BIO 2514 Final Exam PART 2

Irma has a problem with her left side of her face. Her left eye is very dry, and her saliva production is reduced on that side. Her doctor suspects there is an issue with her _______________ nerve.

?

Why do the anatomical inputs to the cerebellum suggest that it can compare motor commands and sensory feedback?

A copy of descending input from the cerebrum to the spinal cord, through the pons, and sensory feedback from the spinal cord and special senses like balance, through the medulla, both go to the cerebellum. It can therefore send output through the midbrain that will correct spinal cord control of skeletal muscle movements.

The amygdala is:

A gray matter structure that functions in emotions and memory.

The portion of a neuron that primarily receives communication is the _______. A. dendrite B. axon terminal C. cell body D. axon

A.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Actin filaments slide along myosin filaments

Which of the following letters represents the sartorius muscle? 1)A 2)B 3)C

B

Which of the following letters represents the sartorius muscle? A B C D

B The muscle shown at B is the sartorius muscle.

Which muscle is a prime mover of arm adduction?

B. Pectoralis Major

Curve in midbrain of the embryo that positions the forebrain ventrally

Cephalic flexure

Connection between two neurons, or between a neuron and it's target, where a neurotransmitter diffuses across a very short distance.

Chemical synapse

Organization of the white matter - outermost

Columns

The first artery to branch from the aorta enroute to the brain is the ___________ artery.

Common carotid

Large white matter structure that connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres

Corpus callosum

What is the Somatic nervous system made up of?

Cranial and spinal nerves

The embryonic structure as the neural ___________ develops into the peripheral nervous system.

Crest

Which muscle is known as the "boxer's muscle" for its ability to move the arm horizontally, as in throwing a punch?

D

An individual axon is wrapped by a connective tissue sheath known as the:

Endoneurium

Innermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual axons within a nerve

Endoneurium

The artery that carries blood to the face and neck is:

External carotid

The cerebellum is present on the ventral surface of the sheep brain.

False

Systemic nerve of the posterior leg that begins as part of the sciatic nerve

Fibulae nerve

Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for generating motor commands?

Frontal

Guanosine triphosphate (GTP) hydrolysis that physically moves from the receptor protein to the effector protein to activate the latter.

G protein

The diencephalon:

Gives rise to thalamus and hypothalamus, and is the origin of the retina.

Posterior region of the adult brain that develops from the rhombencephalon and includes the pons, medulla oblongata, and cerebellum.

Hindbrain

The part of the diencephalon which regulates homeostasis by controlling the pituitary gland is the ____________.

Hypothalamus

Of the three layers of germ cells, the ectoderm develops into tissue and the _________ system.

Integumentary

What blood vessel enters the cranium to supply the brain with fresh, oxygenated blood?

Internal carotid artery

A very scary but fortunately uncommon disease is caused by "brain eating amoeba", Naegleria fowleri. It occurs when the amoeba enter the brain when infected water gets into the nose. The olfactory nerve is the only system that:

Is directly connected to the cerebrum.

The mesencephalon:

Is the primary vesicle of the embryonic brain and becomes the midbrain.

The central canal:

Is the tube in the center of the spinal cord which carries cerebrospinal fluid.

What does the cerebellum do?

It is involved in controlling a person's motor skills, balance and co-coordinating the muscles to allow precise movements.

What does the brain stem do?

It is responsible for regulating the automatic functions that are essential for life e.g breathing, heartbeat and swallowing.

General sensory perception of movement of the body

Kinesthesia

Region of the spinal cord gray matter in the thoracic, upper lumbar, and sacral regions that is the central component of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

Lateral horn

Cell bodies of autonomic motorneurons

Lateral horns

Surface landmark of the cerebral cortex that marks the boundary between the temporal lobe and the frontal and parietal lobes

Lateral sulcus

Portions of the ventricular system that are in the region of the cerebrum

Lateral ventricles

The two __________ lie deep within the cerebral hemispheres and join together to flow into the third ventricle.

Lateral ventricles

You are dissecting a brain. You cut the hemispheres apart, and then cut the hemisphere in half on a frontal plane. That cut exposes the:

Lateral ventricles

Large separation along the midline between the two cerebral hemispheres

Longitudinal fissure

Nerve plexus associated with the lumbar spinal nerves

Lumbar plexus

Deep and located on the anterior side of the spinal cord

Median fissure

Systemic nerve of the arm, located between the ulnar and radial nerves

Median nerve

Neurons can be classified according to structure. __________ neurons have many processes that issue from the cell body.

Multipolar

Which of the following statements is FALSE? >Skeletal muscle cells have T tubules. >Skeletal muscle cells use creatine phosphate instead of ATP to do work. >Skeletal muscle cells are multinucleated. >Skeletal muscle cells contain myoglobin. >Skeletal muscle cells have glycosomes

Muscle cells, just like other cells, use ATP to do work. Creatine phosphate is used by muscle cells to directly phosphorylate (i.e., donate a high-energy phosphate group to) ADP to resynthesize ATP.

Epineurium covers:

Nerves

Precursor to structures of the central nervous system, formed by the invagination and separation of neuroepithelium

Neural tube

The region between which two points corresponds to the I band? 3 and 5 2 and 5 2 and 3 None of the listed responses is correct.

None of the listed responses is correct.

Third cranial nerve; responsible for contraction of four of the extraocular muscles, the muscle in the upper eyelid, and pupillary construction

Oculomotor nerve

Second cranial nerve; responsible for visual sensation

Optic nerve

Sympathetic function that maintains blood pressure when standing to offset the increased effect of gravity

Orthostatic reflex

A fascicle is covered by a connective tissue sheath known as the:

Perineurium

Layer of connective tissue surrounding fascicles within a nerve

Perineurium

The layer of the meninges which lies directly on top of the brain and the spinal cord is the:

Pia mater

The axons from sensory neurons enter the spinal cord as the:

Posterior nerve root

Deltoid

Powerful shoulder abductor, used to raise the arm overhead.

Graded potential in a specialized sensory cell that directly causes the release of neurotransmitter without an intervening action potential.

Receptor potential

A demyelinating disease affects ________. perineurium Schwann cells endoneurium epineurium

Schwann cells

Painful condition resulting from inflammation or compression of the sciatic nerve or any of the spinal nerves that contribute to it

Sciatica

Deltoid

Shoulder muscle that is the antagonist of the muscle just described.

Gluteus Medius

Smaller hip muscle that is comonly used for an injection site.

The caudate and putamen collectively, as part of the basal nuclei, which receive input from the cerebral cortex

Striatum

Nuclei within the basal nuclei that release dopamine to modulate the function of the striatum; part of the motor pathway

Substantia nigra pars compacta

Nucleus within the basal nuclei that is pet of the indirect pathway

Subthalamus

Temporalis

Synergist muscle for jaw closure.

Region of the midbrain, thought of as the roof of the cerebral aqueduct, which is subdivided into the inferior and superior colliculi

Tectum

Region of the cerebral directly beneath the temporal bone of the cranium

Temporal lobe

Combination of graded potentials at the same location on a neuron resulting in a strong signal from one input.

Temporal summation

What is the PNS subdivided into?

The PNS is divided into the somatic nervous system and autonomic nervous system.

Belly

The frontalis and occipitalis are also know as: frontal and occipital ______.

What is the function of the Peripheral Nervous System?

The function of the PNS is to relay nerve impulses from the CNS to the rest of the body and from the body back to the CNS.

The corpus callosum is:

The large white matter structure that connects the right and left cerebral hemispheres.

Zygomaticus

The muscle used in smiling.

The procedure, lumbar puncture, is a medical procedure used to sample CSF. Because of the anatomy of the CNS, it is a relative safe location to insert a needle. Why is the lumbar puncture performed in the lower lumbar area of the vertebral column?

The spinal cord ends in the upper lumbar area of the vertebral column, so a needle inserted lower than that will not damage the nervous tissue of the CNS.

As the anterior end of the neural tube develops, it enlarges into the primary vesicles that establish the forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain. Those structures continue to develop throughout the rest of embryonic development and into adolescence. They are the basis of the structure of the fully developed adult brain. How would you describe the difference in the relative sizes of the three regions of the brain when comparing the early (25th embryonic day) brain and the adult brain?

The three regions (forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain) appear to be approximately equal in size when they are first established, but the midbrain in the adult is much smaller than the others-suggesting that it does not increase in size nearly as much as the forebrain or hindbrain.

Internal Intercostals

These muscles originate at the inferior rib's superior border and insert at the superior rib's inferior border. They depress the ribs.

External Intercostals

These muscles originate at the superior rib's inferior border and inserts at the inferior rib's superior border. It elevates the ribs.

Why are all spinal nerves mixed?

They all contain axons of sensory neurons and axons of motorneurons (somatic and/or autonomic).

Smaller satellite cells surround the large cell bodies of the sensory neurons. From what structure do satellite cells derive during embryologic development?

They derive from the neural crest.

The dendrites share this characteristic with the neuron cell body.

They receive synapses from many other neurons.

What do the Motor neurons?

They relay information from the CNS to other areas of the body.

What do the Sensory neurons do?

They relay messages to the CNS.

Portion of the ventricular system that is in the region of the diencephalon

Third ventricle

Which portion of the ventricular system is found within the diencephalon?

Third ventricle

If the brain does not finish developing until approximately 20 years of age, can teenagers be held responsible for behaving badly?

This is really a matter of opinion, but there are ethical issues to consider when a teenager's behavior results in legal trouble.

Platysma

This muscle originates at the fascia of the thorax and inserts at the mandible, skin, and muscles of the cheek. It tenses the skin of the neck and depresses mandible.

Orbicularis Oculi

This muscle originates at the frontal and maxilla bones and inserts at the eyelid. Its job is to close the eyes.

Diaphragm

This muscle originates at the inferior border of the rib cage and inserts at the central tendon. It expands size of thoracic cavity.

Occipitalis

This muscle originates at the occipital bone and inserts at the epicranial aponeurosis. It tenses and pulls the scalp posteriorly.

Sternohyoid

This muscle originates from the clavicle and manubrium and inserts at the hyoid bone. It depresses hyoid and larynx..

Sternocleidomastoid

This muscle originates from the clavicle and manubrium and inserts at the mastoid process. It flexes the neck, bends head toward the shoulder, and turns to face opposite side.

Orbicularis Oris

This muscle originates from the maxilla and mandible and inserts at muscles and skin at the corners of the mouth. This allows us to close and purse our lips.

Temporalis

This muscle originates from the parietal and frontal bones and inserts at the coronoid process of the mandible. It elevates the mandible.

Masseter

This muscle originates from the zygomatic arch and inserts at the ramus of the mandible. Its job is to elevate the mandible.

Zygomaticus

This muscle originates from the zygomatic bone and inserts at muscles and skin at the corners of the mouth. It raises lateral corners of the mouth.

There is no ________ plexus.

Thoracic

Systemic nerve of the posterior leg that begins as part of the sciatic nerve

Tibial nerve

What is true about tracts and nerves? Nerves are found in both the CNS and the PNS. Only nerves are myelinated. Tracts are found only in the PNS. Tracts lack connective tissue coverings.

Tracts lack connective tissue coverings.

Dural sinuses that drain along either side of the occipital-cerebellar space

Transverse sinuses

Fourth cranial nerve; responsible for contraction of one of the extraocular muscles

Trochlear nerve

All three regions of the brain stem can be observed on the ventral surface of the brain.

True

Gluteus Maximus

Used to extend the hip when climbing stairs.

Elderly or debilitated people may become injured by passing out and falling off the toilet, caused by the reduced heart rate and blood pressure produced when bearing down to defecate. This is because this motion, known as the Valsalva maneuver, will stimulate the _____________ nerve.

Vagus

The cranial nerve X controls the autonomic parasympathetic functions of the thoracic and abdominal viscera, and is known as the ______________ nerve.

Vagus

Which cranial nerve does not control functions in the head and neck?

Vagus

Tenth cranial nerve; responsible for the autonomic control of organs in the thoracic and upper abdominal cavities

Vagus nerve

Axons emerging from the anterior or lateral horns of the spinal cord

Ventral (anterior) nerve root

Cell bodies of somatic motorneurons

Ventral horns

Motor instruction from the brain is carried to the muscle of the body by:

Ventral nerve roots

Remnants of the hollow center of the neural tube that are spaces for cerebrospinal fluid to circulate through the brain

Ventricles

The arteries that merge to become the basilar artery are the ____________ arteries.

Vertebral

Arteries that ascend along either side of the vertebral column through the transverse foramina of the cervical vertebrae and enter the cranium through the foramen magnum

Vertebral arteries

The arteries entering through the foramen magnum and merge to become the basilar artery, which merged into the circle of Willis, is the:

Vertebral arteries

Shondra was suffering from chronic hearing loss and vertigo. Her doctor planned to check the function of her ____________ nerve.

Vestibulocochlear

The cranial nerve sensory for the senses of hearing and equilibrium is the __________ nerve.

Vestibulocochlear

Eight cranial nerve; responsible for the sensations of hearing and balance

Vestibulocochlear nerve

Temporalis

What inserts at the coronoid process of the mandible?

Diaphragm

What muscle inserts at the central tendon?

Sternohyoid

What muscle inserts at the hyoid bone?

Sternocleidomastoid

What muscle inserts at the mastoid process?

gracilis

adduct leg

Cardiac muscle

all of the above (is only in the heart, responds in an all-or-none manner, contracts as a syncytium, excites itself)

What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?

an agonist (prime mover)

Myasthenia gravis is

an autoimmune disorder

A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a(n) ________.

antagonist

Muscle that opposes and reverses the action of another muscle.

antagonist

Which functional group has the major responsibility for countering a specific movement? antagonists synergists agonists fixators

antagonists The antagonist opposes the movement produced by the agonist. It is often responsible for returning a limb to its initial position. Antagonists also adjust the action of their agonists by contracting slightly to provide some resistance, thus helping to prevent overshooting the mark or to slow or stop the movement. Agonist/antagonist pairs are located on opposite sides of the joint across which they act.

Of the spinal meninges, the middle one is the ________ mater.

arachnoid

These glial cells play a role in capillary-neuron exchanges and control the chemical environment around neurons.

astrocytes

These support cells are found in the central nervous system.

astrocytes and ependymal cells

These support cells are found in the central nervous system. oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells astrocytes and satellite cells astrocytes and ependymal cells Schwann cells and satellite cells

astrocytes and ependymal cells

This part of the neuron generates and conducts action potentials.

axon

This part of the neuron generates and conducts action potentials. dendrite axon cell body

axon

The ________ forms synapses, or junctions, with other neurons or effector cells.

axon terminal

The ________ forms synapses, or junctions, with other neurons or effector cells. synaptic cleft axon hillock initial segment axon terminal

axon terminal

Which of the following statements is correct? a. Muscle fibers running in parallel arrangement generate more power. b. The number of muscle fibers best determines how powerful a muscle will be. c. The more a muscle shortens, the more power it generates. d. Multipennate muscles do not produce much power because the fibers run in many directions.

b

Which of these is NOT a way of classifying muscles? a. the type of action they cause b. the type of muscle fibers c. muscle location d. muscle shape

b

The contractile unit of muscle is the: a. sarcolemma b. sarcomere

b. sarcomere

Which muscle is represented by the letter D?

biceps femoris

gastrocnemius insertion

calcaneus

At the neuromuscular junction, the electrical signal of the nerve

causes the axon terminal to release acetylcholine (ACh)

What is the groove indicated with C?

central sulcus

Identify the action of the muscle at A.

compress the abdomen

The tough, fibrous, outermost covering of the spinal cord is the

dura mater

Which is the innermost connective tissue layer of the spinal nerve that surrounds each axon?

endoneurium

Within a nerve, each axon is surrounded by a covering called the __________.

endoneurium

These glial cell line cerebrospinal fluid-filled cavities in the CNS.

ependymal cells

The outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding a skeletal muscle is the

epimysium

triceps brachii

extend elbow

extensor carpi radialis brevis

extends and abducts wrist

extensor carpi radialis longus

extends and abducts wrist

extensor carpi ulnaris

extends and adducts wrist

triceps brachii

extends elbow joint ( prime mover)

extensor hallicus longus

extends great toe, dorsiflexes foot

extensor pollicis longus

extends joints of thumb adducts wrist

extensor pollicis brevis

extends joints of thumb; adducts wrist

quadriceps femoris

extends knee joint (prime mover) and flexes thigh at hip rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius

Acting bilaterally, the splenius capitis __________.

extends the head

teres major

extends, adducts, and medially rotates arm

Extends and abducts the hand.

extensor carpi radialis brevis

extends and abducts the wrist

extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis

The prime mover of wrist extension is the __________.

extensor digitorum

extends the thumb

extensor pollicus longus and brevis

Which muscles are most responsible for the inspiration phase of normal breathing?

external intercostal muscles and diaphragm

This mucle is named for the direction of its fibers

external oblique

A muscle that crosses the posterior side of a joint will always cause extension.

false

Although all skeletal muscles have different shapes, the fascicle arrangement of each muscle is exactly the same.

false

The deltoid is a prime mover of the arm that acts in adduction.

false

The muscles of facial expression insert into skin or other muscles, not bones.

false

Each of the elements that make up a skeletal muscle is surrounded by connective tissue. Which words below correctly pair the connective tissue layer with the corresponding muscle structure?

fascicle: perimysium

In general, a muscle that crosses on the anterior side of a joint produces ________.

felxion

Muscle that stabilizes the origin of another muscle.

fixator

Which description of a muscle action is NOT correct? Antagonists counter the action of a prime mover. Synergists help agonists. Fixators hold joints in place, so movement does not occur. Agonists are the prime movers for an action.

fixators hold joints in place, so movement does not occur. Fixators do hold a bone in place; however, they provide a stable base for a prime mover to create movement.

biceps brachii

flex elbow

sternocleidomastoid

flex neck

rectus abdominis

flex trunk (body)

flexor carpi ulnaris

flexes and adducts wrist

flexor digitorum superficialis

flexes wrist and middle phalanges of fingers 2-5

slow-acting finger flexor

flexor DIGITORUM profundus

This forearm muscle is a powerful wrist flexor.

flexor carpi radialis

Powerful flexor and adductor of hand.

flexor carpi ulnaris

Stabilizes the wrist during finger extension.

flexor carpi ulnaris

flexes the wrist

flexor carpi ulnaris

powerful wrist flexor that also stabilizes the wrist during finger extension

flexor carpi ulnaris

Flexes distal interphalangeal joints.

flexor digitorum profundus

The actions of the internal intercostals are most important during __________.

forced expiration

Wrist abduction occurs through the actions of __________ muscles.

four

A cluster of neurons in the peripheral nervous system is called a ________.

ganglion

A cluster of neurons in the peripheral nervous system is called a ________. nucleus pod ganglion fasciculus

ganglion

Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh?

iliopsoas and rectus femoris

A prime mover (agonist)

is primarily responsible for movement.

origin of hamstring group

ischium

antagonist to pectoralis group

latissimus dorsi

muscles that act on the ____ ____ cause movement at the hip, knee, and foot joints

lower limb

Vesicles in the axon terminal contain ________.

neurotransmitters

Identify the cranial nerve I

olfactory nerve

Name the muscle at A.

orbicularis oculi

The layer of the meninges in direct contact with the spinal cord is the

pia mater

antagonist to hamstring group

quadriceps group

there abdominal muscles are responsible for giving me my "six-pack", they also stabilize my pelvis when walking

rectus abdominis

antagonist to serratus ventralis

rhomboideus

retract the scapula

rhomboids

Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the

subarachnoid space

The smallest contractile unit within skeletal muscle would correspond to the distance between which two points in the figure? 1 and 7 3 and 5 1 and 3 2 and 6

1 and 7

The smallest contractile unit within skeletal muscle would correspond to the distance between which two points in the figure

1 and 7 The distance between points 1 and 7 spans a sarcomere, the smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber.

Which of the following corresponds to a single fascicle? (img 4) >A >B >C >D

>B. A fascicle is an organized group of muscle fibers (cells) bounded by a perimysium.

Which protein is indicated by the letter A? (img 5) >actin >troponin >myosin >keratin

>actin. Actin is the chief component of the thin myofilaments.

Which letter represents the biceps brachii muscle?

A

Which of the following corresponds to a single fascicle?

A fascicle is an organized group of muscle fibers (cells) bounded by a perimysium.

The cranial and spinal nerves make up what part of the nervous system? A. The peripheral nervous system B. The somatic nervous system only C. The autonomic nervous system only D. The central nervous system

A.

muscle that OPPOSES and reverses the action of another muscle

ANTagonist

Tawanda finishes a sprint and suffers great pain in her calf muscles. Her muscle cramps are most likely due to a temporary deficit of

ATP

Filaments between the arachnoid and pia mater within the subarachnoid space

Arachnoid trabeculae

Central nervous system fibers carrying sensory information from the spinal cord or periphery to the brain

Ascending tract

Which muscle tenses the skin of the neck and assists in depression of the mandible?

B

Nerve plexus associated with the lower cervical spinal nerves and first thoracic spinal nerve

Brachial plexus

Which muscle would be a prime mover of knee extension?

C

Proprioception is _______. A. the awareness of one's internal environment B. the awareness of one's external environment C. the awareness of one's position and movement of skeletal muscles and joints D. the awareness of your deepest thoughts

C.

Bundle of spinal nerve roots that descend from the lower spinal cord below the first lumbar vertebra and lie within the vertebral cavity; has the appearance of a horse's tail

Cauda equina

Which muscle is the prime mover of dorsiflexion?

D

Which muscle is an antagonist to the biceps brachii muscle?

D - Triceps brachii

External Intercostal

Deep muscles of the thorax that promote the inspiratory phase of breathing.

Blood leaving the central nervous system drains first into the:

Dural sinuses

The arachnoid granulations, where the CSF is filtered back into the blood for drainage from the nervous system, are found in the:

Dural sinuses

The nervous system derived from which of the 3 germ layers?

Ectoderm

The glial cell that assists in the forms of cerebrospinal fluid is the:

Ependymal cell

Graded potential in the postsynaptic membrane that is the result of depolarization and makes an action potential more likely to occur.

Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

True or False: Cranial nerves are always mixed.

False They can be sensory only or motor only as well.

Graded potential in the postsynaptic membrane that is the result of hyperpolarization and makes an action potential less likely to occur.

Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)

Collection of structures of the cerebral cortex that are involved in emotion, memory, and behavior and are part of the larger limbos system

Limbic cortex

Structures at the edge (limit) of the boundary between the forebrain and hindbrain that are most associated with emotional behavior and memory formation

Limbic system

type of acetylcholine receptor protein that is characterized by also binding to muscarine and is an metabotropic receptor.

Muscarinic receptor

Epicranius

Muscle composed of the Frontalis and the Occipitalis (Frontal belly and Occipital belly).

Latissimus Dorsi

Muscle that adducts the shoulder and causes extension of the shoulder joint & Large paired superficial muscle of the lower back.

Secondary vesicle of the embryonic brain that develops into the medulla

Myelencephalon

Network of nerves without neuronal cell bodies included

Nerve plexus

Peripheral neuropathy has a variety of causes. Worldwide, the most common cause is leprosy, also known as Hansen's disease. Would you expect peripheral neuropathy to cause damage to tracts or to nerves? Why?

Nerves are damaged in the periphery as a result of a bacterial infection.

Network of nerves or nervous tissue

Plexus

Autonomic ganglia that are anterior to the vertebral column and functionally related to the sympathetic chain ganglia

Prevertebral ganglia

Initial enlargements of the anterior neural tube during embryonic development that develop into the forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain

Primary vesicle

Deltoid

Prime mover for shoulder abduction.

Pectoralis Major

Prime mover for shoulder flexion and adduction.

Masseter

Prime mover of Jaw closure.

Nucleus deep in the cerebrum that is part of the basal nuclei; along with the caudate, it is part of the striatum

Putamen

Systemic nerve of the lower anterior leg that is a branch from the femoral nerve

Saphenous nerve

The formation of myelin in the peripheral nervous system is accomplished by these cells.

Schwann cells

Systemic nerve from the sacral plexus that is a combination of the tibial and fibular nerves and extends across the hip joint and gluteal region into the upper posterior leg

Sciatic nerve

Five vesicles that develop from primary vesicles, continues the process of differentiation of the embryonic brain

Secondary vesicle

The dorsal root ganglion is the site of nerve cell bodies with ___________ function.

Sensory

Lila was suffering from meningitis, and the doctors did a lumbar puncture, drawing cerebrospinal fluid from her ___________ space.

Subarachnoid

Half of the midbrain tectum that is responsible for aligning visual, auditory, and somatosensory spatial perceptions

Superior colliculus

Orbicularis Oris

The "kissing" muscle.

What is the brain divided into?

The brain is divided into 4 main areas: Cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon and brain stem.

Outline the two main functions of the Central Nervous System

The control of behavior and the regulation of the body's physiological processes.

What does the hypothalamus do?

The hypothalamus has important functions- including the regulation of body temp, hunger and thirst.

What are the two main divisions of the Peripheral Nervous System?

The somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.

The central sulcus is:

The surface landmark of the cerebral cortex that marks the boundary between the frontal and parietal lobes.

rotates the scapula

Trapezius

________ is a powerful forearm extensor at the elbow joint.

Triceps brachii

Systemic nerve of the arm located close to the ulna, a bone of the forearm

Ulnar nerve

Internal Intercostals

What muscle inserts at the superior rib's inferior border?

Platysma

What muscle originates at the fascia of thorax?

Zygomaticus

What muscle originates at the zygomatic bone?

External Intercostals

What muscle originates from the superior rib's inferior border?

Masseter

What originates at the zygomatic arch?

Frontalis

What originates from the epicranial aponeurosis?

Orbicularis Oris

What originates from the maxilla and mandible?

The linea alba is

a band of tough connective tissue to which abdominal wall muscles attach

What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts?

a synergist

a prime mover or ________ produces a particular type of movement. a. agonist b. antagonist c. fixator d. synergist

a. agonist

The two headed muscle bulges, when the forearm is flexed. It is the most familiar muscle of the anterior humerus. It is the ___________. a. biceps brachii b. flexor carpi radialis c. extensor digitorum d. triceps brachii

a. biceps brachii

The first event in muscle fiber contraction is that

acetylcholine is released from the end of the motor neuron

corachobrachialis

adducts and flexes arm

You have lost the sensation, but not movement, in one of your hands due to a problem with your spinal cord neurons. Based upon these symptoms, what type of neuron was most likely affected?

afferent neuron

A prime mover or __________ produces a particular type of movement. 1)agonist 2)fixator 3)synergist

agonist

This type of sensory neuron is quite rare.

bipolar

This type of sensory neuron is quite rare. multipolar bipolar unipolar

bipolar

spinal cord are

both sensory and motor

The dark band of skeletal muscle consists of ________.

both thick and thin filaments

The names of these muscles tell you their actions.

brachioradialis and sternocleidomastoid

The soleus is a muscle that forms part of the

calf

The muscle that adducts and flexes the arm is the

coracobrachialis

A band in cardiac muscle

dark

The enzyme acetylecholinesterase cause acetylcholine to

decompose

True or false: the biceps femoris is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh.

false

What is the parietal lobe involved in?

integration information from the different senses and plays an important role in spatial navigation.

I band in cardiac muscle

light

digastric

lower mandible

origin of external oblique

lumbodorsal fascia

Threshold stimulus is the

minimal amount of energy required to contract a muscle fiber

Groups of axons within a nerve are bound into fascicles by a coarse connective tissue called ________.

perineurium

Groups of fibers are bound into fascicles by a coarse connective tissue called ________. endoneurium perineurium epineurium

perineurium

The layer of connective tissue that surrounds a fascicle within a peripheral nerve is the

perineurium.

flexor hallucis longus

plantar flexes and inverts foot; flexes great toe; push off muscle durring walking

masseter

raise mandible

Which of the following muscles of the trunk originates on the pubic crest?

rectus abdominis

The quadriceps femoris is composed of three "vastus" muscles and the ________.

rectus femoris

Oligodendrocytes form myelin around ________.

several axons in the central nervous system

The specialized membranes that surround the spinal cord are termed the

spinal meninges

A dorsal and ventral root of each spinal segment unite to form a

spinal nerve

rotator cuff

stabilizes shoulder joint

origin of temporalis

temporal

The connective tissue that covers structure A is continuous with which of the following?

tendon

This strong, cord-like structure attaches muscles to bones.

tendon

Oxygen debt in muscles may develop because of

the inability of respiratory and circulatory systems to supply enough oxygen to skeletal muscles when used strenuously for a minute or two

Brachioradialis and sternocleidomastoid are named for

the location of their origin and insertion.

Skeletal muscles help maintain body temperature in that

the more active they are, the more heat is released

The functional unit of muscle contraction is

the sarcomere

A superficial muscle of the leg, this one dorsiflexes the foot

tibialis anterior

The ________ runs deep to the internal oblique.

transversus abdominis

This name reveals the number of the muscle's origins.

triceps brachii

triceps brachii insertion

ulna

Gastrocnemius

"Toe dancer's" muscle; a 2-bellied muscle of the calf.

List 3 processes that form the embryonic nervous system. 1.) 2.) 3.)

1.) Ectodermic neural plate drops to form neural groove that closes to form neural tube. Anterior part of the neural tube will become the brain while posterior part will become the spinal cord. 2.) The neural folds surrounding the neural plate fuse when the neural tube closes and becomes the neural crest from which the PNS will differentiate. 3.) The anterior part of the neural tube develops in 3 vesicles (from most anterior): forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain.

List 4 statements that apply to nerves.

1.) Nerves are protected by a series of 3 layers of connective tissue, the toughness of each decreases as we move deeper in the nerve structure. 2.) Nerves, in addition to axons, May contain blood vessels and adipose tissue. 3.) nerves are visible with the naked eyes. 4.) Nerves are organized in spinal or cranial that progressively branch to form the peripheral nerves, then the terminal nerves.

The three primary vesicles are:

1.) Prosencephalon 2.) Mesencephalon 3.) Rhombencephalon

List four facts about he nervous system. 1.) 2.) 3.) 4.)

1.) The nervous system is the first body system to develop in the embryo. 2.) While all the adult structures of the brain derive from the 10 most anterior (or cephalic) segments of the neural tube, the bulk of the brain derived from the primary vesicle called the forebrain or prosencephalon. 3.) The development of the spinal cord is determined as the neural tube is formed and will occur in 33 segments. 4.) The anterior or cephalic part of the neural tube closes before the posterior or caudal part of it.

Between which two points would there be substantial amounts of both the proteins actin and myosin? 2 and 3 1 and 2 3 and 5 None of the listed responses is correct.

2 and 3

The region between which two points corresponds to the entire A band? 2 and 6 3 and 5 2 and 3 1 and 2

2 and 6

The region between which two points corresponds to the entire A (dark) band?

2 and 6 The A band, also know as the dark band, is occupied by the entire length of thick myofilaments

Internal Oblique & Tranversus Abdominus

2 muscle pairs that help form the natural abdominal girdle.

After age ________ the vertebral column continues to elongate, but the spinal cord itself does not.

4

The spinal cord continues to elongate until about age

4 years

Arrange the following steps for contraction in the correct sequence. 1. The muscle impulse reaches the sarcoplasmic reticulum and calcium is released 2. Thin filaments are pulled over the thick filaments 3. Calcium floods the sarcoplasm and binds to troponin molecules leaving active sites 4. The impulse arrives at the synapse and travels through the transverse tubules 5. The muscle fiber shortens and contracts 6. Tropomyosin molecules bind to exposed active sites, linking actin and myosin

4,1,3,6,2,5

How are the pairs of spinal nerves distributed?

8 pairs of cervical, 12 pairs of thoracic, 5 pairs of lumbar, 5 pairs of sacral, and 1 pair of coccygeal.

The smallest contractile unit within skeletal muscle would correspond to the distance between which two points in the figure? (img 1) >3 and 5 >1 and 3 >1 and 7 >2 and 6

>1 and 7. The distance between points 1 and 7 spans a sarcomere, the smallest contractile unit of a muscle fiber.

The region between which two points corresponds to the entire A (dark) band? (img 1) Relationship between fibers composing a sarcomere. >1 and 2 >2 and 3 >3 and 5 >2 and 6

>2 and 6 The A band, also know as the dark band, is occupied by the entire length of thick myofilaments.

The molecular interaction described as a cross bridge involves the binding of which two proteins? (img 5) >A and C >B and D >A and D >A and B

>A and C. Cross bridges between thin and thick myofilaments are formed by the specific interaction between actin (A) and myosin head groups (C).

Which step precedes all of the other listed steps? >The sarcoplasmic reticulum is activated. >An action potential starts on the sarcolemma. >Na+ rushes into the cell. >ACh is released by the motor neuron.

>ACh is released by the motor neuron. The first step toward generating a skeletal muscle contraction is nervous stimulation of the muscle fiber in order to generate an action potential. The site of muscle stimulation, where the nerve ending communicates with the muscle fiber, is called the neuromuscular junction.

Which of the following interactions must occur first so that the others can take place? (Refer to img 5) Interaction between thick and thin filaments during muscle contraction. >B binds to troponin. >D is shifted from actin's binding sites. >C binds to actin. >C releases ADP and P.

>B binds to troponin. Binding of calcium (B) to troponin removes the blocking action of tropomyosin along the thin myofilament. This allows myosin to bind to actin and form the cross bridge illustrated in this figure.

Which of the structures is surrounded by the connective tissue sheath known as the perimysium? (img 4) A B C D

>B. The structure at B is covered by the perimysium. Remember that the word root peri means "around," as in "perimeter."

Which statement accurately describes the event indicated by B? (img 2) >The binding of acetylcholine directly causes the formation of a wave of depolarization. >Diffusion of acetylcholine into the muscle fiber triggers the opening of an ion channel. >Binding of acetylcholine to a receptor triggers the opening of an ion channel. >Diffusion of Ca2+ into the muscle fiber triggers the diffusion of acetylcholine out of the muscle fiber.

>Binding of acetylcholine to a receptor triggers the opening of an ion channel. Binding of acetylcholine to its receptor opens chemically (ligand) gated ion channels that allow Na+ and K+ to diffuse across the sarcolemma.

Which structure in the figure corresponds to a single skeletal muscle cell? (img 4) >A >B >C >D

>C. Note that a skeletal muscle cell is commonly termed a muscle fiber.

Which protein functions as a motor protein that applies the power stroke during muscle contraction? (img 5) >A >B >C >D

>C. The myosin head groups (C) hydrolyze ATP to power molecular movement along the actin subunits of the thin myofilaments.

If the cell could no longer produce ATP, what would be the effect on the sarcoplasmic reticulum? >It would be unable to concentrate Ca+ in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. >Ca+ would leak out of the cell. >The muscle would not contract. >Ca+ would build up in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

>It would be unable to concentrate Ca+ in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. To concentrate Ca+ in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, active transport must occur. With no ATP, there would be no active transport.

Based on what you know of the relationship between the thick and the thin filaments, what would happen if a disorder existed that caused a person to produce no tropomyosin? >The muscle tissues would never be able to relax. >The muscle would be weaker than normal. >Actin will spontaneously fall apart. >The muscle would never contract.

>The muscle tissues would never be able to relax. The tropomyosin covers the myosin binding site on actin. Without tropomyosin, the myosin would constantly have access to those binding sites.

In the muscles of the limbs, the origin is usually the immobile muscle attachment. >True >False

>True. In the muscles of the limbs, the insertion is pulled toward the immobile origin.

What event directly triggers the release of neurotransmitter shown in A? (img 2) Summary of events at a neuromuscular synapse. >diffusion of Na+ into the axon terminal >diffusion of Na+ out of the axon terminal >diffusion of Ca2+ into the axon terminal >diffusion of K+ into the axon terminal

>diffusion of Ca2+ into the axon terminal. A nerve impulse arrives at the axon terminal triggering the opening of Ca2+ channels, which allows for the diffusion of Ca2+ into the terminal. This in turn leads directly to the release of neurotransmitters by exocytosis.

The sliding filament model of contraction states that __________. >during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments no longer overlap >during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments overlap to a greater degree >during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that calcium ions can be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum >during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past T tubules so that the Z discs are overlapping

>during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that the actin and myosin myofilaments overlap to a greater degree. The sliding filament model of contraction states that during contraction, the thin myofilaments slide past the thick myofilaments so that actin and myosin myofilaments overlap to a greater degree. In a relaxed muscle fiber, the thick and thin myofilaments overlap only at the ends of the A band.

Muscle tissue can be stimulated by the nervous system. This is because of the membrane potential in the muscle cell. Cells with a membrane potential have what property? >excitability >extensibility >elasticity >contractility

>excitability. Excitability, also termed responsiveness, is the ability to receive and respond to a stimulus. For example, skeletal muscle contracts in response to receiving chemical stimulation from the central nervous system.

What cellular event is indicated by A? >endocytosis >facilitated diffusion >active transport >exocytosis

>exocytosis. Neurotransmitters stored in synaptic vesicles are released into the synaptic cleft by exocytosis.

Which term best identifies a muscle cell? >sarcomere >muscle fascicle >myofibril >muscle fiber

>muscle fiber. Skeletal muscle cells fuse during development to form the mature, multinucleated muscle fibers.

Which term best identifies a muscle cell? >sarcomere >myofibril >muscle fiber >muscle fascicle

>muscle fiber. Skeletal muscle cells fuse during development to form the mature, multinucleated muscle fibers.

Which protein is indicated by the letter E? (img 5) >tropomyosin >troponin >actin >myosin

>myosin. Myosin tail groups form the extended regions of the thick myofilament.

What is the function of the filaments found in ranges 1-2 and 6-7 but no other ranges? (Refer to img 1) Relationship between fibers composing a sarcomere. >neurological sensing of the muscle's tension >a connection between the myosin fibers and a calcium source >adding strength to contraction >protection from overstretching

>protection from overstretching. Elastic (titin) filaments help to protect the muscle from overstretching and also aid in returning it to normal length.

Excitation-contraction coupling includes all EXCEPT which of the following events? >release of acetylcholine from axon terminals at the neuromuscular junction >binding of calcium ions to troponin, which removes the blocking action of tropomyosin >propagation of an action potential along the sarcolemma and down T tubules >release of calcium ions from the terminal cisterns

>release of acetylcholine from axon terminals at the neuromuscular junction. Release of acetylcholine from axon terminals at the neuromuscular junction is an event that precedes excitation-contraction coupling, which begins with excitation of the T-tubules.

The __________ shorten(s) during muscle contraction >Z lines >thick filament >actin >sarcomere

>sarcomere. As actin slides over myosin, the z lines are pulled closer together, shortening the sarcomere.

Which of the following is NOT a normal function of muscle tissue? >secreting hormones >generating heat >stabilizing joints >maintaining posture >producing movement

>secreting hormones. Secreting hormones is a function of the endocrine system.

Which of the following are correctly paired? >smooth muscle; striated >skeletal muscle; voluntary control >cardiac muscle; nonstriated >cardiac muscle; voluntary control

>skeletal muscle; voluntary control.

Which type of muscle requires voluntary nervous stimulation for activation? >skeletal >smooth >cardiac >visceral

>skeletal. In order to contract, skeletal muscle fibers must be voluntarily stimulated by the nervous system. The site of muscle stimulation, where the nerve fiber communicates with the muscle fiber, is called the neuromuscular junction.

The connective tissue that covers structure A is continuous with which of the following? >ligament >synovial membrane >endomysium >tendon

>tendon. The dense connective tissue at A is continuous with the tendon that connects the muscle to a bone or, in some cases, to another muscle or to the skin.

A toxin released by certain bacteria can block the release of neurotransmitters into a neuromuscular synapse. What would result from such a block? >The muscle would become permanently contracted. >The muscle would remain fixed at the length it was when the toxin contacted it. >the loss of ability to contract the muscle

>the loss of ability to contract the muscle. Without acetylcholine, the muscle would not be able to contract or even maintain tone.

Which of the following regions best identifies where myosin would have maximum cross-bridge access to actin? (img 1) >the region between 1 and 2 >4 >the region between 3 and 5 >the region between 2 and 3

>the region between 2 and 3. Actin and myosin are components of thin and thick filaments, respectively. The region between points 2 and 3 includes the area of overlap between thin and thick filaments.

The contractile, or functional, unit of a muscle fiber is __________. >the myofilament >troponin >the sarcomere >the elastic filament

>the sarcomere. The sarcomere is the contractile unit of a muscle fiber and the smallest functional unit of muscle. A sarcomere is the region of a myofibril between two successive Z discs; it primarily consists of thin and thick myofilaments.

Which organelle can chemically regulate the shortening of the muscle? >the sarcolemma >the sarcoplasmic reticulum >the myofibril >glycosome

>the sarcoplasmic reticulum

An enzyme known as acetylcholinesterase is present in the synaptic cleft. What is its role? >to facilitated transport of acetylcholine across the cleft >to pump Ca2+ back out of the axon terminal >to facilitate the entrance of acetylcholine into the muscle cell >to break down acetylcholine

>to break down acetylcholine. Acetylcholinesterase breaks acetylcholine apart, terminating the synaptic transmission. Choline can be taken back into the axon terminal and reused.

The interaction between which protein and ion initiates contraction of skeletal muscle? >tropomyosin; calcium ions >troponin; calcium ions >myosin; sodium ions >troponin; sodium ions

>troponin; calcium ions. When calcium ions bind to troponin, troponin changes shape and moves tropomyosin away from its inhibitory position. As a result, the energized myosin heads can bind to the actin molecules and begin the cross bridge cycle, which shortens the muscle fiber.

Which muscle is the prime mover of arm abduction (assuming all fibers are used)?

A

Which letter represents the biceps brachii muscle? A B C D

A The biceps brachii is a two-headed fusiform muscle. The tendon of the long head helps to stabilize the shoulder joint.

Which muscle is a prime mover of arm abduction? A B C D

A This muscle originates along the spine and ribs and inserts into the humerus. It is a powerful actor during chin-ups.

Which letter represents the biceps brachii muscle?

A The biceps brachii is a two-headed fusiform muscle. The tendon of the long head helps to stabilize the shoulder joint.

Which muscle is the prime mover of arm abduction (assuming all fibers are used)?

A The deltoid muscle has three sets of fibers. If all three are activated, the arm is abducted at the shoulder.

A ganglion is:

A cluster of nerve cells in the peripheral nervous system.

The hippocampus is:

A gray matter structure that particularly provides for formation of long term memories.

Adductors

A group of muscles that allows you to draw your legs to the midline of your body.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding muscle position and its related action?

A muscle that crosses on the posterior side of the knee joint produces flexion.

The main functional difference between the autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system is that the activities of the ANS __________. A. are primarily involuntary, or under "automatic" control B. affect skeletal muscle activity C. are primarily voluntarily controlled D. carry impulses to the CNS

A.

The part of the neuron that performs the metabolic work of the cell to keep the neuron alive and functioning properly is the __________. A. cell body or soma B. dendrite C. axon terminal D. axoplasm

A.

Which of the following describes multipolar neurons? A. A neuron with two or more dendrites; characteristic of all motor neurons B. A neuron with numerous dendrites but no visible axon; characteristic of some small neurons in the brain C. A neuron with one dendrite and one axon; characteristic of neurons in special sense organs A neuron with continuous dendrites and axon; characteristic of most sensory neurons

A.

This muscle compresses the cheek when you whistle. A. buccinator B. depressor labii inferioris C. masseter D. levator labii superioris

A. buccinator

Muscles are named based on all the criteria below except ________. A. color of the muscle B. direction of muscle fibers C. action of the muscle D. number of origins

A. color of the muscle

This powerful muscle is the prime mover of arm extension. A. latissimus dorsi B. rhomboids C. supraspinatus D. teres minor

A. latissimus dorsi

Sixth cranial nerve; responsible for contraction of one of the extraocular muscles

Abducens nerve

Sternocleidomastoid

Acting alone, each muscle of this pair turns the head toward the opposite shoulder.

Developmental region of the spinal cord that gives rise to the posterior horn of the gray matter

Alar plate

Nucleus deep in the temporal lobe of the cerebrum that is related to memory and emotional behavior

Amygdala

The nucleus in the forebrain which functions in emotion and memory formation is the __________.

Amygdala

Which of the following structures is NOT part of the basal nucleus?

Amygdala

Diaphragm

An unpaired muscle that acts with the muscles named immediately above to accomplish inspiration.

White matter between the anterior horns of the spinal cord composed of many different groups of axons of both ascending and descending tracts

Anterior column

Gray matter of the spinal cord containing multipolar motor neurons, sometimes referred to as the ventral horn

Anterior horn

What region of the spinal cord contains motor neurons that direct the movement of skeletal muscles?

Anterior horn

Deep midline feature of the anterior spinal cord, marking the separation between the right and left sides of the cord

Anterior median fissure

Blood vessel from the merged branches of the vertebral arteries that runs along the anterior surface of the spinal cord

Anterior spinal artery

Outpocket of the arachnoid membrane into the rural sinuses that allows for reabsorption of CSF into the blood

Arachnoid granulation

Middle layer of the meninges named for the spider-web-like trabeculae that extend between it and the pia mater

Arachnoid mater

The middle layer of the meninges which overlies a web-like trabeculae is the:

Arachnoid mater

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is a neurodegenerative disease in which motor neurons are progressively destroyed. Excess levels of the neurotransmitter glutamate have been implicated in this process. Which type of neuroglia would play a role in controlling glutamate levels in the chemical environment of neurons?

Astrocytes

What type of ganglion contains neurons that control homeostatic mechanisms of the body?

Autonomic ganglion

Systemic nerve of the arm that arises from the brachial plexus

Axillary nerve

A fascicle is a bundle of:

Axons

The endoneurium covers:

Axons

Identify the gluteus maximus muscle.

B

Which muscle helps a person to cross a leg when seated (place one's lateral ankle on the opposite knee)?

B

Which of the following letters represents the sartorius muscle?

B

Which of the muscles, A, B, or D, has action at only one joint?

B

Which structure corresponds to a single fascicle? A B C D

B

Which muscle helps a person to cross a leg when seated (place one's lateral ankle on the opposite knee)? A B C D

B Sartorius laterally rotates and abducts the thigh, which would both be necessary in placing one ankle on the opposite knee when sitting.

Identify the gluteus maximus muscle. A B C D

B The gluteus maximus is the large muscle that defines the buttocks and is a major thigh extensor.

Which of the following letters represents the infraspinatus muscle? A B C D

B The infraspinatus muscle originates in (and is named for) the infraspinous fossa of the scapula. (Be careful that you don't confuse the words infraspinous and infraspinatus.)

Which muscle tenses the skin of the neck and assists in depression of the mandible? A B C D

B The platysma muscle tenses the neck skin and aids in depressing the mandible. It originates in the fascia of the upper chest.

Which of the structures is surrounded by the connective tissue sheath known as the perimysium?

B The structure at B is covered by the perimysium. Remember that the word root peri means "around," as in "perimeter.

Which of the muscles indicated by letters has action at only one joint? A B D

B This muscle originates on the humerus and extends to the ulna, so it only has action at the elbow joint.

Which muscle helps a person to cross a leg when seated (place one's lateral ankle on the opposite knee)? 1)A 2)B 3)C

B Sartorius laterally rotates and abducts the thigh, which would both be necessary in placing one ankle on the opposite knee when sitting.

Which muscle tenses the skin of the neck and assists in depression of the mandible? 1)A 2)B 3)C

B The platysma muscle tenses the neck skin and aids in depressing the mandible. It originates in the fascia of the upper chest.

A node along a myelinated axon represents an area where __________. A. there are interwoven layers of myelin and protein B. there is an absence of myelin C. there is a gap in the cell membrane D. there is a layer of fat

B.

Interneurons are responsible for __________. A. carrying instructions from the CNS to peripheral effectors B. analyzing sensory inputs and coordinating motor outputs C. delivering information to the CNS D. collecting information from the external or internal environment

B.

Telodendria __________. A. are major branches along an axon B. are fine extensions at the end of axons C. are the same as the plasma membrane of the axon D. directly communicate with another cell

B.

Which functional division of the nervous system controls skeletal muscle contractions? A. Afferent division B. Somatic nervous system C. Peripheral nervous system D. Autonomic nervous system

B.

What is the correct order of structures as you move from outside a muscle cell, to deep inside it? A. myofibril, myofilament, fiber B. fiber, myofibril, myofilament C. myofilament, fiber, myofibril D. myofilament, myofibril, fiber

B. fiber, myofibril, myofilament

Nuclei of the cerebrum related to modulation of sensory stimuli and attention through broad projections to the cerebral cortex, loss of which is related to Alzheimer's disease

Basal forebrain

Nuclei of the cerebrum (with a few components in the upper brain stem and diencephalon) that are responsible for assessing cortical movement commands and comparing them with the general state of the individual through broad modulatory activity of dopamine neurons; largely related to motor functions, as evidenced through the symptoms of Parkinson's and Huntington's diseases

Basal nuclei

Developmental region of the spinal cord that gives rise to the lateral and anterior horns of gray matter

Basal plate

Blood vessel from the merged vertebral arteries that runs along the dorsal surface of the brain stem

Basilar artery

Class of neurotransmitters that are enzymatically derived from amino acids but no longer contain a carboxyl group.

Biogenic amine

Basal nuclei (also known as basal ganglia), have two pathways that process information within the cerebrum. As shown in this video, the direct pathway is the shorter pathway through the system that results in increased activity in the cerebral cortex and increased motor activity. The direct pathway is described as resulting in "disinhibition" of the thalamus. What does disinhibition mean? What are the two neurons doing individually to cause this?

Both cells are inhibitory. The first cell inhibits the second one. Therefore, the second cell no longer inhibits its target. This is disinhibition of that target across two synapses.

The anterior part of the neural tube develop in the ________ hole the posterior part will give rise to the _________.

Brain / spinal cord

Region of the adult brain that includes the midbrain, pond, and medulla oblongata and develops from the mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelincephalon of the embryonic brain.

Brain stem

Region of the frontal lobe associated with the motor commands necessary for speech production and located only in the cerebral hemisphere responsible for language production, which is the left side in approximately 95 percent of the population

Broca's area

Your patient is not able to speak coherently after a stroke on the left side of his brain. He can understand everything you are saying, but he cannot articulate a response. You know that his stroke must have affected his:

Broca's area

Mapping of regions of the cerebral cortex based on microscopic anatomy that relates specific areas to functional differences, as described by Brodmann in the early 1900s

Brodmann's areas

Watch this video to learn about the basal nuclei (also know. As the basal ganglia), which have two pathways that process information within the cerebrum. The indirect pathway is the longer pathway through the system that results in decreased activity in the cerebral cortex, and therefore less motor activity. The indirect pathway has an extra couple of connections in it. Including disinhibition of the subthalamic nucleus. What is the end result on the thalamus, and therefore on movement initiated by the cerebral cortex?

By disinhibiting the subthalamic nucleus, the indirect pathway increases excitation of the globes pallidus internal segment. That, in turn, inhibits the thalamus, which is the opposite effect of the direct pathway that disinhibits the thalamus.

Identify the extensor digitorum longus muscle.

C

Identify the palmaris longus muscle.

C

In the figure above, which structure corresponds to a single skeletal muscle cell? A, B, C, D?

C

Which of the following letters represents the infraspinatus muscle?

C

In which phase in the figure would the net movement of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) be greatest?

C During the period of relaxation (C), Ca2+ is transported by active transport into the SR. Decreased Ca2+ concentrations in the sarcoplasm leads to detachment of cross bridges and, consequently, decreased contractile force.

Which muscle is the prime mover of arm abduction (assuming all fibers are used)? A B C D

C The deltoid muscle has three sets of fibers. If all three are activated, the arm is abducted at the shoulder.

Which muscle has a unipennate arrangement of fascicles? A B C D

C The extensor digitorum longus inserts into only one side of the tendon, giving it a unipennate arrangement.

Identify the extensor digitorum longus muscle. A B C D

C The extensor digitorum longus is on the anterolateral surface of the leg; it is lateral to the tibialis anterior muscle.

Which muscle inserts on the greater tubercle of the humerus? A B C D

C The infraspinatus typically originates on the infraspinous fossa of the scapula and inserts into the greater tubercle of the humerus posterior to the insertion of supraspinatus.

Which muscle would be a prime mover of knee extension? A B C D

C The muscle in C originates on the coxal bone and inserts into the patella. It is a powerful knee extensor.

Identify the palmaris longus muscle. A B C D

C This muscle inserts into the fascia of the palm and acts to tense the skin and fascia of the palm during hand movement. It is interesting that this muscle is missing in just over 10% of humans.

Identify the extensor digitorum longus muscle 1)A 2)B 3)C

C The extensor digitorum longus is on the anterolateral surface of the leg; it is lateral to the tibialis anterior muscle

Which of the following letters represents the infraspinatus muscle? 1)A 2)B 3)C

C The infraspinatus muscle originates in (and is named for) the infraspinous fossa of the scapula. (Be careful that you don't confuse the words infraspinous and infraspinatus.)

Efferent pathways consist of axons that carry impulses __________. A. to the spinal cord and into the brain B. from the PNS to the CNS C. away from the CNS D. to the CNS

C.

Rabies is a viral disease contracted from the bite of an infected animal. Rabies bypasses many immune system defenses by traveling in peripheral neurons to reach the CNS. Which method of transport is NOT used by the rabies virus to reach the CNS? A. Osmosis B. Retrograde flow C. Anterograde flow D. Axoplasmic transport

C.

Sensory (ascending) pathways distribute information __________. A. from the central nervous system to the peripheral nervous system B. from motor pathways to interneurons in the CNS C. from peripheral receptors to processing centers in the brain D. from processing centers in the brain to peripheral receptors

C.

Sensory neurons are responsible for carrying impulses __________. A. from the CNS to the PNS B. away from the CNS C. to the CNS D. to the PNS

C.

What part of the neuron consists of the cytoplasm that surrounds the nucleus? A. Collateral B. Neurofibril C. Perikaryon D. Nissl body

C.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neurons? A. lack centrioles B. possess an excitable membrane for the production of action potentials C. divide when lost to injury or disease D. highly metabolic with large number of mitochondria

C.

Which part of the nervous system performs the higher-order thinking required to complete a practice exam? A. Afferent division B. Autonomic nervous system C. Central nervous system D. Peripheral nervous system

C.

A prime mover (agonist) ________. A. opposes or reverses a movement B. aids the action of the muscle primarily responsible for the movement C. is primarily responsible for a movement D. immobilizes the origin of the prime mover

C. is primarily responsible for a movement

The actual contractile units of muscles extend from Z disc to Z disc. They are ________. A. myofibrils B. thick filaments C. sarcomeres D. sarcoplasmic reticulum

C. sarcomeres

When both muscles of this pair are contracted simultaneously, they flex the neck forward. A. semispinalis B. platysma C. sternocleidomastoid D. trapezius

C. sternocleidomastoid

Which of the nerves are recombined through the cervical plexus?

CN XI, CN XII, and api al nerves cervical 1 to 5.

Opening in the temporal bone through which the internal carotid artery enters the cranium

Carotid canal

The ending of the spinal cord is a bundle of nerves, resembling a horse's tail, known as the ___________.

Cauda equina

Nucleus deep in the cerebrum that is part of the basal nuclei; along with the putamen, it is part of the striatum

Caudate

Hollow space within the spinal cord that is the remnant of the center of the neural tube

Central canal

Surface landmark of the cerebral cortex that marks the boundary between the frontal and priestly lobes

Central sulcus

The primary motor cortex and the primary sensory cortex is divided by the:

Central sulcus

The surface of the cerebral cortex is divided into the frontal and parietal loves by the __________.

Central sulcus

Region of the adult brain connected primarily to the pons that developed from the metencephalon (along with the pons) and is largely responsible for co Paring information from the cerebrum with sensory feedback from the periphery through the spinal cord

Cerebellum

Which of the following is NOT part of the brainstem?

Cerebellum

Connection of the ventricular system between the third and fourth ventricles located in the midbrain

Cerebral aqueduct

The third and fourth cerebral ventricles are connected by a passageway that passes through the midbrain, and is called:

Cerebral aqueduct

Brodmann's areas map different regions of the ______________ to particular functions.

Cerebral cortex

Outer gray matter covering the forebrain, marked by wrinkles and folds known as gyri and sulci

Cerebral cortex

The telencephalon gives rise to the following adult brain structures:

Cerebral cortex and basal nuclei

One half of the bilaterally symmetrical cerebrum

Cerebral hemisphere

The ventricles of the brain are filled with circulating:

Cerebrospinal fluid

Region of the adult brain that develops from the telencephalon and is responsible for higher neurological functions such as memory, emotion, and consciousness

Cerebrum

What are the four major regions of the adult brain?

Cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem, and cerebellum

Nerve plexus associated with the upper cervical spinal nerves

Cervical plexus

Neurotransmitter system of acetylcholine, which includes its receptors and the enzyme acetylcholinesterase.

Cholinergic system

A specialized membrane within the ventricles of the brain produces cerebrospinal fluid by filtering blood through ependymal cells. This membrane is the:

Choroid plexus

Specialized structures containing ependymal cells lining blood capillaries that filter blood to produce CSF in the four ventricles of the brain

Choroid plexus

The internal carotids and the branches of the basilar artery merge to form the _____________.

Circle of Willis

Unique anatomical arrangement of blood vessels around the base of the brain that maintains perfusion of blood into the brain even if one component of the structure is blocked or narrowed

Circle of Willis

Blood vessel that branches off the aorta (or the brachiocephalic artery on the right) and supplies blood to the head and neck

Common carotid artery

Define the central nervous system

Consists of the brain and the spinal cord. It has two main functions- to control behaviour and regulate the body's physiological processes.

What is the name of the caudal end of the spinal cord?

Conus medullaris

The deep structure which acts as a pathway for communication between the two halves of the cerebral hemisphere is the ______________.

Corpus callosum

One of twelve nerves connected to the brain that are responsible for sensory or motor functions of the head and neck

Cranial nerve

Sensory ganglion of cranial nerves

Cranial nerve ganglion

Which non-nervous tissue develops from the neuroectoderm?

Craniofacial bone

Which muscle originates on the pubic crest and symphysis and inserts on the xiphoid process and costal cartilages of ribs V through VII?

D

Which muscle provides a guide to the position of the radial artery at the wrist for taking the pulse?

D

Which of the following is the smallest structural unit in which the distinctive striated bands characteristic of skeletal muscle are observed? A B C D

D

Identify the levator ani muscle. A B C D

D The levator ani muscle is important in the support of the pelvic organs during various activities that put stress upon it, such as coughing and vomiting.

Which muscle is innervated by the S3 nerve, S4 nerve, and the inferior rectal nerve (a branch of the pudendal nerve)? A B C D

D The levator ani muscles are innervated by several nerves including the pudendal, while the other muscles indicated are innervated by the pudendal nerve alone.

Which muscle provides a guide to the position of the radial artery at the wrist for taking the pulse? A B C D

D The radial pulse can easily be found between the tendons of flexor carpi radialis and brachioradialis.

Which muscle originates on the pubic crest and symphysis and inserts on the xiphoid process and costal cartilages of ribs V through VII? A B C D

D The rectus abdominis originates on the pubic crest and symphysis and inserts on the xiphoid process and costal cartilages of ribs V through VII.

Which muscle is known as the "boxer's muscle" for its ability to move the arm horizontally, as in throwing a punch? A B C D

D The serratus anterior can be used to violently pull the scapula laterally and thus pull the shoulder forward, adding strength to a horizontal punch.

Which muscle is the prime mover of dorsiflexion? A B C D

D The tibialis anterior is the only indicated muscle that is a prime mover of dorsiflexion.

Which muscle is an antagonist to the biceps brachii muscle? A B C D

D The triceps brachii muscle extends the forearm, while the biceps brachii flexes it, making them antagonistic.

Which muscle provides a guide to the position of the radial artery at the wrist for taking the pulse? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D

D The radial pulse can easily be found between the tendons of flexor carpi radialis and brachioradialis.

Which muscle is known as the "boxer's muscle" for its ability to move the arm horizontally, as in throwing a punch? 1)A 2)B 3)C 4)D

D The serratus anterior can be used to violently pull the scapula laterally and thus pull the shoulder forward, adding strength to a horizontal punch.

After a large meal, Michelle's stomach feels very full. The sensory neurons responsible for sending this sense of fullness are __________. A. proprioceptors B. somatic sensory neurons C. exteroceptors D. interoceptors

D.

Rachel decides to go swimming, but when she sticks her big toe into the water, she changes her mind because the water is too cold. The sensory neurons responsible for sending the message about the cold temperature of the water are __________. A. proprioceptors B. interoceptors C. enviroceptors D. exteroceptors

D.

What part of the neuron is a long cytoplasmic process capable of propagating an action potential? A. Soma B. Perikaryon C. Dendrite D. Axon

D.

Which division of the nervous system, comprised of about 100 million neurons, initiates and coordinates many complex visceral reflexes in the walls of the digestive tract? A. Parasympathetic nervous system B. Central nervous system C. Sympathetic nervous system D. Enteric nervous system

D.

Which functional class of neurons carries electrical signals that control the contractions of smooth muscle and cardiac muscle? A. Visceral sensory neurons B. Somatic motor neurons C. Somatic sensory neurons D. Visceral motor neurons

D.

Which part of the nervous system controls smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, and adipose tissue subconsciously? A. The somatic nervous system B. The central nervous system C. The afferent division of the peripheral nervous system D. The autonomic nervous system

D.

Which structural class of neurons consists of neurons with one axon and one dendrite? A. Multipolar neurons B. Anaxonic neurons C. Unipolar neurons D. Bipolar neurons

D.

A neuron and all the muscle fibers it stimulates is called a ________. A. myoneural junction B. fascicle C. synaptic cleft D. motor unit

D. motor unit

The neuromuscular junction consists of ________. the end branch of a single nerve fiber touching a muscle a nerve touching a muscle a nerve coming into close proximity to a muscle fiber D. the axon terminal coming into close proximity to a muscle fiber

D. the axon terminal coming into close proximity to a muscle fiber

Central nervous system fibers carrying motor commands from the brain to the spinal cord or periphery

Descending tract

The metencephalon:

Develops into the cerebellum and pons.

The telencephalon:

Develops into the cerebrum.

The myelencephalon:

Develops into the medulla oblongata.

Region of the adult brain that retains its name from embryonic development and includes the thalamus and hypothalamus

Diencephalon

The thalamus and hypothalamus, which act as a relay station to pass information between the forebrain and the rest of the brain, develop from the secondary vesicle known as the ____________.

Diencephalon

Connections within nuclei from the striatum to the globus pallidus internal segment and substantia nigra pars reticulata that disinhibit the thalamus to increase cortical control of movement

Direct pathway

Disynaptic connection in which the first synapse inhibits the second cell, which then stops inhibiting the final target

Disinhibition

What condition causes a stroke?

Disruption of blood to the brain

Axons entering the posterior horn of the spinal cord

Dorsal (posterior) nerve root

Sensory ganglion attached to the posterior nerve root of a spinal nerve

Dorsal (posterior) root ganglion

Reach the edges of the spinal cord - entry of axons of sensory neurons that are bipolar

Dorsal horns

Nestor is labeling a diagram of a spinal cord cross-section. He is able to orient dorsal to ventral by looking for the:

Dorsal root ganglion

Duchenne muscular dystrophy could theoretically be cured if a technique was developed that would

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by a mutation in the dystrophin gene. Without a normal copy of DNA for transcription, there can never be a normal protein translated. This genetic mutation causes the protein to be either abnormal in structure or completely absent.

The outermost layer of the meninges is the:

Dura mater

Tough, fibrous, outer layer of the meninges that is attached to the inner surface of the cranium and vertebral column and surrounds the entire CNS

Dura mater

Which layer of the meninges surrounds the sinuses that form the route through which blood drains from the CNS?

Dura mater

Any of the venous structures surrounding the brain, enclosed within the dura mater, which drain blood from the CNS to the common venous return of the jugular veins

Dural sinus

Enzyme that catalyzes the generation of a new molecule, which acts as the intracellular mediator of the signal that binds to the receptor.

Effector protein

Neurons can be classified according to function. __________ or motor neurons carry electrical signals from the central nervous system primarily to muscles or glands.

Efferent

Connection between two neurons, or any two electrically active cells, where ions flow directly through channels spanning their adjacent cell membranes.

Electrical synapse

Compared with the nearest evolutionary relative, the chimpanzee, the human has a brain that is huge. At a point in the past, a common ancestors gave rise to the two species of humans and chimpanzees. That evolutionary history is long and is still an area of intense study. According to one hypothesis about the expansion of brain size, what tissue might have been sacrificed so energy was available to grow out larger brain? Based on what you know about that tissue and nervous tissue, why would there be a trade-off between them in terms of energy use?

Energy is needed for the brain to develop and perform higher cognitive functions. That energy is not available for the muscle tissues to develop and function. The hypothesis suggests that humans have larger brains and less muscle mass, and chimpanzees have the smaller brains but more muscle mass.

Peripheral structures, namely ganglia and nerves, that are incorporated into the digestive system organs

Enteric nervous system

Neuronal plexus in the wall of the intestines, which is part of the enteric nervous system

Enteric plexus

What type of glial cell is responsible for filtering blood to produce CSF at the choroid plexus?

Ependymal cell

A nerve is covered by a connective tissue sheath known as the:

Epineurium

Outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire nerve

Epineurium

The part of the diencephalon which includes the pineal gland is the __________. The pineal gland secretes melatonin, controlling our circadian (day/night) rhythm.

Epithalamus

Region of the diecephalon containing the pineal gland

Epithalmus

Neuronal plexus in the wall of the esophagus that is part of the enteric nervous system

Esophageal plexus

What process directly inhibits acetylcholine (ACh) release after a Botox® injection?

Exocytosis

A muscle located on the anterior surface of the thigh will _____ the knee, whereas a muscle on the posterior surface will ______ the knee.

Extend, flex

Six skeletal muscles that control eye movement within the orbit

Extraocular muscles

muscle that STABILIZES the origin of another muscle

FIXator

Cranial nerve VII innervates the muscles for facial expression, is sensory for taste on the front of the tongue, and is motor to salivary and tear glands. Another name for it is the __________ nerve.

Facial

Seventh cranial nerve; responsible for contraction of the facial muscles and for part of the sense of taste, as well as causing saliva production

Facial nerve

True or False: The adult brainstem exclusively derived from the embryonic primary vesicle called the hindbrain or rhombencephalon.

False

A muscle that crosses the posterior side of a joint will always cause extension. True False

False Most of the time this is correct. There are two exceptions, the knee and the ankle. These joints are reversed because of rotation during development.

True or False: The spinal cord is as long as the spine.

False, it is a bit shorter.

A bundle of axon fibers within a nerve is a :

Fascicle

Small bundles of nerve or muscle fibers enclosed by connective tissue

Fascicle

What is the name for a bundle of axons within a nerve?

Fascicle

Systemic nerve of the anterior leg that arises from the lumbar plexus

Femoral nerve

Which description of a muscle action is NOT correct? a. Synergists help agonists. b. Antagonists counter the action of a prime mover. c. Agonists are the prime movers for an action. d. Fixators hold joints in place, so movement does not occur.

Fixators hold joints in place, so movement does not occur.

Large opening in the occipital bone of the skull through which the spinal cord emerges and the vertebral arteries enter the cranium

Foramen magnum

Anterior region of the adult brain that developed from the prosencephalon and includes the cerebrum and diencephalon

Forebrain

The cerebral ventricle that connects to the central canal of the spinal cord is the:

Fourth ventricle

The portion of the ventricular system that is in the region of the brain stem and opens into the subarachnoid space through the median and lateral apertures

Fourth ventricle

Region of the frontal lobe associated with motor commands to orient the eyes toward an object of visual attention

Frontal eye field

Region of the cerebral cortex directly beneath the frontal bone of the cranium

Frontal lobe

What is the cerebrum divided into?

Frontal lobe, occipital lobe, parietal lobe and the temporal lobe.

In the peripheral nervous system, a cluster of nerve cells is referred to as a:

Ganglion

Which of these structures is not under direct control of the peripheral nervous system?

Gastric plexus

Neuronal networks in the wall of the stomach that are part of the enteric nervous system

Gastric plexuses

Graded potential from dendrites of a unipolar cell which generates the action potential in the initial segment of the cell's axon.

Generator potential

Nuclei deep in the cerebrum that are part of the basal nuclei and can be divided into the internal and external segments

Globus pallidus

Hi was having trouble swallowing and getting choked on her food. Her doctor plans to check the function of her ____________ nerve.

Glossopharyngeal

Ninth cranial nerve; responsible for contraction of muscles in the tongue and throat and for part of the sense of taste, as well as causing saliva production

Glossopharyngeal nerve

Like the deltoid muscle that lies over and abducts the shoulder, these two muscles lie over the hip and are prime movers of hip abduction. neither muscle extends the hip.

Gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

The surface of the cerebral cortex is deeply folded in order to maximize the space for neuron cell bodies. The ridges produced by this folding are called __________.

Gyri

Ridge formed by convolutions on the surface of the cerebrum or cerebellum

Gyrus

Gray matter deep in the temporal lobe that is very important for long-term memory formation

Hippocampus

The subcortical gray matter structures which function in emotional responses are the amygdala and the ___________.

Hippocampus

Organization of the gray matter - innermost

Horns

Twelve cranial nerve; responsible for contraction of muscles of the tongue

Hypoglossal nerve

Major region of the diencephalon that is responsible for coordinating autonomic and endocrine control of homeostasis

Hypothalamus

What region of the diencephalon coordinates homeostasis?

Hypothalamus

Blood flows to the brain and passes through the circle of Willis before being distributed through the cerebrum. The circle of Willis is a specialized arrangement of arteries that ensures constant perfusion of the cerebrum even in the event of a blockage of one of the arteries in the circle. The normal direction of flow through the circle of Willis is to the middle cerebral artery. Where would the blood come from if there were a blockage just posterior to the middle cerebral artery on the left?

If blood could not get to the middle cerebral artery through the posterior circulation, the blood would flow around the circle of Willis to reach that artery from an anterior vessel. Blood flow would just reverse within the circle.

Connections within the basal nuclei from the striatum through the globus pallidus external segment and subthalamic nucleus to the globus pallidus internal segment/substantia nigra pars compacta that result in inhibition of the thalamus to decrease cortical control of movement

Indirect pathway

Half of the midbrain tectum that is part of the brain stem auditory pathway

Inferior colliculus

Nucleus in the medulla that is involved in processing information related to motor control

Inferior olive

Which of the following structures attach the pituitary gland to the brain?

Infundibulum

Systemic nerve in the thoracic cavity that is found between two ribs

Intercostal nerve

The circle of Willis is formed by the ________________ and vertebral arteries.

Internal carotid

Branch from the common carotid artery that enters the cranium and supplies blood to the brain

Internal carotid artery

Openings between the lateral ventricles and third ventricle allowing for the passage of CSF

Interventricular foramina

What is the action of the muscle identified by the letter A? 1)It abducts and medially rotates the thigh and steadies the pelvis. It is an extremely important muscle for walking 2)It is a major extensor of the thigh. It laterally rotates and abducts the thigh. 3)It adducts the thigh and flexes and medially rotates the leg (especially during walking).

It abducts and medially rotates the thigh and steadies the pelvis. It is an extremely important muscle for walking

What is the action of the muscle identified by the letter A? It abducts and medially rotates the thigh and steadies the pelvis. It is an extremely important muscle for walking. It is a major extensor of the thigh. It laterally rotates and abducts the thigh. It adducts the thigh and flexes and medially rotates the leg (especially during walking). The anterior part of this muscle adducts and medially rotates and flexes the thigh, while the posterior part of this muscle is a synergist of the hamstrings to extend the thigh.

It abducts and medially rotates the thigh and steadies the pelvis. It is an extremely important muscle for walking. This is the action of the gluteus medius muscle.

What is true of a mixed nerve?

It contains both afferent and efferent axons

What is true of a mixed nerve? It contains only afferent nerve fibers. It contains both afferent and efferent nerve fibers. It is found only in the central nervous system. It contains only efferent nerve fibers.

It contains both afferent and efferent nerve fibers.

Define the nervous system

It is a network of nerve cells that transmit messages between different parts of the body. It consists of the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system.

Define the brain

It is a part of the central nervous system and is responsible for coordinating sensation, intellectual and nervous activity.

What is the occipital lobe involved in?

It is involved in processing visual information.

What is the frontal lobe involved in?

It is involved in the production of speech, thoughts and learning.

You are examining a neuron under the microscope. It appears as a round cell without visible processes. What is true of this neuron?

It is likely to be a unipolar neuron, it is located in the PNS (peripheral nervous system), and it is most likely to be a sensory neuron.

You are examining a neuron under the microscope. It appears as a round cell without visible processes. What is true of this neuron? It is most likely a sensory neuron. It is located in the PNS (peripheral nervous system). It is likely to be a unipolar neuron. It is likely to be a unipolar neuron, it is located in the PNS (peripheral nervous system), and it is most likely to be a sensory neuron.

It is likely to be a unipolar neuron, it is located in the PNS (peripheral nervous system), and it is most likely to be a sensory neuron.

Define gray matter in the spinal cord.

It is neural tissue that is dominated by the cell bodies of neurons, neuroglia, and unmyelinated axons, and surrounds the narrow central canal.

Define the somatic nervous system

It is part of the PNS and carries sensory information from the outside world to the brain and provides muscle responses via the motor pathways.

What does the Autonomic nervous system do?

It regulates involuntary actions without our conscious awareness.

What does the Parasympathetic nervous system do?

It relaxes us once the emergency has passed.It slows the heartbeat down and reduces blood pressure. Digestion also begins again under the influence of PNS.

Blood vessels that return "used" blood from the head and neck

Jugular veins

Pair of openings from the fourth ventricle to the subarachnoid space on either side and between the medulla and the cerebellum

Lateral apertures

White matter of the spinal cord between the posterior horn on one side and the axons from the anterior horn on the same side; composed of many different groups of axons, of both ascending and descending tracts, carrying motor commands to and from the brain

Lateral column

The lateral ventricles:

Lie deep within the cerebral hemispheres and flows into the third ventricle.

You walk past a bakery, and the enticing aroma of freshly baked bread makes you immediately and wistfully think about your grandmother. This is due to your:

Limbic system

Procedure used to withdraw CSF from the lower lumbar region of the vertebral column that avoids the risk of damaging CNS tissue because the spinal cord ends at the upper lumbar vertebrae

Lumbar puncture

Singular opening from the fourth ventricle into the subarachnoid space at the midline between the medulla and cerebellum

Median aperture

Short and located on the posterior side of the spinal cord

Median sulcus

The white matter of the spinal cord is continuous with the:

Medulla oblongata

Protective outer coverings of the CNS composed of connective tissue

Meninges

Primary vesicle of the embryonic brain that does not significantly change through the rest of the embryonic development and becomes the midbrain

Mesencephalon

The midbrain is originally known as the:

Mesencephalon

The primary vesicle of the embryonic brain which does not significantly change through the rest of embryonic development and becomes the midbrain is the ______________.

Mesencephalon

Which primary vesicle of the embryonic nervous system does not differentiate into more vesicles at the secondary stage?

Mesencephalon

Neurotransmitter receptor that involves a complex of proteins that cause metabolic changes in a cell.

Metabotropic receptor

Secondary vesicle of the embryonic brain that develops into the pons and the cerebellum

Metencephalon

The cerebellum and the pons develop from the secondary vesicle known as the ___________. This vesicle originated from the primary vesicle, the rhombencephalon.

Metencephalon

Middle region of the adult brain that develops from the mesencephalon

Midbrain

The inferior and superior colliculi are part of the tectum, and are involved in reflexive responses to sight and sound. These are found in the:

Midbrain

The cell bodies of which neurons are found in the spinal cord?

Motor neurons and interneurons

Quadriceps

Muscle group that extends the knee.

Hamstrings

Muscle group that extends the thigh and flexes the knee.

Frontalis

Muscle in the scalp that originates in the epicranial aponeurosis and inserts in the skin of the eyebrows and the nose. This muscle raises eyebrows and wrinkles the forehead.

Biceps Brachii

Muscle that allows you to bend (flex) the elbow.

Trapezius

Muscle that allows you to shrug your shoulders or extend your head.

Triceps Brachii

Muscle that extends the elbow.

Extensor Digitorium

Muscle that extends the fingers.

Flexor Digitorium Superficialis

Muscle that flexes the figners.

The medulla oblongata develops from the:

Myelencephalon

The secondary vesicle which develops from the rhombencephalon and develops into the medulla oblongata is the ___________.

Myelencephalon

Tissue that detached from the edges of the neural groove and migrated through the embryo to develop into peripheral structures of both nervous and non-nervous tissues

Neural crest

Which structure is associated with the embryonic development of the peripheral nervous system?

Neural crest

Elevated edge of the neural groove

Neural fold

Region of the neural plate that folds into the dorsal surface of the embryo and closes off to become the neural tube

Neural groove

Thickened later of neuroepithelium that runs longitudinally along the dorsal surface of an embryo and gives rise to nervous system tissue

Neural plate

Central axis to the nervous system, from the posterior to anterior ends of the neural tube; the inferior tip of the spinal cord to the anterior surface of the cerebrum

Neuraxis

Neurotransmitter type that includes protein molecules and shorter chains of amino acids.

Neuropeptide

Region of the cerebral cortex directly beneath the occipital bone of the cranium

Occipital lobe

Dural sinuses along the edge of the occipital loves of the cerebrum

Occipital sinuses

Special sense responsible for smell, which has a unique, direct connection to the cerebrum

Olfaction

The cranial nerve I (CNI) is sensory for the sense of smell, and is commonly known as the ___________ nerve.

Olfactory

Which pairs of cranial nerves are sensory only?

Olfactory (CNI), optic (CNII), and acoustic (CN VIII)

First cranial nerve; responsible for the sense of smell

Olfactory nerve

During an ophthalmic exam, your physician is able to view your ___________ nerve.

Optic

The cranial nerve which is sensory for the retina in the back of the eye is the _________ nerve.

Optic

Why are repeat injections of Botox® required over time to control blepharospasm?

PNS motor nerves regenerate

Autonomic ganglia superior to the sympathetic chain ganglia

Paravertebral ganglia

Region of the cerebral cortex directly beneath the parietal bone of the cranium

Parietal lobe

Groove in the cerebral cortex representing the border between the parietal and occipital cortices

Parieto-occipital sulcus

External Oblique

Part of the abdominal girdle; forms the external lateral walls of the abdomen.

Systemic nerve from the cervical plexus that enervates the diaphragm

Phrenic nerve

Thin, innermost membrane of the me I fed that directly covers the surface of the CNS

Pia mater

Which of the following glands can be observed on the ventral surface of the sheep brain?

Pituitary gland

The structure that is the main connection between the cerebellum and brainstem is the:

Pons

What level of the brain stem is the major input to the cerebellum?

Pons

Primary motor cortex located in the frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex

Postcentral gyrus

Which of the following regions of the brain forms the somatosensory cortex?

Postcentral gyrus

Sensory information is carried from the body to the brain by:

Posterior columns

White matter of the spinal cord that lies between the posterior horns of the gray matter, sometimes referred to as the dorsal column; composed of axons of ascending tracts that carry sensory information up to the brain

Posterior columns

Gray matter region of the spinal cord in which sensory input arrives, sometimes referred to as the dorsal horn

Posterior horn

The region of the spinal cord responsible for sensory processing would be the:

Posterior horn

Midline feature of the posterior spinal cord, marking the separation between right and left sides of the cord

Posterior median sulcus

Feature of the posterior spinal cord marking the entry of posterior nerve roots and the separation between the posterior and lateral columns of the white matter

Posterolateral sulcus

Graded potential in the postsynaptic membrane caused by the binding of neurotransmitter to protein receptors.

Postsynaptic potential (PSP)

Ridge just posterior to the central sulcus, in the parietal lobe, where somatosensory processing initially takes place in the cerebrum

Precentral gyrus

Region of the cerebral cortex responsible for generating motor commands, where the upper motor neuron cell body is located.

Precentral gyrus of the frontal cortex

There is a famous incident in US history concerning a young man by the name of Phineas Gage, born in 1823. He had an accident where a twelve inch iron bar blasted through his head while working on the railroad. In spite of losing quite a bit of brain tissues and an eye, he lived for over ten more years after the accident. His personality was greatly affected. With these facts, you can safely assume the bar went though his ___________.

Prefrontal cortex

Specific region of the frontal lobe anterior to the more specific motor function areas, which can be related to the early planning of movements and intentions to the point of being personality-type functions

Prefrontal lobe

Region of the frontal lobe responsible for planning movements that will be executed through the primary motor cortex

Premotor area

Sternocleidomastoid

Prime mover of head flexion;a two headed muscle.

What is the temporal lobe involved in?

Processing auditory information.

General sensory perceptions providing information about location and movement of body parts; the "sense of the self"

Proprioception

Primary vesicle of the embryonic brain that develops into the forebrain, which includes the cerebrum and diencephalon

Prosencephalon

The primary vesicle which develops at the very front of the neural tube is the ____________, which can be translated to mean 'forebrain'.

Prosencephalon

What is the function of the filaments found in ranges 1-2 and 6-7 but no other ranges?

Protection from overstretching Elastic (titin) filaments help to protect the muscle from overstretching and also aid in returning it to normal length.

What is the main function of the spinal cord?

Providing a passageway for ascending fiber tracts and descending fiber tracts as well as allowing integration

Systemic nerve of the arm, the distal component of which is located near the radial bone

Radial nerve

If both of the neurons in the figure were activated, more muscle fibers would contract than if either neuron alone were active. This mechanism for control of the force of muscle contraction is known as

Recruitment Recruitment refers to the increased force generated by the activation of increasing numbers of motor units

What is the Somatic nervous system also involved in?

Reflex actions without the involvement of the CNS which allows the reflex actions to occur quickly

Which of the following is the best description of the function of region B?

Region B includes neurons whose axons carry motor commands from the cerebrum.

A diffuse region of gray matter located in the brain stem and related to sleep and wakefulness, such as general brain activity and attention, is the:

Reticular formation

Diffuse region of gray matter throughout the brain stem that regulates sleep, wakefulness, and states of consciousness

Reticular formation

You were enjoying a peaceful sleep when your alarm clock very rudely blasted you awake. The initial moments of heart pounding and wakefulness are thanks to your:

Reticular formation

Primary vesicle of the embryonic brain that develops into the hindbrain, which includes the pons, cerebellum, and medulla

Rhombencephalon

The secondary metencephalon and myelencephalon develop from the:

Rhombencephalon

The cerebral aqueduct:

Runs through the midbrain and connects the third and fourth ventricle.

muscles that aids another by promoting the same movement

SYNergist

Nerve plexus associated with the lower lumbar and sacral spinal nerves

Sacral plexus

A demyelinating disease affects ________.

Schwann cells

The formation of myelin in the peripheral nervous system is accomplished by these cells. Schwann cells satellite cells astrocytes oligodendrocytes

Schwann cells

Dural sinuses that drain directly into the jugular veins

Sigmoid sinuses

General senses related to the body, usually thought of as the senses of touch, which would include pain, temperature, and proprioception

Somatosensation

Eleventh cranial nerve; responsible for contraction of neck muscles

Spinal accessory nerve

The posterior end of the neural tube will develop into the _______ in an infant.

Spinal cord

One of 31 nerves connected to the spinal cord

Spinal nerve

When both muscles of this pair are contracted simultaneously, they flex the neck forward.

Sternocleidomastoid

Dural sinuses that drains blood from the deep center of the brain to collect with other sinuses

Straight sinus

The cerebral fluid circulated through the ___________ space.

Subarachnoid

Space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater that contains CSF and the fibrous connections of the arachnoid trabeculae

Subarachnoid space

All the nuclei beneath the cerebral cortex, including the basal nuclei and the basal forebrain

Subcortical nucleus

Nuclei within the basal nuclei that serve as an output center of the nuclei; part of the motor pathway

Substantia nigra pars reticulata

The surface of the cerebral cortex is deeply folded in order to maximize the space for neuron cell bodies. The grooves produced by this folding are called ________.

Sulci

Groove formed by convolutions in the surface of the cerebral cortex

Sulcus

To add together, as in the cumulative change in postsynaptic potentials toward reaching threshold in the membrane, either across a son of the membrane or over a certain amount of time.

Summate

The tectum of the midbrain contain structures which combine sensory information about visual space, auditory space, and somatosensory space. The function of this structure is related to orienting the eyes to a sound or touch stimulus, and it is referred to as the:

Superior colliculus

Dural sinus that runs along the top of the longitudinal fissure and drains blood from the majority of the outer cerebrum

Superior sagittal sinus

What was the autonomic nervous system subdivided into?

Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.

Autonomic ganglia in a chain along the anterolateral aspect of the vertebral column that are responsible for contributing to homeostatic mechanisms of the autonomic nervous system

Sympathetic chain ganglia

Small gap between cells in a chemical synapse where neurotransmitter diffuses from the presynaptic element to the postsynaptic element.

Synaptic cleft

Nerve in the periphery distal to a nerve plexus or spinal nerve

Systemic nerve

This indentation of the sarcolemma carries electrical signals deep into the muscle cells.

T tubule

Region of the midbrain, thought of as the floor of the cerebral aqueduct, which continues into the pons and medulla as the floor of the fourth ventricle

Tegmentum

Secondary vesicle of the embryonic brain that develops into the cerebrum

Telencephalon

The secondary vesicle which becomes the cerebrum is the ____________.

Telencephalon

The forebrain is the most anterior of the 3 primitive vesicles of the brain. It further divides into the ___________ and the ________.

Telencephalon / diencephalon

The connective tissue that covers structure A is continuous with which of the following?

Tendons The dense connective tissue at A is continuous with the tendon that connects the muscle to a bone or, in some cases, to another muscle or to the skin.

Autonomic ganglia that are near or within the walls of organs that are responsible for contributing to homeostatic mechanisms of the autonomic nervous system

Terminal ganglion

Major region of the diencephalon that is responsible for relating information between the cerebrum and the hindbrain, spinal cord, and periphery

Thalamus

The diencephalon includes the _______ and _______ and derives from the __________.

Thalamus and hypothalamus / forebrain

Which adult structure(s) arises from the diencephalon?

Thalamus, hypothalamus, retina

What is the CNS subdivided into?

The CNS is divided into the brain and spinal cord.

What is the Sympathetic nervous system involved in?

The SNS is primarily involved in responses that help us deal with emergencies (Fight or flight) such as increasing heart rate and blood pressure.

What are the two parts of the Autonomic nervous system?

The Sympathetic nervous system and the Parasympathetic nervous system.

What do the divisions of the Autonomic nervous system do?

The Sympathetic nervous system generally uses the neurotransmitter noradrenaline which has stimulating effects. The Parasympathetic nervous system uses Acetylcholine which has inhibiting effects.

CSF flows through the brain and spinal cord - originating from the ventricles and then spreading into the space within the meninges, where the fluids then move into the venous sinuses to return to the cardiovascular circulation. What are the structures that produce CSF and where are they found?

The choroid plexuses of the ventricles make CSF.

Testing for neurological function involves a series of tests of functions associated with the cranial nerves. What functions, and therefore which nerves, are being tested by asking a patient to follow the tip of a pen with their eyes?

The contraction of extraocular muscles is being tested, which is the function of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves.

To what structures in a skeletal muscle are the endoneurium, and epineurium comparable?

The endoneurium surrounding individual nerve fibers is comparable to the endomysium surrounding myofibrils, the perineurium surrounding the whole nerve is comparable to the epimysium surrounding the muscle.

Which of the following statements is FALSE? Which of the following statements is FALSE? The hamstrings are fleshy muscles of the posterior thigh. The hamstrings are prime movers of hip (thigh) flexion and knee (leg) flexion. The hamstrings cross the hip and knee joints. The medial hamstrings promote medial knee (leg) rotation.

The hamstrings are prime movers of hip (thigh) flexion and knee (leg) flexion. The hamstrings are prime movers of hip (thigh) extension, not hip flexion. They are also prime movers of knee (leg) flexion.

What two sections do the nervous system comprise of?

The human nervous system is divided into the central nervous system (CNS) and peripheral nervous system (PNS).

Outline the function of the spinal cord

The main function is to relay information between the brain and the rest of the body, this allows the brain to monitor and regulate the body's processes.

The adult brainstem is made of __________.

The midbrain, the medulla oblongata (from the telencephalon), and the pons (from the mesencephalon).

When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle?

The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.

Orbicularis Oculi

The muscle used in winking.

Frontalis

The muscle used to form the horizontal frown line on the forehead.

What result would be expected if an additional stimulus, equal in intensity to the first, were to be applied to the muscle at the 60 millisecond (ms) time point?

The muscle would increase in tension to a level greater than that measured at the beginning of phase C The second, more forceful contraction that would occur by adding another stimulus before the muscle has completely relaxed is an example of wave summation.

Buccinator

The muscled used to suck your cheeks in.

Rectus Abdominus

The name means "straight muscle of the abdomen".

What do both of these nerves have? (Cranial nerves and Spinal nerves)

The nerves have both sensory and motor neurons.

Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges that can have severe effects on neurological function. Why is infection of this structure potentially so dangerous?

The nerves that connect the periphery to the CNS pass through these layers of tissue and can be damaged by that inflammation, causing a loss of important neurological functions.

What happens in development that suggests that there is a special relationship between the skeletal structure of the head and the nervous system?

The neural crest gives rise to PNS structures (such as ganglia) and also to cartilage and bone of the face and cranium.

Which of the following statements is correct? The number of muscle fibers best determines how powerful a muscle will be. Muscle fibers running in parallel arrangement generate more power. The more a muscle shortens, the more power it generates. Multipennate muscles do not produce much power because the fibers run in many directions.

The number of muscle fibers best determines how powerful a muscle will be. More fibers means more power.

A man wakes up with a headache and a loss of vision. His regular doctor sent him to an ophthalmologist to address the vision loss. The ophthalmologist recognizes a greater problem and immediately sends him to the emergency room. Once there, the patient undergoes a large battery of tests, but a definite cause cannot be found. A specialist recognizes the problem as meningitis, but the question is what caused it originally. How can that be cured? The loss of vision comes from swelling around the optic nerve, which probably presented as a bulge on the inside of the eye. Why is swelling related to meningitis going to push on the optic nerve?

The optic nerve enters the CNS in its projection from the eyes in the periphery, which means that it crosses through the meninges. Meningitis will include swelling of those protective layers of the CNS, resulting in pressure on the optic nerve, which can compromise vision.

Why are ganglia and nerves not surrounded by protective structures like the meninges of the CNS?

The peripheral nervous tissues are out in the body, sometimes part of other organ systems. There is not a privileged blood supply like there is to the brain and spinal cord, so peripheral nervous tissues do not need the same sort of protections.

Studying the embryonic development of the nervous system makes it easier to understand the complexity of the adult nervous system. Give one example of how development in the embryonic nervous system explains a more complex structure in the adult nervous system.

The retina, a PNS structure in the adult, grows from the diencephalon in the embryonic nervous system. The mature connections from the retina through the optic nerve/tract are to the hypothalamus and thalamus of the diencephalon, and to the midbrain, which developed directly adjacent to the diencephalon as the mesencephalon in the embryo.

Define the peripheral nervous system.

The role of the PNS is to relay messages from the CNS to the rest of the body. It consists of two components: the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.

Why can the circle of Willis maintain perfusion of the brain even if there is a blockage in one part of the structure?

The structure is a circular connection of blood vessels, so that blood coming up from one of the arteries can flow in either direction around the circle and avoid any blockage or narrowing of the blood vessels.

Damage to specific regions of the cerebral cortex, such as through a stroke, can result in specific losses of function. What functions would likely be lost by a stroke in the temporal lobe?

The temporal lobe has sensory functions associated with hearing and vision, as well as being important for memory. A stroke in the temporal lobe can result in specific sensory deficits in these systems (known as agnosias) or losses in memory.

Focus your attention on sections (c) and (d) in Focus Figure 10.1. Which of the following statements is correct regarding muscle position and its related action?

The teres major crosses on the medial side of the shoulder joint to produce adduction.

What does the thalamus do?

The thalamus acts as a relay station for nerve impulses coming from the senses , routing them to the appropriate part of the brain to be processed.

The gray matter of the spinal cord receives input from fibers of the dorsal (posterior) root and sends information out through the fibers of the ventral (anterior) root. As discussed in this video, these connections represent the interactions of the CNS with peripheral structures for both sensory and motor functions. The cervical and lumbar spinal cords have enlargements as a result of larger populations of neurons. What are these enlargements responsible for?

There are more motor neurons in the anterior horns that are responsible for movements in the limbs. The cervical enlargement is for the arms, and the lumbar enlargement is for the legs.

Cranial nerve V is the ____________ nerve.

Trigeminal

Crystal has a painful neuritis which has affected her facial muscles and control over chewing. It involves her ___________ nerve.

Trigeminal

Sensory ganglion that contributes sensory fibers to the trigeminal nerve

Trigeminal ganglion

Which ganglion is responsible for cutaneous sensations of the face?

Trigeminal ganglion

Fifth cranial nerve; responsible for cutaneous sensation of the face and contraction of the muscles of mastication

Trigeminal nerve

Axons are the neuron processes that generate and conduct nerve impulses.

True

True or False: After entering the plexus, spinal nerves are called peripheral nerves. Their axon content is different from the one of the spinal nerve. In fact the axon content of a peripheral nerve can include axons of several different spinal nerves.

True

True or False: Excepting for the thoracic nerves, the spinal nerves are not directly inner sting body parts. The nerve fibers will first form peripheral nerves through recombination in the plexus. These peripheral nerves of their branches (terminal nerves) will them directly innervate body parts.

True

True or False: The spinal cord derives from the 33 posterior segments of the neural tube.

True

True or False: Understanding the embryonic formation of the brain helps understanding the connections between the adult brain structures

True

The anterior compartment of the thigh is involved in lower leg extension. True False

True The quadriceps group sits in the anterior compartment of the thigh. These muscles extend the lower leg.

The neuron and muscle fiber membranes do NOT actually touch but are separated by a fluid-filled gap.

True.

The birth defect known as spina bifida occurs when the edges of the neural ________ fail to close.

Tube

The embryonic structure known as the neural ____________ develops into the brain and spinal cord.

Tube

How do we name the pairs of cranial nerves?

Using the capital letters CN for cranial nerves, and the number of the pairs in Roman numeral starting with the CN that emerge from the most anterior part of the ventral side of the brain being the cranial nerves CN I.

Occipitalis

What inserts at the epicranial aponeurosis?

Orbicularis Oculi

What inserts at the eyelid?

Orbicularis Oris and Zygomaticus

What two muscles insert at the muscles, skin, and corners of the mouth?

Sternohyoid and Sternocleidomastoid

What two muscles originate at the clavicle and manubrium?

Flexor Carpi Ulnaris

Wrist flexor that follows the ulna.

Which of the following muscles is NOT shown on this image? a. trapezius b. latissimus dorsi c. teres major d. levator scapulae

a

Which of these muscles is visible in the figure but NOT indicated by a letter? a. serratus anterior b. external oblique c. internal oblique d. transversus abdominis

a

What is the spinal cord?

a collection of nerve cells that are attached to the brain.

A motor unit is

a motor neuron and the muscle fibers connected to it

A myogram is

a recording of the events of a twitch

Which is not true of skeletal muscle? a. It enables you to manipulate your environment. b. If influences the body's contours and shape. c. It is one of the major components of hollow organs. d. It provides a means of locomotion.

a. It enables you to manipulate your environment

Because the cells of skeletal muscle are relatively large and cylindrical in shape, they are also known as __________. a. fibers b. tubules

a. fibers

Muscles that act on the _________ cause movement at the hip, knee, and foot joints. a. lower limb b. trunk c. upper limb

a. lower limb

deltoid

abduct arm

gluteus maximus

abduct leg and extend hip

gluteus medius

abducts PM and medially rotates thigh at hip joint

tensor fasciae latae

abducts and medially rotates thigh

gluteus minimus

abducts thigh medially rotates thigh at hip joint under medius

People with myasthenia gravis lack

about two-thirds of the normal number of acetylcholine receptors

___ degrades acetylcholine, keeping it from accumulating in the synapse

acetlycholinesterase

Myofibrils are composed primarily of

actin and myosin

The two contractile proteins that make up the myofilaments of skeletal muscle are _________ and _______.

actin, myosin

pectoralis

adduct arm anteriorly

Which of the following muscles is named for its action?

adductor longus

adductors

adducts and medially or laterally rotates thigh

The flexor carpi ulnaris __________.

adducts the wrist

Which pathway for regenerating ATP provides the majority of the energy used for muscle activity during 30 minutes of light to moderate exercise?

aerobic respiration

You have lost the sensation, but not movement, in one of your hands due to a problem with your neurons. Based upon these symptoms, what type of neuron was most likely affected? motor neuron efferent neuron motor and sensory neurons afferent neuron

afferent neuron

Muscle that is primarily responsible for bringing about a particular movement.

agonist

a prime mover or _____ produces a particular type of movement

agonist

muscles that is primarily responsible for bringing about a particular movement

agonist

Functions of muscles are for

all of the above (moving bones, the heartbeat, muscle tone, distribution of heat)

Temporomandibular joint (TMJ) syndrome causes

all of the above (ringing in the ears, clicking sound from the jaw, insomnia, backache)

Muscle atrophy that progresses with aging is caused by reduction in

all of the above (the sizes of muscle fibers, ATP, creatine phosphate, myoglobin)

Blood vessels traveling within ________ deliver oxygen and nutrients to the spinal cord.

all the spinal meninges

A shift in metabolism that breaks down pyruvic acid to lactic acid is called

anaerobic threshold

Which of the following are correctly matched? a. brevis; long b. rectus; straight c. transverse; parallel to the long axis d. deltoid; at a right angle to the long axis

b

Which of the following is NOT a member of the hamstrings? a. semimembranosus b. gracilis c. semitendinosus d. biceps femoris

b

Which of the following is incorrectly paired? a. trapezius; scapula rotation b. pectoralis major; arm abduction c. deltoid; arm flexion d. latissimus dorsi; medial arm rotation

b

In which phase of the muscle twitch shown in the figure would the maximum amount of ATP be consumed by myosin head groups

b Myosin heads catalyze the hydrolysis of ATP to power the sliding of myofilaments. This event would be at a maximum during the period of contraction (B).

A cordlike structure that connect a muscle to another muscle or bone is: a. a fascicle b. a tendon c. deep fascia

b. a tendon

This lower limb muscle, which attaches to the calcaneus via the calcaneal tendon and plantar flexes the foot when the knee is extended, is the ___________. a. tibialis anterior b. gastrocnemius

b. gastrocnemius

These abdominal muscles are responsible for giving me my "six pack." They also stabilize my pelvis when walking. They are the ________ muscles. a. internal intercostal b. rectus abdominis c. quadriceps d. triceps femoris

b. rectus abdominis

The hamstrings consist of three muscles located on the posterior thigh. Why is it recommended that a caregiver squat using these muscles to help a patient sit down? because it forcibly flexes the caregiver's thighs because it prevents back muscle strain because it permits the patient to be farther away because it eliminates lifting belt use when moving adults

because it prevents back muscle strain

What benefit would an improved muscle tone from strengthening the quadriceps femoris muscles provide? enhanced lateral thigh abduction better-stabilized knee joint more rapid knee flexion greater control of thigh adduction

better-stabilized knee joint

this two-headed muscle bulges when the forearm is flexed, its the most familiar muscle of the anterior humerus

biceps brachii

Which of the following joint muscles is correctly matched with its lever type? triceps brachii at the elbow; third-class lever trapezius action on the atlanto-occipital joint; second-class lever biceps brachii at the elbow; third-class lever gastrocnemius tendon at the ankle: first-class lever

biceps brachii at the elbow; third-class leaver In this case, the force is applied by the biceps brachii between the fulcrum, the elbow joint, and the load, which is the forearm.

An agonist for elbow flexion is _____, whereas the ______ is an antagonist to this movement.

biceps brachii, triceps brachii

Which of the following is a hamstring muscle?

biceps femoris

Which muscle is represented by the letter D? semimembranosus biceps femoris gracilis semitendinosus

biceps femoris The biceps femoris is the lateral hamstring.

Which of the following is a hamstring muscle? vastus lateralis rectus femoris biceps femoris vastus medialis

biceps femoris The hamstrings are fleshy muscles of the posterior thigh (biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus). They cross both the hip and knee joints and are prime movers of thigh extension and knee flexion.

Acetylcholine (ACh) is the neurotransmitter of axon terminals at the neuromuscular junction. It ________.

binds to receptors on the muscle membrane

The primary function of the deep muscles of the thorax, such as the intercostals, is to promote __________. back posture swallowing breathing vomiting

breathing The deep muscles of the thorax, like the internal and external intercostals and the diaphragm, promote movements necessary for breathing.

The ________ helps keep food between the grinding surfaces of the teeth during chewing.

buccinator

This muscle compresses the cheek when you whistle

buccinator

Which of the following is not a rotator cuff muscle? a. infraspinatus b. supraspinatus c. teres major d. subscapularis

c

Which of the following muscles is NOT a rotator cuff muscle? a. teres minor b. subscapularis c. levator scapulae d. supraspinatus

c

Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. The hamstrings cross the hip and knee joints. b. The hamstrings are fleshy muscles of the posterior thigh. c. The hamstrings are prime movers of hip (thigh) flexion and knee (leg) flexion. d. The medial hamstrings promote medial knee (leg) rotation.

c

Each muscle cell is surrounded by thin connective tissue called the: a. aponeuroses b. epimysium c. endomysium d. perimysium

c. endomysium

The ______ is the largest and most superficial of the gluteal muscles. a. gluteus internus b. gluteus medius c. gluteus maximus d. gluteus minimus

c. gluteus maximus

The _________ musculature includes muscles that move the vertebral column and muscles that move the ribs. a. head and neck b. lower limb c. trunk

c. trunk

Smooth muscle has ___ and not troponin

calmodulin

At an axon terminal, the electrical signal from one cell ________.

causes the release of chemical neurotransmitter molecules that cause an electrical signal in the next cell

The dorsal root ganglia mainly contain

cell bodies of sensory neurons

The buccinator muscle is in the

cheek

What CNS-associated structure is illustrated in this figure?

choroid plexus

Pectoralis major orginates on the _____________ and inserts in the intertubercular sulcus of the humerus.

clavicle and sternum

Axons give rise to branches called ________.

collaterals

Axons give rise to branches called ________. axon terminals collaterals dendrites initial segments

collaterals

Muscles are named based on all the criteria below except

color of the muscle.

In the spinal cord, white matter is separated into ascending and descending tracts organized as

columns

Identify the action of the muscle at A. extend the spine compress the abdomen flex the spine twist the trunk

compress the abdomen The transversus abdominis muscles are the deepest of the abdominal wall. They compress the abdominal contents.

A nerve ________.

consists of axons wrapped in connective tissue in the PNS

Compared to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle

contracts more slowly and relaxes more slowly

Which of the following are correctly matched? parallel arrangement of fascicles; characteristic of sphincter muscles pennate arrangement of fascicles; spindle-shaped muscle convergent arrangement of fascicles; fan-shaped muscle circular arrangement of fascicles; describes the deltoid muscle

convergent arrangement of fascicles; fan-shaped muscle A convergent muscle has a broad origin, and its fascicles converge toward a single tendon of insertion. Such a muscle is triangular or fan shaped like the pectoralis major muscle of the anterior thorax.

The function of the neuromuscular junction is to ________.

convey a signal from the nervous system to skeletal muscle

A tendon is ___, whereas an aponeurosis is ___

cordlike and connects muscles to bones; a broad, fibrous sheet of connective tissue that connects muscles to muscles

The relationship between ATP and creatine phosphate is that

creatine phosphate supplies energy to regenerate ATP from ADP and phosphate

Which of the following are correctly matched? a. parallel arrangement of fascicles; characteristic of sphincter muscles b. circular arrangement of fascicles; describes the deltoid muscle c. pennate arrangement of fascicles; spindle-shaped muscle d. convergent arrangement of fascicles; fan-shaped muscle

d

Which of the following muscles does NOT act in plantar flexion? a. flexor digitorum longus b. gastrocnemius and soleus c. tibialis posterior d. popliteus

d

Which of these is the function of the external oblique muscles? a. pull ribs toward one another to elevate the rib cage b. elevate and adduct scapula in synergy with superior fibers of trapezius c. extend vertebral column and head and rotates them to opposite sides d. flex vertebral column and compress abdominal wall

d

A band in skeletal muscle

dark

Rigor mortis affects skeletal muscles a few hours after death, due to

decreased ATP and increased permeability to calcium

A sign of aging of the muscular system is

decreased supplies of myoglobin to muscles

In a bedridden patient recovering from a badly fractured femur, disuse atrophy in the thigh muscles is caused by

decreased synthesis of muscle proteins and/or increased breakdown of muscle proteins Muscle tissue grows and heals in response to stress. Without the stress of exercise and normal daily activities, muscle tissue degenerates

As the prime mover of arm abduction, the middle fibers of the _______ contract to move the arm laterally away from the body.

deltoid

This muscle works as a fixator of the shoulder when you attempt to lift a heavy table with your forearm

deltoid

Which of the following muscles is shown on this image but is NOT indicated with a letter? teres major latissimus dorsi levator scapulae deltoid

deltoid The deltoid, located in the upper right hand of the image, originates at the acromion of the scapula and inserts into the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus.

These branching neuron processes serve as receptive regions and transmit electrical signals toward the cell body. They are __________.

dendrites

Motor commands are conveyed to the spinal cord by which of the following?

descending tracts

The muscle that divides the ventral body cavity into the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities is the __________.

diaphragm

The muscle that divides the ventral body cavity into the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities is the __________. internal oblique transversus abdominis diaphragm psoas major

diaphragm The diaphragm subdivides the ventral body cavity into the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities.

This pair of muscles includes the prime mover of inspiration, and its synergist

diaphragm and external intercostals

What event directly triggers the release of neurotransmitter shown in A?

diffusion of Ca2+ into the axonal terminus A nerve impulse arrives at the axon terminal triggering the opening of Ca2+ channels, which allows for the diffusion of Ca2+ into the terminal. This in turn leads directly to the release of neurotransmitters by exocytosis.

antagonist to masseter

digastric

Skeletal muscles are named on the basis of many criteria, name one

direction of fibers or size or location or shape or action

how are skeletal muscles named

direction of muscle fibers relative size of muscle location of muscle number of origins location of muscle's origin (or insertion) shape of muscle action of muscle

extensor digitorum longus

dorsiflexes foot; prime mover of toe extension

Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion for naming muscles? a. the shape of the muscle b. the number of origins for the muscle c. the location of the muscle d. the locations of the muscle attachments e. the nervous system's control of the muscle

e

The outermost connective tissue covering of a nerve is called the ________.

epineurium

The outermost connective-tissue covering of nerves is the

epineurium

Which muscles act as antagonists to the muscles responsible for trunk flexion?

erector spinae muscle group

What cellular event is indicated by A?

exocytosis Neurotransmitters stored in synaptic vesicles are released into the synaptic cleft by exocytosis.

The soleus is an antagonist of the gastrocnemius during plantar flexion.

false

true or false. the biceps femoris is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh

false

True or false: Larger, more powerful muscles have relatively less connective tissue than smaller muscle.

false, more

What is the correct order of structures as you move from outside a muscle cell, to deep inside it?

fiber, myofibril, myofilament

Eversion of the foot is a function of the __________.

fibularis longus

flexor carpi radialis

flexes and abducts hand at wrist; synergist of elbow flexion

sartorius

flexes and laterally rotates thigh ant hip joint, flexes knee, tailor's muscle

brachioradialis

flexes elbow joint

brachialis

flexes elbow joint ( prime mover)

biceps brachii

flexes elbow joint and supinates forarm

flexor pollicis longus

flexes joints of thumb; flexes wrist

This muscle allows you to stand on tiptoe when the knee is extended, and it flexes the knee when the foot is dorsiflexed.

gastrocnemius

Which of the following muscles is named for its size?

gluteus maximus

the ______ is the largest and most superficial of the gluteal muscles

gluteus maximus

Which of the following muscles is named for its size? deltoid trapezius gluteus maximus sternocleidomastoid

gluteus maximus The term maximus indicates the size of this muscle; gluteus maximus is the largest of the gluteus muscles. Additionally, gluteal is the name of the region where the muscle is located.

A gluteal gait, in which a person walks with a waddling limp, is usually caused by a disorder of the

gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

The quadriceps are the prime movers of knee extension. Which muscle group is an antagonist to knee extension?

hamstrings

commonly referred to as ____, this muscle group on the posterior thigh extens the hip.

hamstrings

latissimus dorsi insertion

humerus

This deep muscle flexes the trunk on the thigh

iliopsoas

Myasthenia gravis is sometimes treated medically by a treatment that involves ________

inhibiting the action of acetylcholinerase This enzyme breaks down acetylcholine into acetic acid and choline.

The movable end of a muscle is its

insertion

The external intercostals elevate the rib cage during __________.

inspiration

Myelin is important in ________.

insulating axons and increasing the conduction velocity of action potentials

Aside from the nervous system, which other organ system develops out of the ectoderm?

integumentary

The structures that connect cardiac muscle cells are

intercalated discs

Which muscle(s) is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?

internal intercostals and rectus abdominus

Multipolar neurons in the brain are likely to be ________. sensory neurons motor neurons carrying impulses to muscles interneurons

interneurons

What is the name and origin of the muscle at A? superficial transverse perineal; ischial tuberosity ischiocavernosus; ischial tuberosities coccygeus; spine of the ischium bulbospongiosus; central tendon of perineum

ischiocavernosus; ischial tuberosities The ischiocavernosus retards venous drainage and maintains the erection of the penis or clitoris. It originates at the ischial tuberosities and inserts into the crura of the penis or clitoris.

A plank position is part of a yoga/Pilates workout. The person supports the body on the floor in a prone position with the arms and feet supporting the body. It is a little like the "up" position of a push-up, held for 30 to 60 seconds. Contraction of the abdominal muscles in a plank is most likely

isometric

In a recording of a muscle twitch, the delay between the time a stimulus is applied and the time the muscle responds is called the

latent period

The ________ and deltoid posterior fibers are prime movers of arm extension.

latissimus dorsi

This powerful muscle is the prime mover of arm extension

latissimus dorsi

Which of the following is NOT a muscle primarily involved in the breathing process? a. external intercostal b. internal intercostal c. diaphragm d. latissimus dorsi

latissimus dorsi

Which of the following muscles is named for its action? biceps brachii frontalis gluteus minimus levator labii superioris

levator labii superioris The levator labii superioris is named for its action of elevating the upper lip.

Which major muscles of the trunk insert on the medial edge of the scapula to draw the scapulae together and to tilt the glenoid cavity downward?

levator scapulae and rhomboids

Bones and muscles function as mechanical devices called

levers

I band in skeletal muscle

light

If a lever operates at a mechanical advantage, it means that the ________.

load is near the fulcrum and the effort is applied far from the fulcrum

masseter insertion

mandible

Which of the following is not a muscle of mastication?

mandibular

Located over the mandibular ramus, this muscle closes the jaw

masseter

The ________ is the main chewing muscle.

masseter

sternocleidomastoid insertion

mastoid process

Fibers of muscles whose motor neurons are severed

may be replaced by fat or fibrous connective tissue

Muscles A through D all have an origin in common-- what is it? radial tuberosity lateral aspect of the proximal ulna medial epicondyle of humerus lateral epicondyle of humerus

medial epicondyle of humerus All of the labeled muscles share this origin, although some have additional ones. This position of origin is important so that these muscles may function properly whether the forearm is supinated or pronated.

Cross bridge formation between myosin heads and actin molecules is caused by the elevation of calcium ion concentration in the cytosol. During rigor mortis, this elevation of calcium ion concentration in the cytosol is permanent because

mitochondria stop producing ATP molecules required by the sacrcoplasmic reticulum's calcium ion pumps A pump is considered an active transport process. Active transport moves molecules against their concentration gradient, which requires energy in the form of ATP

At a neuromuscular junction, the muscle fiber membrane folds, forming a

motor end plate

Neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles in

motor neuron endings

These neurons transmit impulses from CNS to effectors.

motor neurons

Interneurons (association neurons) in the brain are likely to be ________ neurons.

multipolar

Weightlifting, in which a muscle exerts more than 75% of its maximum tension, stimulates

muscle fibers developing new filaments of actin and myosin

An example of a partial but sustained contraction is

muscle tone

From gross to microscopic, the parts of a muscle are ________.

muscle, fascicle, fiber

The gaps in the sheath that insulates axons are called ________.

myelin sheath gaps

In muscle contraction ATP supplies energy for

myofilament movement

This contractile protein is shaped like a golf club.

myosin

The thick and thin filaments are made up of ________, respectively.

myosin and actin

The junction between an axon and a muscle fiber is called a ______________

neuromuscular

These nervous system cells are highly specialized to transmit messages throughout the body.

neurons

These nervous system cells are highly specialized to transmit messages throughout the body. neurons oligodendrocytes astrocytes microglia

neurons

Vesicles in the axon terminal contain ________. Ca2+ digestive enzymes neurotransmitters Nissl bodies

neurotransmitters

At a neuromuscular junction

neurotransmitters are released

The gaps in the sheath that insulates axons are called ________. neurilemma myelinated fibers nodes of Ranvier gaps of Schwann

nodes of Ranvier

The face is located in a dermatome supplied by nerves from what spinal cord region?

none

Which of the following areas takes visual information from one side of the body and conveys it to the opposite side?

optic chiasm

Name the muscle at A 1)orbicularis oris 2)frontalis 3)orbicularis oculi

orbicularis oculi

Name the muscle at A. frontalis zygomaticus orbicularis oris orbicularis oculi

orbicularis oculi Orbicularis oculi is a sphincter muscle of the eyelid that surrounds the rim of the orbit.

This muscle closes the eyes, allowing you to wink or blink.

orbicularis oculi.

The amount of oxygen liver cells require to react lactic acid to produce glucose or the glycogen glycogen is the

oxygen debt

Tenses skin and fascia of palm during hand movements.

palmaris longus

Which of the following is unique in that its insertion is to fascia and not bone?

palmaris longus

The _______ crosses the anterior side of the shoulder joint and is the prime mover of arm flexion.

pectoralis major

The latissimus dorsi is an antagonist of the ________ for arm flexion.

pectoralis major

This large, fan-shaped muscle of the upper chest is the prime mover of arm flexion.

pectoralis major.

Which of the following is INCORRECTLY paired? pectoralis major; arm abduction trapezius; scapula rotation latissimus dorsi; medial arm rotation deltoid; arm flexion

pectoralis major; arm abduction The pectoralis major adductions the arm.

flexor digitorum longus

plantar flexes and inverts foot;flexes toes; helps foot grip ground

The most powerful movement at the ankle joint is __________, and the ________ is one of the prime movers of this movement.

plantar flexion; gastrocnemius

Define the autonomic nervous system

plays an important role in maintaining homeostasis which maintains the balance of internal processes such as the body's temperature. The ANS consists of motor pathways only and can be further divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.

The toxin that causes botulism

prevents release of acetylcholine

What cortical region is represented by the area at D?

primary visual cortex

The muscle primarily responsible for an action is the

prime mover

deltoid

prime mover of arm abduction; antagonist of pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi

latissimus dorsi

prime mover of arm extension arm adductor, power stroke

pectoralis major

prime mover of arm flexion; adducts arm

tibialis anterior

prime mover of dorsiflexion of foot; inverts foot

extensor digitorum

prime mover of finger extension extends wrist and abducts fingers

gluteus maximus

prime mover of hip extension, laterally rotates thigh at hip joint, antagonist of iliopsoas

iliacus

prime mover of hip flexion, flexes trunk on thigh

psoas major

prime mover of hip flexion; lateral flexion of vertebral column; posture

soleus

prime mover of plantar flexion of foot

gastrocnemius

prime mover of plantar flexion of foot, flexes knee when foot dorsiflexes

hamstrings

prime mover of thigh extension and knee flexion, biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus

Athletes usually experience muscle fatigue less quickly than nonathletes because they

produce less lactic acid

The most powerful muscle in the body is the ________.

quadriceps femoris

Which of the following movements demonstrates a first-class lever? flexing your knee to raise your heel toward your buttocks lifting a rock with your right hand and arm raising your head up off your chest standing on your toes

raising your head up off your chest Raising your head up off your chest demonstrates a first-class lever. The posterior neck muscles provide the effort, the atlanto-occipital joint is the fulcrum, and the weight to be lifted is the facial skeleton.

Which muscle acts as both a knee (leg) extensor and hip (thigh) flexor?

rectus femoris

Which muscle acts as both a knee (leg) extensor and hip (thigh) flexor? vastus lateralis biceps femoris rectus femoris gluteus maximus

rectus femoris The quadriceps femoris (group of four muscles) is a powerful knee extensor. One of the quadriceps, rectus femoris, also acts as a hip flexor.

Which of the following are correctly matched? deltoid; at a right angle to the long axis rectus; straight transverse; parallel to the long axis brevis; long

rectus; straight Rectus means "straight."

Which of the following is not true?

red fibers have fewer mitochondria than white

The very brief moment following stimulation when a muscle remains unresponsive to additional stimulation is called the

refractory period

This muscle originates on the spinous C7 and T1-T5, and inserts on the medial border of the scapula

rhomboids

intercostals insertion

ribs

A synergist to zygomaticus, this muscle aids in smiling.

risorius

Chromatophilic substance, found within the cell bodies of neurons, is involved in the metabolic activities of the cell and is composed of ________.

rough endoplasmic reticulum

Nissl bodies are found within the cell bodies of neurons. They are involved in the metabolic activities of the cell and are composed of ________. lysosomes rough endoplasmic reticulum mitochondria cytoskeletal elements

rough endoplasmic reticulum

The discoloration and swelling of a muscle strain is due to

ruptured blood vessels

The striated appearance of skeletal muscles results from the

sarcomere organization

Muscle fibers are basically a collection of

sarcomeres

The actual contractile units of muscles extend from Z disc to Z disc. They are ________.

sarcomeres

Neuroglia of the peripheral nervous system include __________.

satellite cells and Schwann cells

origin of supraspinatus

scapula

Cell bodies of these neurons lie in ganglia in the peripheral nervous system (PNS).

sensory neurons

Which of these muscles is visible in the figure but NOT indicated by a letter? transversus abdominis serratus anterior external oblique internal oblique

serratus anterior The serratus anterior originates on ribs I through VIII and inserts on the anterior surface of the vertebral border of the scapula. It interdigitates with the external oblique.

Which of these muscles is visible in the figure but NOT indicated by a letter? 1)internal oblique 2)serratus anterior 3)external oblique

serratus anterior The serratus anterior originates on ribs I through VIII and inserts on the anterior surface of the vertebral border of the scapula. It interdigitates with the external oblique.

Oligodendrocytes form myelin around ________. ten or more axons oligodendrocytes do not make myelin only one axon several axons

several axons

In the condition ________, a virus infects dorsal root ganglia, causing a painful rash whose distribution corresponds to that of the affected sensory nerves as seen in their dermatomes.

shingles

Compared to the vertebral column, the spinal cord is

shorter

Transverse tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum are well developed in

skeletal muscle fibers

The type of muscle cell that lacks transverse tubules, has a single nucleus, and is under involuntary control is

smooth muscle

Both acetylcholine and norepinephrine can affect

smooth muscle contraction

Short muscle cells with centrally located nuclei are

smooth muscle fibers

Why is the body position of both a post-surgical patient and the caregiver critical in performing a safe patient move from bed to chair? so that surgical wound stitches are not pulled apart so that lifting leverage can be properly applied because patients are not expected to exert any effort so that the caregiver can support patient's full body weight

so lifting leverage can be properly applied

antagonist to splenius

sternocleidomastoid

The major head flexor muscles are the __________.

sternocleidomastoid muscle

The major head flexor muscles are the __________. scalene muscles trapezius muscles splenius muscles sternocleidomastoid muscles

sternocleidomastoid muscles The sternocleidomastoid muscles flex and laterally rotate the head. Acting alone, each muscle rotates the head toward the shoulder on the opposite side and tilts or laterally flexes the head to the shoulder on the same side.

origin of pectoralis major

sternum

Regina began an exercise program six months ago, and the muscles of her upper limbs and lower limbs are more prominent. Exercise can lead to formation of new muscle by

stimulating skeletal muscle cells to release IL-6, which stimulates satellite cells to divide, producing more muscle cells

Aponeurosis

strong sheet of tissue that acts as a tendon to attach muscles to bone

Samples of CSF for diagnostic purposes are normally obtained by placing the tip of a needle in the

subarachnoid space.

Which rotator cuff muscle is correctly paired with its action? infraspinatus; abduction supraspinatus; lateral rotation subscapularis; medial rotation teres minor; adduction

subscapularis; medial rotation Which rotator cuff muscle is correctly paired with its action? Which rotator cuff muscle is correctly paired with its action? infraspinatus; abduction supraspinatus; lateral rotation subscapularis; medial rotation teres minor; adduction

Creatine phosphate

supplies energy for the synthesis of ATP

The functional connection between a neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber is a

synapse

The space between the axon terminal and the sarcolemma of a muscle fiber is called the ________.

synaptic cleft

A muscle that assists a prime mover is a(n)

synergist

Muscle that aids another by promoting the same movement.

synergist

Tendons differ from ligaments in that ________.

tendons bind muscle to bone and ligaments bind bone to bone

The ________ is an antagonist of the deltoid for arm abduction.

teres major

Which of the following is NOT a rotator cuff muscle? teres major subscapularis infraspinatus supraspinatus

teres major Teres major is not one of the four rotator cuff muscles, which include supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis. Their main function is to reinforce the capsule of the shoulder and rotate the humerus in the glenoid cavity.

A triad consists of ________.

terminal cisternae and T-tubules

How does the CNS control behaviour and regulate the body's physiological processes?

the brain receives information from sensory receptors e.g eyes and sends these messages to the muscles and glands in the body. This involves the spinal cord..

Which of the following muscles does the phrenic nerve innervate? the diaphragm the external intercostals the sternocleidomastoid muscles the internal intercostals

the diaphragm The phrenic nerve innervates the diaphragm. The intercostal nerves innervate the intercostal muscles. The sternocleidomastoid muscles are innervated by the accessory nerves.

What is the major factor controlling how levers work?

the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum

Where are the origins of most of the muscles that move the fingers? the palm of the hand the wrist the forearm the arm

the forearm Most of the muscles that move the hand originate in the forearm and operate the fingers via their long tendons.

Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?

the frontal belly of the epicranius

Which of the following muscles inserts to the posterior calcaneus via the calcaneal tendon?

the gastrocnemius

Which of the following is NOT used as a criterion for naming muscles? the shape of the muscle the location of the muscle the nervous system's control of the muscle the number of origins for the muscle the locations of the muscle attachments

the nervous system's control of the muscle Whether the muscle is controlled by the involuntary or voluntary nervous system is not a criterion used for naming muscles.

The cortical regions indicated by E are involved in what functions?

the production and interpretation of language

What does the diencephalon have within?

the thalamus and hypothalamus.

What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?

the total number of muscle fibers (cells) available for contraction

Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants as the buttocks and arm muscles are poorly developed?

the vastus lateralis

Which muscle group is involved when a "pulled groin" occurs?

thigh adductors

The I-band consists of ________.

thin filaments

The prime mover of dorsiflexion is the __________.

tibialis anterior

antagonist to gastrocnemius

tibialis anterior

the lower limb muscle, which attaches to the calcaneus via the calcaneal tendon and plantar flexes the foot when the knee is extended

tibialis anterior

Two muscles in this image, identified by the letters C and D, share a function. What is that function?

to close the jaw

Two muscles in this image, identified by the letters C and D, share a function. What is that function? to open the mouth and depress the mandible to compress the cheek to close the jaw to provide forward sliding and side-to-side grinding movements of the lower teeth

to close the jaw The muscles at C and D originate on the skull and insert on the mandible. They exert powerful forces during chewing (elevation of the mandible).

Two muscles in this image, identified by the letters C and D, share a function. What is that function? 1)to provide forward sliding and side-to-side grinding movements of the lower teeth 2)to open the mouth and depress the mandible 3)to close the jaw

to close the jaw The muscles at C and D originate on the skull and insert on the mandible. They exert powerful forces during chewing (elevation of the mandible).

The severe pain of compartment syndrome is caused by

too much fluid in the compartment

A bundle of axons in the CNS is called a ________.

tract

Neuron fibers (axons) running through the central nervous system form __________ of white matter.

tracts

What is true about tracts and nerves?

tracts lack connective tissue coverings

Transverse tubules

transmit muscle impulses into the cell interior

Smooth muscle lacks

transverse tubules and striations

The shape of this mucle gives it its name.

trapezius

This superficial muscle covers a large part of the posterior thorax.

trapezius

The triangle of auscultation, commonly used to hear sounds of respiratory organs, is located near the border of the

trapezius and latissimus dorsi

antagonist to biceps brachii

triceps brachii

The main forearm extensor is the __________. coracobrachialis triceps brachii brachilais biceps brachii

triceps brachii The main forearm (elbow) extensor is the triceps brachii.

Which protein inhibits interaction between actin and myosin to prevent skeletal muscle contraction; and which ions remove the inhibition?

tropomysin, calcium ions

Muscles are only able to pull, they never push.

true

Muscles that help maintain upright posture are fixators.

true

Regardless of type, all levers follow the same basic principle: effort farther than load from fulcrum = mechanical advantage; effort nearer than load to fulcrum = mechanical disadvantage.

true

The anterior compartment of the thigh is involved in lower leg extension.

true

The arrangement of a muscle's fascicles determines its range of motion and power.

true

The diaphragm flattens and moves inferiorly during inspiration.

true

True or False: Muscles of facial expression differ fro most skeletal muscles because they usually do not insert into a bone.

true

True or false: skeletal muscle cells have more than one nucleus.

true

true or false. muscles of facial expression differ from most skeletal muscles because they usually do not insert into a bone

true

the _____ musculature includes muscles that move the vertebral column and muscles that move the ribs

trunk

Nervous tissue is made up of __________ main cell types.

two

Sensory or afferent neurons are typically of this type.

unipolar

Sensory or afferent neurons are typically of this type. bipolar multipolar unipolar

unipolar

popliteus

unlocks extended knee for knee flexion

origin of rhomboideus

vertebrae

palmaris longus

weak wrist flexor

Functional classification of neurons is based on ________.

whether the signal carried is traveling toward or away from the CNS

The actions of the extensor carpi radialis brevis are localized to the __________.

wrist

All of the muscles that originate from the medial epicondyle of the humerus have one of two functions. Which of the following pairs is correct? wrist flexion and forearm pronation wrist flexion and supination wrist extension and forearm supination forearm flexion and wrist flexion

wrist flexion and forearm pronation All of the muscles that originate from the medial epicondyle of the humerus are involved in either wrist flexion and forearm pronation.

Which of the following muscles is used to form a smile?

zygomaticus major

This muscle is used in smiling.

zygomaticus.