BIOD 101 FINAL

Is ATP generated by substrate level phosphorylation?

Yes, it is

After fertilization a ______ is formed.

Zygote

What are the 4 concepts that Mendel used to develop a model of his experiments?

1. There are alternative versions of genes called alleles 2. Each gene that is inherited consists of two copies of an allele, one from each parent 3. One allele will be dominant 4. Each allele must be able to segregate into different gametes (meiosis)

Trisomy 21 results from ______ copies of genetic material on _____. Often, this occurs from non-separation of ______ chromosomes during _______.

1. Three 2. Chromosome 21 3. Maternal 4. Meiosis

Complete the following: Plants 1. Environmental adaption: 2. Growth over a lifecycle: 3. Produce new offspring: 4. Biochemical process of obtaining energy: 5. Organism level homeostasis: 6. Major cell type:

1. Waxy coat in desert environments to prevent water loss or large, thick leaves that can withstand heavy rains 2. seed-->seedling-->adult 3. asexual and sexual 4. autotrophic, photosynthesis 5. losing leaves to reduce metabolic requirements in the winter months 6. multicellular, eukaryotes

What are the four main stages of apoptosis?

1. activation 2. "suicide" 3. cleanup by phagocytic engulfment 4. degradation of the engulfed cell

What are some common cell responses to signaling ligands?

1. activation of a target protein 2. changes in gene expression 3. signal amplification 4. termination when the signal dissociates from the receptor

What accessory structures do bacteria have that facilitate movement?

1. capsule- provides a mechanism of adhesion to host cells or to other bacteria 2. fimbriae- are protein structures extending from the cell wall that have a short, spiky hair-like appearance. are used for attachment to host cells or to other bacteria 3. flagella- are less complex and smaller than flagella on euk. cells. The rotational movement is produced by a proton gradient

What are the most common cell wall shapes?

1. cocci (spherical-shaped) 2. bacilli (rod-shaped) 3. spiral

Naive B cells proliferate to form clones- are all the daughter cells that are the same as the parent cell and respond to one antigen. What type of cells can the daughter cells become?

1. effector cells- immediately become active and fight the antigen(s); the concentration of cells begins to decline within a few days as the threat is removed 2. memory cells- are dormant but antigen-specific with the ability to respond to a threat; will remain highly selective for an antigen that they have previously encountered

Complete the following: Fungi 1. Environmental adaption: 2. Growth over a lifecycle: 3. Produce new offspring: 4. Biochemical process of obtaining energy: 5. Organism level homeostasis: 6. Major cell type (organization):

1. exoenzymes OR antibiotic production/secretion 2. spore --> adult 3. asexual (budding, fragmentation, spore formation) 4. Heterotrophic 5. Metabolic processes to maintain internal humidity and metal ion balance 6. Eukaryotic OR could discuss hyphae organization OR multicellular

what must one consider when deciding microbiological and immunological techniques?

1. exposure to a microorganism 2. microorganism evasion of host defenses 3. incubation and symptom onset 4. appropriate treatment 5. future prevention

What are the three general regions of cell surface receptors?

1. extracellular (outside) 2. a hydrophobic region, located within the plasma membrane 3. intracellular region (inside)

what are the different subsets of T cells?

1. helper T cells- help generate a coordinated immune response w/ the other adaptive and innate arms; can release cytokines to activate B cells, signal phagocytic cells, or activate different T cell subsets 2. cytotoxic T cells (CTLs)- produce toxic proteins that can directly lyse infected host cells; once activated, will release perforins and granzymes to lyse the cell

what are the two arms of adaptive immunity?

1. humoral- consists of antibody-secreting B cells and occur in the blood and lymphatic fluids 2. cell-mediated - defenses consist of T cell interactions

What are the 2 main branches of the immune system?

1. innate 2. adaptive

What are the 3 types of cell junctions?

1. tight junctions 2. desmosomes 3. gap junctions

Due to amplification , for every one molecule of epinephrine, the cellular response results in the release of _________________________.

10^8 molecules of glucose

What is the pH of sweat glands?

3-5 acidity. antibacterial

If we define "aerobic phosphorylation" as the sum biochemical reactions of glycolysis, citric acid cycle and electron transport chain, what is the total amount of ATP generated (estimated amount)?

30-32 ATP molecules

A light microscope has an eye piece magnification of 10X, and the objective lens is set to 30X. What is the total magnification?

300X

At the end meiosis 2 how many daughter cells are produced?

4 haploid daughter cells with unduplicated chromatids

How many rounds of division occur before a cleavage forms?

8 rounds

What is a Gram-stain (technique) and why is it performed?

A Gram-stain is used to identify different types of bacteria based on their cell walls. The technique involves crystal violet dye, iodine, alcohol wash, and a final red dye.

Describe the difference between a ligand that acts as an agonist and a ligand that acts as an antagonist.

A agonist ligand binds to a receptor and causes a response in the target cell, whereas, an antagonist ligand binds to the receptor and blocks the ligand from binding

What is the electron transport chain?

A catabolic pathway in a sequence of electron carrier molecules that shuttle electrons, down a series of reactions that release energy and also a proton gradient to drive the synthase; used to make ATP.

What is cell-cell recognition?

A cell′s ability to distinguish one type of neighboring cell from another.

Voltage gated channels within a cell's membrane change (open or closed) in response to:

A change in electrical charge

Describe the law of segregation

A diploid organism has two alleles of a gene on different chromosomes that are separated into different cells during meiosis. Can be modeled using a Punnett Square

What is a karyotype?

A display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized according to size and shape

What is a dominant allele?

A form of a gene that is fully expressed, even when two different alleles are present

Given what you know about the pathogenesis of V. Cholera, describe the mechanism of action of a hypothetical drug that could resolve the infection.

A hypothetical drug could prevent the toxin to bind to a G-protein. This will prevent the activation of adenyl cyclase and cAMP will not increase

What is a malignant tumor?

A mass of cancer cells that can spread. It grows rapidly and spreads to other tissues.

What is a benign tumor?

A mass of cells that grows out of control but remains at the site of origin (non-cancerous tumor)

Describe a dihybrid cross

A more complicated cross that includes 2 traits

What is the relationship between a ligand and a receptor?

A receptor must have specificity for a ligand. A ligand helps regulate responses in the target cell while not impacting non-target cells that are in the same location. As such, regulation of this process involves receptors only triggering a response to ligands that have specificity.

On a phagocytic tree, each branch point represents _______.

A shared ancestor

A H+ (protons) move down its gradient, the only place the proton can cross through the membrane is at _______ sites.

ATP synthase

________ occurs when an input of energy is required to move substances through the membrane.

Active transport

How does a purine differ from a pyrimidine?

Adenine and Guanine (purines) consist of 2 rings and 4 nitrogen atoms. Pyrimidines (cytosine and thymine) consist of 1 ring and 2 nitrogen atoms

What are the four nitrogenous bases? Describe their orientation within the double helix (how they bind and what kind of bond links them).

Adenine, Guanine (purines), Cytosine and Thymine (pyrimidines). They form nucleotides in the double helix (BASE + PHOSPHATE + SUGAR). They are paired in a complementary arrangement and are held together by weak hydrogen bonds

In the experiment with the goldfish, the gill beat rate was an indication of:

Aerobic respiration

Briefly compare and contrast aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

Aerobic respiration occurs in the presence of oxygen, whereas, anaerobic reactions do not require oxygen. Both reactions produce ATP, however, aerobic respiration yields substantially more. Also, both reactions use glycolysis as their first step

Describe the processes that occur after a G-protein is activated.

After the G-protein is activated, it continues to move down the plasma membrane until it reaches and binds with the enzyme. This binding causes the G-protein to act as GTPase and hydrolyzes the bound GTP to GDP

Which of the following are associated with intracelllular activation of apoptosis?

All of the above (mitochondrial protein activation, cytochrome c, formation of molecular pores)

Plants can cause which of the following in humans:

Allergic reactions

Briefly describe the main features of the bacterial cell wall

Alternating sugars of NAM (N-acetylglucosamine) and NAG (N-acetylmuramic acid) cross-linked together by polypeptides

Name the building-block molecule(s) for each of the following biomacromolecules: Proteins

Amino Acids

Define osmotic pressure.

Amount of force that is needed to prevent osmotic uptake within a solution

What structure do plants use to produce and store food? Provide one example.

Amyloplasts are used for the storage of starch

Propose a useful drug that could be developed to prevent severe K. Pneumonia infection in vulnerable patients

An advanced drug that prevents K. Pneumonia to use proteins to halt the body's attempt to signal cytokines and phagocytic cell recruitment; keeps the immune system form "turning on"

What is a recessive allele?

An allele that is masked when a dominant allele is present

Define the term organism.

An individual living creature

What is the difference between anabolic and catabolic biochemical reactions?

Anabolic reactions require energy and involve the building of molecules Ex: bond forming to create proteins Catabolic reactions is the sum of all energy releasing formations. Ex: bond breaking in digestion and cellular respiration

Cellular respiration in the absence of oxygen is called __________.

Anaerobic respiration

What is a dendritic cell?

Antigen-presenting cells that process antigen material and will display epitopes on their surface to present it to B and T-cells; reside in tissues to engulf pathogens;

What is the difference between a diploid and a haploid cell?

Any cell with two chromosome sets is diploid. In humans, this is 23 pairs or 46 total chromosomes (somatic cells). Haploid cells contain a single set of chromosomes, as with sex cells (gametes). Haploids are unpaired, so there are just 22 autosomes plus one sex chromosome (23 total).

Which domain is classically considered to be "extremophiles"?

Archaea

In DNA structure, what does the 3' and 5' terminate with?

Are antiparallel and 5' terminates with a phosphate group and 3' with a hydroxyl group

Define termination of a signal

As the concentration of signaling ligands decreases, fewer molecules bind to the receptors to initiate a transduction pathway and response. least complex aspect of signal transduction pathways; ligands binding to receptors is reversible

What was the observable relationship between gill beat rate and water temp.?

As the temperature decreased, so did the gill beat rate

Explain the difference between the two types of reproduction.

Asexual reproduction is when the parent produces an identical offspring without a partner. Examples include spore formation, budding, and fragmentation. Sexual reproduction requires another partner to join sperm and produce a similar offspring

Define binary fission.

Asexual reproduction where the parent body is pinched into 2 halves = 2 daughter organisms with their own nuclei

Each of the following are characteristic of Animalia kingdom EXCEPT:

Autotrophic

Why are ribosomal RNA a necessary component for all living cells?

B/c rRNA is a structural component and produces all the coding for the amino acids in a polypeptide chain

Compare Mitosis and Meiosis.

Be able to name 3 of the following: 1. DNA replication: occurs during interphase in mitosis and meiosis I, but not in meiosis II 2. Number of divisions: One in mitosis, two in meiosis 3. Synapsis: does not occur in mitosis; occurs during prophase I of meiosis along with crossing-over of non-sister chromatids 4. Number of daughter cells: 2 in mitosis, 4 in meiosis 5. How daughter cells compare to parent cell: exactly the same in mitosis, genetically distinct in meiosis

Why are proteins so often used to build structures?

Because they are "structurally sophisticated". They are strong, yet flexible and incredibly diverse.

Animals are often grouped by ______ which may be spherical, radial, or bilateral.

Body plans

What key features of eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells are the same?

Both have a plasma membrane that acts as a semi-permeable barrier, contain cytosol to suspend intracellular components, contain chromosomes with DNA and contain ribosomes to manufacture proteins

Contrast inductive and deductive reasoning.

Both inductive and deductive reasoning are used to develop a valid conclusion. However, inductive reasoning moves from specific scenarios into a generalized conclusion, while deductive reasoning moves from generalized truths to a true and specific conclusion.

Tell whether each of the following is carbohydrate, lipid, protein, or nucleic acid. Then explain the use of each. Glycogen

Carbohydrate; the form in which animals and humans store glucose

Tell whether each of the following is carbohydrate, lipid, protein, or nucleic acid. Then explain the use of each. Starch

Carbohydrate; the form in which plants store glucose

Tell whether each of the following is carbohydrate, lipid, protein, or nucleic acid. Then explain the use of each. GLUCOSE

Carbohydrate; used as fuel, is referred to as blood sugar in humans and animals

Tell whether each of the following is carbohydrate, lipid, protein, or nucleic acid. Then explain the use of each. Cellulose

Carbohydrate; woody tissue in plants and trees, indigestible fiber

Who was the first to use organismal DNA sequences to construct phylogenetic trees?

Carl Woese

Glycolysis is a ______ process

Catabolic

As a chemical reaction proceeds, enzymes act as ______ to increase the rate of the reaction by ______ The activation energy.

Catalyst, lowering

A _____ is synthesized during G2 which is a region of the cell that is composed of filament and microtubule fibers that function to organize microtubules for cell division.

Centrosome

Which of the following may be involved in carrier mediated transport? (Select all that apply)

Channel proteins, polar molecules, charged molecules, carrier proteins, "gated" ion channels

How is meiosis 1 characterized? What does it consist of?

Characterized as the separation of homologous chromosomes. Consists of: Prophase 1, Metaphase 1, Anaphase 1, and Telophase 1 (including cytokinesis)

What is a cell cycle checkpoint (purpose), and what are the main cell cycle checkpoints?

Checkpoints are areas where the cycle pauses to check DNA and other environmental factors before entering the next phase. The G1 checkpoint is the most important b/c it determines if the cell will move to the next phase. The G2 checkpoint's main function is to evaluate newly replicated DNA for errors and unreplicated areas. The M checkpoint ensures that all the MT of the spindle complex are attached to centromeres of the chromatids and that no chromatids are free-floating

The ATP-synthase uses an energy coupling process called ______ to drive ATP synthesis

Chemiosmosis

Prophase is characterized by the following (select all that apply):

Chromatin condensation centrosome movement mitotic spindle formation nucleoli dissolution

Out of the aerobic pathways discussed, which one is associated with the release of carbon dioxide?

Citric Acid Cycle (note: CO2 is also a byproduct of fermentation but it does not occur aerobically)

What is meant by the term "complementary base pairs"? List both pairs as they would be found in a DNA molecule; include the type of bond.

Complementary base pairs means they are made to attach to each other. A goes to T and G goes to C. Both contain hydrogen bonds, however A & T contain 2 H-bonds, whereas, G&C contain 3.

Gram-negative bacterial cells have:

Complex, yet thin cell walls

What complexes compose the electron transport chain?

Complexes 1,2,3,4, and the mechanical ATP synthase

What are chloroplasts?

Contains the pigment chlorophyll which mediates photosynthesis; most prominent plastid

pelvic cavity

Contains urinary bladder, reproductive organs, and rectum

Which of the following are events occurring in Pro-metaphase? (Check all that apply)

Continued chromatin condensing Nuclear membrane begins to fragment Reorganization of mitotic spindle

Adding stains or dyes to specimens increases:

Contrast

What molecules regulate the cell cycle? What biological process is occurring? Provide an example of this?

Cyclins and Cyclin-dependent kinases. Phosphorylation. Maturation-Promoting Factor (MPF) is an example of this.

What molecule is associated with both the electron transport chain and apoptosis?

Cytochrome C

Which cellular components are often recycled from cells that have undergone blebbing and macrophage phagocytosis? (Select all that apply)

DNA RNA

Which group of prokaryotes is responsible for breaking down dead and dying organisms and releasing vital elements such as carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorus into the environment?

Decomposers

When two amino acids are joined to form a protein, does hydrolysis or dehydration occur?

Dehydration reaction

The influx of positive ions into a cell, causes a change in membrane potential, called ______.

Depolarization

Signaling that is characterized by contact between the signaling cell and the target cell in order to facilitate communication is:

Direct

Define positive control.

Does not receive any experimental treatment; it will give an expected result; ensures an

Define negative control.

Doesn't give a result, and no result would be logically expected

What are the levels of taxonomic heirarchy?

Domain Kingdom Phylum Class Order Family Genus Species

Describe Trisomy 21

Down syndrome. Typically, individuals contain a whole extra chromosome, or only part of the 21st chromosome was duplicated. Resulting egg cell has 23 autosomes (2 copies of 21) and 1 sex chromosome (24 chromosomes)

Explain the 2 differences btw hydrolysis and dehydration condensation.

During dehydration condensation biomacromolecules are synthesized by joining building block monomers. A water molecule is lost and energy is used. Biomacromolecules are broken down into monomers during hydrolysis when a water molecule is added and energy is released.

Which level of organization refers to a system of living and non-living things in a region?

Ecosystem

Clones are retained as what two main groups of cells? (Select all that apply)

Effector cells Long-term memory cells

The greatest amount of ATP yield occurs at the following step of respiration:

Electron Transport Chain

Matter is made up of which of the following?

Elements

Which type of signaling is characterized by long distance travel and often involves hormones?

Endocrine

What is the law of conservation of mass?

Energy is conserved, or recycled within an ecosystem (and the biosphere general). Examples of this principle are evident with the water, carbon, phosphorus, and nitrogen cycles.

What is dephosphorylation? What enzyme catalyzes the process?

Enzymes that can rapidly remove phosphate groups from proteins. phosphatase together allow proteins to act as "on" or "off" switches Protein = OFF Protein & Phosphate = ON Protein & Phosphate a protein = OFF

Which of the following would be elevated within the blood of a patient parasitized by intestinal worms?

Eosinophils

Describe the following: epitope, pathogen, and antigen

Epitope- a small section of the antigen take from the pathogen that is presented to cells of the adaptive arm Pathogen- invading foreign substance(s) that is attempting to infect a host Antigen- a toxin or other foreign substance which induces an immune response in the body, especially the production of antibodies. A pathogen is anything that colonizes and establishes infection in the host. The portion of the pathogen that is detected as foreign is the antigen. The specific area on the antigen that B cell and T cell receptors bind to and antibodies are matched to is the epitope.

What domain does antibiotics come from?

Eubacteria

Which domain includes bacteria such as pyogenes?

Eubacteria

What are the three domains?

Eukarya, Eubacteria, Archaea

What high energy payoff phase of glycolysis is categorized as:

Exergonic

each of the following involve substances from outside of the cell being brought into the cell except:

Exocytosis

The breakdown of glucose is considered to be what type of reaction?

Exothermic

If the fist three steps of the scientific method are defined as observation, question, hypothesis, the next three are:

Experiment, predict, collect

Define isotonic

Extra cellular environment that has an equal concentration of solutes to the intracellular

Cellular respiration, in its totality, generates 2-4 molecules of ATP.

FALSE

T/F. Oxidative phosphorylation involves the oxidation of NADH and FADH2 and hydrolysis of ADP to ATP.

FALSE

TRUE or FALSE: The nuclear envelope and nucleoli reform after telophase 1 of meiosis

FALSE. There is another round of division in meiosis II, so the reformations do not occur until telophase and cytokinesis II

Tell how each of the following would typically enter a cell. Choose from simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, pinocytosis or phagocytosis. lipid insoluble/polar substances

Facilitated diffusion

T/F. Adaptive immunity is specific and rapid; invading pathogens are quickly identified and removed

False

T/F. Antibiotics that are effective on bacterial cell walls are also effective on fungi cell walls b/c they are made of the same substances.

False

T/F. Autocrine signaling involves cell self-signaling and is common among cells of the endocrine system and cancer cells.

False

T/F. B cells and T cells recognize specific areas on epitope called an antigen

False

T/F. Because of the simplicity of protists, they are unable to respond to environmental stimuli.

False

T/F. Bless contain digestive enzymes used to dissolve the cell during apoptosis

False

T/F. Broad spectrum chemotherapy drugs are effective against tumors b/c they interfere with unique and specific cellular targets.

False

T/F. CTL stop invading pathogens through the processes of neutralization and opsonization

False

T/F. During glycolysis, a molecule of glucose is oxidized, and water is reduced

False

T/F. During the citric acid cycle ATP is generated by oxidative phosphorylation

False

T/F. During the energy investment phase of glycolysis, two ATP are generated

False

T/F. GPCR are diverse and bind ligands such as neurotransmitters, odorant molecules, and/or hormones.

False

T/F. Interphase consists of cytokinesis and mitosis.

False

T/F. Meiosis 1 is the separation of sister chromatids and Meiosis II is the separation of homologous chromosomes

False

T/F. Members of Animalia exhibit only a few types of adaptive behaviors

False

T/F. NK cells are a type of phagocytic cell

False

T/F. Observation is the formulation of a question to gain more information about a phenomenon

False

T/F. Phosphorylation is a reversible process in which phosphatases add a phosphate molecule, and kinases remove a phosphate molecule

False

T/F. Plasmodium is characterized as having a complex life cycle with several different stages within the host, including a stage within the brain.

False

T/F. Polysaccharides are complex sugars made of many monosaccharides joined together via redox reactions.

False

T/F. Septa are modified structures which allow fungi to extract nutrients from plants.

False

T/F. Submerging an animal cell in saltwater will cause the cell to swell (water will enter the cell) b/c saltwater is a hypertonic environment.

False

T/F. The 9+2 arrangement of the cytoskeleton is associated only with the shape of a cell.

False

T/F. The ETC is characterized by a series of hydrolysis reactions.

False

T/F. The United States uses the SI system when recording and reporting health science data.

False

T/F. The mitotic phase consists of mitosis and the five sub phases of cytokinesis.

False

T/F. The peptidoglycan cell wall is not uniform and varies among bacterial species. The Gram-stain is a useful tool to identify differences in the arrangement of peptidoglycan sugars.

False

T/F. The process of signal transduction always occurs as a single step process.

False

T/F. The rough ER is responsible for synthesizing lipids, steroids, and phospholipids for the cell membrane.

False

Tare functions are unreliable, and it is more accurate to mass the container alone, add the sample and then subtract the difference. T/F.

False

T/F. It is best to formulate a hypothesis after data has been collected.

False.

T/F: Antibodies can bind to many different antigens.

False. Each antibody is manufactured to a highly specific epitope of the antigen and will only bind to that region. However, there can be several different antibodies for one antigen (it is picking up different epitopes)

T/F. Prokaryotes contain mitochondria

False. For aerobic bacteria, the plasma membrane can be folded to provide an area for specialized chemical reactions associated with aerobic respiration to occur

Cellular respiration consists of all of the following reactions EXCEPT:

Fermentation

________ is the catabolic process of breaking down glucose for energy and can be divided into two main forms.

Fermentation

What are the 4 major kingdoms of Eukarya?

Fungi, Protista, Plantae, Animalia

GPCR function

G protein coupled receptors large family of integral membrane proteins involved in signal transduction trimer dissociation upon activation two protein complex have seven membrane-spanning alpha helices they differ at the specificity of the ligand binding area found in the extracellular surface of the cell they utilize the *heterotrimeric G Protein* names for their intracellular link to guanine nucleotides (GDP and GTP) the binding of the ligand increases the affinity of the receptor for the G protein binding of the G protein represents a switch to the active state and affects the intracellular signaling pathway three types of G proteins : 1. Gs 2. Gi 3. Gq

List the correct, sequential order of the cell cycle. Include all the phases of interphase and the mitotic phase.

G1 —-> S—-> G2 —-> mitosis —-> cytokinesis M-phase: 1. Prophase 2. Pro-metaphase 3. Metaphase 4. Anaphase and 5. Telophase and Cytokinesis

During the energy investment phase of glycolysis, what crucial intermediate enters into the next phase after a molecule of glucose is cleaved?

GP3

Second messengers are common to which of the following signaling pathways? (Select all that apply)

GPCR RTK

A cell containing 22 autosomes and 1 sex cell is what kind of cell?

Gamete, or sex cell

The overall goal of the citric acid cycle is to (select all That apply):

Generate high energy molecules that will be used in the ETC

What is genotype and phenotype?

Genotype - Gene combination for a trait: TT, Tt or tt Phenotype - Physical, observable appearance of trait: Tall or short

Complete the missing term so that the equation represents the flow of energy during cellular respiration: _________ ——-> NADH ——-> electron transport chain ——> proton motive force ——> ________

Glucose; ATP

What metabolic process is shared among fermentation and aerobic respiration?

Glycolysis

________ is a metabolic pathway that occurs in both fermentation and aerobic respiration

Glycolysis

Describe the cell of a Gram-positive bacterium and that of a Gram-negative bacterium. What color will each be after?

Gram-positive cells have a thick peptidoglycan cell wall surrounding the plasma membrane. Gram-staining will result in a purple cell, as the cell wall traps the crystal violet/iodine complex. Gram-negative cells are more complex and have an outer membrane composed of lipopolysaccharides, then a thin peptidoglycan cell wall that surrounds the plasma membrane. Gram-staining will result in red to pink cells as the crystal violet/iodine complex is washed out of the thin cell wall layer.

What energy source drives the ATP synthase?

H+ proton gradient established between the outer matrix and inner membrane; the region called the intermembrane space

Briefly describe the action of the ATP synthase beginning with the stator and ending with the generation of ATP

H+ protons flow down the gradient and enter the stator. As they enter, they bind to the rotor causing a conformational change and mechanical spin of the rotor and rod. As the catayltic knob rotates, it exposes enzymes and catalytic sites. In due, brings ADP into contact with the Pi molecules generating ATP.

What are the 3 types of cholesterol?

HDL (good; takes potentially dangerous build up to liver), LDL ("bad"; potential to clog vessels), VLDL (also "bad"; clogs and carries triglycerides)

What 19th century physician developed a staining technique to observe the variances in cell walls?

Hans Christian Gram

Like B-cells, T-cells exhibit which characteristic?

High antigen specificity

K. Pneumonia infection is common within _______ environments.

Hospital

Pathogen virulence factors may impact: (select all that apply)

Host symptoms Successful colonization of host tissues Successful treatments

_____ refers to a reaction that occurs when a biomacromolecule is degraded into two or more monomers and, as a part of the reaction, a molecule of water is gained.

Hydrolysis

What is a hyphae? A mycelium?

Hyphae - tubular cell walls which surround the plasma membrane and cytoplasm of individual fungal cells. They grow upward through the stem and into reproduction systems - where spores are found Mycelium- are the root system, project downward and absorb nutrients

Contrast the differences among independent, dependent, and standardized variables.

IV is the thing you're changing/altering DV is the thing you're looking at/for Standardized variables are what you know/what you expect to happen

Why would Mendel find it important to keep the F1 generation from breeding with the P-generation?

If they crossed then the recessive allele would be lost and only the dominant allele would appear

Where do prokaryotic (bacterial) cells store their genetic information?

In a nucleoid region - is not bound by a membrane and contains bacterial chromosomes & DNA (contains less DNA b/c less complex genome). Bacterial chromosomes are circular and have plasmids - are small, circular regions of DNA & have the ability to replicate independently of one another

Explain the difference between dependent assortment and independent assortment.

In independent assortment pairs of alleles will be sorted independently of one another when gametes are formed, whereas in dependent assortment the alleles are inherited together.

Where does glycolysis occur (location within the cell)?

In the cytoplasm (cyosol)

Where does the CAC occur?

In the inner matrix of the mitochondria

Cholesterol within a cell membrane does each of the following except:

Increase surface area

As a solute concentrations increases, it would take _____ amounts of pressure to prevent osmosis across the semi-permeable membrane.

Increasing

Each of the following are medical or industrial use of metabolic fungal byproducts EXCEPT:

Increasing photosynthesis in nature

What are the major hallmarks of the innate arm and the adaptive arm?

Innate: inborn; it is the same for everyone; rapid response; crude defenses; physical barriers; antimicrobrial proteins, and specific innate cells Adaptive: develops over time (slower response) ; high specificity; retains long-term memory; has specific cells

During the energy investment phase, an ______ is transferred to glucose to form a high energy intermediate.

Inorganic phosphate (Pi)

What is the main input and products of the ETC?

Input: FADH2 and NADH Outputs: 26-28 molecules of ATP

What is the input and products of the preparatory phase?

Input: Pyruvate (3-Carbon) and NADH Products: Acetyl CoA and carbon dioxide

What are the main inputs and outputs of glycolysis?

Inputs: Glucose, 2ATP Outputs: 2ATP, NADH, Pyruvate

What kind of proteins can be found within the phospholipid bi-layer?

Integral, Peripheral, and glycoproteins.

Describe the structure and function of intracellular membrane channels.

Intracellular receptors are located within a target cell's cytoplasm or nucleus. Typically, steroid hormones pass through the hydrophobic regions of the plasma membrane to reach their target receptors

What is cystic fibrosis?

It is a genetic disorder of the cell membranes. Causes thick, sticky mucus to build up in air passages and pancreas. Results from a mutation in the Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Conductance Regulator Gene (CFTR) on the long arm (q-arm) of chromosome 7

Prokaryotic cells contain _____ genetic information (DNA) as compared to eukaryotic cells

Less

Tell whether each of the following is carbohydrate, lipid, protein, or nucleic acid. Then explain the use of each. Cholesterol

Lipid; component of animal cell membranes that, when in excess, can form plaque on artery walls

Tell whether each of the following is carbohydrate, lipid, protein, or nucleic acid. Then explain the use of each. Phopholipid

Lipid; the major constituent of cell membranes

Tell whether each of the following is carbohydrate, lipid, protein, or nucleic acid. Then explain the use of each. Triglyceride

Lipid; the major form of fuel storage that when broken down produces twice as much energy per gram than carbohydrates

Maturation promoting factor (MPF) is a complex consisting of a(n):

M-cyclin + Cdk

What is a major homeostatic challenge for protists?

Maintaining osmolarity, or osmotic concentrations

Calcium is a useful second messenger because:

Many proteins have sites to bind calcium

what are mast cells?

Mass cells are abundant alongside the blood vessels that supply connective tissue. The produce histamine, a chemical that dilates small blood vessels as part of the inflammatory response, the body's reaction to injury or infection

Macrophages mediate both innate and adaptive responses. Which of the following is/are an example of macrophages working within the innate arm? (Select all that apply)

Mediating inflammation Phagocytosing pathogens

What are the two main phases of Meiosis?

Meiosis I and Meiosis II

Describe the cells that are present at the end of meiosis II

Meiosis II produces 4 haploid daughter cells

Prokaryotic cells may have each of the following except:

Membrane bound organelles

Which cell is responsible for rapid responses to a previously encountered antigen?

Memory cells

Disposable tips are characteristics to which type of pipette?

Micropipette

Explain the function of each of the following in the cell: Microtubules and Microfilaments

Microtubules- serve as "roads" for organelles to travel. After proteins/lipids are synthesized in the ER they take microtubules to the Golgi Apparatus Microfilaments- made of protein polymers of actin that provide structural support to cell shape and cell motility

At the conclusion of glycolysis pyruvate is actively transported to the:

Mitochondria

The multi-protein complex of the electron transport chain is embedded within the:

Mitochondrial matrix

What is the main reason for the polarity of most biomacromolecules?

Most biomacromolecules are polar due to the strongly electronegative oxygen (or nitrogen) in the functional group

An example of simple diffusion in the human body is:

Movement of gases (o2 and CO2) across the cell membrane

All organisms of Animalia share what characteristics? Name at least three.

Multicellular, heterotrophic, and lack a cell wall

Which cell is known to overlap within both arms of the immune system?

NK cells. They have roles in the innate system (direct killing) and in the adaptive system (antibody-dependent cytotoxicity)

Choose the answer that shows the correct order of events of a B-cell responding to a pathogen:

Naive B-cell —-> mature B cell —-> plasma cell ——> antibodies

It would be reasonable to make predictions regarding which of the following (select all that apply):

Negative control, positive control, hypothesis and/or outcome of dependent variable, null hypothesis

_______ is the process of an antibody binding to the antigen of a pathogen and preventing it from binding to host cells, while _________ is the process of 'tagging" a pathogen for removal by a phagocytic cell.

Neutralization; opsonization

what is the order from greatest to least concentration of WBC's (leukocytes) in the bloodstream?

Neutrophils Lymphocytes Monocytes Eosinophils Basophils (N,L,M,E,B)

What are the major cells of the innate arm of the immune system?

Neutrophils, lymphocytes (NK cells are the lymphocytes of the innate arm), monocytes (macrophages and dendritic cells), eosinophils, and basophils.

The bases present in nucleic acids contain what element besides C and H and O?

Nitrogen

What two cells participate in the process of antibody-dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity?

Nk cells and B cells

Is Klebsiella dangerous to everyone?

No. It is commensal gut bacteria in many people. However, this bacteria is opportunistic, and introducing it to tissues other than the gut can result in life-threatening infection. The risk is greater for immunocompromised individuals

lipids, such as fats, oils and steroids, are insoluble in water b/c they contain which of the following?

Non-polar hydrocarbon chains

Tell whether each of the following is carbohydrate, lipid, protein, or nucleic acid. Then explain the use of each. DNA

Nucleic Acid; contains genetic material of cells

Tell whether each of the following is carbohydrate, lipid, protein, or nucleic acid. Then explain the use of each. RNA

Nucleic Acid; part of the protein-synthesizing operation of the cell

Tell whether each of the following is carbohydrate, lipid, protein, or nucleic acid. Then explain the use of each. ATP

Nucleic Acid; releases energy through the breaking of high-energy phosphate bond

Describe the makeup of a chromosome.

Nucleotides --> double helix --> wrapped around histone proteins --> chromatid. All of this is tightly coiled and exists in somatic cells with its homolog pair.

The citric acid cycle is characterized by the following: (select all that apply)

Occurs in the mitochondria preparatory phase eight biochemical reactions or "steps" production of citrate intermediate

Cats, monkeys, and humans are in the same class, but only humans and monkeys share the same _______.

Order

In the ordered structure of life, cells give rise to tissues, tissues to organs, and organs to whole ______.

Organ systems

How does osmosis differ from simple diffusion?

Osmosis is the movement of water molecules only and simple diffusion is the movement of some type of solute molecules

Is ATP generated using oxidative phosphorylation or substrate-level phosphorylation? And how many ATP are generated?

Oxidative; 26-28 ATP molecules

The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is:

Oxygen

What is the final electron acceptor of the ETC?

Oxygen

Autotrophic prokaryotes are responsible for releasing ___ into the atmosphere and releasing (or fixing) atmospheric ___ into a useable form

Oxygen, Nitrogen

______ is characterized by a ligand traveling a short distance to the target cell. This type of signaling is important in development and for the secretion of growth factors.

Paracrine signaling

What type of antibiotic is effective against pyogenes? What is the mechanism of action of this antibiotic?

Penicillin. It prevents transpeptidase from catalyzing the crosslinks, and the cell wall becomes unstable.

NAM and NAG comprise the bacterial:

Peptidoglycan cell wall

Tell how each of the following would typically enter a cell. Choose from simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, pinocytosis or phagocytosis. large objects such as other cells

Phagocytosis

What is the ATP use and/or yield in each phase of glycolysis?

Phase 1: 2 ATP are used to breakdown/split the glucose Phase 2: 4 ATP are generated, however, the NET GAIN is 2 ATP

What are the components of the cell membrane?

Phospholipid bi-layer with proteins and phospholipids embedded within it. Cholesterol is usually present as well.

Tell how each of the following would typically enter a cell. Choose from simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, pinocytosis or phagocytosis. droplets of liquid

Pinocytosis

What is true breeding?

Plants that produce offspring of the same variety when they self-pollinate.

In bacterial cells, which structure is modified, into folds, to serve as an area for aerobic respiration to occur?

Plasma membrane

Fungi can produce serious, life threatening mycotic infections and primarily damage host cells by:

Producing toxins

How does the internal organization of a prokaryotic cell compare to that of a eukaryotic cell?

Prok: less organized, less DNA, no membrane-bound nucleus or organelles, presence of a cell wall; Presence of plasmids

Tetracycline is an antibiotic that targets the 30s subunit of bacterial ribosomes. What process does this drug interfere with?

Protein synthesis

Tell whether each of the following is carbohydrate, lipid, protein, or nucleic acid. Then explain the use of each. Insulin

Protein; a hormone

Tell whether each of the following is carbohydrate, lipid, protein, or nucleic acid. Then explain the use of each. Hemoglobin

Protein; carries oxygen in the blood

What are growth factors?

Proteins released by other cells that stimulate cells to divide.

Enzymes are (select all that apply):

Proteins, catalysts, temperature sensitive

Phosphorylation cascades are common to cell signaling, but apoptosis is unique in that it is a different type of cascade. What is that cascade and what molecules are involved?

Proteolytic cascades, which are associated with the activation of procaspases to caspases

Movement of bacterial flagellum is achieved by a(n):

Proton gradient

Describe the proton gradient and mechanical movement of the ATP synthase and why it is vital for the cell?

Protons flow down their electochemical gradient and enter the stator. As protons enter, they bind to the rotor causing a conformational change and mechanical spin of the rotor and rod. The catalytic knob has ADP molecules and a variety of proteins bound to it. As the knob rotates a conformational change exposes enzymes and catalytic sites, and the ADP is brought into contact with an inorganic phosphate group generating ATP via substrate-level phosphorylation. Without this gradient driving the mechanical motion of the synthase, protons would build up in the matrix causing cell death. Also, no rotation means no ADP → ATP and the cell will not produce energy for the anabolic needs to be maintained.

Each of the following are functions of the cytoskeleton except:

Provide an area for cellular metabolism to occur

What structure is used to genetically differentiate eukaryotes from the other domains?

RRNA

Describe the general structure and function of an RTK

RTK's are enzyme-linked receptore molecules that typically bind growth factor ligands and coordinate multiple transduction pathways. RTK is a kinase that catalyzed the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP molecules to the amino acid tyrosine of a protein.

Briefly describe Phenylketonuria (PKU).

Rare, genetic condition in which newborn can't breakdown alanine and results in a toxic build that can be fatal if not treated.

Which of the following exhibits the strongest level of specificity required for a cellular response?

Receptor

the final step of the citric acid cycle involves this conversion NAD+ —-> NADH. Biochemically, NAD+ is:

Reduced

What are the products of one complete CAC cylce?

Regeneration of oxaloacetate, FADH2, NADH, ATP, GTP, and CO2

List two examples of factors that were held constant so that comparisons could be made between the control and experimental group.

Same fish species; fish were the same size; purchased from the same store in the same tank; experiment conducted in same size fishbowls; same diet

Each of the following are characteristics of ligand gated ion channels EXCEPT:

Several membrane spanning regions

The cell is paused at the G2/M checkpoint and discovers thousands of mutations that cannot be repaired. What would this cell most likely do?

Signal for repair mechanisms or, if too severe, induce apoptosis

Tell how each of the following would typically enter a cell. Choose from simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, pinocytosis or phagocytosis. Gases

Simple Diffusion

Tell how each of the following would typically enter a cell. Choose from simple diffusion, facilitated diffusion, pinocytosis or phagocytosis. Water

Simple diffusion (Osmosis)

The main differences of Telophase 1 and cytokinesis of meiosis compared to Telophase and Cytokinesis of Mitosis is: (select all that apply)

Sister chromatids are not identical b/c crossing over has occurred The nuclear envelope and nucleoli do not reassemble

What are the two conditions required for osmosis?

Solute concentration and membrane permeability

Define tonicity

Solute concentration relative to the intracellular environment

A cell containing 44 autosomes and 2 sex cells is what kind of cell?

Somatic cell

The ATP synthase generates ATP by the process of _______.

Substrate (oxidative) level phosphorylation

During glycolysis, ATP is generated by:

Substrate level phosphorylation

What are the 4 components of data analysis?

Summarize raw data, relationships, interpreting results, and reporting sources of errors

________ involves the transmission of neurotransmitters, released from a pre-synaptic cell, across a synaptic cleft where they bind to the post synaptic cells .

Synaptic signaling

In the Linnaean classification hierarchy, each level is referred to as a _______.

Taxon (Taxa)

What was unique about Mendel's true breeding plants?

That the recessive allele never disappeared but was only masked by the dominant allele and reappeared in the F2 generation

Define control group

The IV is being eliminated or set to a standard value; no treatment

What is pleiotropy?

The ability of a single gene to have multiple effects. An example is Cystic Fibrosis

During antibiotic development, why is it useful to target bacterial cell walls?

The antibiotics prevent the bacteria from synthesizing a molecule in the cell wall called peptidoglycan, which provides the cell wall with the strength it needs to survive. By targeting the cell wall, the bacteria will be lysed and removed

Metaphase 1 of meiosis differs in what major way from metaphase of mitosis?

The biggest difference is that BOTH chromatids of one homolog (maternal) are attached and line up with BOTH chromatids of the other homolog (paternal) to one kinetochore along the plate

Define "cell", and describe at least two characteristics.

The cell is the basic unit of life. Characteristics include: 1. Breaking down nutrients 2. Removing wastes 3. Division/multiplication/new cells arising from other cells 4. Secreting and producing molecules to support and/or protect

Define independent assortment. Include the stage of Meiosis I in which this is achieved in your definition.

The first round of meiotic division (meiosis I) achieves independent assortment which is when maternal and paternal homologous chromosomes are shuffled randomly into daughter cells.

What is a reasonable explanation for why temperature affects gill beat rate?

The fish must accelerate or decelerate metabolism to maintain body temperature

What is the purpose of the cell cycle? Name the phases (TWO main) and be able to name the key event taking place in each subphase.

The function of the cell cycle is to produce daughter cells that are exactly the same as the parent cell to replace old, worn-out cells. A. Interphase 1. G0: resting phase; no activity 2. G1: Gap phase; physical growth; mRNA activity 3. S-phase: DNA duplication 4. G2: Gap phase; centrosome formation; MT begin to form B. M-phase: 1. Prophase: chromatin condensation; nucleoli disappear; sister chromatids join at centromere region; mitotic spindle begins to form; centrosomes begin to migrate to opposite poles 2. Prometaphase: nuclear envelope fragments; MT extend into the nuclear region; continued chromosome condensation; kinetochore formation and attachment; non-kinetochore MT interact at pole regions 3. Metaphase: centrosomes at opposite poles; chromosomes are all attached to spindles and line up on the metaphase plate; all kinetochores attached to kinetochore region by MT that extends to centrosomes at poles 4. Anaphase: sister chromatids are pulled apart; daughter chromatids migrate toward pole regions along MT; at the end, the sisters are completely within their pole region in preparation of division 5. Telophase and Cytokinesis: Nuclear envelope reforms, spindle dissociates, nucleoli reappear; mitosis is complete. Cytokinesis: cytoplasm duplicates; cleavage furrow forms; complete separation into two identical daughter cells at the cleavage furrow

Given the information that has been discussed, which arm of the immune system is the same from person to person? Which arm varies from person to person? Why?

The innate arm is relatively the same b/c it is crude and non-specific. The adaptive arm is specific and will vary based on what particular antigens the host has been exposed to.

What would be the result of chromatids not having kinetochore regions?

The kinetochore MT could not attach to the sister chromatids in prophase. They would not be able to be aligned on the metaphase plate or subsequently be pulled apart

What is the term used to describe the type of molecules that can pass through the cell membrane? What are the types of "passive" transport and "active" transport?

The membrane is selectively permeable. No energy (ATP) is required for passive and simple diffusion, osmosis, filtration, and facilitated diffusion. Active requires energy (ATP) and other types are secondary active, cotransport, and counter-transport.

What is substrate level phosphorylation?

The metabolic process of ATP being formed from the direct transfer of a phosphate group from an ADP molecule

What does the term regulatory processes mean? Give an example.

The process of maintaining homeostasis within an organism. For instance, in humans, our bodies can regulate blood pressure and blood sugar levels.

Define simple diffusion.

The random movement of small molecules across a semi-permeable membrane form areas of high concentration to low concentration. This process does NOT require energy

What is the benefit of having memory cells?

The response is faster and stronger

What is the Primary immune response? And Secondary response?

The response when an antigen enters the body for the first time. (approximately 5-7 days) if the antigen is encountered again, a more rapid response generated with a greater # of plasma cells ( approximately 2-7 days)

What is the major difference occurring in anaphase 1 of meiosis that does not occur in anaphase of mitosis?

The sister chromatids remain attached, thus the chromatid pair is getting pulled toward the pole

Define hypertonic

The solute concentration is higher on the outside of the cell

define hypotonic

The solute concentration is lower on the outside of the cell

Metabolism is:

The sum of all synthetic and degradation biochemical reactions

What is an oxidation-reduction (redox) reaction?

The transfer of electrons from (the reducing agent) undergoing oxidation (losing electrons) while another (the oxidizing agent) undergoes reduction (gains electrons). When a molecule loses an electron it is oxidized, when it accepts the electron it is said to be reduced

DNA is often described as a coiled ladder. In this description, what two parts of a DNA nucleotide form the uprights? What part forms the rungs?

The uprights are the sugar phosphate backbone, and the rungs are the bases.

In the F1 generation, white flowers were not observed among the offspring b/c:

The white flower trait is recessive, and the purple trait is dominant

If a patient has more basophils than lymphocytes present, what is a possible explanation?

They are experiencing a severe allergic reaction

Each of the following are true of ribosome except:

They are membrane bound

What are transcription factors?

They are molecule complexes that control which genes are turned on and transcribed to mRNA

Penicillin is effective in eliminating Gram-positive bacteria, but not Gram-negative bacteria. What is unique about the Gram-negative bacteria?

They are more difficult to eradicate because the outer membrane protects to peptidoglycan cell wall. More effective drugs are needed to target protein synthesis and/or nucleotide synthesis

The normal range for an adult patient's WBC count is 4,000-11,000 microliters. If results showed 15,000 microliters what could be a possible explanation?

They have an infection, and there is an increase WBC volume to fight the infection

What are the possible outcomes that could occur at the G1 checkpoint?

This is the most important checkpoint b/c if the cell proceeds, it has committed to division. If the checkpoint halts the cell, it will enter G0 phase where it will not be duplicated

Describe incomplete dominance

This pattern of inheritance occurs when the heterozygote has a phenotype that is intermediate between either corresponding homozygote (e.g. - pink flowers)

Where do T cells develop?

Thymus (after bone marrow); directly kill infected host cells; have antigen-specific receptors anchored into membrane and recognize antigens from invading pathogens with high specificity

During the simple diffusion experiment, why was iodine used?

To color/detect the presence of starch

What broad purpose does the cell cycle serve?

To generate new cells to replace the old, worn out ones

What is the purpose of personal protection equipment (PPE)?

To protect/minimize one's exposure to hazards that can cause serious workplace injuries and illnesses

What is the purpose of meiosis?

To reduce the number of chromosomes by half (haploid)

Dehydration condensation reactions occur when two or more monomers are joined ______ and, as a part of the reaction, a molecule of water is ______.

Together; lost

The flow of information through a cell is called ________.

Transduction

What part of the cell signaling pathway would you find phosphorylation cascades? What is the function of phosphorylation cascades?

Transduction. Is a series of steps within the transduction pathway that activates a kinase which activates another, which activates another. The final kinase will phosphorylate a target protein.

The graduated pipette is useful for:

Transferring liquid from one beaker to another

Each of the following are possible cellular responses EXCEPT:

Translation

Each of the following are associated with intracellular receptors EXCEPT:

Transmembrane regions

Other than the classic Linnaean system, animals can also be classified by:

Tropic levels

GPCR have a modified extracellular region to bind ligands and a modified cytoplasmic region to facilitate interactions with a G-protein.

True

T/F. A cell may receive intracellular or extracellular signals directing apoptosis

True

T/F. A cellular response to ligand binding may result in the activation of transcription factors, via phosphorylation, and the active transcription factor transcribes the information from a gene tin to an mRNA transcript.

True

T/F. Accessory structures aid with movement and attachment of the bacterial cell

True

T/F. An organism's genotype determines its phenotype.

True

T/F. Anaerobic respiration is common in prokaryotic cells, and molecules such as sulfate serve as final electron acceptors during the ETC.

True

T/F. Antimicrobial proteins often serve as a gray area; mediating both innate and adaptive immune responses

True

T/F. Autophosphorylation of the RTK stalk occurs as the tyrosine kinase of one stalk phosphorylate the ATP molecules of the opposite monomer.

True

T/F. Cell cycle checkpoints are molecular surveillance mechanisms that can halt the cell cycle and "check" the cell to ensure it's ready to move to the next phase.

True

T/F. Cholesterol and estrogen are common types of steroids.

True

T/F. Codominance occurs when both sides are observed in a phenotype

True

T/F. Concerning a redox reaction, during the oxidation step, an electron is lost from a substrate in the reactants, and during the reduction step the electron is transferred to a different substrate of the products.

True

T/F. During electron transfer in the electron transport chain, oxygen is reduced, and water is formed.

True

T/F. During the citric acid cycle, pyruvate is oxidized to acetyl CoA.

True

T/F. During the transduction phase of the glycogen release from liver cells involves a series of messengers that are amplified ending with one million active glycogen molecules that amplify a cellular response of glucose release.

True

T/F. The electron transport change uses a series of carriers to transfer electrons from molecules with lowest electronegativity to the final electron acceptor which has the greatest electronegativity.

True

T/F. The spindle apparatus is responsible for separating the sister chromatids during prophase

True

The result of cytokinesis is:

Two daughter cells

What are the 3 main carrier proteins within the complexes of the ETC?

Ubiquinone (Q), Cytochromes (cyt), and oxygen

Protists exhibit a wide range of inter-kingdom variability and may exhibit which of the following? (Select all that apply)

Unicellular, multicellular, autotrophic, hetertrophic, sexual reproduction, asexual reproduction, and aerobic respiration

The goal of the electron transport chain is to (select all that apply):

Use high energy citric acid cycle outputs to establish a proton gradient to indirectly produce ATP

explain the difference between vascular and non vascular plants.

Vascular plants have structures that move water and nutrients to the organs of the plant, whereas a vascular plants do not contain these structures

All of the following are electron carriers within the electron transport chain EXCEPT:

Water

Toxicity is defined by each of the following except:

Water concentration

The balance of nutrients and energy in an ecosystem is maintained through each of the following cyclic mechanisms EXCEPT?

Weather cycle

Describe the Law of Independent Assortment.

When 2 alleles from one trait (i.e., height) separate during meiosis, this has no effect on how the 2 alleles for other traits separate.

how does v. cholera cause diarrhea

When V. cholera is swallowed, some bacteria can survive the acidic contents of the stomach - In the colon water absorbs. Cholera makes two toxins A and B. - B toxin acts as a ligand for the receptor. The B toxin makes contact with the intestine and drives the A toxin into the cell of the colon. - The A toxin binds to a Gs protein. This will add ADP-ribose to the ribosome (ribosylation). This activates adenyl cyclase--> increase cAMP. - cAMP causes permeability to the cell--> cell loses solutes like bicarbonate, sodium, K, chloride. When we lose these things we lose water. This allows for diarrhea to occur

Describe complete dominance.

When the phenotypes of the heterozygote and the dominant homozygote are indistinguishable

What is makeup of a female?

XX

What is the makeup of a male?

XY

what is acute rheumatic heart disease (rheumatic fever)?

a delayed inflammatory response by the body's own defenses that occur 2-4 weeks after the infections has been untreated; antibodies generated by the body to eliminate the GAS infection bind to tissue of the heart and initiate pro-inflammatory cascades two risk factors- 1. not treating a superficial GAS infection 2. having other autoimmune disorders

What is a punnett square?

a diagram that is used to predict an outcome of a particular cross or breeding experiment

What is a cleavage furrow?

a groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei

Define organ system

a group of organs classified as a unit b/c of shared functions

Define tissues

a group of similar cells and the immediate environment surrounding

Define populaiton

a group or one particular species living within defined boundaries of a community

What is a macrophage?

a large phagocytic cell found in stationary form in the tissues or as a mobile white blood cell, especially at sites of infection. high concentrations are in the spleen b/c the spleen acts as a filtering system for blood

Define agonist

a ligand binds to a receptor and causes a response in the target cell

Define antagonist

a ligand binds to a target cell receptor and blocks the appropriate ligand from binding (i.e. birth control pills & naloxone (opioid addiction)

What is a tumor?

a mass of abnormal cells within normal body tissue

Define blastocyst

a mass of cells after fertilization, the united gametes are called blastocyst

Explain and then name the 3 types of endocytosis

a process performed by cells in order to bring substances from outside the cell into the cell. In this process, the cell membrane surrounds the item to be internalized and buds off inside the cell. This formed vesicle will then transport the material to the relevant location inside the cell. 1. Phagocytosis 2. Pinocytosis 3. Receptor-mediated endocytosis (RME)

Define signal amplification

a response results in the release of millions of molecules after just a signal ligand binds i.e. in liver cells, one molecule of epinephrine binds to a GPCR and the transduction process results in an amplification of relay molecules

Explain receptor-mediated endocytosis

a selective source of endocytosis, where receptors on a cell's surface bind to the specific molecule they are intended for. Once bound, endocytosis will occur.

What is the cell cycle control system?

a set of molecular mechanisms that can either halt or permit the cell cycle to proceed.

The chromosome that determines M/F is called?

a sex chromosome and can either be an X or Y

What is a centriole?

a short, cylindrical protein filament composed of tubulin that plays a role in the formation of the mitotic spindle

What is a ligand?

a signaling molecule; any molecule (proteins, growth hormones, ions, or NT) that binds specifically to a receptor site of another molecule

What is the nucleolus?

a small dense spherical structure in the nucleus of a cell during interphase, responsible for synthesizing ribosomal subunits for the cell to assemble complete, functioning ribosomes

Define synapse

a small gap between the signaling cell (pre-synaptic cell) adn the target cell (post-synaptic cell)

Define isotonic solution

a solution with the same concentration as that on the other side of the membrane "equl"

what is a false negative test?

a test result that gives a negative reading, when the pt. really has a positive result

Explain the following terms in regard to proteins: a. Primary structure: b. Secondary structure: c. Tertiary structure: d. Quaternary structure:

a. Amino acid monomers in a linear chain b. 2 repeating patterns are possible; a spring like coil of fibrous proteins within the linear chain forms (alpha-helix) and/or in the linear chain the pattern snakes back and forth; strong and flexible but not elastic. Both conformations held together with hydrogen bonds. It's possible that one chain can have both patterns c. Folding of the secondary structure; 3D shape determined by R-group interactions and hydrogen bonds d. Interactions between two or more polypeptide chains. Each chain has its own primary, secondary, and tertiary structure. **need 2 or more polypeptide chains for this structure**

a. Carbohydrates contain what three elements? b. What is the ratio of hydrogen to oxygen in a carbohydrate? c. What is the difference between a carbohydrate and a hydrocarbon?

a. CHO b. 2:1 c. A hydrocarbon has only H and C and carbs have HCO. Hydrocarbons are not functional groups.

a. explain how facilitated diffusion is the same as active transport and b. how it is different in regard to the concentration gradient, cell membrane proteins and energy.

a. facilitated diffusion and active transport both utilize carrier and channel proteins to move molecules across the gradient b. The key difference between active transport and facilitated diffusion is that the active transport occurs against the concentration gradient hence, utilizes energy to transport molecules across the membrane while the facilitated diffusion occurs along the concentration gradient hence, does not utilize energy to transport molecules across the membrane.

a. Name the three parts of a nucleic acid nucleotide. b. What are the particular types of each of these that are found in DNA and what are the corresponding types that are found in RNA?

a. sugar, phosphate group, nitrogenous base b. DNA- deoxyribose- phosphate group- adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine RNA- ribose -phosphate group- adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil

ligand-gated ion channel receptor (LGIC) function

acts as a gate when the receptor changes shape. When a signal molecule binds as a ligand to the receptor, the gate allows specific ions, such as Na+ or Ca2+, through a channel in the receptor.

what are Interferons type 1?

acts as a signal to communicate with other cells to warm that a virus is present and to signal self-destruction

Is adaptive or innate immunity specific?

adaptive

Define community

all the collective organisms living within a biological ecosystem

What is the metaphase plate?

an imaginary structure at the midway point between the spindle's two poles

Define blastopore

an opening of a structure that will begin to differentiate into different cell types which will then become the most basic body cavities

define protostome

an organism that during development and after a spiral cleavage (candy cane) the blastopore will develop into the mouth opening first

Define the body plan: radial

an organism's body can be visualized as equal halves when a plane is passed from top to bottom. Ex: starfish and jellyfish

what is the pH of the stomach?

approximately 2

What is cohesin and what does it do?

are cohesion proteins that hold sister chromatids together

what are mucous membranes composed of?

are composed of a thin layer of specialized tissue that secretes mucus, which is a thick secretion that captures pathogens, allergens and other particles and keeps them moving further into the body

What is a recombinant chromosome?

are distinct chromosomes that will carry genetic info. from both parents, but it will not be identical to that of the parent

What is a second messenger?

are intracellular signaling molecules released in response to a first messenger (ligand binding) that bring a cellular response. Typically, are calcium, cAMP, and IP3

What are dependent kinases (CdKs)?

are kinases that depend on the presence of cyclins to become active (i.e. MPF)

What are interferons?

are members of cytokine proteins; are protein molecules released by host cells to nonspecifically inhibit the spread of viral infections

Antibacterial medication for gram - bacteria

are more difficult to eradicate b/c the outer membrane protects the peptidoglycan cell wall. are resistant to penicillin type drugs; more effective drugs must be selected to target protein synthesis or nucleoid acid synthesis within the bacterial cell

what are interferons type 2?

are only released by WBC's and directs the recruitment of other innate system responses

Define scaffolding proteins

are relay proteins that can serve to physically support and hold together proteins involved in signaling pathways, or they can play a role in activating other relay proteins "behind the scenes" workers

What are cytokines?

are the cell-signaling molecules of the IS that relay messages that help direct a facilitated response

what are granzymes?

are toxic enzymes that enter the host cell via endocytosis and then work to degrade and destroy intracellular proteins

what are perforins?

are toxic proteins that form pores in the surface of the infected cells and induces apoptosis

Describe binary fission

asexual reproduction where the parent body is pinched into 2 halves = 2 daughter organisms each with their own nuclei

Identify the type of signaling for each of the following: T-cells responding to IL-2 that they have released during an immune response

autocrine signaling

What is the property that makes a molecule a lipid?

being insoluble in water due to the presence of the long chain of hydrocarbons

What are the levels of biological organization?

biosphere, ecosystems, communities, populations, organisms, organ systems, organs, tissues, cells, atoms and molecules

Where do B cells develop?

bone marrow; considered naive until they an encounter an antigen; have membrane-anchored receptors that look like a 'Y'

Define biosphere

broadest level encompassing planet earth and atmosphere

Each of the following are associated with phosphatidylinositols EXCEPT:

cAMP

Identify the second messenger(s) in the following pathway: Ligand → GPCR → G-protein → adenylyl cyclase → cAMP → PKA → target protein

cAMP

Identify the second messenger(s) in the following pathway: Ligand → GPCR → G-protein → phospholipase C → PIP2 + DAG → IP3 → IP3 ion channel → calcium → target protein activation

calcium and IP3

Define the body plane: bilateral

can be visualized as one plane dividing an organism's body into 2 equal halves. Can be thought of as L & R; lateral sides. EX: passing a line through a cat. Head being anterior (front) and tail being posterior (back). A horizontal line would make the spine the dorsal (top) and the stomach ventral (bottom)

What is metastasis?

cancer cells leaving a tumor and invading other parts of the body

Describe density dependent inhibition

cell surface proteins signal to adjoining cells to stop dividing if they sense they are being crowded. Even if growth factors are present, these messengers can halt cell division

Explain pinocytosis

cells "drink" liquid droplets through adsorption by the cell membrane

Describe anchorage dependence

cells must be physically anchored to a surface (i.e., flask or extracellular matrix) to proliferate

What is opsonization?

complement proteins "flag" the antigen for phagocytosis by neutrophils and macrophages

What is an isomer?

compounds with the same molecular formula, but a different arrangement of the atoms thus giving each isomer unique properties.

Explain the function of each of the following in the cell: Plasma Membrane

conatains specialized "pumps" and "gates" that regulate the passage of materials into and out of the cell. In prokaryotic cells the membrane folds inward to provide a place for reactions to take place

Define gap junctions

connections between cells which allow passage of small molecules and electric current.

What is a cell junction?

contact points between the plasma membranes of tissue cells

Explain the function of each of the following in the cell: Nucleus

contains DNA and serves as the control center of the cell

thoracic cavity

contains heart and lungs

abdominal cavity

contains primarily the major organs of digestion

dorsal cavity

contains the brain and spinal cord

Explain the function of each of the following in the cell: Mitochondria

convert the chemical energy found in food into ATP

Describe crossing over

crossing over is when homologous chromosomes exchange genetic information this helps provide genetic variety. Occurs during Prophase 1 and must occur once but can occur up to three times

Steps of gram staining

crystal violet, iodine, rinse with alcohol, safranin (red dye)

Define cAMP

cyclic adenosine monophosphate is a derivative of ATP. This enzyme is embedded in the plasma membrane of cells that facilitates the conversion of ATP to cAMP in response to a ligand binding to GPCR. After the conversion, the cAMP activates an enzyme called PKA (protein kinase A)

Which is more impactful to the process of the cell cycle?

density dependent inhibition

In the experiment with the goldfish, gill beat rate served as the:

dependent variable

two cocci cells paired together form a ______

diplococci

Identify the type of signaling for each of the following: Ions flowing through gap junctions to allow cardiac cells to contract simultaneously

direct cell-to-cell signaling

Define pseudocoelomate

do not have a true body cavity, but appear to have a fluid-filled region, however the cells lining the space are not continuous and do not surround the space EX: roundworm

Explain the function of each of the following in the cell: endospore

dormant, extremely durable bacterial cells

Identify the type of signaling for each of the following: Thyroid-stimulating hormone being released from the pituitary gland and traveling to the cells of the thyroid gland

endocrine signaling

Explain the difference between Exotoxins and Endotoxins.

exotoxins are secreted by organisms of the living cell, whereas endotoxins are present inside the cell

T/F. Apoptosis is associated with inflammation

false

Name the building-block molecule(s) for each of the following biomacromolecules: Lipids

fatty acids and glycerol

What are coelomates?

fluid filled body cavity

what is a eosinophil?

found in high concentrations in epithelial tissue; responds to parasitic infections; not phagocytic instead releases granules

Define gram positive bacteria

have a thick layer of peptidoglycan causing crystal violet to mask the red safranin dye; making it appear purple

Define gram negative bacteria

have a very thin layer of peptidoglycan wall that is underneath a specialized, out membrane composed of a lipopolysaccharide. This causes the red safranin dye to dye the membrane RED/PINK

Define Acoelomates

have no true body cavity, but meet other requirements to be considered an animal EX: flat worm

Define Eucoelomate

having a true coelom that surrounds a gut . humans are broadly classified as such but are subdivided into 4 smaller cavities: dorsal, thoracic, abdominal, pelvic cavity

How does the capsule on group A streptococci (GAS) act to allow the microbe to evade phagocytosis?

hides other antigen receptors on the cell surface

describe homozygous and heterozygous

homo (same) - for a particular trait if the alleles are the same (PP or Pp) hetero (different)- for a particular trait if the alleles are different. In this case, one allele is dominant and one is recessive (Pr)

Describe independent assortment

homologous chromosomes line up randomly in the center of the cell. Chromosomes can line up on the left to right side which contributes to genetic variation. After the first round of meiotic division, there are only 2 possible combinations. After the second round, there are four combinations.

All G proteins share the role of _______ _____ to _____

hydrolyzing (breaking down), GTP, GDP

Where does the ETC occur?

inner mitochondrial membrane

Describe a mutualistic host relationship

interactions benefit host and bacteria

Describe a commensal host relationship

interactive but bacteria benefit and other is unaffected

What is lysozyme and what does it do?

is a secreted enzyme found in mucus, tears, and saliva that interferes with the peptidoglycan cell wall and destroys the bacteria

What is chemiosmosis?

is an energy-coupling process which harnesses the energy that exists within the proton gradient and uses it to drive ATP synthesis during the ETC

Define transduction

is the chain of molecules and intracellular enzymes that relay signals inside of a cell. Typically, the molecules that act in the relay chain are proteins

How does the M protein on group A streptococci (GAS) act to allow the microbe to evade phagocytosis?

is used by the pathogen to attach directly to host cell surfaces, the cells begin to reproduce asexually and increase in numbers. During this, bacterial toxins damage and kill host cells. interferes by blocking macrophages and neutrophils

What are avascular plants?

lack the formation of tubes to transport water and nutrients. Ex: mosses, liverworts, and some green algae

What are the two types of fermentation?

lactic acid fermentation and ethanol (alcohol) fermentation

Define cells

living structures within organelles that function on a microscopic level to keep an organism alive

The cell wall protects from ______ in a hypotonic environment and from ______ in a hypertonic environment.

lysing, shrinking

What phagocytic cells are involved in apoptosis?

macrophages

In the United States, measurements pertaining to medical sciences are recorded and reported using:

metric units

What are asters?

microtubules radiating from the centrosome

Explain the function of each of the following in the cell: Rough ER

modifies and transports proteins derived from the rbosomes that are found along its surface

Choose the correct statement:

monera can be pathogenic to some other kingdoms and non-pathogenic to others

Name the building-block molecule(s) for each of the following biomacromolecules: polysaccharides

monosaccharides

Antibodies DO NOT directly kill pathogens but facilitates the processes of 1. ____ 2._____ 3._____

neutralization, opsonization, complete activation

Name the building-block molecule(s) for each of the following biomacromolecules: Nucleic Acid

nucleotides

what is neutralization?

occurs when an antibody binds and prevents/blocks the biological effect of the antigen ex: extracellular ligand (antigen) that a virus uses to gain entry into the host cell by blocking (neutralizing) the viral-entry-type antigens, the virus cannot infect the host cell

Define gene expression

occurs when genetic info. stored in DNA is used to produce something the cell needs, usually a protein.

Describe dihybridization?

occurs when two traits from true-breeding parents are followed in the F2 generation to determine if the traits will be inherited together or separately

What is a homologous chromosome?

one of 2 paired chromosome one from each parent, carries genes for specific trait at same location

Identify the type of signaling for each of the following: Growth factors affecting cell development

paracrine signaling

Antibacterial medication for gram + bacteria.

penicillin b/c it interferes with the cross-linkages of the peptidoglycan sugars, resulting in a faulty non-functional cell wall

What are vascular plants?

plants that have tube like structures that move water and nutrients to the organs of the plant. Ex: flowering plants; conifers and ferns

Explain the function of each of the following in the cell: Lysosome

possess digestive enzymes which breakdown unwanted biomacromolecules

Define transcription factors

protein that binds to the DNA at the promoter or enhancer region and influences transcription of a gene

what are leucocidines?

protein toxins released by GAS that cause the destruction of WBC's

What is plasmodium? and the 4 types?

protozoan that causes malaria and destroys red blood cells P. falciparum, P. malaria, P. ovale, P. vivax

In Archaea, what is the cell wall composed of?

pseudopeptidoglycan - composed of branched hydrocarbon chains attached to a glycerol via ether linkage

Define experimental group

receives experimental treatment; independent variable is manipulated

RTK

receptor tyrosin kinases are a family of enzyme-linked receptor molecules that typically bind growth factor ligands and coordinate multiple transduction pathways at one time. RTK is a kinase that catalyzes the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP molecules to the amino acid tyrosine of a target protein. Auto-phosphorylation (the tyrosine kinases on one monomer stalk phosphorylate the oppo. monomer) of the tyrosine residues involves the exchange of ADP to ATP and the dimers, as one unit, become activated

intracellular receptors

receptors located within a target cell's cytoplasm or nucleus, rather than on its cell membrane. Small, hydrophobic molecules pass through the hydrophobic regions of the plasma membrane to reach their target receptors; commonly these are steroid hormones (estrogen, testosterone, thyroid hormones, and Vitamin D3). All steroids require a carrier molecule to transport them through the bloodstream, forming a hormone-receptor complex.

Define body cavities. Name the 3 types

regions formed by layers of tissues that may be fluid or air filled. body cavities suspend organs, give shape, and enclose delicate organs. acoelomates, eucolomates, pseudocoelomates

What is a natural killer cell?

serve as the "patrol system'; are not phagocytic; and play a role in limiting the spread of virally infected and cancer cells; infected cells will display a signaling molecule on their surface and NK cells respond to this "alert" by releasing destructive enzymes onto the cell causing degradation and cell death; bridges the gap between the innate and adaptive arms of the immune system

Define atoms and molecules

smallest level that function on a chemical level

What are protein kinases?

specialized enzymes that phosphorylate (chemically add a phosphate group) other proteins to activate or inactivate them

spherical shaped cells arranged in clusters are called

staphylococci

rod-shaped cells arranged in chains are called

streptobacilli

spherical cells arranged in chains are called

streptococci

What is the causative pathogen of strep throat?

streptococcus pyogenes group A (GAS); group A refers to the type of carbohydrate that is present on the surface of the cell; gram + cocci arranged in chains; readily colonize in the mouth, nose, open skin lesions, and tissue of the rectum/vagina; occurs through direct person-to-person contact

Define organs

structures composed of two or more tissue types that perform a common function

Define Metabolism

sum of all chemical reactions (synthetic and degradation) in the body

Identify the type of signaling for each of the following: Acetylcholine being released by a presynaptic neuron and causing muscle contraction of the post-synaptic cell

synaptic signaling

Explain the function of each of the following in the cell: Smooth ER

synthesizes lipids

Define ecosystem

system of living and non-living things in a region i.e. grasslands, forests, tundra, desert

Explain the function of each of the following in the cell: RNA

takes the coded amino acid sequences from nucleus to ribosome for protein synthesis

Define kinase

taking a phosphate group from ATP and adding it to another substance (carbohydrates (glucokinase) or proteins (protein kinase))

Define the body plan: spherical

the body can be visualized as similar halves when the plane passes through the center. Slice in any direction and get the same pieces. These animals are typically spherical in shape. Ex: sponges and some coral

What is glycolysis?

the breakdown of glucose by enzymes, to generate ATP and pyruvate

Describe the relationship between the "concentration" of water and solute concentration in a solution.

the concentrations are inversely related; the greater concentration of solute molecules the lower concentration of water molecules

What is a genome?

the entire sequence of the paired bases

Define organism

the individual living members of a population

What is hybridization?

the mating, or crossing, of two true-breeding varieties

What are relay molecules?

the molecules that the receptor protein activates

what is an epitope?

the part of an antigen molecule to which an antibody attaches itself

What is oxidative phosphorylation?

the process of generating ATP via a 2 step process that involves (1) the oxidation of the high energy end products NADH and FADH2 and (2) the phosphorylation and conversion of ADP into ATP

Explain evolutionary adaption.

the process of passing down the "good" genes of an organism from offspring to offspring to make the organism more suitable for its environment

How is Meiosis 2 characterized? And what does it consist of?

the process of separating sister chromatids and ensuring that the daughter cells have unique, crossed-over chromatids unlike the parent cell. Consists of: PPMAT/cytokinesis 2

What is a centrosome?

the region that functions to organize MT for cell division (anchor points for spindles). Are composed of several filament and microtubule fibers with a pair of centrioles located in the center

Define hypotonic solution

the solution contains LESS solute than solution. Water will flow into the cell to dilute it, causing the cell to "explOde"

Define hypertonic solution

the solution contains MORE solute than solution. Water flows out of the cell to dilute high concentrations of solutes causing the cell to shrink

Define specificity

the specific pairing of a ligand with its receptor that leads to a response

If someone is lost at sea, they should not drink the saltwater. Why?

they should not, because saltwater is a hypertonic solution and will cause the water in your RBC's to move to the extra cellular solution, resulting in the shrinking and losing of the cells

Define gap junctions

tiny channels between cells which allow passage of small molecules and electric current.

Explain the function of each of the following in the cell: Ribosomes

tiny manufacturing plants that assemble proteins

What is the purpose of gram staining?

to be able to distinguish between not only the morphology but whether the cell wall is Gram+ or Gram-. Also helps diagnose human infections and to develop effective antibiotics for treating infections based on observable characteristics of the peptidoglycan cell wall

Describe mRNA

transfers the genetic information from DNA to ribosomes- site of protein synthesis

Explain the function of each of the following in the cell: Chloroplast

traps light energy from the sun and uses it to convert CO2 and H2O into glucose

T/F. The Golgi adds molecular tags such as phosphate groups or proteins to vesicles that serve as identifiers so the vesicle can be transported to the correct cellular destination.

true

Define upstream and downstream transduction

upstream describes molecules pr processes that are occurring EARLY in the relay chain downstream refers to molecules or processes that are occurring LATER in the relay chain

What ae Elaioplasts?

used for fat storage in plants

What are chromoplasts?

used for specialized pigment storage in plants

Describe a monohybrid cross

when only a single trait is being studied during a cross. The offspring are referred to as monohybrids

What is intracellular communication?

when the sending cell releases a ligand and the target cell receives the 'message'

Explain phagocytosis

"eating" large macromolecules: 1. Phagocytes use pattern recognition receptors (PRR) called Toll Like Receptors (TLR), which are membrane-bound phagocytic proteins that recognize pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPS) 2. The interaction of TLR/PRR and PAMPS activates certain genes in phagocytes and enhances their phagocytic/pathogen-killing abilities 3. Phagocytic cells engulf the pathogen and forms a phagolysosome vesicle, which releases toxic chemicals to destroy the pathogen (phagocytes use toxic oxygen to oxidize key cellular constituents of a pathogen)

Define desmosomes

"snaps" a structure by which two adjacent cells are attached ("locked"). This allows many cells to be linked together. Very strong and found in cells that contract

Why are humans not considered the perfect model, even though the research gleaned is intended to benefit humans?

#1 is ethical considerations, but also b/c of our complex interactions and life cycles it's difficult to isolate one system

Describe a pathogenic host relationship

(parasitic) interactions harm the host (strep throat)

How many ATP are generated per pyruvate?

1 ATP molecule

A baby is born and the doctor pronounces the weight as 7 pounds 0 ounces. Using the metric system, how will this value appear in the infant's medical chart?

1 lbs = 2.2kg 7/2.2 = 3.18kg

Match each term with the correct definition: 1. B-cell 2. Plasma cell 3. Helper T-cell 4. Cytotoxic T-cell 5. Perforin 6. Granzyme

1. "Y" shaped, high specificity receptors; patrol the bloodstream 2. Stimulated to secrete antibodies with high specificity to an epitope 3. Can release cytokines to coordinate both arms of immune response 4. Produce toxins to directly lyse infected host cells 5. Form pores on infected host cell to induce apoptosis 6. Toxic enzyme that is endocytosed by infected host cells

match each term with the correct definition: 1. Ubiquinone 2. Cytochrome 3. Oxygen 4. Flavoprotein

1. Also called coenzyme Q; a small, hydrophobic (lipid-soluble) molecule 2. Are proteins composed of a heme (iron containing) prosthetic group; arranged 3. The terminal acceptor and has the greatest affinity for electrons 4. Specialized protein usually found in mitochondria and is associated with

Match each term with the correct definition: 1. Crossing-over 2. Cohesins 3. Synaptonemal complex 4. Synapsis 5. Chiasma 6. Recombinant chromosomes

1. An "even exchange" of genetic material that occurs btw sister chromosomes; serves 2. Specialized proteins that hold the non-sister chromosomes together 3. Zipper like protein complex that brings the non-sister chromatids into close association 4. close proximity, physical association of non-sister chromosomes where crossing over 5. Observable cross over points on the chromosomes 6. Distinct chromosomes resulting from the crossing over process that will carry genetic

Complete the following: Protista 1. Environmental adaption: 2. Growth over a lifecycle: 3. Produce new offspring: 4. Biochemical process of obtaining energy: 5. Organism level homeostasis: 6. Major cell type:

1. Attracted to light (positive phototropism), ability to move locations 2. May be complex (plasmodium) 3. asexual and sexual 4. Heterotrophic 5. Maintaining osmolarity via osmosis, diffusion, and contractile vacuoles 6. Eukaryotic; may be unicellular or multicellular; may for aggregate masses

Identify which type of signaling occurs in each example: 1. Important in progression of cancer 2. Neurotransmitter regulation 3. Transmits ligand over long distances 4. Important for early development 5. Important fo immune system regulation 6. Important to immune system cell communication 7. Physical contact occurs between the cells

1. Autocrine 2. Synaptic 3. Endocrine 4. Paracrine 5. Direct (cell-to-cell) 6. Autocrine 7. Direct (cell-to-cell)

Mike has brown eyes and Deborah has blue eyes- we do not know their genotypes. They have a son with brown eyes with a Bb genotype. The son marries a green-eyed woman with the genotype Gb, and they have children. One child has brown eyes, one child has blue eyes, and one child has hazel (greenish-brown) eyes. What are the genotypes? Name the type of allele expression responsible for the phenotype: 1. Brown-eyed child 2. Blue-eyed child 3. Hazel-eyed child

1. Bb- dominant allele 2. bb- recessive allele 3. BG- codominant alleles

Identify the type of symmetry in each of the following: 1. Worm 2. Jellyfish 3. Coral 4. Starfish 5. Human

1. Bilateral 2. Radial 3. Spherical 4. Radial 5. Bilateral

A ligand: (choose all that apply)

1. Can be a variety of different molecules 2. Show specificity for target receptors 3. Acts as a "message" for the target cell

Name and give examples fo the three different types of symbiotic relationships prokaryotes may have.

1. Commensalism - bacteria living on the skin 2. Mutalististic- bacteria in the human gut 3. Parasitism- bacteria colonizing and causing damage to human tissue

Match each term with the correct definition: 1. Centromere 2. Sister chromatids 3. P-arm 4. Q-arm 5. Daughter cells

1. Composed of a repetitive DNA sequence that serves as an attachment point for the newly 2. Two identical copies of the chromatid contained within the cell after duplication 3. Top, shorter region of the chromatid 4. Longer region, below the centromere 5. Exact replicas of the parent cell that have been duplicated

What are the four major differences btw DNA and RNA?

1. DNA contains deoxyribose - RNA is ribose 2. DNA: thymine RNA: uracil 3. DNA: double stranded helix RNA: single strand

match each term with the correct definition: 1. Cyclic AMP 2. Protein kinase A 3. Adenylyl cyclase

1. Derivative of ATP; acts as a second messenger 2. Activated by cAMP; phosphorylation targets 3. Assists in conversion of ATP to cAMP

identify each of the following as dominant or recessive and homozygous or heterozygous: 1. PP 2. Pp 3. .pp

1. Dominant, homozygous 2. Dominant, heterozygous 3. Recessive homozygous

A cell and it's extracellular environment are in _____ and ______ equilibrium.

1. Electrical 2. chemical

What two phases is glycolysis broken into?

1. Energy Investment Phase 2. Energy Payoff Phase

Active transport is vital for moving _______ (sugars, lipids, and amino acids) into the cell, as most _______ into the cell.

1. Essential nutrients 2. Cannot diffuse

What cell type defines each domain?

1. Eubacteria and Archaea - Prokaryotic cells 2. Eukarya- Eukaryotic cells

Match each term with the correct definition: 1. Coelom 2. Acoelomate 3. Eucoelomate 4. Pseudocoelomates

1. Fluid filled cavity 2. No true body cavity 3. True coelom that surrounds a gut (may be primitive or a complex digestive system) 4. Not a true body, but a fluid filled region mimics a true body cavity

match each term to the correct definitions: 1. Cristea 2. Inter membrane space 3. Mitochondria matrix

1. Folds that maximizes the surface area and enhance productivity during respiration 2. A hollow region between the inner and outer layers 3. Enclosed by the inner membrane; compartment that enzymes necessary for

Match each term with the correct definition: 1. Integral proteins 2. Peripheral proteins 3. Glycoproteins

1. Function as membrane channels, signaling receptors, or adhesion points and span 2. Embedded in either the inner or outer surfaces of the membrane but never span 3. Proteins that have carbohydrate (sugar) chains attached; functions to help cells to

Name the receptor that matches the given characteristic: 1. Immediate changes to proteins associated with the receptor and membrane: 2. Small, hydrophobic molecules: 3. Dimerization and phosphorylation: 4. GTP hydrolysis: 5. Ion influx: 6. ATP hydrolysis: 7. Carrier molecules: 8. Second Messenger:

1. GPCR 2. Intracellular 3. RTK 4. GPCR 5. Ion channel 6. RTK 7. Intracellular 8. GPCR and RTK

Summary of glycolysis. Fill in the blanks. _______ is broken down during the energy investment phase. 2 molecules of ______ are used for energy. A high energy intermediate is formed called _____. This intermediate entrees the energy pay-off phase. During this phase the three "outputs" necessary for continuing cellular respiration processes are ATP, _______, and pyruvate.

1. Glucose 2. ATP 3. G3P 4. NADH

Match the building block to the correct biomacromolecule: 1. Lipid 2. Carbohydrate 3. Nucleic acid 4. Protein

1. Glycerol + fatty acid 2. Monosaccharide 3. Nucleotide 4. Amino acid

Complete the following: Animalia 1. Environmental adaption: 2. Growth over a lifecycle: 3. Produce new offspring: 4. Biochemical process of obtaining energy: 5. Organism level homeostasis: 6. Major cell type:

1. Hibernation, fur/hair, camouflage 2. gametes-->embryo-->fetus-->newborn-->child-->adult 3. sexual 4. Heterotrophic, aerobic 5. Shivering, bp regulation, blood sugar regulation 6. Multicellular, eukaryotic

The adaptive arm can be further subdivided into what two types of responses? What cells are part of each subdivision?

1. Humoral: B cells and antibodies 2. Cell-mediated: T cells (helper and CTL)

Name the type of bond formed in each of the following examples, and describe the major characteristic of each bond type: 1. H2O 2. Calcium (cation) Chloride (anion) 3. H2- covalent

1. Hydrogen; partial positive charge on hydrogens is attracted to partial negative oxygen of other water molecules 2. Ionic; bond forms b/c of positive to negative attractions 3. Nonmetal with shared electrons btw the same type of molecule

Explain the two differences between hydrolysis and dehydration condensation

1. Hydrolysis involves the addition of a water molecule when a biomacromolecule is degraded. This process releases energy. 2. In a dehydration reaction, two or more biomolecules are joined together and a water molecule is lost in the process. This reaction requires an input of energy.

What are some key characteristics of a "good" biological model system?

1. Inexpensive to maintain 2. Ease of maintenance 3. Physical size is convenient 4. short life cycles 5. Can be genetically manipulated 6. Economically feasible

List three criteria of a useful model system:

1. Inexpensive to maintain 2. Easy to maintain 3. Short life cycles 4. Physical size should be convenient 5. Can be genetically manipulated 6. Can be used to deliver economically important results

Match each term with the correct definition: 1. Tight junctions 2. Desmosomes 3. Gap junctions

1. Mechanical structures that wrap around the cell to prevent extracellular fluid (ECF) from 2. Acts as snaps, or fasteners, that look together along the longitudinal edge of the cell 3. tiny pores or channels that allow for the passage of sugars, ions, and amino acids to

Provide the base unit for METRIC measurements in each of the following. 1. Length 2. Volume 3. Mass 4. Temperature

1. Meter 2. liter 3. gram 4. Celsius

What 2 phases make up the Mitotic Phase (M-phase)?

1. Mitosis 2. Telophase/Cytokinesis

match each term with the correct definition: 1. Neutrophil 2. Lymphocyte 3. Monocyte 4. Eosinophil 5. Basophil

1. Multi-lobed phagocytic cell; "first responders" of the immune response 2. Includes cells of both arms of the immune system; NK cells, B cells, and T cells 3. Undifferentiated cells that will become macrophages dendritic cells 4. Highly concentrated in epithelial tissue; rise in blood concentration associated with 5. Found in low concentrations; associated with anaphylaxis and asthma

DNA and RNA exist as chains of ______. The ______ of one nucleotide is linked to the _____ of the next nucleotide, while the ______ protrudes from each sugar in the string.

1. Nucleotides 2. Five-carbon sugar 3. Phosphate 4. Nitrogenous base

What are the 7 characteristics of life?

1. Order 2. Regulation 3. Energy Processing 4. Evolutionary Adaptation 5. Response to the Environment 6. Reproduction 7. Growth and Development

What are the five characteristics of life in the Monera kingdom?

1. Organizatino 2. Regulation 3. Energy and metabolism 4. Interactions and adaptations 5. Reproduction

Two parents each carry a recessive allele for a disease. Neither parent has the phenotype for the disease. They have 4 children. 1. Use a punnet square to list the possible genotype outcomes 2. What is the ratio of "normal" phenotype to disease phenotype? 3. What is the probability that all 4 kids will have a "normal" phenotype? 4. What is the probability that at least 1 of the children will have the disease? 1-81/256

1. PP, Pp, Pp, and pp 2. 3:1 3. 81/256 4. 82/256

Name and briefly describe the five main types of signaling.

1. Paracrine: local range; signaling cell acts on nearby cells 2. Synaptic: local range, nerve cell releases neurotransmitter into synapse and target cell receives neurotransmitter 3. Autocrine: cell signals to itself 4. Endocrine: long-range; hormones released from one area and travel through the bloodstream to target cells 5. Direct cell-to-cell: the signaling cell has a ligand and must make direct contact with the receptor of the target cell

Phenylketonuria, known as PKU, is a rare genetic disorder resulting in absence of the enzyme _______, and without this enzyme the amino acid _______ accumulates to toxic levels within the blood.

1. Phenylalanine hydroxylase 2. Phenylalanine

Identify each characteristic as prokaryotic, eukaryotic, or both: 1. Nucleotide region 2. Membrane bound nucleus 3. Linear DNA 4. Circular DNA 5. Plasmids 6. Cytoplasm 7. Ribosomes 8. Mitochondria

1. Prokaryotic 2. Eukaryotic 3. Eukaryotic 4. Prokaryotic 5. Prokaryotic 6. Both 7. Both 8. Eukaryotic

Explain the 3 differences b/t prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

1. Prokaryotic cells are typically smaller than eukaryotic cells. Most are between 1-10 micrometers in size (about 1/30,000 of an inch) 2. The DNA of a prokaryotic cell is not enclosed in a nuclear membrane (prokaryotic means "before the nucleus"), whereas Eukaryotic cells possess a nucleus 3. Prokarytic cells do not contain many of the internal membrane-bounded organelles of eukaryotic cells

Animalia can be classified in terms of development after fertilization and may be ______ or _______.

1. Protostomes 2. Deuterostomes

Identify each as purine, pyrimidine, or both. 1. Thymine 2. Adenine 3. Guanine 4. Cytosine 5. Two carbon-nitrogen rings + four nitrogen atoms 6. One carbon-nitrogen ring+ two nitrogen atoms 7. Deoxyribose 8. Structural basis of DNA

1. Pyrimidine 2. Purine 3. Purine 4. Pyrimidine 5. Purine 6. Pyrimidine 7. Both 8. Both

Identify each as qualitative or quantitative data: 1. 42 meters 2. 2cc 3. Pain 4. Mean, median, and mode 5. Personal opinion

1. Quantitative 2. Quantitative 3. Qualitative 4. Quantitative 5. Qualitative

What is the three-step process of cell signaling?

1. Reception: A ligand must bind to the receptor 2. Transduction: a series of intracellular mechanisms must commence to interpret the message from the ligand binding 3. Response: the cellular change that is achieved through reception and transduction. It may be amplification of key proteins, release of a substance, or changes to gene expression through translation or transcription

Identify each example as one of the seven characteristics of life: 1. Increase in urine output to lower blood volume and in turn lower blood pressure 2. A caterpillar changing into an adult butterfly 3. Reflexive action of pulling hand back from hot stove 4. Bacterial cells organized into chains 5. Yeast using anaerobic means to generate ATP

1. Regulation/homeostasis 2. Growth and Development 3. Response to stimuli 4. Order 5. Energy Processing

Match the three-dimensional shape name to the correct characteristic: 1. Cocci 2. Bacilli 3. Spiral

1. Spherical shape 2. Rod shaped 3. Comma shaped or cork-screw like

Identify the type of phosphorylation (substrate level or oxidative) used during each metabolic pathway: 1. Glycolysis 2. Citric acid cycle 3. Electron transport chain

1. Substrate level 2. Substrate level 3. Oxidative

Passive transport is ______. An example of a solute that relies on passive transport mechanism is _______.

1. The movement of substances through a membrane without the input of energy 2. Oxygen OR carbon dioxide OR chloride OR urea OR water OR glycerol

List the major characteristics of telophase.

1. The nuclear envelope begins to reform 2. The nucleoli reappears 3. Microtubules spindles dissociates

Identify each of the following terms as lactic acid fermentation, alcohol fermentation, or both: 1. No substrate intermediate 2. Occurs after glycolysis 3. Pyruvate is generated 4. Pyruvate ——> acetaldehyde 5. Acetaldehyde —-> ethanol 6. "Burn" of muscles

1. Lactic acid 2. Both 3. Both 4. Alcohol fermentation 5. Alcohol fermentation 6. Lactic acid fermentation

What are the four types of receptors?

1. Ligand gated ion channels 2. GPCRs 3. Kinase-linked receptors (RTK) 4. Intracellular

identify each characteristic as scanning, transmission, or light microscope: 1. Can use an LED as its illumination source 2. Produces detailed image of surface 3. Uses a beam of electrons 4. Produces detailed internal images 5. Little to no specimen preparation required

1. Light 2. Scanning 3. Scanning and transmission 4. TEM 5. Light

what are the virulence factors of S. pyogenes (GAS)?

1. M-protein 2. capsule

What is a compound?

A combination of molecules that either make up a solid, liquid, or gas. For instance, H2O or NaCl

what is a monocyte?

A type of white blood cell (agranulocyte) that is the largest blood cell with a very large nucleus, phagocytic of large foreign particles, can leave the bloodstream and become macrophages or dendritic cells

what is a basophil?

A type of white blood cell (granulocyte) that has a bent S shaped nucleus with two lobes, least numerous white blood cell, causes inflammation by secreting histamine and heparin; exclusive to allergic reactions

What is a neutrophil?

A type of white blood cell (granulocyte) that has a two to five lobed nucleus connected by thin bridges, most numerous white blood cell, phagocytic, first to arrive at infection/injury site

What is the difference between apoptosis and necrosis?

Apoptosis is programmed and controlled cell death; it is beneficial and is a normal bodily function; does not involve damage to other cells or tissues. Necrosis occurs due to physical injury or exposure to toxic chemicals and causes damage to neighboring cells from inflammation.

Identify each as an innate barrier or innate internal defense: 1. Skin 2. Natural killer 3. Antimicrobial proteins 4. Mucous membranes 5. Secretions 6. Phagocytic cells

1. Innate barrier 2. Innate internal defense 3. Innate internal defense 4. Innate barrier 5. Innate barrier 6. Innate internal defense

Describe codominance

In an organism that shows codominance the alleles of the heterozygote would both be expressed. For example the human ABO blood groups illustrate codominance. If a human inherits both the "A" allele and the "B" the resultant red blood cells will possess both "A" antigens and "B" antigens

what is a lymphocyte?

It is the second most abundant white blood cell in the human blood; plays a role in both innate and adaptive; includes natural killer cells, B cells, and T cells

Define the term mutually exclusive. Provide an example.

It means that each outcome is independent of the previous outcome. Flipping a coin, segregation of alleles, and the gender of a baby

What is the citric acid cycle?

It's a metabolic pathway that involves a preparatory phase and 8 reactions that "recycles" oxaloacetate. It doesn't give a lot of ATP but instead produces high energy byproducts (NADH and FADH2) that will be used in the ETC.

What is fermentation?

It's the anerobic process of generating ATP and breaking down glucose for energy. It's used most often by prokaryotes. The final electron acceptor isn't an oxygen, but rather a sulfate group

each of the following are associated with signal termination EXCEPT:

Kinase activity

Why is klebsiella difficult to treat?

Klebsiella is Gram -negative, which presents some challenges with reaching the cell wall due to the outer membrane layer. It also has many different virulence factors and has developed a great deal of antibiotic resistance over time

Which form of fermentation is common to humans?

Lactic Acid Fermentation

What are macrophages?

phagocytic cells, release signaling molecules that attract neutrophils to the injury site

Fungi may possess which of the following characteristics? (Select all that apply)

Reproduce asexually, reproduce sexually, unicellular, mutilcellular

Electron microscopes have a distinct advantage over light microscopes b/c:

Resolution is inversely related to light wavelength

Explain the function of each of the following in the cell: Golgi Apparatus

Responsible for receiving lipids and proteins synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum, altering their structures and shipping them to other parts of the cell

The nucleoli sure located within the nucleus is the site of _____.

Ribosome synthesis

T/F. Chemical energy that is obtained from food is used to establish the ETC.

TRUE

T/F. The law of independent assortment only applies to alleles (traits) that are inherited on different chromosomes

True

define deuterostome

an organism that during development and after a radical cleavage (sunflower) the blastopore will develop into the anal opening first Ex: humans and animals with a spinal cord are classified as such

what is complete activation?

antibodies attached to the surface of a pathogen cell activate the complement system

what are plasma cells?

antibody secreting activated B cell

What are plastids?

any of a class of small organelles, such as chloroplasts, in the cytoplasm of plant cells, containing pigment or food.

What are body plans? Name the 3 types?

are a set of morphological and developmental traits integrated into a functional, living organism that group animals spherical, radial, bilateral

What are virulence factors?

properties of the pathogen that allow it to successfully invade and cause disease in a host

What are some ways that microorganisms evade host immune defenses?

By keeping the immune system "off", masking its antigens, and/or using a capsule to prevent phagocytic cell uptake

Because Gram-positive cells have a simple cell wall composed of a thick peptidoglycan layer, they will appear _______ after the Gram-stain procedure.

Deep purple

T/F. Proteins have a limited number of functions and mainly act as energy reserves.

False

T/F. Selective permeability is the process by which substances pass through the cell membrane to be taken up by the cell.

False

T/F: B cells directly secrete antibodies

False. Plasma cells are the antibody-secreting cells

Why do fish need to extract oxygen from water?

Fish need oxygen to complete the coordinated processes of aerobic respiration

cocci arranged in chains are called _______ and clusters called ________

strepto- , staphlyo-

Define tight junctions

the closest contact between adjacent cells. Wraps around the cell to prevent extracellular fluid (ECF) from leaking "belt"

Explain the function of each of the following in the cell: Cell Wall and Extracellular Matrix

Cell Wall- contains polysaccharide side chains Extracellular matrix- contains collagen fibers

The ____ is the outer most constituent of the cell and is responsible for the cell's cytoplasm and organelles.

Cell membrane (or plasma membrane)

What three parameters are vital to microscopy?

1. Magnification 2. Resolution 3. Contrast

Integrins, associated with the extracellular matrix have what two roles?

1. Mechanical anchoring 2. Transmitting signals from the extracellular environment

T/F. Enzymes become denatured after being used in a chemical reaction and cannot catalyze other substrates

False

T/F. Essential elements can be broken down into simpler units.

False

T/F. G-proteins bind to ATP and hydrolyze it to ADP

False

T/F. Ligand gated ion channels are unique from RTK and GPCR in that they do no exhibit ligand specificity.

False

T/F. Lysosomes are storage facilities for lipids.

False

T/F. The order in which amino acid monomers are arranged is called the quaternary structure of a protein.

false

What are amyloplasts?

used for storage of starch

List the first messenger, second messenger, and second, second messenger of the PLC transduction pathway

First: signaling molecule/ligand Second: IP3 Second, Second: calcium ions

T/F. The majority of the world uses the metric system to quantify measurements.

True

T/F. Unlike a dehydration condensation reaction where other small molecules can be lost, a dehydration reaction's only molecule to be lost is water.

True

T/F. When calcium is part of second messenger pathway, calcium channels of the target cell open facilitating the influx of calcium ions into the cytoplasm

True

The _____ and ______ often serves as storage compartments for intracellular calcium storage

Endoplasmic reticulum; mitochondria

During the investment phase of glycolysis:

2 ATP are used

Which GAS virulence factor prevents host phagocytosis?

M-protein

Which of the following is exclusive to allergic reactions?

Basophils

The unaided human eye can detect objects as small as:

0.1mm

One example of a lymphocyte is the:

B-cell

Define neurotransmitter

Chemicals that are packaged in vesicles that carry messages across the synapse to the dendrite (sometimes called the cell body) to a receiver neuron.

Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?

Cytoplasm

T/F. If an error is discovered at the G2 checkpoint, the cell can temporarily cease the cell cycle and deploy mechanisms to repair the DNA errors.

True

T/F. Peroxisomes are considered detoxifying organelles and are plentiful in cells of the liver and kidneys.

True

T/F. Plants are characterized as having a rigid cell wall.

True

T/F. Plants have mechanisms to respond to environmental stimuli.

True

Dendritic cells differ from macrophages in which of the following ways?

Greater specificity to pathogens

A phosphorylation cascade is characterized by _______ phosphorylation

Sequential

What is phylogeny?

The evolutionary history of a species or group of related species