Bio 208 All Quizzes and Mini Exams

Mini Exam 6 https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554899

Autoimmune disorders are characterized by immune destruction of self tissues. The underlying basis of these disorders is Correct! failure to delete B and T cells that are reactive to self antigens. an overproduction of complement. an oversecretion of antibodies from memory B cells. failure to produce memory cells. Question 21 / 1 pts All of the following occur during inflammation. What step occurs first? Correct! Chemical signals are released by pathogens and injured tissues. Macrophages phagocytize cellular debris. Leukocytes squeeze through capillary walls at the site of injury. Leukocytes follow chemotactic signals to move toward the area. Question 31 / 1 pts B cells are activated by a(n) _____ to become plasma cells. memory cell Correct! antigen antibody APC Question 40 / 1 pts Which of the cells listed below can present extracellular antigens on Class II MHC proteins? Virus-infected epithelial cells Healthy epithelial cells B cells You Answered Macrophages Correct Answer B cells or macrophages Question 51 / 1 pts A phagocyte with a DNA mutation that prevented formation of a functional Toll-like receptor would have difficulty with which specific step of phagocytosis? chemotaxis toward the microbe formation of the phagolysosome killing the microbe Correct! adhering to the microbe Question 61 / 1 pts Your immune system does not change from the time you are born until death. True Correct! False Question 71 / 1 pts Phagocytes utilize all of the following to help locate and contain microorganisms EXCEPT opsonization. chemotaxis. Correct! lysozyme. complement. adherence to a PAMP on the microbe surface. Question 81 / 1 pts Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE? They can prevent viral attachment to a host cell They can facilitate phagocyte attack on a bacteria Correct! They can penetrate host cells to bind endogenous antigens They can facilitate cytolysis of cells They can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming complexes Question 91 / 1 pts The initial immune response to an antigen is slow . The secondary immune response to the same antigen involves memory B and T cells that were not involved in the initial response. Answer 1:Correct!is slow Answer 2:Correct!memory B and T cells Question 101 / 1 pts Which non-specific innate defense mechanism is mismatched with its associated body structure or body fluid? Lysozyme is present in mucus and tears and can destroy the peptidoglycan in the bacterial cell wall. Ciliated goblet cells produce mucous in the intestines to trap pathogens in the mucociliary escalator. Ear wax, skin, and the vagina all have a slightly acidic pH that prevents the growth of many pathogens. Tight cell connections in the skin keep most pathogens from entering the host. Correct! Complement proteins present in the urine can initiated the destruction of pathogens. Question 111 / 1 pts Neutrophils, dendrites, and macrophages are all innate immune cells that are capable of _____. inflammation. Correct! phagocytosis. clotting. producing antibodies. Question 121 / 1 pts Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT phagocytosis. inflammation. Correct! production of antibody. fever. Question 131 / 1 pts A child falls and suffers a deep cut on her leg. The cut went through her skin and she is bleeding. Which of the following defense mechanisms will try to eliminating contaminating microbes immediately? production of endotoxin skin cells of the epidermis sloughing off Correct! phagocytosis and the inflammatory response hair follicles and sweat glands production of antibodies Question 141 / 1 pts The function of the "ciliary escalator" is to remove microorganisms from the gastrointestinal tract. prevent microorganisms from escaping the respiratory tract. degrade the cell wall of microorganisms. Correct! trap microorganisms in mucus and move them away from the lower respiratory tract. physically prevent the microorganism from exiting the host. Question 151 / 1 pts T cells are responsible for directly manufacturing antibodies. True Correct! False Question 161 / 1 pts Which of the following is TRUE about clonal selection? Self-reactive lymphocytes will expand by dividing to produce a population of clones that will respond to the same antigen. The lymphocyte will can be altered to respond to different antigens. Correct! Each lymphocyte has specificity to only one antigen and will react to only that antigen. Lymphocytes that respond strongly to foreign antigens will be eliminated. Question 171 / 1 pts The circulating substances that affect the hypothalamus and initiate fever are ______. interferons lysozymes complement histamine Correct! pyrogens Question 181 / 1 pts Which of the following is the best definition of epitope? specific regions on antigens that interact with antigens specific regions on antigens that interact with phagocytes specific regions on antigens that interact with peptidoglycan Correct! specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies specific regions on antigens that interact with immunoglobulins Question 191 / 1 pts Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule, thereby disrupting their activity? Opsonization Correct! Neutralization Complement fixation Agglutination Anamnestic response Question 201 / 1 pts Human B-lymphocytes mature in an intestinal region called the bursa. True Correct! False Question 210 / 1 pts How is a B-cell receptor similar to an antibody? A B-cell receptor coats the surface of a B cell and antibodies coat the surface of microbes to enhance phagocytosis. B-cell receptors and antibodies are bound to the surface of cells. Correct Answer Antibodies and B-cell receptors can both bind to antigen. Antibodies and B-cell receptors both bind to "self" or human cells. You Answered B-cell receptors and antibodies are bound to the surface of cells AND Antibodies and B-cell receptors can both bind to antigen. Question 221 / 1 pts Innate immunity includes all of the following EXCEPT phagocytosis. inflammation. Correct! production of antibody. fever. Question 231 / 1 pts Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of defense against microbial infection in the skin? Secretion of sebum and lysozyme to inhibits the growth of microbes. Tightly packed epithelial cells that create an impenetrable barrier. Release of dead skin cells from the epidermis. Correct! Hair follicles prevent entry of microbes into host tissues. Question 241 / 1 pts Put these steps in order:1. B cell receptor on surface of B cells binds antigen.2. Antigen breakdown products bind major histocompatibility complex protein and are "displayed" on B cell surface.3. Antigen-antibody complex is internalized and processed.4. B cell is activated to divide and differentiate into plasma cells and memory cells. 1, 4, 2, 3 1, 2, 4, 3 Correct! 1, 3, 2, 4 1, 3, 4, 2 Question 251 / 1 pts Select all of the TRUE statements about antigen presentation of intracellular and extracellular antigens. Correct! Intracellular antigens are presented on MHC I proteins but extracellular antigens are presented on MHC II proteins. Correct! Intracellular antigens are inside a host cell but extracellular antigens are outside and must be brought into the host cell. A small portion of intracellular antigen is displayed on the cell surface but the entire extracellular antigen is displayed on the cell surface. Correct! Cytotoxic T cells recognize intracellular antigens but helper T cells recognize extracellular antigens. Question 261 / 1 pts An interaction between two immune cells and an antigen is shown in the figure. MHCI and the T cell receptor are sticking out from the surface of cell 1 and cell 2 respectively and interacting with each other as shown. Identify the immune cells. cell 1: APC, cell 2: phagocyte cell 1: APC, cell 2: B cell Correct! cell 1: nucleated cell, cell 2: CD8 T cell cell 1: APC, cell 2: CD4 T cell Question 271 / 1 pts Why does antibody concentration fade over time with acquired passive immunotherapy but increase over time with acquired active immunotherapy? Select all that apply. Active immunotherapy is acquired by artificial means and is more concentrated. Correct! Passive immunotherapy is direct injection of antibodies that can break down over time. Correct! Active immunotherapy is direct injection of antigen so the person's own immune system responds to make antibodies. Question 281 / 1 pts Select all of the following that would either enhance or reduce a phagocyte's ability to bind to a microbe. The microbe is an enveloped virus. Correct! Initiation of the complement cascade results in the microbe being coated in the complement protein C3b. Correct! A DNA mutation that causes alteration in the phagocyte's Toll-Like Receptors. Correct! The microbe aquired the ability to make a capsule. Question 291 / 1 pts What makes IgM particularly effective at controlling the spread of an infection in a host? Select all that apply. Correct! It is the first type of antibody produced by the adaptive immune system. It is secreted from the mucous membranes. Correct! Its multiple antigen binding sites enable it to agglutinate many microbes at once. Question 301 / 1 pts Your neighbor's child has been diagnosed with a disease that causes the child to make no antibodies. Which of the following functions is this child still able to perform at normal levels? Stop viruses from binding to cells. Stop toxins from damaging host tissues. Increase the activity of phagocytic cells. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity Correct! Activate cytotoxic T-lymphocytes that kill infected cells.

Week 4 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/assignments/10754058

Question 10.25 / 0.25 pts An inoculated thioglycolate medium culture tube shows dense growth at the surface and is clear throughout the rest of the tube. What is your conclusion? The organisms cannot tolerate oxygen. The organisms should be grown without oxygen. Correct! The organisms are able to perform aerobic respiration. The organisms are facultative anaerobes. The organisms are obligate anaerobies. Question 20.25 / 0.25 pts You're measuring the number of cells in a culture by turbidometry. You measure them at 8am and then again at 10am. The turbidity of the culture is LESS at 10am. In what growth phase is the culture? Exponential growth phase Lag phase Correct! Death phase Stationary phase Question 30.25 / 0.25 pts Which organisms can produce ATP by fermentation or anaerobic respiration? a and b a, b, and c a, b, c and e Correct! b, c, and d b, c, d, and e Question 40.25 / 0.25 pts Which of the organisms in the figure has the LONGEST doubling time? Geobacillus stearothermophilus Escherichia coli Correct! Neisseria meningitidis More information is required to determine doubling time. Question 50.25 / 0.25 pts Refer to the table. Bacteria culture A is most likely in the _____ growth phase and bacteria culture B is most likely in the ____ growth phase. Number of cells at time 1 Number of cells at time 2 Bacterial culture A 152 150 Bacteria culture B 562 36 lag, stationary death, birth log, death Correct! stationary, death death, lag Question 60.25 / 0.25 pts Which organisms can tolerate oxygen but CANNOT perform aerobic respiration? a b Correct! d b and d b, d,and e Question 70.25 / 0.25 pts The doubling time of a bacterium was measured at two different temperatures. Which results would be expected of a thermophile? 20 minutes at 10⁰C; 220 minutes at 37⁰C 220 minutes at 10⁰C; 20 minutes at 37⁰C no growth at 10⁰C; 20 minutes at 37⁰C 20 minutes at 42⁰C; 220 minutes at 62⁰C Correct! 220 minutes at 42⁰C; 20 minutes at 62⁰C Question 80.25 / 0.25 pts Which organisms require oxygen for metabolism/energy production? a Correct! a and e a, b, and e a, b, d, and e All organisms Question 90.25 / 0.25 pts Assuming unlimited resources and space, which line from the graph on the right best depicts a psychrophile grown at 37°C? a b Correct! c Question 100.25 / 0.25 pts Which of the following phases of the bacterial growth curve is matched with the correct definition stationary phase--the phase in which cells are not dividing very rapidly as they acclimatize to a new environment Correct! exponential growth phase--the phase in which organisms are actively dividing and the generation time is constant death phase--the phase in which the curve is flat; microbial deaths balance the number of new cells lag phase--the phase in which the death of organisms exceeds the creation of new cells and the curve declines Question 110.25 / 0.25 pts You are a dairy farmer and need to determine if a batch of milk contains any live E. coli. Because you have to ship the batch of milk out in 6 hours, you need to know the results quickly. You have to consider that E. coli is a motile bacteria but do not need to distinguish live from dead cells. Assume you have all the necessary equipment for any method of quantifying microorganisms, which would you use for your purposes? viable plate count microscope cell count Correct! spectrophotometer

Week 15 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554882

Question 10.25 / 0.25 pts Each of the following results in drug resistance, except a drug being pumped out of the cell. a drug binding site being altered. a drug being inactivated. a drug being blocked from entering the cell. Correct! a drug being used as a nutrient by the cell. Question 20.25 / 0.25 pts A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobial drugs in broth and then incubates each drug dilution with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up? A Kirby-Bauer technique Correct! A minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) test An antibiogram An Ames test A therapeutic index (TI) Question 30.25 / 0.25 pts Some penicillin-resistant bacteria are capable of making β-lactamase enzymes that can ___ penicillin by breaking the bond labeled ____. dilute, 2 alter, 2 activate, 3 Correct! inactivate, 3 sensitize, 4 Question 40.25 / 0.25 pts An elderly patient develops severe watery diarrhea during a two-week course of tetracycline therapy. This is most likely due to the ____ of the antibiotic and destruction of the normal microbiota of the gut that leads to ____. narrow-spectrum nature; toxic side effects narrow-spectrum nature; inflammation Correct! broad-spectrum nature; development of a superinfection broad-spectrum nature; an allergy Question 50.25 / 0.25 pts Cells were exposed to varying concentrations of an antibiotic. Which of the following mechanisms of action of this antibiotic could be supported by the data below? Inhibition of Correct! peptidoglycan linkage. nuclear function. plasma membrane formation. 80s ribosome. teichoic acid formation. Question 60.25 / 0.25 pts Which of the following modes of action would be the most selectively toxic when treating a bacterial infection in a human? Correct! preventing cell wall synthesis inhibiting DNA replication inhibiting protein synthesis interrupting ribosomal function dissolving the cell membrane Question 70.25 / 0.25 pts A patient is infected with a bacteria that is producing Beta-lactamase. Which of the following antimicrobial drugs or drug combinations could still have an affect on this bacteria? Penicillin Beta-lactamase inhibitor Correct! Penicillin prescribed along with a Beta-lactamase inhibitor Correct! Quinolone Question 80.25 / 0.25 pts Cases of whooping cough, caused by Bordetella pertussis infection, are increasing in Kentucky. Previously successful treatment with erythromycin is now failing. What structure in pertussis is most likely affected by a mutation that is making the organism more resistant to this antibiotic? Peptidoglycan Cell membrane Gyrase Correct! Ribosome Question 90.25 / 0.25 pts Table 7.1 A disk-diffusion test using E. coli gave the following results: Disinfectant Zone of inhibition (mm) A 0 B 3.2 C 10 D 5 In Table 7.1, the zone of inhibition is a measure of the depth of the agar surrounding the antibiotic-soaked disc. Correct! the diameter of the area where E. coli growth is prevented. the diameter of the paper disc. the diameter of antibiotic diffusion into the agar plate from the paper disc. the length of bacteria growth on the agar plate. Question 100.25 / 0.25 pts Why do antimicrobial drugs like erythromycin that target protein synthesis in bacteria also harm human cells at high doses? Correct! Human cells have a 70S ribosome derived from bacteria in their mitochondria. Human and bacterial proteins both require peptide bond formation. Human and bacteria cells use the same amino acids to build proteins. Human and bacteria cells use the same mRNA to translate proteins. Question 110.25 / 0.25 pts In what clinical situation is it most appropriate to use a broad-spectrum antimicrobial? In an example of a mild pediatric otitis media (middle ear) infection. We can't properly test for the specific drug that would best eliminate the infection due to its location, so we use a broad-spectrum drug instead. Correct! In a case of bacterial meningitis. The infection spreads so quickly that we must treat it with an antibacterial drug as quickly as possible. We don't have time to determine which drug will work best, because the patient will die in the meantime. In a case of Staphylococcus aureus skin infection. Since this microbe can be resistant to several types of drugs, we want to use one that has the broadest spectrum possible to treat this microbe-specific infection. In a case of Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV), a microbe that infects the respiratory mucous membranes and can make patients ill for weeks. Question 120.25 / 0.25 pts Select the best description of competitive inhibition of sulfa drugs on synthesis of folic acid. Sulfa drugs mimic the shape of folic acid and competitively inhibit its binding to the enzyme active site. Sulfa drugs prevent folic acid from binding to PABA. Sulfa drugs bind to PABA and form a co-repressor to inhibit enzyme activity. Correct! Sulfa drugs mimic the shape of PABA and competitively inhibit its binding to the enzyme active site.

Week 11 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554881

Question 10.3 / 0.3 pts A patient has a fever and the causative pathogen can be found undamaged inside the phagocyte. Predict what the pathogen has done to avoid destruction by the phagocyte. It altered the motility of the phagocyte. It prevented phagocyte adherence to its surface. It caused opsonization. It switched from aerobic to anaerobic respiration. Correct! It prevented formation of the phagolysosome. Question 20.3 / 0.3 pts Syphilis is a sexually-transmitted infection caused by the bacteria Treponema pallidum. Syphilis was once treated by infecting the patient with the protozoa that causes malaria, Plasmodium falciparum. Malaria is a disease spread by an insect vector that is characterized by repeated cycles of fever, shaking, and chills. Why would this treatment control syphilis? Select all correct answers. Antibodies produced against falciparum would also bind to T. pallidum so both microbes would be targeted for destruction. Correct! Malaria will raise the host's body above the optimal growth temperature of T. pallidum. Both P. falciparum and T. pallidum will be trapped in the mucus secretions of the mucous membrane. Correct! Fever can lead to the production of iron-binding proteins so this essential nutrient is not available to T. pallidum or P. falciparum. Question 30.3 / 0.3 pts A host cell has been infected with a virus and releases paracrine cytokines to communicate to infected neighboring cells to undergo apoptosis and to uninfected neighboring cells to destroy RNA and stop making proteins . Answer 1:Correct!paracrine Answer 2:Correct!undergo apoptosis Answer 3:Correct!destroy RNA and stop making proteins Question 40.3 / 0.3 pts Lysozyme would be as a useful host defense in which of the following cases? Correct! Preventing entry of a pathogenic bacteria into the upper respiratory tract. Enhancing a phagocyte's ability to engulf an infecting microbe. Activating the complement cascade to stimulate antibody production. Recruiting immune cells to the area of infection by chemotaxis. Lifting inhaled microbes to the upper respiratory tract so they can be swallowed or released by coughing/sneezing. Question 50.3 / 0.3 pts Place the phases of phagocytosis in the correct order: Correct!1 Chemotaxis and adherence to the pathogen Correct!2 Phagocyte internalizes microbe Correct!3 Formation of phagolysosome Correct!4 Digestion of microbe by enzymes Correct!5 Discharge of waste material Question 60.3 / 0.3 pts Which list of three terms best describes innate immunity? Correct! quick, nonspecific, and unchanged from birth mucous membranes, T cells, and B cells slow, specific, and unchanged from birth specific, specialized, and antibodies antibodies, complement, and phagocytosis Question 70.3 / 0.3 pts Which of the following is NOT a way that the complement system helps to fight infections? The microbe is coated in complement proteins, which enhances phagocytosis. The membrane attack complex leads to microbe bursting. Correct! Cytotoxicity causes infected cells to undergo apoptosis. Chemotactic signals bring phagocytes to the area. Inflammatory molecules are released. Question 80.1 / 0.3 pts Select all of the following that are shared characteristics between pathogenic microbes and normal microbiota. Correct! adherence to host tissues release of toxins Correct! entering the host by a portal of entry Correct Answer activates an immune response You Answered disrupts the normal functioning of the host Question 90.3 / 0.3 pts Digestion of microorganisms occurs in phagosomes. True Correct! False

Week 8 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554903

Question 10.3 / 0.3 pts Blackheads differ from whiteheads because whiteheads are covered by skin, whereas blackheads are open to the air. What causes the dark coloration? Correct! Lipids within the sebum react with air, resulting in chemical oxidation and the formation of the black color. Sebum is always a dark color, but it is more concentrated in blackheads and is visible because there is no skin covering it. The dead cells turn black as they die. The sebum, dead cells, and lipids within the pore are naturally dark. Question 20.3 / 0.3 pts Select the diagnostic test for MRSA that is described correctly. Correct! Gram stain - to identify cell wall structures that are present in S. aureus. Blood agar - bacterial growth on this petri dish demonstrates that the microbe can produce enzyme for making blood clot. Coagulase test - microbes able to produce coagulase will cause the liquid plasma to change color. Mannitol salt agar - S. aureus will not grow on this type of media. Question 30.3 / 0.3 pts Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of tuberculosis infection? Treatment requires a minimum of 2 months of antibiotic therapy. The adaptive immune response is mostly cell mediated, because Mycobacterium tuberculosis lives and reproduces inside macrophages. Correct! A TB diagnosis can be rapidly confirmed because the organism that causes this disease grows quickly. An individual could become infected by standing next to an infected person who is coughing. Question 40.3 / 0.3 pts Which of the following would result in a positive tuberculin skin test? Active TB Dormant TB Previous exposure to TB Vaccination with BCG Correct! All of these choices would results in a positive tuberculin skin test. Question 50.3 / 0.3 pts The influenza vaccine is made by combining the most prevalent strains from the previous flu season. Which event would MOST reduce the effectiveness of the new vaccine? The flu virus undergoes and antigenic drift and the Neuraminidase spike is altered. A single base mutation in the RNA genome of the flu virus spontaneously occurs. Correct! An avian (bird) flu combines with a human flu to make a new hybrid flu strain. The summer is especially wet which increases the amount of allergens in the environment. Question 60.3 / 0.3 pts Chlamydia and gonorrhea can infect the ___ of men and women. Correct! urethra epididymis cervix endometrium fallopian tube Question 70.3 / 0.3 pts The H1N1 swine flu was a worldwide pandemic in 2009. It was named for a similar virus found in pigs and for the two main antigens always present in flu viruses. H for ____ antigen that controls attachment to host cells and N for ____ antigen that controls release from host cells. hemoglobin, neural hemolytic, neomycin Correct! hemagglutinin, neuraminidase homologous, necrotizing factor Question 80.3 / 0.3 pts The lower respiratory tract is protected by all of the following EXCEPT alveolar macrophages. IgA antibodies. the ciliary escalator. Correct! competition with the normal flora of the lungs. mucous secretions. Question 90.3 / 0.3 pts Most pathogens that gain access through the skin can penetrate intact skin. can get past the mucociliary escalator. Correct! enter through hair follicles and sweat ducts. must adhere first to mucous membranes before penetrating. Question 100.3 / 0.3 pts As the Covid-19 pandemic spreads, healthcare systems in all parts of the world are being overwhelmed because there aren't enough medical workers and medical equipment to support patients with Covid. This is leading to an increase in fatalities among Covid patients from an estimated 2-3% at the start of the pandemic to ~5.5% currently. This represents an increase in the ___ of Covid-19. Correct! CFR incubation period mutation rate Ro zoonosis

Week 9 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554887

Question 10.3 / 0.3 pts The primary virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is ______. a hemolysin an endotoxin fimbriae an exotoxin a protease Question 20.3 / 0.3 pts Helicobacter pylori can grow in the stomach because it hides in macrophages. makes a capsule. makes urease enzyme that neutralizes HCl. makes HCl that raises the stomach pH. Question 30.3 / 0.3 pts Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is incorrect? It is a sexually transmitted infection. Females can have asymptomatic infections. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), epididymitis, and infertility are complications. A lesion develops at the portal of entry. Symptoms include painful urination and discharge. Question 40.3 / 0.3 pts Which of the following is not a defense of the genitourinary tract? Peristalsis Mucus secretions Lysozyme IgA Flushing action of urine Question 50.3 / 0.3 pts Your stomach pH becomes more neutral as a side-effect of taking an antacid because you're suffering from heartburn. How might taking the antacid also lead to the development of peptic ulcers in your stomach? The virulence factor of producing urease is not required for H. pylori to grow in your stomach. A neutral pH in the stomach wil damage the mucus lining. Exotoxins are able to last longer in the stomach. You will eat more spicy food, which will promote growth of H. pylori. Question 60.3 / 0.3 pts Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE? It is a bacterial infection. A healthy carrier state exists. The mortality rate is high. It is often associated with poultry products. The infection is usually not treated because it is self-limiting. Question 70.3 / 0.3 pts "Rice water stools" are characteristic of salmonellosis. typhoid fever. cholera. Helicobacter pylori infection. ulceritis. Question 80.3 / 0.3 pts In April 1990, the El Paso County (Colorado) Health Department recognized an outbreak of drug-resistant gonorrhea in Colorado Springs. 56 cases of penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonorrheae occurred from December 1989 through March 1991. To gather information about the outbreak, 410 persons related through a densely connected set of social or sexual associations were interviewed. What can public health workers tell individuals in this network to stop the spread of Gonorrhea in this population? Preventive treatment with penicillin will prevent Gonorrhea infection in individuals not already infected. Only individuals with symptoms should seek medical screening since all cases of Gonorrhea are associated with symptoms. Condoms will not prevent the spread of Gonorrhea. Gonorrhea can spread from an infected mother to a fetus. Gonorrhea is more prevalent in individuals 24 years and older. Question 90.3 / 0.3 pts Chlamydia is the most common reportable sexually-transmitted infection (STI) in the United States. True False Question 100.3 / 0.3 pts Which of the following statements about salmonellosis is FALSE? It is a bacterial infection. A healthy carrier state exists. It is a self-limiting infection. The mortality rate is high. It is often associated with poultry products.

Week 3 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/assignments/10754046

Question 10.35 / 0.35 pts Often the mnemonic device "OIL RIG" is used to remember the principles of redox reactions. Oxidation Is Loss and Reduction Is Gain of what? Correct! Electrons Hydrogen Oxygen only Oxygen and electrons Question 20.35 / 0.35 pts Which of the following is a redox reaction that occurs in the citric acid cycle? ADP + Pi -> ATP glucose -> 2 pyruvate acetyl CoA -> CoA Correct! NAD+ -> NADH Question 30.35 / 0.35 pts Which of the following statements about noncompetitive inhibition of enzymes is TRUE? The noncompetitive inhibitor fits into the enzyme active site. The noncompetitive inhibitor and substrate can be bound to the enzyme at the same time. Correct! The noncompetitive inhibitor binds to the enzyme and causes the active site to change shape. Noncompetitive inhibitors only bind to the enzyme when they are present in high concentrations. The presence of a noncompetitive inhibitor would increase the amount of reaction products formed. Question 40.35 / 0.35 pts What is the purpose of NADH and FADH2 in aerobic respiration? They accept electrons at the end of the electron transport system. Correct! They carry electrons to the electron transport system. They pump H+ against the concentration gradient. They are enzymes that make ATP. They catalyze chemical reactions essential for metabolism. Question 50.35 / 0.35 pts The bacterium Escherichia coli is capable of performing aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and fermentation. When would it perform fermentation? E. coli would perform fermentation if the only electron acceptor was oxygen. E. coli would perform fermentation if the an electron acceptor other than oxygen were available. Correct! E. coli would perform fermentation if there were no electron acceptor. E. coli would perform fermentation in order to use the Electron Transport System. E. coli would perform fermentation for the most efficient means of using glucose to produce ATP. Question 60.35 / 0.35 pts Which of the following forms of metabolism produces the MOST ATP per molecule of glucose? Correct! Aerobic respiration Anaerobic respiration Lactic acid fermentation Alcohol fermentation Question 70.35 / 0.35 pts Which molecule holds the LEAST amount of energy? ATP NADH FADH2 glucose Correct! CO2 Question 80.35 / 0.35 pts Which of the following statements describes BOTH aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration? Between 2 and 38 molecules of ATP are produced per molecule of glucose input. Can generate ATP in the absence of oxygen. Process does not include the Krebs cycle. Correct! Process involves the Electron Transport System and chemiosmosis. Water is produced as a byproduct. Question 90.35 / 0.35 pts Glycolysis is utilized by cells in both respiration and fermentation. Correct! True False Question 100.35 / 0.35 pts How would a noncompetitive inhibitor interfere with a reaction involving the enzyme and molecules shown below? It would bind to a. Correct! It would bind to b. It would bind to c. It would bind to d. The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Week 12 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554888

Question 10.4 / 0.4 pts An individual contracted the Zika virus, which entered the host's cells where it will replicate itself. What type of immune cell in the host will recognize Zika antigens? B cells T helper cells Correct! cytotoxic T cells macrophage Question 20.4 / 0.4 pts M. tuberculosis can adhere to the lung tissue or can reside inside the cytoplasm of a human macrophage cell. Which of these forms of M. tuberculosis infection would be targeted by CD8+ cytotoxic T cells? M. tuberculosis adhering to the lung tissue Correct! M. tuberculosis inside a macrophage Either form of M. tuberculosis infection Neither form of M. tuberculosis infection Question 30.4 / 0.4 pts Table 1 Thymic selection of newly-formed T cells Binds to MHC? Binds to autoantigen? New T cell #1 yes yes New T cell #2 no no New T cell #3 no no New T cell #4 yes no Based on the information in Table 1, which of the four newly formed T cells will be allowed to develop into a mature T cell? #1 #2 #3 Correct! #4 Question 40.4 / 0.4 pts Which of the following most accurately describes how a pathogenic bacterium might be affected by antibodies? The antibodies may coat the surface of the bacteria, allowing for it to be tagged for phagocytosis. The antibodies may block proteins necessary for the pathogen to bind to the host. The antibodies may stick to multiple bacteria, causing agglutination. Correct! The antibodies may block proteins necessary for the pathogen to bind to the host, may coat the bacterium, or may agglutinate bacteria. Question 50.27 / 0.4 pts All nucleated cells cells express MHC class I molecules on their surface so that they can display exogenous antigens that are infecting them . Answer 1:Correct!All nucleated cells Answer 2:Correct Answerintracellular You Answeredexogenous Answer 3:Correct!are infecting them Question 60.4 / 0.4 pts Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE? They can prevent viral attachment to a host cell They can facilitate phagocyte attack on a bacteria Correct! They can penetrate host cells to bind endogenous antigens They can facilitate cytolysis of cells They can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming complexes Question 70.4 / 0.4 pts The adaptive immune response differs from the innate response in that Correct! the adaptive immune response targets specific immunogens and remembers them, mounting an even stronger response on subsequent encounters, whereas the innate response is nonspecific and has no memory. B and T lymphocytes can each target multiple proteins, whereas the innate response targets only a single type of antigen. the adaptive immune response involves physical barriers and nonspecific processes, whereas the innate immune response relies on the actions of B and T lymphocytes. the innate immune response targets microbes that get into host cells, whereas the adaptive response targets only exogenous antigens. Question 80.4 / 0.4 pts Scientists can develop genetically modified strains of mice. Describe the immunological impairments that mice deficient in MHCI or in MHCII would have. Mice deficient in MHCI and MHCII would both be unable to phagocytize invading pathogens. Mice deficient in MHCI would be unable to phagocytize invading pathogens and mice deficient in MHCII would be unable to recognize self. Correct! Mice deficient in MHCI would be unable to present intracelluar antigens to T cells while mice deficient in MHCII would be unable to present extracellular antigens to T cells. Mice deficient in MHCI would be unable to present extracellular antigens to T cells while mice deficient in MHCII would be unable to recognize self. Mice deficient in MHCI would unable to recognize antigens and produce antibodies while mice deficient in MHCII would have dysfunctional cytotoxic T. Question 90.4 / 0.4 pts The histocompatibility complex proteins (MHC) function in antigen presentation. recognition of self. B cell maturation. Correct! antigen presentation AND recognition of self. antigen presentation, recognition of self, AND B cell maturation. Question 100.4 / 0.4 pts Human breast milk contains lactoferrin, lysozyme, secretory IgA, IgG, and complement C3. Identify all of the components that are part of the adaptive immune response. lactoferrin lysozyme Correct! IgA Correct! IgG C3 Question 110.4 / 0.4 pts Which of the following is the best definition of epitope? specific regions on antigens that interact with antigens specific regions on antigens that interact with phagocytes specific regions on antigens that interact with peptidoglycan Correct! specific regions on antigens that interact with antibodies specific regions on antigens that interact with immunoglobulins

Week 14 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554889

Question 10.4 / 0.4 pts ______ is very toxic but is commonly used to disinfect hospital equipment and kills microbes by inactivating their proteins. Soap Correct! Formaldehyde Alcohol Bleach Arsenic Question 20.4 / 0.4 pts Which of the graphs in the figure best depict the effect of placing a culture of bacteria in an autoclave at time x? a Correct! b c d e Question 30.4 / 0.4 pts ______ is the preservation of beef jerky from microbial growth by removal of water and is a ____ form of microbial control. Radiation, bactericidal Filtration, bacteriostatic Desiccation, bactericidal Correct! Desiccation, bacteriostatic Radiation, desiccation Question 40.4 / 0.4 pts In order to prepare instruments for surgery, it is necessary to sterilize them which is Correct! removal of all microbial life. using chemicals to temporarily prevent their growth. lowering microbial counts in order to meet public health standards. placing them in a freezer to slow microbial growth. Question 50.4 / 0.4 pts Why does milk eventually spoil despite being pasteurized? Pasteurization is bacteriostatic and prevents growth of microbes in the milk but doesn't kill them. Pasteurization does not kill Gram-negative bacteria. Correct! Pasteurization reduces the microbe count in the milk and doesn't achieve sterilization. Only bacteria that have a capsule are killed by pasteurization and these bacteria will increase in numbers and eventually spoil the milk. Question 60.4 / 0.4 pts Which of the following regarding antimicrobial control agents is FALSE? Contaminating organic debris such as blood or sputum decreases effectiveness. Some agents kill by denaturing microbial cell proteins. Soap and detergent are good at degerming because they are surface-active agents. Phenols are no longer used in surgery because they cause skin irritation. Correct! Alcohol is most effective at 100% concentration. Question 70.4 / 0.4 pts Moist heat destroys organisms by denaturing proteins. Correct! True False Question 80.4 / 0.4 pts Which of the following statements are FALSE? Pasteurization reduces the presence of microbial life but does not achieve sterility. Antisepsis is the removal of microbial life from a living surface. Use of an autoclave or dry heat can remove all microbial life. Correct! Before surgery, the patient's skin must be disinfected. Preserving fruit in sugar is bactericidal for microbes in the fruit. Question 90.4 / 0.4 pts A sample of E. coli has been subjected to heat for 17 minutes and all of the cells in the sample are destroyed. Which of the following terms best describes this event? thermal death point Correct! thermal death time thermal death rate heat sterilization point heat pasteurization rate Question 100.4 / 0.4 pts Which of the following statements are FALSE? Pasteurization reduces the presence of microbial life but does not achieve sterility. Antisepsis is the removal of microbial life from a living surface. Use of an autoclave or dry heat can remove all microbial life. Correct! Before surgery, the patient's skin must be disinfected. Preserving fruit in sugar is bactericidal for microbes in the fruit. Question 110.5 / 0.5 pts You use a germicide to destroy various types of microbes on surfaces in your house. You have to leave the germicide on the kitchen counter for 1 minute to kill all of the enveloped viruses contaminating it from the chicken you prepared for dinner. If you want to use the same chemical in the bathroom to kill the sporulating Clostridium bacteria in the toilet, you should ____ the incubation time with the same chemical. Correct! increase decrease not change Question 120.5 / 0.5 pts Cattle feed mixed with 106 coli was subject to heating at 55°C, 60°C, and 65°C. The number of E. coli remaining in the feed after heating for 120 seconds is shown below. Estimate the thermal death time for the E. coli in cattle feed at 65°C. Temperature (C) E. coli remaining after 120s 55 1000 60 800 65 650 Correct Answer Correct! >120 seconds <120 seconds >65C <65C between 55-65C

Week 1 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554883

Question 10.5 / 0.5 pts Which of the following is correct and supports the argument that most microbes do not cause harm to humans. Microbes are capable of infecting humans and causing disease. Overuse of antibiotics has led to microbe resistance to these drugs. Correct! Microbes can perform photosynthesis, decomposition, and be used in food production. Virulent microbes cause severe disease. A healthy human does not have microorganisms growing in their body normally. Question 20.5 / 0.5 pts You are peer reviewer for a scientific article about MRSA and the authors have incorrectly written the microbe name as staphylococcus A. How would you correct the error in how the microbe name is written? capitalize the S in the genus name, change the A in the species to lower case write out the full species name abbreviate staphylococcus so the microbe name is written as s. A. write only the species name in italics Correct! capitalize the S in the genus name, change the A in the species to lower case AND write out the full species name Question 30.5 / 0.5 pts A student has obtained a sample of pond water for study. Using the high-power lens, he observes several cells with nuclei. He can conclude that the cells are NOT bacteria. Correct! True False Question 40.5 / 0.5 pts The Valley of the Drums is a site in Bullitt County, KY that is contaminated with a toxic waste called PCB (polychlorinated biphenyl). This site may be a good candidate for microbial genetic engineering. nutrient recycling and decomposition. infectious disease. Correct! bioremediation. biome. Question 50.5 / 0.5 pts Which of the following describe a virus outside of a host cell? DNA or RNA genome Using the host cell to reproduce and form new viruses Part of the Domain Eukarya in the phylogenetic tree of life Inactive Correct! DNA or RNA genome AND Inactive. Question 60 / 0.5 pts In 1994 a civil war in Rwanda displaced 3.9 million people, many of whom fled to refugee camps in Goma, Zaire. Conditions in refugee camps led to rapid spread of infectious diseases including a disease causing severe, watery diarrhea. Microbes isolated from the stool samples of these patients with Gram stained showed a curved, Gram negative microorganism to be present. This microbe was identified as Vibrio cholerae. Based on this information and what you know from chapter 3, what can you conclude? The V. cholerae will be present in grape-like clusters of arrangement. The V. cholerae have a single plasma membrane and a thick peptidoglycan cell wall. You Answered V. cholerae does not have a capsule since it is a Gram-negative microbe. Correct Answer V. cholerae has a two plasma membranes that surround a peirplasmic space and a peptidoglycan cell wall. Question 70.5 / 0.5 pts Select all of the conclusions that can be drawn from Pasteur's experiments w the S-shaped flasks? Pasteur's observations support the theory of spontaneous generation. Correct! Microbial life can be destroyed by heat. Beef broth is an unsuitable environment for growing microorganisms. Microbial life can arise from nonliving matter. Correct! Microbes can be blocked from accessing favorable growth conditions. Correct! Microorganisms can be present in nonliving mater, such as air, liquids, and solids. Question 80.5 / 0.5 pts You have isolated a mutant strain of Serratia marscesens that has an abnormal ribosome that is not functioning well. Which of the following might be affected by this change? motility ability to survive harsh environmental conditions biofilm formation Correct! production of proteins three dimensional shape of the cell Question 90.5 / 0.5 pts How does having a capsule increase the virulence of a bacteria cell? A glycocalyx gives bacteria antibiotic resistance. Correct! Bacteria with a glycocalyx cannot be phagocytized by immune cells. The glycocalyx speeds up asexual reproduction of the bacteria. The glycocalyx increases bacteria motility. Question 100.5 / 0.5 pts Why would breaking the flask at 'a' most likely lead to contamination of the broth? Correct! The allows for cell contaminants in the air to easily reach the broth. A break at 'a' prevents microbes from entering the broth. A break at 'a' would allow the steam to vent when the broth is boiled. Life would be observed in the broth because the abiogenesis theory shows that life comes from nonlife. A break at 'a' wouldn't change this fact.

Week 5 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/assignments/10754042

Question 10.5 / 0.5 pts You are in charge of fermentation for Your Favorite Yogurt Company. One day you get a frantic call from your fermentation technologist. It appears that the bacterial cultures in vat one have all lysed due to a bacteriophage infection. You must quickly come up with a solution to keep the yogurt production going. Treat all bacterial cultures with an antibiotic to kill the bacteriophage. Correct! Create a mutant bacterial strain to use in your fermentation process that has a deletion of the gene encoding the receptor used by the bacteriophage to bind to the bacterium. Add more sugar to the bacterial cultures that promote growth of bacteria and not bacteriophage. Create a mutant bacterial strain to use in your fermentation process that overproduces the gene encoding the receptor used by the bacteriophage to bind to the bacterium. Question 20.5 / 0.5 pts Which statement about horizontal gene transfer is associated with conjugation? This mechanism may result in the transfer of genes that encode antibiotic resistance. This mechanism requires direct cell-to-cell contact. This mechanism of genetic transfer always involves a one-way transfer from a donor cell to a recipient cell. This mechanism is initiated by cells with F plasmids. Correct! All of these statements are associated with conjugation. Question 30.5 / 0.5 pts Which of the following statements describes the process of horizontal gene transfer? Correct! Gaining a single new gene sequence from outside of the cell. Replication of genomic DNA to be passed on the daughter cells. A DNA mutation that is passed on to offspring by the process of DNA replication and cell division. DNA transferred to the next generation of bacteria from a related cell. Question 40.5 / 0.5 pts You add the two bacteria shown in the figure below to the same tube with liquid growth media. After a 24 hour incubation with shaking, you are able to identify B. cereus cells that contain the pX01 and pX02 genes. Which explains how B. cereus most likely acquired pX01 and pX02? Correct! horizontal gene transfer mutation vertical gene transfer DNA replication horizontal gene transfer OR mutation Question 50.5 / 0.5 pts A cell is unable to replicate its DNA because the double helix will not open into a replication fork. This is probably due to a malfunctioning of which enzyme? primase DNA polymerase ligase Correct! helicase Question 60.5 / 0.5 pts What is the hallmark of all horizontal gene transfers? Transfer of DNA using a virus. Transfer of DNA from parent to offspring. The use of plasmids. Correct! Transfer of DNA between organisms of the same generation. Question 70.5 / 0.5 pts Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by mutation. conjugation. transduction and conjugation. transformation and conjugation. Correct! mutation,conjugation, transduction, and transformation. Question 80.5 / 0.5 pts What is the difference between an F+ and an Hfr cell? An F+ cell has genes that enable it to extend a pilus to a recipient cell, Hfr does not. An Hfr cell can be both a donor and a recipient, F+ can be only a donor during conjugation. The Hfr has only a portion of the F factor genes while F+ has all of the F factor genes. Correct! The F factor genes are present in both but are incorporated into the bacterial chromosome in Hfr cells only. Question 90.5 / 0.5 pts In transduction, an error occurs in one of the steps in the phage replication cycle. Which statement correctly explains the error? The phage releases a piece of naked DNA into the environment. The phage enters the lysogenic cycle so that when the bacteria cell divides viral DNA is passed on to offspring. The F plasmid recombines with the bacterial chromosome. Correct! When the phage is constructed inside the bacteria cell, bacterial DNA is inserted into the capsid. Virulence genes are transferred from one bacteria cell to another through a pilus. Question 100.5 / 0.5 pts What is the benefit of complementary base pairing in the DNA molecule? The replicated DNA molecules have old and new genetic information in them. Correct! One strand can serve as a template for construction of a second strand during DNA replication. It enables more codon combinations from the four base pairs. Both DNA strands can be synthesized as leading strands. Question 110.5 / 0.5 pts In Griffiths experiment with pneumoniae and mice, why did the smooth S strain bacteria kill the mice while the rough R strain bacteria did not? The R strain is not able to acquire genes by horizontal gene transfer. The S strain produces toxins that kill the mouse while the R strain doesn't produce these toxins. Correct! The S strain cannot be phagocytized by the mouse's immune cells. The R strain reproduces more slowly than the S strain so doesn't kill the mouse. Question 120.5 / 0.5 pts The figure below shows growth of Serratia marcescens on two petri dishes with (L) and without (R) the production of red pigment based on the temperature at which plates were incubated. Figure 2B shows DNA genomes of two bacteria species, Bacillus cereus and Bacillus anthracis. What is different between the two organisms in A and between the two organisms in B? A organisms have different genotype, B organisms have different genotype A organisms have different phenotype, B organisms have different phenotype A organisms have different genotype/phenotype, B organisms have different genotype/phenotype A organisms have different phenotype, B organisms have different genotype Correct! A organisms have different phenotype, B organisms have different genotype/phenotype

Week 13 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554891

Question 10.55 / 0.55 pts What type of vaccine is the live, weakened measles virus? subunit vaccine inactivated whole-cell vaccine Correct! attenuated whole-cell vaccine toxoid vaccine Question 20.55 / 0.55 pts All of the following events occur to elicit an antibody response. Put them in the order they occur from step 1 to step 5. Correct!Step 1 The Antigen-Presenting Cell phagocytizes antigen Correct!Step 2 Part of the digested antigen is presented on the surface of the Antigen-Presenting Cell Correct!Step 3 The helper T cell recognizes antigen-digest bound to MHC II Correct!Step 4 The helper T cell produces cytokines Correct!Step 5 B cell is activated Question 30.55 / 0.55 pts Which of the following contribute to the specificity of adaptive immunity? Correct! Each B and T cell has a unique receptor that recognizes antigen. B cells can be activated to become memory cells capable of handling a repeated infection. T cells release cytokines that control many aspects of adaptive immunity. T or B cells mature in the thymus or bone marrow and then circulate through the body. Question 40.55 / 0.55 pts In an experiment, an animal was injected with two different antigens. After several days, B lymphocytes were removed from the animal and the individual B cells were placed in separate small containers. Then the original two antigens were placed in the containers with each B cell. What results would you expect to observe? Correct! Some B cells produced an antibody to one of the antigens and not both of them. Correct! Some of the B cells did not produce antibodies to any of the antigens. Each of the B cells produced antibodies to both of the antigens. Question 50.55 / 0.55 pts Figure 1 shows the antibody response in a host following antigen exposure. Based on the figure, you can conclude that the antigen in the initial exposure and in the secondary exposure was _____. more concentrated in the secondary exposure Correct! the same antigen recognized by memory B cells each time more virulent in the secondary exposure Question 60.55 / 0.55 pts An example of artificial active immunity would be Correct! chickenpox vaccine triggering extended immunity to chickenpox. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. chickenpox infection, followed by lifelong immunity. Question 70.55 / 0.55 pts Streptococcal infections are extracellular. What adaptive immune cells are important in protecting against strep? T-helper cells Cytotoxic T-cells B-Cells Correct! T-helper cells and B-Cells T-helper cells and Cytotoxic T-cells Question 80.55 / 0.55 pts How do helper T-cells (CD4+) and cytotoxic T-cells (CD8+) work together? Cytotoxic T-cells produce cytokines to activate helper T-cells. Helper T-cells produce cytotoxic T-cells. Correct! Helper T-cells produce cytokines to activate cytotoxic T cells and other cells of the immune system. Cytotoxic T-cells attack abnormal body cells, while helper T-cells attack virally infected cells. Question 90.55 / 0.55 pts Which of the following would alter a B cell's ability to bind to an antigen? A reduction in the number of MHCI molecules on the B cell surface. Damage to the B cell's Toll-Like Receptors (TLRs). Correct! A DNA mutation that causes an alteration in the B cell receptor. Coating the B cell in antibody. Inhibition of the B cell's ability to present antigen on MHCII. Question 100.55 / 0.55 pts In vaccination, a person is exposed to material that is antigen but not pathogenic. Correct! True False

Week 7 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554884

Question 10.6 / 0.6 pts If the normal range for coccidioidomycosis is <200 cases on each continent, how would you categorize the occurrence of this disease in 2015 based on the data below? endemic sporadic Correct! epidemic pandemic Question 20.6 / 0.6 pts Why can the incidence of a disease never exceed the prevalence of that disease? The disease may be transmitted by an asymptomatic carrier. Correct! The prevalence includes all cases, both old and new while incidence includes only new cases. The incubation period for diseases can vary and cause the incidence to be low. Not true, incidence is always higher than prevalence. Question 30.6 / 0.6 pts A house fly transmits tularemia by carrying tularensis on its feet. This is an example of vehicle contact transmission. indirect contact transmission. Correct! mechanical transmission. biological transmission. droplet transmission. Question 40.6 / 0.6 pts There were five major cholera outbreaks in the 1800's that occurred all over the world and killed nearly 40 million people. During this time period, cholera can be classified as a(n) _____ disease. sporadic endemic epidemic Correct! pandemic Question 50.6 / 0.6 pts A Healthcare-Association Infection is always present, but is inapparent at the time of hospitalization. Correct! acquired during the course of hospitalization. always caused by medical personnel. only a result of surgery. always caused by pathogenic bacteria. Question 60.6 / 0.6 pts What is the correct definition of an endemic disease? Correct! a disease that is constantly present in a population a disease that affects a large number of people world-wide in a short time a disease that affects a population occasionally a disease that affects many people in a given area in a short period of time Question 70.6 / 0.6 pts A physician transmits Influenza from one patient to another patient because of viral contamination on the stethoscope. The flu was transmitted _____ via _____. directly, droplet directly, fomite indirectly, carrier Correct! indirectly, fomite by a vector, mechanical transmission Question 80.6 / 0.6 pts Scenario 14.1 During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people as a result of Coxiella burnettii infections. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept 30 miles northwest of the town, 95% of sheep tested were positive for C. burnetii. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years. The method of transmission of the disease in Situation 14.1 was direct contact. droplet. indirect contact. vector-borne. Correct! vehicle. Question 90.6 / 0.6 pts At the start of 2015, 36.5 million people were living with HIV in the world. If 2 million people contract HIV in 2015, what was the prevalence of HIV in the world at the end of 2015? (Assume the world population at the end of 2015 was 7.5 billion) 1 million/36.5 million 36.5 million/7.5 billion Correct! 38.5 million/7.5 billion 1 million/7.5 billion 2 million/36.5 billion

Week 6 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3569450

Question 10.6 / 0.6 pts The first step for directly linking a microbe to a specific disease according to Koch's postulates is to compare the blood of a sick animal to blood obtained from a healthy animal. isolate microbes from the blood of healthy animals. perform a Gram stain on microbes in the blood or other body fluid of a diseased animal. Correct! obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal. inject a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal into a healthy animal. Question 20.6 / 0.6 pts Bacterium Portal of Entry ID50 Staphylococcus aureus Wound 10 Staphylococcus aureus Wound + Ampicillin antibiotic 300 Based on the data in the table, if the wounds of 100 people were exposed to 10 Staphylococcus aureus cells without administration of ampicillin, what would be the outcome? All 100 wounds would be infected. There is a 10% chance the wound will be infected. Correct! There is a 50% chance the wound will be infected. About 300 wounds will be infected. All 100 people will die. Question 30.6 / 0.6 pts Match the virulence factor with its effect on a microbe's ability to invade and infect a host. Correct!Lipopolysaccharide Endotoxin produced by Gram negative bacteria that elicits a strong immune response in the host. Correct!Urease produced by H. pylori Exoenzyme produced to neutralize pH and enable the microbe to penetrate host tissues. Correct!Hyaluronidase produced by streptococci and staphylococci Exoenzyme produced to degrade connections between host cells. Correct!Botulinum toxin Disrupts the functioning of muscle cells to prevent contraction. Question 40.6 / 0.6 pts Endotoxins are associated with gram-positive bacteria. resistant to antibiotics. excreted from the cell. molecules that bind nerve cells. Correct! part of the gram-negative cell envelope. Question 50.6 / 0.6 pts How could disease transmission be stopped at the portal of exit? Correct! covering the mouth when sneezing AND wearing a condom. applying antimicrobial ointment to a wound. wearing a condom. covering the mouth when sneezing. washing hands. Question 60.6 / 0.6 pts A positive antibody test for HIV infection would be a _____ of infection. transmission syndrome Correct! sign defense symptom Question 70.6 / 0.6 pts In which of the following patterns of disease does the patient experience no signs or symptoms? Correct! incubation prodromal illness both incubation and illness convalescence Question 80.6 / 0.6 pts Which of the following violates Koch's postulates? S. pyogenes bacteria can only grow on highly nutritious media. M. tuberculosis is resistant to many types of antibiotic. Correct! V. cholera bacteria can be isolated from both cholera patients and healthy individuals. Infection of a healthy individual with M. tuberculosis bacteria causes development of tuberculosis.

Mini Exam 5 https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554893

Question 11 / 1 pts Case study 14 Your patient was admitted to the hospital in New Mexico when his condition worsened. He is severly ill with diarrhea, abdominal pain, vomiting, and low blood pressure. Yesterday, he developed massive bleeding under his skin, and bruises around his swollen lymph node. Diagnostics showed bacteremia and severe sepsis. He was treated with gentamycin, vancomycin, ciprofloxacin, doxycycline, and human activated protein C, but his condition worsened. His blood pressure dropped dramatically, and his kidneys began to fail. He was placed on mechanical ventilation and hemodialysis, and underwent unilateral amputation of one of his hands due to ischemia. What do you think is wrong with your patient? Correct! He has septicemic plague. He has pneumonic plague. He has the a virulent strain of the flu. He has meningitis. He has MRSA. Question 20 / 1 pts Outbreaks of impetigo have occurred at two local preschools. To determine if the two outbreaks are being caused by the same microbe, cotton swabs are used to take a sample of microbes from the blisters of children at each preschool. Samples are subjected to Gram stain and additional tests. Gram stain results indicate that samples from both preschools are Gram positive coccus bacteria. Results of the additional tests on the swab samples are shown below. What can you conclude about the microbe from preschool 1? Coagulase test Catalase test Blood agar growth/hemolysis Bacitracin Preschool 1 positive positive yes/yes resistant Preschool 2 negative negative yes/yes sensitive Correct Answer The microbe is S. aureus. The microbe is producing hyaluronidase. The microbe is S. pyogenes. The microbe would not be able to grow on mannitol salt agar. You Answered The microbe is S. aureus AND the microbe is producing hyaluronidase. Question 31 / 1 pts A patient comes into the ER with symptoms of meningitis. Select the true statements from below: Correct! It is important to treat the patient quickly. Correct! The patient aquired the menigitis by direct contact. Meningitis is always caused by a bacteria Correct! 25% of all cases of menigitis are caused by N. meningitidis The bacteria that causes meningitis also causes gonorrhea Question 41 / 1 pts Select all that can alter the normal microbiota present in the female urogenital system. Correct! sexual activity Correct! puberty Correct! hormones Correct! pH Correct! having children Question 50.75 / 1 pts Goblet cells secrete mucus containing substances like IgA that binds to microbes so immune cells can destroy them and IgA that breaks down the bacterial cell wall. Answer 1:Correct!Goblet cells Answer 2:Correct!mucus Answer 3:Correct!IgA Answer 4:Correct Answerlysozyme You AnsweredIgA Question 60.67 / 1 pts Tamiflu must be taken quickly after getting the flu because it inhibits [ Select ] ["neuraminidase", "hemagluttinin", "formation of the viral envelop", "viral genome replication"] , which is important for [ Select ] ["the virus to be released from the host cell", "the virus to infect the host cell", "the virus to complete it's replication cycle in the host cell"] . Answer 1:Correct!quickly Answer 2:Correct Answerneuraminidase You Answeredviral genome replication Answer 3:Correct!the virus to be released from the host cell Question 70.67 / 1 pts A short list of Covid-19 "facts" is being circulated on facebook. Find the statements that are not correct from this "fact" list. Correct Answer You cannot give another person Covid-19 if you are not experiencing symptoms. Correct! Covid-19 is the first coronavirus to infect humans. Some individuals that have Covid-19 but are asymptomatic carriers. Correct! The genes of the virus that causes Covid-19 are made of DNA. Covid-19 spreads by droplets released when a person speaks, coughs, sings, or sneezes are inhaled by another person. Question 81 / 1 pts Case study 14 Your patient was admitted to the hospital in New Mexico when his condition worsened. He is severly ill with diarrhea, abdominal pain, vomiting, and low blood pressure. Yesterday, he developed massive bleeding under his skin, and bruises around his swollen lymph node. Diagnostics showed bacteremia and severe sepsis. He was treated with gentamycin, vancomycin, ciprofloxacin, doxycycline, and human activated protein C, but his condition worsened. His blood pressure dropped dramatically, and his kidneys began to fail. He was placed on mechanical ventilation and hemodialysis, and underwent unilateral amputation of one of his hands due to ischemia. What do you think is wrong with your patient? Correct! He has septicemic plague. He has pneumonic plague. He has the a virulent strain of the flu. He has meningitis. He has MRSA. Question 91 / 1 pts You work at a small family practice. A man in their early fifties comes in with a complaint of intermittent fever and a minor headache. You are the physician that examines them and the only clinical finding is a wound on their thumb that does not appear infected and which they received while skinning a ground squirrel about three days ago. The patient also has several small bug bites, also not appearing infected, around the wrist of the hand with the wound. The lymph nodes at their neck are swollen but inside their throat looks normal and there are no other visible signs of illness. The patient is up to date on their vaccinations and also received the recommended shingles and influenza vaccines earlier this year. The patient has not been in contact with anyone known to be ill with an infection. A patient sample that you requested is sent to the diagnostic lab and subjected to a Gram stain. Although there appears a Gram-negative bacillus bacteria is present in the sample, results are inconclusive because numbers of bacteria were very low. Based on this, what is your immediate action? Wait for the sample to be cultured to determine the number of microbes present. Correct! Prescribe an antibiotic immediately and also culture the sample. Subject the blood sample to a coagulase test. Give the patient a shingles booster shot. Rapid genomic test to detect the presence of neuraminidase. Question 101 / 1 pts Put these steps in order in the pathogenesis of meningitis caused by N. meningitidis. Correct!1 N. meningitidis enters and attaches to the nasopharyngeal epithelium Correct!2 The organism passages through the mucosa and enters the blood Correct!3 N. meningitidis crosses the blood-brain barrier Correct!4 A massive influx of WBCs leads to increased pressure in the brain. Correct!5 Hearing, vision, motor skills impaired Question 111 / 1 pts Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of tuberculosis infection? Treatment requires a minimum of 2 months of antibiotic therapy. The adaptive immune response is mostly cell mediated, because Mycobacterium tuberculosis lives and reproduces inside macrophages. Correct! A TB diagnosis can be rapidly confirmed because the organism that causes this disease grows quickly. An individual could become infected by standing next to an infected person who is coughing. Question 121 / 1 pts As a new employee at a hospital, you are required to take the Mantoux skin test. After 48 hours, you return to the employee clinic to have your test read and it is positive. At this point, what can you conclude? You have tuberculosis. No further testing is required to determine if you have the disease. Your lungs are scarred with tubercles. You will have to get a BCG vaccine to prevent the disease from spreading to another person. Correct! You either have tuberculosis or been exposed to someone who has it. Question 131 / 1 pts The majority of chlamydia infections are asymptomatic. Correct! True False Question 141 / 1 pts Use the table below to compare the Ro and CFR values MERS-CoV,SARS-CoV, and SARS-CoV-2. Which statement is TRUE when comparing the 3 coronaviruses? RoCFRMERS-CoV0.936%SARS-CoV2.59%SARS-CoV-23.53.5% MERS-CoV is the least deadly. SARS-CoV-2 is the least contagious. Correct! SARS-CoV is the most contagious. SARS-CoV2 is the most contagious and the most deadly. Question 151 / 1 pts Vibrio cholera produces cholera toxin that causes release of ions into the intestinal lumen and leads to release of water into the lumen as well. diarrhea. rice water stools. severe dehydration. Correct! All of these answers occur as a result of cholera toxin. Question 161 / 1 pts The digestive tract is essentially one long tube. The order of the structures, beginning with the mouth, is Correct! pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine. esophagus, pharynx, stomach, small intestine, large intestine. pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine. esophagus, stomach, pharynx, small intestine, large intestine. pharynx, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine. Question 171 / 1 pts Yersinia pestis can infect the tissue of which of the following body systems? reproductive system digestive system nervous system Correct! lymphatic system reproductive system AND lymphatic system Question 181 / 1 pts A 4 year old named Beau develops a rash on their face around the nose and mouth that is crusty and yellowish. The wound is swabbed and tests show that the microbe infecting the wound is resistant to bacitracin and produces catalase. What can be concluded about the wound? Select all that apply. Correct! The wound is infected with S. aureus. Correct! If tested, the microbe would also be positive for coagulase production. S. pyogenes is infecting the wound. Correct! The wound should be treated with antibiotic cream. Question 191 / 1 pts Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is harmless on healthy, intact skin but can cause infection if introduced to other parts of the body. Correct! True False Question 201 / 1 pts Your friend meets you after a long run and is sweating so much that they have soaked through their shirt. What prevents pathogenic microbes from overgrowing in their sweaty armpits? Moisture prevents pathogen growth in the armpits. Most microbes prefer to grow in dry places. Mucus is antimicrobial and is released by the skin there to prevent pathogen growth. The structure of the hair follicles extends through the epidermis and dermis and prevents pathogen entry past the skin surface. Correct! Lysozyme is a substance in sweat that breaks apart bacterial cell walls. The armpit contains a lot of Propionobacteria normally because of all the oily sebum. This protects from pathogenic bacteria growth but also contributes to acne. Question 211 / 1 pts Which person would likely have the most mild disease following an Epstein-Barr infection? A child who is battling malaria. An elderly person who is healthy. A middle-aged woman with HIV. Correct! An otherwise healthy toddler. Question 221 / 1 pts Antibiotics can be used to ______ Chlamydia and Gonorrhea. protect an individual from getting Correct! treat non-resistant cases of treat all cases of protect individuals during sex from prevent resistant types of Question 231 / 1 pts A microbe contained in a droplet from a sneeze is inhaled. Order the structures in the respiratory system that the microbe would encounter first to last. Correct!1- nasal cavity Correct!2- pharynx Correct!3- trachea Correct!4- bronchi Correct!5- alveoli Question 241 / 1 pts A patient returns to the doctor 2 weeks after cutting their leg while hiking because the wound is red, sore, and contains puss. It appears to be infected with MRSA but the doctor takes a swab of the wound for testing to be sure. Which test result would be consistent with a MRSA infection in the wound? The swab is spread over a Mannitol Salt Agar plate. There is growth but the microbe does not ferment mannitol to turn the agar yellow. A rapid diganostic test indicates the presence of DNA from S. epidermidis. Plasma does not clot after being incubated with microbes from the swab. Correct! When the swab is spread over blood agar, there is an area of clearing around microbe growth. Question 251 / 1 pts In what two ways can the plague be transmitted? Mechanical and inhalation Flea bite and parenteral Fomite and direct contact with body fluids Correct! Biological and droplet Question 261 / 1 pts Which serotype of Salmonella enterica is matched correctly with its typical host organism? enteritidis - human typhi - chicken typhimurium - human Correct! typhi - human Question 271 / 1 pts Who should be screened for Chlamydia and Gonorrhea? everyone people with symptoms everyone who is sexually active everyone who is 14-25 years old and has symptoms Correct! everyone who is 14-25 years old and sexually active Question 280 / 1 pts Which virulence factor causes MRSA wounds to be filled with a lot of pus? coagulase Correct Answer stapholysins catalase You Answered methicillin-resistance Protein A Question 291 / 1 pts Two different flu virus strains infected a pig at the same time, recombined into a new flu virus, and the new flu virus infects a human. What will occur after this antigenic shift now that the new flu virus is in the human population? Most humans will be immune to the new flu. Correct! The new flu has RNA genome from both original strains. The shift is a minor change in the neruaminidase or hemagglutinin spikes offlu virus. The vaccine from the previous flu season can be used this year. UnansweredQuestion 300 / 1 pts Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitidis is FALSE? It is encapsulated. It is typically transmitted by droplet aerosols or direct contact with secretions. Correct Answer It is a gram-positive anaerobe. A healthy carrier state can exist. It produces IgA protease.

Mini Exam 4 https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554895

Question 11 / 1 pts Cholera is a disease that can spread when sewage mixes with drinking water. Cholera is spread by ____ transmission. direct contact Correct! vehicle fomite biological vector carrier Question 21 / 1 pts Bacteria #1 has a median infectious dose (ID50) of 50 particles, bacteria #2 has an ID50 of 250 particles, and bacteria #3 has an ID50 of 1x106 particles. Which bacteria is most virulent? Correct! #1 #2 #3 More information is needed to make a conclusion. Question 30 / 1 pts The major significance of Robert Koch's work is that You Answered microorganisms are present in a diseased animal. Correct Answer microorganisms cause disease. diseases can be transmitted from one animal to another. microorganisms can be grown in a pure culture. Question 41 / 1 pts Bacteria #1 has an ID50 of 50 particles, bacteria #2 has an ID50 of 250 particles, and bateria #3 has an ID50 of 1x106 particles. Which bacteria is pathogenic? A B C Correct! all of them are pathogenic Question 51 / 1 pts Which statement is TRUE about the date in the table below? Norovirus is the most likely to kill those exposed to it. E. coli is the most virulent of the microbes listed in the table. Correct! Exposure to 50 Hepatitis A viral particles will result in infection in ~50 out of 100 people exposed. Exposure to 50 E. coli (EHEC) bacteria will kill ~50 out of the 100 people exposed. Question 60.5 / 1 pts Which of the following would be a virulence factor of a pathogen? Select all that apply. Correct! a surface protein allowing the pathogen to bind to host cells a surface protein that the host's immune system can use to recognize the pathogen Correct! release of an exoenzyme that breaks apart red blood cells so they can be used for nutrients by the microbe You Answered a secondary host that the pathogen can infect Question 71 / 1 pts Why can the incidence of a disease never exceed the prevalence of that disease? The disease may be transmitted by an asymptomatic carrier. Correct! The prevalence includes all cases, both old and new while incidence includes only new cases. The incubation period for diseases can vary and cause the incidence to be low. Not true, incidence is always higher than prevalence. Question 80.5 / 1 pts Typhoid Mary was an asymptomatic carrier of typhi bacteria and spread the bacteria to other hosts by passing it in food she prepared. Mary was a human reservoir of S. typhi and spread typhoid fever by vehicle transmission. Answer 1:You Answeredhuman Correct Answeractive carrier Answer 2:Correct!vehicle Question 91 / 1 pts If the normal range for coccidioidomycosis is <200 cases on each continent, how would you categorize the occurrence of this disease in 2015 based on the data below? endemic sporadic Correct! epidemic pandemic Question 101 / 1 pts You see your lab partner in physics and get a text from them later that night that they have developed the flu. When you get the flu a few days later, your lab partner says you did not catch it from them because in class they were not feeling sick yet. What do you tell your lab partner? You agree since they didn't have signs or symptoms in class, they weren't contagious then. They were in the period of decline in class but they were still contagious. The flu is not a communicable disease so you didn't catch it from them. Correct! Even if they didn't have signs or symptoms yet, they still could have passed the virus to you during class. The number of pathogen particles is highest in the stages before signs and symptoms develop. Question 111 / 1 pts Antigenic ____ is the result of reassortment of genes responsible for the production of spike proteins between different virus particles while in the same host, whereas antigenic ____ is the result of point mutations in the spike proteins. Correct! shift, drift drift, shift Question 121 / 1 pts Streptococcus pyogenes causes scarlet fever, sore throat, and skin infections. Why does this violate Koch's postulates? The diseases caused by S. pyogenes have to be treated with different medications. S. pyogenes isolated from any of these diseases will have the same shape and arrangement. S. pyogenes grows best on a nutritious, nutrient-rich media in the lab. Correct! S. pyogenes removed from a sick organism may cause a different disease when injected into a new host organism. Infection with S. pyogenes is not usually fatal. Question 131 / 1 pts An asymptomatic, healthy carrier of a disease is a living reservoir of infection. Correct! True False Question 141 / 1 pts In the 1832 cholera outbreak in New York City 4,000 people were sick with cholera by July 1st and in the month of July another 1,000 people got sick. If the total population of NYC was 250,000, what was the incidence of cholera for the month of July? 4,000/250,000 or 1.6% Correct! 1,000/250,000 or 0.4% 5,000/250,000 or 2% 3,000/250,000 or 1.2% Question 151 / 1 pts The development of signs and symptoms occurs rapidly after exposure to the flu virus because of a short ___ period, but this period is much longer in HIV where illness can take several decades to develop after exposure. decline Correct! incubation convalescence illness Question 161 / 1 pts The capsule increases the virulence of bacteria by preventing phagocytosis. Correct! True False Question 171 / 1 pts Which of the following definitions is CORRECT? asymptomatic infection: an infection limited to a small area of the body acute: a disease that develops slowly and lasts for months Correct! latent: a disease with a period of no symptoms chronic: a rapidly-developing infection Question 181 / 1 pts Select the statement that describes the period of illness stage in the course of infection and disease. Relatively short stage that follows the incubation period. The interval between initial exposure and the first appearance of signs or symptoms. Correct! The patient exhibits strong signs and symptoms of disease and disease is most severe. The patient regains strength and the body returns to its predisease state. Question 191 / 1 pts In hospital patients, normal microbiota can become opportunistic pathogens that lead to Healthcare-Associated Infections. Correct! True False Question 201 / 1 pts A disease transmitted by a needlestick is an example of direct contact. droplet transmission. Correct! indirect contact transmission by fomite. direct biological transmission by vector. vehicle transmission. Question 211 / 1 pts Disease transmitted by droplet contact will most likely enter the human host through what portal of entry? broken skin insect bite direct contact Correct! nose urethra Question 220 / 1 pts At the start of 2015, 36.5 million people were living with HIV in the world. If 2 million people contract HIV in 2015, what was the incidence of HIV in the world in 2015? (Assume the world population at the end of 2015 was 7.5 billion) 2 million/36.5 million Correct Answer 2 million/7.5 billion 1 million/36.5 million 2 million/36.5 billion You Answered 38.5 million/7.5 billion Question 231 / 1 pts Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT? endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population Correct! epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally incidence: number of new cases of a disease Question 241 / 1 pts Symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease in that symptoms Correct! are changes felt by the patient. are changes observed by the physician. are specific for a particular disease. always occur as part of a syndrome. Question 251 / 1 pts In an experiment to establish the median infectious dose (ID50) for two strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae, populations of lab mice are exposed to increasing doses of each strain and the percentage of mice infected is measured. If only one of the strains has the ability to make a capsule, an important virulence factor for infection, it is most likely Strain A. Correct! True False Question 261 / 1 pts Scenario 14.1 During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people as a result of Coxiella burnettii infections. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept 30 miles northwest of the town, 95% of sheep tested were positive for C. burnetii. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years. In situation 14.1 what is the incidence of pneumonia in humans for the six-month period? 300 Correct! 239/300 = 77% 95% 95% of 2000 = 1900 239/539 = 44% Question 270 / 1 pts Scenario 14.1 During a six-month period, 239 cases of pneumonia occurred in a town of 300 people as a result of Coxiella burnettii infections. Before the outbreak, 2000 sheep were kept 30 miles northwest of the town, 95% of sheep tested were positive for C. burnetii. Wind blew from the northwest, and rainfall was 0.5 cm compared with 7 to 10 cm during each of the previous three years. The reservoir of infection in Situation 14.1 was You Answered water. soil. Correct Answer animals. fomites. insects. Question 281 / 1 pts In an experiment to establish the median infectious dose (ID50) for two strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae, populations of lab mice are exposed to increasing doses of each strain and the percentage of mice infected is measured. Select all correct conclusions from the experimental data shown below. Correct! Strain A is more pathogenic than Strain B. Strain B is more pathogenic than Strain A. Correct! Mice exposed to the same number of cells will more likely be infected by Strain A. Mice exposed to the same number of cells will more likely be infected by Strain B. Strain A has a higher ID50 than Strain B. Correct! Strain B has a higher ID50 than Strain A.

Mini Exam 1 https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554902

Question 11 / 1 pts Sporulating bacteria are able to prevent phagocytosis by inhibiting adherence. chemotax to an area of infection by following a chemical signal. form biolfilms. Correct! survive harsh conditions like high heat, dehydration and low nutrient levels. share genes on a plasmid by horizontal gene transfer. Question 21 / 1 pts How does having a glycocalyx increase the virulence of a bacteria cell? A glycocalyx gives bacteria antibiotic resistance. The glycocalyx speeds up asexual reproduction of the bacteria. Correct! Bacteria with a glycocalyx cannot be phagocytized by immune cells. The glycocalyx increases bacteria motility. Question 31 / 1 pts In the modern phylogenetic tree, identify the three domains in order A , B , and C . Answer 1:Correct!bacteriaCorrect AnswerBacteria Answer 2:Correct!archaeaCorrect AnswerArchaea Answer 3:You AnsweredeukaryoticCorrect Answereukaryotes Correct Answereukarya Correct AnswerEukaryotes Correct AnswerEukarya Question 41 / 1 pts You are working with two microbe cultures in the lab; one is a bacteria and one is a fungus. The labels have fallen off and you need to determine their identity. What information about the cultures could help you distinguish the two tubes? Correct! Knowing that the cells are eukaryotic/prokaryotic. Knowing that the cells have a DNA genome. Knowing if the cells have a cell wall. Knowing if the cells have a cell membrane. Question 51 / 1 pts Microbes are associated with life-sustaining benefits as well as life-threatening diseases. Correct! True False Question 61 / 1 pts Microbes are associated with life-sustaining benefits as well as life-threatening diseases. Correct! True False Question 71 / 1 pts Select characteristics of bacteria from the list below. Multicellular Correct! Potentially pathogenic Eukaryotic Correct! Cell wall with peptidoglycan Correct! Some are germs Question 81 / 1 pts Bacteria were discovered in 1676 but viruses were not discovered until 1892. Why were viruses discovered so much later than bacteria? Correct! Bacteria are larger than viruses. Viruses are more motile and therefore difficult to catch in a microscope field of vision. Bacteria are much more plentiful in the environment than viruses. Bacteria are multicellular and viruses are unicellular. Question 91 / 1 pts Escherichia coli is a usually harmless bacteria but can sometimes cause food poisoning when ingested. Which statement about the binomial nomenclature system used to name Escherichia coli is FALSE? Correct! You can abbreviate the name by writing the full genus name and the first letter of the species name. coli is the species name. The name should be written in italics, not in normal font. There is only one type of organism of each species. Question 101 / 1 pts The Valley of the Drums is a site in Bullitt County, KY that is contaminated with a toxic waste called PCB (polychlorinated biphenyl). This site may be a good candidate for microbial infectious disease. biome. nutrient recycling and decomposition. Correct! bioremediation. genetic engineering. Question 111 / 1 pts A viral mutation that causes changes in the glycoprotein spikes would affect which aspect of the virus? Correct! The virus would adsorb to different host cells and its host range would be altered. The viral genome would not require uncoating once inside the host cell. The virus would enter the host by a combination of endocytosis and fusion. The virus would become lysogenic and incorporate its genome into the host cell genome. The virus would lose its viral envelope and become a naked virus. Question 120 / 1 pts Which of the following is incorrect about temperate phages? Viral DNA is replicated with host DNA and passed on to host cell progeny You Answered Phage DNA is present in the host cell when the virus is in lysogeny Correct Answer Cause lysis of host cells Cause viral DNA to be incorporated into the bacterial chromosome Viral DNA enters host cell and becomes latent as a prophage Question 131 / 1 pts An animal virus has the ability to attach to and enter almost any animal host cell it may encounter. True Correct! False Question 141 / 1 pts Burt is attempting to recreate Pasteur's famous experiment disproving Spontaneous Generation. He adds broth to a flask, heats the neck to bend it into an S-shape, and then heats the broth. After several days, Burt observes that the broth is cloudy and there is microbe growth. Which of the following could have led to this result? After the flask had cooled, Burt handled it with his bare hands and set it on a countertop that was not sterilized. A laboratory down the hall studies a motile bacteria that possess several flagella that propel the cells. When heating the flask, the steam was allowed to escape through the open end of the S-shaped neck. Burt used chicken broth in the flask instead of beef broth used by Pasteur. Correct! Burt did not bring the broth to a full boil but left it at low heat for a long period of time. Question 151 / 1 pts ______ are microorganisms that are not included in phylogenetic trees because they are acellular. Correct! Correct AnswersVirus virus Viruses viruses Question 161 / 1 pts How is the lytic cycle different from the lysogenic state with respect to the infected host cell? Correct! The host cell dies during the lytic cycle. The host cell is allowed to live during the lytic cycle. The viral DNA may integrate into the host genome during the lytic cycle. The host cell can only divide during the lytic cycle. Question 171 / 1 pts How do the cell walls of fungi and bacteria differ? Correct! Only bacteria cell walls contain peptidoglycan. Only bacteria cell walls contain cellulose. Only fungi cell walls contain phospholipids. Fungi don't have cell walls because they are not cellular. Question 181 / 1 pts Shelley is suffering from a very sore throat. Analysis of a swab from her throat confirmed that the causative organism is Streptococcus pyogenes, a gram-positive bacteria. Imagine that you are the technician looking at the Gram stain from Shelly's culture. What would you expect to see as you look through the microscope? pink, rod-shaped organisms arranged in pairs pink, spherical-shaped organisms arranged in chainlike formations Correct! purple, spherical-shaped organisms arranged in chainlike formations purple, spherical-shaped organisms arranged in grapelike clusters Question 191 / 1 pts Which of the following describe a virus outside of a host cell? Inactive Part of the Domain Eukarya in the phylogenetic tree of life Correct! DNA or RNA genome AND Inactive. Using the host cell to reproduce and form new viruses DNA or RNA genome Question 201 / 1 pts What evidence supported spontaneous generation in the 1600s? Flies do not appear on meat in a covered flask left at room temperature. Correct! Sterile gravy left at room temperature in an open flask is full of microorganisms after several days. In order to make new life you must have an original source of life. Sterile broth left at room temperature in an S-shaped flask will not grow microorganisms after several days. Question 211 / 1 pts Which of the following statements about viruses is FALSE? Viruses contain a protein coat. Viruses contain DNA or RNA but never both. Viruses use the machinery of the host cell. Correct! Viruses exclusively use their own enzymes. Viruses have genes. Question 221 / 1 pts Viruses are unable to reproduce outside of a host cell. Correct! True False Question 231 / 1 pts An antibiotic that specifically targets the 70S ribosome will have NO effect on which of the following? Human ribosomes in the cytoplasm Bacterial ribosomes Mitochondria Human ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum Correct! Human ribosomes in the cytoplasm AND Human ribosomes attached to the endoplasmic reticulum Question 241 / 1 pts Which of the following is not present in all viruses? capsid All viruses have the same components because all are essential to virus function. nucleic acid genome receptors for adherence to host cells Correct! envelope Question 251 / 1 pts You are peer reviewer for a scientific article about MRSA and the authors have incorrectly written the microbe name as staphylococcus A. How would you correct the error in how the microbe name is written? write out the full species name Correct! capitalize the S in the genus name, change the A in the species to lower case AND write out the full species name capitalize the S in the genus name, change the A in the species to lower case abbreviate staphylococcus so the microbe name is written as s. A. write only the species name in italics Question 261 / 1 pts A student has obtained a sample of pond water for study. Using the high-power lens, he observes several cells with nuclei. He can conclude that the cells are NOT bacteria. Correct! True False Question 271 / 1 pts Which of the following correctly matches an item from Pasteur's experiment with its purpose? Correct! Beef broth - provided nutrition to support microbial growth Beef broth - provided a source of experimental external microbial contaminants Flame - trapped airborne contaminants and prevented microorganisms from entering the flask Flask - destroyed life present in the broth Question 281 / 1 pts According to the theory of spontaneous generation, what is the source of life? Microbes present in the air. An original cell from which all cells are descended. Life comes from life. Correct! Nonliving matter. Question 291 / 1 pts What is happening in the uncoating phase of the SARS-CoC-2 life cycle shown below (from https://www.nytimes.com/interactive/2020/03/11/science/how-coronavirus-hijacks-your-cells.html (Links to an external site.))? You Answered The virus is penetrating the host cell. You Answered The viral genome is being let out inside the host cell. Correct Answer The viral envelope is fusing with the host cell membrane. The viral spikes are attaching to the ACE2 receptor on the host cell. The host cell is producing pieces of the SARS-CoV-2 virus. Question 301 / 1 pts Which of the following is correct and supports the argument that most microbes do not cause harm to humans. Virulent microbes cause severe disease. Correct! Microbes can perform photosynthesis, decomposition, and be used in food production. Microbes are capable of infecting humans and causing disease. Overuse of antibiotics has led to microbe resistance to these drugs. A healthy human does not have microorganisms growing in their body normally. Question 311 / 1 pts The cell walls of bacteria are responsible for the difference in the Gram stain reaction. Correct! True False Question 321 / 1 pts In the 1860s, Pasteur developed a new flask for his experiments on spontaneous generation. How did this help him disprove the opposing view at the time? Correct! The flask prevented microbes from getting into the gravy in the flask. He could easily break the neck of the flask. The flask allowed microbes from the air to get into the gravy in the flask. The flask enabled sterilization of the gravy. Question 331 / 1 pts Which of the following is a beneficial function of microorganisms virulence. bioremediation. Correct! bioremediation AND microbial antagonism. opportunistic infections. microbial antagonism. Question 341 / 1 pts Which of the following correctly matches an item from Pasteur's experiment with its purpose? Correct! Beef broth - provided nutrition to support microbial growth Flask - destroyed life present in the broth Beef broth - provided a source of experimental external microbial contaminants Flame - trapped airborne contaminants and prevented microorganisms from entering the flask Question 351 / 1 pts The DNA found in most bacterial cells is surrounded by a nuclear membrane. is linear in structure. Correct! is circular in structure. is found in multiple copies.

Mini Exam 3 https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554890

Question 11 / 1 pts Transduction is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell Correct! by a bacteriophage. as naked DNA in solution. by crossing over. by cell-to-cell contact. Question 21 / 1 pts Which of the following is NOT a type of bacterial DNA recombination? Transformation Conjugation Correct! Replication Transduction Question 31 / 1 pts Genes can be shared between organisms by horizontal or vertical gene transfer. Humans are capable of _______ gene transfer and bacteria are capable of ________ gene transfer. horizontal, vertical vertical, vertical horizontal, both horizontal and vertical Correct! vertical, both horizontal and vertical Question 41 / 1 pts Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell by a bacteriophage. Correct! as naked DNA in solution. by cell-to-cell contact. by crossing over. by sexual reproduction. Question 51 / 1 pts Which statement about horizontal gene transfer is associated with conjugation? This mechanism may result in the transfer of genes that encode antibiotic resistance. This mechanism requires direct cell-to-cell contact. This mechanism of genetic transfer always involves a one-way transfer from a donor cell to a recipient cell. This mechanism is initiated by cells with F plasmids. Correct! All of these statements are associated with conjugation. Question 61 / 1 pts Which of the following is a recombinant cell? E. coli that has infected a human host by adhering to mucous membranes. A bacteria cell that has DNA mutations after having been exposed to a chemical. Correct! A cell that takes up foreign DNA by transformation and incorporates the DNA into its genome. S. aureus that is not able to donate DNA to other bacteria during conjugation because it doens't have the F factor gene. Question 71 / 1 pts Conjugation differs from other means of horizontal gene transfer between bacteria cells because conjugation requires cell division. a bacteriophage virus. Correct! physical contact between the bacteria cells by a pili. heat-killed cells to release their DNA. DNA replication. Question 81 / 1 pts Which of the following conjugations is possible? Correct! F+ donates to F- F+ donates to F+ F- donates to F+ Hfr donates to F+ Hfr donates to Hfr Question 91 / 1 pts Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation replicates DNA. transfers DNA vertically to new cells. Correct! transfers DNA horizontally to nearby cells without those cells undergoing replication. transcribes DNA to RNA. copies RNA to make DNA. Question 101 / 1 pts What is the difference between an F+ and an Hfr cell? An F+ cell has genes that enable it to extend a pilus to a recipient cell, Hfr does not. An Hfr cell can be both a donor and a recipient, F+ can be only a donor during conjugation. The Hfr has only a portion of the F factor genes while F+ has all of the F factor genes. Correct! The F factor genes are present in both but are incorporated into the bacterial chromosome in Hfr cells only. Question 111 / 1 pts In Griffiths experiment with pneumoniae and mice, why did the smooth S strain bacteria kill the mice while the rough R strain bacteria did not? The R strain is not able to acquire genes by horizontal gene transfer. The S strain produces toxins that kill the mouse while the R strain doesn't produce these toxins. Correct! The S strain cannot be phagocytized by the mouse's immune cells. The R strain reproduces more slowly than the S strain so doesn't kill the mouse. Question 121 / 1 pts Recombination will always alter a cell's genetic material. Correct! True False Question 131 / 1 pts A cell is unable to replicate its DNA because the double helix will not open into a replication fork. This is probably due to a malfunctioning of which enzyme? primase DNA polymerase ligase Correct! helicase Question 141 / 1 pts Genetic change in bacteria can be brought about by mutation. conjugation. transduction and conjugation. transformation and conjugation. Correct! mutation, conjugation, transduction, and transformation. Question 151 / 1 pts An enzyme that makes covalent bonds between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate groups in another nucleotide to form the sugar phosphate backbone in DNA is RNA polymerase. Correct! DNA ligase. DNA helicase. transposase. DNA polymerase. Question 161 / 1 pts Which of the following statements describes the process of horizontal gene transfer? Correct! Gaining a single new gene sequence from outside of the cell. Replication of genomic DNA to be passed on the daughter cells. A DNA mutation that is passed on to offspring by the process of DNA replication and cell division. DNA transferred to the next generation of bacteria from a related cell. Question 171 / 1 pts A Pseudomonas strain carrying a plasmid-containing gene for toluene degradation was applied to toluene-contaminated soils. Two months later, Molly Microbiologist isolated Bukholderia that could degrade toluene. She analyzed the genes involved and found that they were located on a plasmid and were identical to those in the Pseudomonas. The most likely explanation is Correct! transduction. mutation. transcription. recombination. Question 181 / 1 pts You are in charge of fermentation for Your Favorite Yogurt Company. One day you get a frantic call from your fermentation technologist. It appears that the bacterial cultures in vat one have all lysed due to a bacteriophage infection. You must quickly come up with a solution to keep the yogurt production going. Treat all bacterial cultures with an antibiotic to kill the bacteriophage. Correct! Create a mutant bacterial strain to use in your fermentation process that has a deletion of the gene encoding the receptor used by the bacteriophage to bind to the bacterium. Add more sugar to the bacterial cultures that promote growth of bacteria and not bacteriophage. Create a mutant bacterial strain to use in your fermentation process that overproduces the gene encoding the receptor used by the bacteriophage to bind to the bacterium. Question 191 / 1 pts A strain of Neisseria gonorrheae has recently acquired the ability to be resistant to the antibiotic penicillin. Evidence indicates that this is not a new mutation but rather a gene received from another bacterium. After the new genetic information recombines with the genome, how would gonorrheae use the DNA to resist the action of penicillin? Correct! The gene would be transcribed into RNA and then translated into protein. The gene would translated into protein and then transcribed into RNA. The gene would be recognized as a mutation and repaired. The gene would be released from the N. gonorrheae as naked DNA. Question 201 / 1 pts The figure below shows growth of Serratia marcescens on two petri dishes with (L) and without (R) the production of red pigment based on the temperature at which plates were incubated. Figure 2B shows DNA genomes of two bacteria species, Bacillus cereus and Bacillus anthracis. What is different between the two organisms in A and between the two organisms in B? A organisms have different genotype, B organisms have different genotype A organisms have different phenotype, B organisms have different phenotype A organisms have different genotype/phenotype, B organisms have different genotype/phenotype A organisms have different phenotype, B organisms have different genotype Correct! A organisms have different phenotype, B organisms have different genotype/phenotype Question 211 / 1 pts A strain of Neisseria gonorrheae that was formerly sensitive to penicillin has recently acquired the ability to produce penicillinase, an enzyme that inactivates penicillin. Evidence indicates that this is not a new mutation but rather a gene received from another bacterium. The gene is now spreading rapidly among the population, causing the recipient bacteria to be resistant to penicillin. Along with penicillinase, the gonnorheae gained the ability to make pili and extend to connect with other bacteria. How did the N. gonnorheae receive these new genes? transcription transformation Correct! conjugation transformation or conjugation transformation, transduction, or conjugation Question 221 / 1 pts In transduction, an error occurs in one of the steps in the phage replication cycle. Which statement correctly explains the error? The phage releases a piece of naked DNA into the environment. The phage enters the lysogenic cycle so that when the bacteria cell divides viral DNA is passed on to offspring. The F plasmid recombines with the bacterial chromosome. Correct! When the phage is constructed inside the bacteria cell, bacterial DNA is inserted into the capsid. Virulence genes are transferred from one bacteria cell to another through a pilus.

Mini Exam 2 https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/assignments/10754067

Question 11 / 1 pts What is the purpose of the high concentration of hydrogen ions created by the Electron Transport System on one side of the cell membrane? Correct! To power ATP synthase to produce ATP. To move electrons along the electron transport system. To produce NADH or FADH2. To produce water for the cell to use. To produce energy by fermentation. Question 21 / 1 pts Catabolic _____ reactions release _____ energy that results in production _____ of ATP molecules. Answer 1:Correct!Catabolic Answer 2:Correct!release Answer 3:Correct!production Question 30 / 1 pts Which group of microorganisms requires high osmotic pressure to survive? You Answered Osmolyphiles Facultative halophiles Correct Answer Obligate halophiles Acidophiles Obligate halophiles AND Osmolyphiles Question 41 / 1 pts The rates of O2 and glucose consumption by a bacterial culture are shown in the Figure below. Assume a bacterial culture was grown in a glucose medium without O2. Then O2 was added at the time marked X. The data indicate that these bacteria don't use O2. these bacteria get more energy anaerobically. Correct! aerobic metabolism is more efficient than anaerobic metabolism for these bacteria. these bacteria cannot grow anaerobically. these bacteria use fermentation and not anaerobic respiration. Question 51 / 1 pts An organism that can use only oxygen as the final electron acceptor in it electron transport chain may also have the ability to perform fermentation. Correct! True False Question 61 / 1 pts An electron is removed from pyruvic acid and transferred to NAD+, forming NADH. Which molecule is reduced in this reaction? pyrivuc acid Hydrogen electron Correct! NAD+ pyrivuc acid and NAD+ Question 71 / 1 pts Why do bacteria grow at less than their optimum doubling time during the lag phase? Bacteria are not metabolically active during the lag phase. Many bacteria are dying during the lag phase. Bacteria are overwhelmed by waste products that prevents their growth during the lag phase. Correct! During lag phase, bacteria are synthesizing molecules to prepare for rapid cell growth. Bacterial DNA replication is inhibited during the lag phase so bacteria are not able to divide. Question 81 / 1 pts Microbes are often identified using biochemical tests that detect specific enzymes of metabolic pathways. E. coli typically ferments lactose and produces an acid byproduct, whereas Shigella dysenteriae does not. A pure culture of each bacterium was placed in a tube containing lactose as the only food source and a chemical indicator that changed color after a pH change. When you look at the tubes 24 hours later, what would you expect to see? Correct! The tube with E. coli will change color. The tube with S. dysenteria will change color. The tube with E. coli and the tube with S. dysenteriae will change color. Neither tube will change color. Question 91 / 1 pts Assuming unlimited resources and space, which line from the graph on the right best depicts a thermophile grown at 50°C? a Correct! b c Question 101 / 1 pts The bacterium E. coli is capable of performing aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and fermentation. Select the situation in which E. coli will use fermentation to generate ATP. Oxygen is present in the environment and can be used as an electron acceptor. Correct! Oxygen is not present in the environment and there is no acceptable inorganic electron acceptor. E. coli needs to produce ATP in the most efficient way. E. coli is using its Electron Transport System to make ATP. E. coli needs to produce ATP in the most efficient way AND E. coli is using its Electron Transport System to make ATP. Question 111 / 1 pts The figure below shows the Electron Transport System (ETS) embedded in the plasma membrane of a bacteria cell. Use what you know about ETS structure and function to identify where ATP is produced in the figure. a b c d Correct! e Question 121 / 1 pts Noncompetitive inhibitors of enzymes fit into the enzyme active site. can be bound to the enzyme at the same time as the substrate. Correct! bind to the enzyme and cause the active site to change shape. only bind to the enzyme when they are present in low concentrations. increase the amount of reaction products formed. Question 131 / 1 pts The reactions of fermentation function to produce _______ molecules for further use in glycolysis. pyruvic acid ATP Correct! NAD+ NADH glucose Question 141 / 1 pts During which phase of the growth curve are bacterial species decreasing or experiencing no increase in the number of living cells? Select all that apply. Question authored by: Trevor Correct! lag phase log phase Correct! stationary phase Correct! death phase Question 151 / 1 pts Figure 6.3 Growth of two bacteria on normal and high salt nutrient agar The data in the table indicate that S. aureus is a(n) mesophile. facultative anaerobe. Correct! facultative halophile. obligate halophile. aerobe. Question 160 / 1 pts Jessica is doing a test in order to determine which type of microbe she is working with. In order to do this test, she uses a thioglycolate broth solution. After letting the bacteria sit in the broth for 24 hours, Jessica returns and observes growth in a band a few centimeters below the surface of the broth, and nowhere else. Based on these results, she can conclude that, Question authored by: Emma The bacteria are aerobic, and produce enough enzymes to detoxify bacteria in large amounts. You Answered The bacteria are aerobic, but only produce enough enzymes to detoxify bacteria in small amounts. Correct Answer The bacteria are anaerobic, and can produce enzymes to detoxify oxygen in small amounts. The bacteria are anaerobic, and do not produce enzymes to detoxify oxygen. Question 171 / 1 pts You plate a bacteria culture on an agar plate containing all essential nutrients. When you remove it from the incubator the following day, you can tell that the number of bacteria have increased because there is visual growth and some of the carbohydrate added to the agar has been metabolized (which led to a visible color change in the agar). The bacteria culture is most likely to be in which phase of the growth curve? death phase lag phase prophase Correct! log phase stationary phase Question 181 / 1 pts Glycolysis is utilized by cells in both respiration and fermentation. Correct! True False Question 191 / 1 pts How would a limited food supply affect the bacterial growth curve? There would be no lag phase. Correct! The log phase would be shortened. The culture would not enter a death phase but would remain stationary indefinitely. The death phase would be shortened. The slope of the log phase growth curve would be steeper. Question 201 / 1 pts During which phase is generation time measured? Lag phase Correct! Log phase Stationary phase Death phase Question 211 / 1 pts You need to measure microbial growth in a culture of motile bacteria. The concentration of the culture is very low, you need to determine the number of live bacteria cells, and you have plenty of time. Which method would be the best to use? Correct! serial dilutions and plate counts turbidity measured by spectrophotometer Petroff-Hausser microscope counts Log-scale plot Question 221 / 1 pts It takes 45 minutes for a culture of a aerotolerant anaerobic bacteria to double in number in a high oxygen environment. If you now incubate the bacteria in a tube with no oxygen, you would expect the doubling time of the bacteria to increase. decrease. Correct! stay the same. Question 231 / 1 pts Which of the following bacterial species would be most likely to survive in the top half of a thioglycolate culture tube kept at 90 degrees C? Question authored by: Darcy Correct! Microaerophiles that are hyperthermophiles Aerobes that are thermophiles Facultative anaerobes that are barophiles Microaerobes that are halophiles Question 241 / 1 pts A bacteria culture was grown in a glucose medium without O2. O2 was added to the medium at the time marked X. The rates of glucose and oxygen (O2) consumption and number of cells are shown in the Figure. Addition of O2 to the medium at time X resulted in a slower growth rate of the bacteria. Correct! the bacteria switching to aerobic metabolism. less efficient metabolism. the bacteria performing fermentation. less production of ATP. Question 250 / 1.5 pts Yeast is important in the food industry. To take advantage of this fact, Ricky has added yeast to three different types of grapes to try to make wine. Grape 1 has high sugar, Grape 2 has medium sugar, and Grape 3 has low sugar. Predict the outcome of this experiment. All three grapes produced high levels of alcohol. All three grapes produced low levels of alcohol. Correct Answer Grape 1 produced the highest level of alcohol, while Grape 3 produced the lowest. You Answered Grape 3 produced the highest level of alcohol, while Grape 1 produces the lowest. Question 261.5 / 1.5 pts Microbes are often identified using biochemical tests that detect specific enzymes of metabolic pathways. E. coli typically ferments lactose and produces an acid byproduct, whereas Shigella spp. (species) do not. If a pure culture of each bacterium was placed in a tube containing lactose as the only food source, and a chemical indicator that changed color after a pH change, what would the tubes look like after the bacteria were incubated? Both tubes would show the evidence of lactose fermentation by turning acidic and changing the pH indicator. Neither tube will show any change. Correct! The tube with E. coli would indicate a pH change, and the Shigella tube would indicate no change. Both tubes would show the evidence of lactose fermentation by turning basic in pH. Question 271.5 / 1.5 pts A patient has recently developed a bacterial infection in the tissues surrounding their cardiac pacemaker. The patient's medical team is working fast to treat the infection before the bacteria can establish a biofilm on the surface of the pacemaker. Why will it be more difficult to treat the infection with antibiotics if the bacteria form a biofilm? Select all that apply. The extrapolymeric substance (EPS) allows faster diffusion of antibiotics in the biofilm. Cells are more metabolically active at the base of a biofilm. Correct! Cells are metabolically inactive in a biofilm. Correct! Bacteria in a biofilm readily exchange antibiotic resistance genes. Correct! Bacteria in a biofilm may have abilities that counteract the action of antibiotics Biolfims are comprised of Gram negative bacteria that have natural resistance to antibiotics. Question 281.5 / 1.5 pts In the agar deep tube pictured in Figure 4, when the bacteria are growing at the top of the tube, the cells will produce ___ ATP per molecule of glucose, while the bacteria at the bottom of the tube will produce ___ ATP. Assume the bacteria in this tube cannot use anaerobic respiration. 34, 0 32, 0 2-32, 0 Correct! 38, <38 38, 38 Question 291.5 / 1.5 pts The rates of O2 and glucose consumption by a bacterial culture are shown in the Figure below. Assume a bacterial culture was grown in a glucose medium without O2. Then O2 was added at the time marked X. The data indicate that these bacteria don't use O2. these bacteria get more energy anaerobically. Correct! aerobic metabolism is more efficient than anaerobic metabolism for these bacteria. these bacteria cannot grow anaerobically. these bacteria use fermentation and not anaerobic respiration. Question 301.5 / 1.5 pts Which of the statements below are true for aerobic respiration? Select all that apply. uses only inorganic molecules as a final electron acceptor Correct! uses oxygen as a final electron acceptor Correct! uses an Electron Transport System Correct! produces more ATP per molecule of glucose than other forms of metabolism can only be performed by human cells can occur in anaerobic environments produces byproducts like acetone, lactic acid, and ethanol

Week 2 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554896

Question 11 / 1 pts Which of the following structures are present in all animal viruses? capsid plasma membrane capsid and plasma membrane spikes and plasma membrane capsid and DNA Correct! capsid, spikes, and a genome Question 21 / 1 pts After penetration, animal viruses need to be uncoated but bacteriophage need not be. Why? Correct! Bacteriophage inject their DNA into the host during penetration so the capsid doesn't enter the host cell. The enveloped animal viruses exit the host cell in the uncoating step, bacteriophage lyse the host cell. The uncoating step converts the RNA genome of animal viruses to DNA, which is not required for phage with a DNA genome. The spikes of animal viruses are added to the capsid in the uncoating step. Phage don't have spikes. Animal viruses insert their DNA into the host cell genome in the uncoating step and phage are not able to insert DNA into the host. Question 31 / 1 pts The lysogenic cycle and the lytic cycle of bacteriophage are depicted in Figures 6.7 and 6.8 in your book (https://openstax.org/details/books/microbiology (Links to an external site.)) and in our lecture slides for Chapter 6. Which of the following ONLY happens during the lysogenic cycle (NOT during the lytic cycle)? The host cell dies. Correct! The viral DNA is integrated into the host cell genome. The bacteriophage injects its genome into the host cell. The bacteriophage directs the host cell to make molecules for building new bacteriophage. Question 41 / 1 pts One of the steps in the animal virus replication cycle of SARS-CoV2 is shown below. Which step? https://www.nytimes.com/interactive/2020/03/11/science/how-coronavirus-hijacks-your-cells.html (Links to an external site.) penetration biosynthesis Correct! attachment assembly release Question 51 / 1 pts Select all of the following that are true reasons why viruses are not living. Correct! Viruses have DNA or RNA but never both. Correct! Viruses are acellular. Viruses have an organized structure. Viruses can adapt to their environments. Correct! Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites and cannot reproduce without a host. Correct! Viruses lack essential genes and rely on host genes to perform these functions.

Week 10 Quiz https://uk.instructure.com/courses/1999821/quizzes/3554878

The blood brain barrier prevents materials from the blood from interacting with the CSF of the Central Nervous System. Answer 1:Correct!blood Answer 2:Correct!CSF Question 20.25 / 0.25 pts Human-to-human transmission of plague is usually by unsanitary conditions. Correct! the respiratory route. flea. mechanical transmission. wounds. Question 30.25 / 0.25 pts Which of the following statements about Neisseria meningitidis is FALSE? It normally colonizes the upper respiratory tract of some people. It can infect the meninges and causes the condition meningitis. Correct! Before starting treatment, it is important to culture a patient sample to confirm that the bacteria is present in the cerebrospinal fluid. It is prevented by immunization or treated with antibiotics. Signs/symptoms include photophobia, stiff neck, and fever. Question 40.25 / 0.25 pts Case Study 19 Claire is a healthy 18 year-old college freshman. For the last couple of days, she's been feeling more tired than usual, and she's had a sore throat. Her sore throat has been worsening, and she also has a low-grade fever and a headache that has been getting worse throughout the day. At the student health center, Claire is examined by Dr. Peterson. She takes a routine medical history and does some basic assessment of Claire's condition and Claire is surprised when Dr. Peterson tells her that there have been a couple of cases of meningitis reported in students living in Claire's dorm and she would like to do further tests for meningitis. What would be the next step at this stage of Dr. Peterson's diagnosis? Correct! A lumbar puncture to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). A neurologic exam, X-ray, and CT Scan to determine what is causing Claire's headache and its rapid progression. A blood draw followed by culture in order to determine if Claire has bacteria growth in her blood. Vaccinate Claire against bacterial meningitis. Question 50.25 / 0.25 pts A patient with HIV is most contagious when the concentration of viral RNA copies in the blood is highest. Figure 2 shows an example of HIV progression in a patient. Identify the time point when this patient is most contagious. at the time of infection 2 weeks after infection Correct! 7 weeks after infection 13 weeks after infection 1 year after infection Question 60.25 / 0.25 pts A characteristic symptom of plague is Correct! swollen lymph nodes. recurrent fever. rose-colored spots. small red spots on the skin. nausea and vomiting. Question 70.25 / 0.25 pts You work at a small family practice. A man in their early fifties comes in with a complaint of intermittent fever and a minor headache. You are the physician that examines them and the only clinical finding is a wound on their thumb that does not appear infected and which they received while skinning a ground squirrel about three days ago. The patient also has several small bug bites, also not appearing infected, around the wrist of the hand with the wound. The lymph nodes at their neck are swollen but inside their throat looks normal and there are no other visible signs of illness. The patient is up to date on their vaccinations and also received the recommended shingles and influenza vaccines earlier this year. The patient has not been in contact with anyone known to be ill with an infection. What patient samples would you request immediately for testing? Correct! Blood draw Cerebrospinal fluid Swab of the patient's wound Swab of the patient's throat Lung sputum sample Question 80.25 / 0.25 pts A 30-year-old woman was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. On examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. Which of the following is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of her symptoms? Gram stain of throat culture Correct! Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid check serum antibodies biopsy of brain tissue None of these would provide rapid identification. Question 90.25 / 0.25 pts A characteristic sign of plague is Correct! swollen lymph nodes. recurrent fever. rose-colored spots. small red spots on the skin. nausea and vomiting. Question 100.25 / 0.25 pts Refer to the figure describing HIV disease progression. Which of the following describes Phase IV of HIV infection? Correct! Patient may develop AIDS Defining Illnesses (ADIs) and CD4 T cell count has fallen below the clinical threshold. Asymptomatic or mild symptoms and high levels of viral antigen. The immune response to HIV is weakened by falling T cell numbers although the patient is still mostly asymptomatic. The numbers of virus particles in the blood drops dramatically and most viruses are now located within host cells. Question 110.25 / 0.25 pts Bacterial encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because no medications exist for treatment of these infections. antibiotics damage nervous tissue. the infections move along peripheral nerves. it is very difficult to determine the causative microbe. Correct! many antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier. Question 120.25 / 0.25 pts You are a physician in the southwestern United States and see a patient complaining of fever, chills, and swollen lymph nodes. There have been two cases of plague in your community recently so you order lab work to be done on the patient's blood, lymph fluid, and sputum. Lab results for the presence of pestis antigen and Wright's stain are shown below. What can you conclude based on the lab results? Fluid Rapid diagnostic detection of Y. pestis antigen Wright's stain Blood positive positive Aspirate from lymph node negative negative Sputum positive positive The patient has pneumonic and septicemia plague. The patient has bubonic plague. The patient can transmit this illness directly to other humans. Correct! The patient has pneumonic and septicemia plague AND the patient can transmit this illness directly to other humans. The patient has bubonic plague AND the patient can transmit this illness directly to other humans. Question 130.25 / 0.25 pts Arrange the layers that surround the brain in the correct order Correct!1 (closest to the brain) pia mater Correct!2 cerebrospinal fluid Correct!3 arachnoid mater Correct!4 dura mater Correct!5 (furthest from the brain) bone and skin Question 140.25 / 0.25 pts In a patient infected with HIV, the number of CD4 T cells decreases as the amount of viral RNA increases. Correct! True False