blister formation suggests that both epidermis and dermis are affected by damage. This example can be classified as second-degree burn _________
second-degree burn
Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypodermis?
source of blood vessels in the epidermis
