Bio 275-Unit 4

what virulence factor of streptococcus pyogenes matches this description: surface antigen that serves as the basis for alphabeticl grouping; protects bacterium from lysozyme

C carbohydrate

what virulence factor of streptococcus pyogenes matches this description: projecting surface antigen that facilitates adherence and resits phagocytosis

M protein

the following disease are often caused by what bacteria? impetigo, pharyngitis, necrotizing fasciitis

S. pyogenes

Occasionally, an episode of food poisoning occurs which centers around processed ham, sausage, or salted pork. These episodes are almost always assumed to be due to ingestion of Staphylococcus aureus unless other evidence proves differently. This is because

Staphylococcus aureus is one of the few bacteria able to multiply in foods as salty as sausage, ham, or salted pork.

what other organism could be mistaken for Neisseria meningitis when investigating a gram stain of blood or cerebrospinal fluid?

branhamella catarrhalis

The flea is the vector that carries the Yersinia bacterium from animal to animal, causing __ plague

bubonic

surface antigen K represents what

capsule

what virulence factor of streptococcus pyogenes matches this description: chemical surface layer that prevents an immune response by the host

capsule

What mammal population that receives the greatest percentage of anthrax vaccine because it is at the highest risk of getting the disease?

cattle

surface antigen H represents

flagella

staphylococcal disease symptom: vomiting

food intoxication

surface antigen O represents

cell wall

These concerning infections have led to new control measures, including programs to ensure compliance in drug therapy such as _____ therapy

directly observed

Rates are once again declining, but a new concern has been the increase in _____ strains of M. Tuberculosis

drug-resistant

The DTwp and DTap vaccines protect against all of the following diseases EXCEPT -pertussis -dysentery -tetanus -diphtheria

dysentery

The O antigen of Enterobacteriaceae cell walls consists of lipopolysaccharide, which has a lipid portion reffered to as

endotoxin

T/F: Because the influenza vaccine is grown in eggs, the Centers for Disease Control recommends that persons with potentially fatal allergies to eggs refrain from getting an annual flu vaccine.

false

T/F: The Zostavax vaccine is indicated for the prevention of shingles prior to the onset of an episode of chickenpox.

false

T/F: The administration of smallpox vaccine was curtailed because it was found to be ineffective.

false

T/F: a person with an active tuberculosis infection is placed on a single antibiotic because tuberculosis can be treated as well as any other respiratory infection

false

What does the "w" or "a" represent in the DTwP and DTaP vaccination names?

form of bacterium used

what is the most serious illness associated with E. coli

hemolytic uremic syndrome

common agent of what viral hepatitis (A, B or C): this is a nonenveloped RNA virus classified as an enterovirus

hepatitis A

common agent of what viral hepatitis (A, B or C): this virus causes a milder, shorter term disease in comparison to other viral agents of hepatitis

hepatitis A

common agent of what viral hepatitis (A, B or C): transmission is usually through fecal-oral transmission, with outbreaks linked to unhygienic food handling or traveling to developing countries

hepatitis A

common agent of what viral hepatitis (A, B or C): the incubation period is 7 weeks on average, and the virus can cause a chronic infection leading to the development of hepatocellular carcinoma

hepatitis B

common agent of what viral hepatitis (A, B or C): the primary prevention is recombinant vaccine recommended as part of the routine immunization schedule for children before age 18

hepatitis B

common agent of what viral hepatitis (A, B or C): this virus is a member of the hepadnaviruses, a group of enveloped DNA viruses

hepatitis B

common agent of what viral hepatitis (A, B or C): transmission is through contact with blood, unprotected sexual intercourse, vertical transmission, or even bilogical vectors

hepatitis B

common agent of what viral hepatitis (A, B or C): it is estimated that more than 3 million Americans are infected by this RNA virus of the Flaviviridae family

hepatitis C

common agent of what viral hepatitis (A, B or C): transmission is primary through contact with blood and blood products

hepatitis C

herpes simplex virus ____ :usually results in the formation of oral lesions; primary infection frequently occurs in infancy

herpes simplex virus 1

herpes simplex virus _____: usually results in the formation of genital lesions; primary infection occurs most frequently between the ages of 14 and 29

herpes simplex virus 2

How do humans most commonly contract the plague

humans are accidental hosts when they get between the flea and its preferred rodent hosts

what virulence factor of streptococcus pyogenes matches this description: enzyme that promotes invasion into tissues by breaking down the binding substance in connective tissues

hyaluronidase

staphylococcal disease symptom: bone infection

osteomyelitis

drugs such as acyclovir and valacyclovir work to treat herpes infections by

preventing recurrent outbreaks of the virus

what would you expect to see under the microscope when looking at a spinal top specimen from a patient positive for Neisseria meningitidis?

red cocci growing in pairs

prompt treatment of strept throat with antibiotics is necessary to lessen the possiblity of?

scarlet fever rheumatic fever acute glomerulonephritis

most outbreaks of Ebola have stopped when

so many people contract the disease and die that person-to-person transmission is interrupted

what are the hallmark signs and symptoms of meningococcal meningitis?

stiff neck and petechiae

what virulence factor of streptococcus pyogenes matches this description: enzyme that plays a role in invasion by leading to the digestion of fibrin clots

streptokinase

what virulence factor of streptococcus pyogenes matches this description: toxin that causes beta-hemolysis on blood agar and injures cells of the host

streptolysin

patients suffering from anthrax are typically given the antibiotic ciprofloxacin, but may still die because

the antibiotic does nothing to inhibit the action of anthrax toxin

Why is antibiotic use a common cause of clostridiodes difficile infections?

the antibiotic wipes out the normal bacteria in the gut, allowing C. difficile to overgrow

why is pulmonary anthrax more deadly than cutaneous anthrax?

the destruction of macrophages reduces host resistance

Why is it important to be able to differentiate between coliform and noncoliform members of the Enterobacteriaceae family

the noncoliform bacteria are the true pathogens coliforms are opportunistic pathogens

How does typhoidal and non-typhoidal salmonelloses differentiate?

the organism moves into the blood and replicates

Why is the E. coli O157:H7 such a potent pathogen?

the strain of E. coli makes an extra toxin in addition to its endotoxin

How does the E. coli O157:H7 strain have a large systemic effect?

the toxin produced by the bacteria is spread by blood, disrupting protein synthesis within cells of the body

staphylococcal disease symptom: organ damage/shutdown

toxic shock syndrome

T/F: Besides increasing the risk of bacterial pneumonia, influenza may cause pneumonia on its own.

true

T/F: Certain human viral pathogens can be transmitted to humans from other animal species by vectors.

true

T/F: Having a fever makes it less likely that you would become infected with a virus causing the common cold.

true

T/F: Poliovirus is highly resistant to acidic conditions, a trait that allows it to pass through the stomach quite easily.

true

T/F: The conditions known as varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus.

true

primary tuberculosis is marked by

tubercles int he lungs

what is the long-term prevention for meningococcal meningitis?

vaccination

which population is at highest risk for meningococcal meningitis?

young children and adolescents

for decades, the prevalence of TB was declining; however, in the US, increases were seen in the ____ due to the spread of ___

-1980s -HIV

what is the pathogenic species of Neisseria?

-N. meningitidis -N. gonorrhoeae

complications of influenza infection include pneumonia as result of secondary infection due to what two bacteria?

-Streptococcus pneumoniae -Staphylococcus aureus

What are the general characteristics of viruses?

-Viruses are composed of DNA or RNA molecules surrounded by a protein coat. -The nucleic acids of certain animal viruses are composed of DNA whereas others are composed of RNA. -Lytic viral infection often results in destruction of the host cell.

What is the key criteria used for categorizing the gram-positive bacilli into groups?

-acid fastness -endospores -oxygen requirements

Why have vaccinations against smallpox been curtailed?

-because there have been no human smallpox cases since 1977 -because of the threat of progressive vaccinia, a potential side effect

Traditional influenza vaccine is created from flu viruses that have been chemically _____ and contains ___ to ___ different viral variants

-chemically inactivated -3 to 4

What are the structural characteristics of the influenza virus?

-enveloped segmented single-stranded RNA viruses -posses hemagglutinin

What explains the high incidence of Salmonella foodborne illness?

-fowl are notorious for harboring Salmonella -Eggs are good growth medium for Salmonella

Poxviruses are unique in that they

-have double-stranded RNA -possess their own mitochondria

What are the 2 proteins found on the surface of the influenza virus?

-hemagglutinin -neuraminidase

this pulmonary infection is diagnosed by testing the skin for _______ to a bacterial protein, using chest X-rays to observe tubercles in the lungs, or ______ staining of sputum specimens

-hypersensitivity -acid-fast

which of the following is not true for Bordetella pertussis? -it is an anaerobic, spore-forming bacterium -it is a small coccobacillus -its toxins destroy the ciliated cells of the respiratory tract -it is transmitted by respiratory droplets

-it is an anaerobic, spore-forming bacterium

Please select all of the correct answers that describe the pathology of N. Gonorrhoeae: -males have a high rate of symptomatic cases, whereas, females have a high rate of asymptomatic cases -blindness can occur in babies born to women with gonorrhea infection -major effect of untreated gonorrhea, in all populations, is pelvic inflammatory disease -N. gonorrhoeae can stay in a patient's blood for years even after treatment

-males have a high rate of symptomatic cases, whereas, females have a high rate of asymptomatic cases -blindness can occur in babies born to women with gonorrhea infection

MDR-TB refers to _____ tuberculosis, and XDR-TB strands for ____ tuberculosis

-multidrug resistant -extensively drug-resistant

Correctly order the clinical stages of tuberculosis infection and disease progression

1. Exposure to TB droplets 2. Inhaled into lungs 3. Lung, macrophages engulf bacilli, infection occurs in 80-90% of cases 4. Primary TB disease with tubercles, symptoms occur in 5-10% of cases within 2 years 5.Latency; bacilli go dormant in lungs; carrier state without symptoms may last for many years 6. Recurrent disease; tubercles break down; bacilli are released into lung cavities and cirulation 7. Disease spreads to extrapulmonary sites such as kidney, bones, brain with severe morbidity

What is the order that represents the progression of whooping cough symptoms, starting with the infection

1. destruction of ciliated epithelial cells along respiratory tract 2. buildup of mucus along respiratory tract 3. congestion and sneezing 4. sudden coughs with gasping breath intake

Order the events of tuberculosis progression

1. inhalation of bacteria 2. bacteria are localized within lung tissue by phagocytic macrophages 3. immune cells migrate to the area and surround the macrophages and bacteria 4. latent infection 5. bacteria migrate out of tubercles into healthy lung tissue 6. wasting of body

What is the order of events in a tetanus infection from the beginning of the disease to death?

1. necrotic tissue causes anaerobic conditions 2. germination of spores 3. production of tetanospasmin toxin 4. excess skeletal muscle contraction 5. respiratory muscles go into spastic, sustained contractions

Describe the state of diagnostics for tuberculosis infections

All of the choices are correct -culturing and identifying the bacteriums very tedious -genetic tests such as PCR and gene probes give accurate, fast molecular identification of the organism -the x-ray may not show small tubercles -the skin test is not a definitive test because it does not identify if the person has a present infection

Children under the age of 22 have likely received which of the following vaccinations to prevent pertussis?

DTaP

common traveler's diarrhea is usually due to infection with

E. coli

statement that explains why patient specimens have to be plated and cultured using differential and selective media for laboratory diagnosis of stabpylococcal infections

Staphylococcus grows in areas of the body that are highly populated with normal microbiota, so these media inhibit other microorganisms, making it easier to find staphylococci.

John has been diagnosed with gonorrhea and he is worried about his ex-girlfriend, with whom he had been having sex. But she hasn't said anything about it to him, so he just decides to not say anything. Please choose the statement that best explains why his girlfriend does not have symptoms.

The rate of symptoms, particularly in women, can be very low.

Please choose the answers that correctly describes the virulence factors of Staphyloccus aureus a) coagulase enzyme causes blood plasma to clot b)staphylokinase enzyme destroys RBC c) penicillinase enzyme allows S. aureus to grow in the presence of penicillin d) hyaluronidase enzyme promotes invasion of host tissue e) lipase enzyme causes a fever in the host

a) coagulase enzyme causes blood plasma to clot c) penicillinase enzyme allows S. aureus to grow in the presence of penicillin d) hyaluronidase enzyme promotes invasion of host tissue

this term implies the constant and gradual change of influenza glycoproteins through mutation which decreases the host cells' ability to recognize the virus

antigenic drift

this term implies a relatively sudden and dramatic change in the influenza virus genome through substitution or recombination of genes from an influenza virus originating form a different animal host

antigenic shift

what mechanism of influenza virus variability is dependent on the virus being segmented?

antigenic shift

staphylococcal disease symptom: localized abscesses

boils

In this case, a positive skin test for tuberculosis was considered to be any reaction greater than 5 mm in diameter, as opposed to the normal cutoff of 10 mm. This was likely done because

investigators sought to increase the liklihood of identifying even those testing weakly TB positive.

what is hemaagglutinin?

it has the ability to clump RBC

Why is there a current effort to increase adult vaccinations against pertussis

it is clear that boosters are needed for continued protection

The main distinction between the coliforms and noncoliforms is the ability to utilize ____ as a nutrient

lactose

What human tissue is most commonly targeted by herpes simplex viruses

mucous membranes

tuberculosis is a respiratory infection caused by a member of genus __

mycobacterium