BIOL1406 - Final Review

A 6.85 kb EcoRI fragment of DNA is shown below. The location of several restriction sites is indicated. Scale is approximate. If you were to digest this DNA with PstI, which length of DNA fragment would migrate the fastest on an agarose gel? A) 803 B) 2622 C) 3425 D) 235

A) 803

What is the difference between a gene that is derepressed and one that is induced? A) A gene that is derepressed is turned on because a repressor protein is not bound without its cofactor. By comparison, a gene that is induced is turned on because an inducer molecule prevents binding of the repressor. B) Genes that are derepressed are turned on because an inducer molecule is present. By comparison, a gene that is induced is turned on because a repressor protein is bound to the operator. C) There is no difference between a gene that is derepressed and one that is induced. D) A derepressed gene is turned off and an induced gene is activated to be expressed.

A) A gene that is derepressed is turned on because a repressor protein is not bound without its cofactor. By comparison, a gene that is induced is turned on because an inducer molecule prevents binding of the repressor.

Which components are required in plasmids? (check all that apply) A) A selectable marker, usually antibiotic resistance B) A bacterial artificial chromosome C) One or more unique restriction sites where foreign DNA can be added D) An origin of replication to allow it to replicate in E. coli independently of the host chromosome

A) A selectable marker, usually antibiotic resistance C) One or more unique restriction sites where foreign DNA can be added D) An origin of replication to allow it to replicate in E. coli independently of the host chromosome

A farmer is growing glyphosate-resistant transgenic soybeans. What are you unlikely to see in those fields during the growing season? A) A tilling machine B) Caterpillars C) Field mice D) Irrigation

A) A tilling machine

The specific white blood cells that HIV attaches to are the ________ cells. A) CD4+ B) gp120-T C) CCR5-T D) CXCR4-T E) CD8-T

A) CD4+

You have been asked to construct a physical map of the baboon genome. What would be helpful in this task? A) Chromosome maps and STSs B) BLAST and ENCODE data C) Gene linkage data D) Microarrays and SAGE

A) Chromosome maps and STSs

In vertebrates, the family of myogenic regulatory factors (MRFs) plays a major role in muscle development. This family consists of four related genes which have distinct but overlapping functions. This gene family is represented by only a single gene in Drosophila, called nautilus. You want to know whether nautilus plays a role like all of the MRFs put together, or more like one in particular. What is a quick and easy way to begin to address this question? A) Compare the DNA and protein sequences of all the genes to determine if nautilus is more similar to one MRF than another. B) Use a DNA microarray to compare gene activation patterns between nautilus and the MRFs. C) Compare the proteome of a cell expressing nautilus to the those of cells expressing each of the MRFs in turn. D) Generate four transgenic Drosophila strains that express the MRFs in a mutant nautilus background.

A) Compare the DNA and protein sequences of all the genes to determine if nautilus is more similar to one MRF than another.

Which observation(s) of the medium ground finch (Geospiza fortis) by Peter and Rosemary Grant verify Darwin's selection hypothesis? Check all that apply. A) Considerable variation existed in the beak size and shape of this finch. B) The medium ground finch showed assortative mating according to beak size and shape. C) Beak shape (depth) varied with the dryness of the year. D) Offspring were similar to parents in beak size and shape.

A) Considerable variation existed in the beak size and shape of this finch. C) Beak shape (depth) varied with the dryness of the year. D) Offspring were similar to parents in beak size and shape.

You are the scientific consultant for a television show about forensic analysis. In an upcoming episode, investigators will compare the DNA of a suspect and a DNA sample collected from the victim's fingernails. You are to write up a brief explanation of the technique required for comparing the DNA. Which technique should you explain? A) DNA fingerprinting B) Fluorescent in situ hybridization C) RNAi D) RT-PCR

A) DNA fingerprinting

As the director of a new nonprofit functional genomics research center, it is your job to oversee the set up of each laboratory necessary for achieving the center's research goals. Therefore, you plan to include a(n) (Select all that apply) A) DNA microarray facility. B) proteomics lab. C) lab to improve sequencing speed and cost. D) mutagenesis facility. E) ancient DNA laboratory.

A) DNA microarray facility. B) proteomics lab. D) mutagenesis facility.

Both DNA replication and PCR require: (check all that apply) A) DNA polymerase. B) DNA helicase. C) a DNA template. D) a thermocycler machine. E) plasmid DNA.

A) DNA polymerase. C) a DNA template.

Which genes were incorporated into the genome of Golden Rice? (check all that apply) A) Daffodil phytoene synthase gene B) Bacterial carotene desaturase gene C) Bacterial beta-galactosidase D) Daffodil lycopene beta-cyclase gene

A) Daffodil phytoene synthase gene B) Bacterial carotene desaturase gene D) Daffodil lycopene beta-cyclase gene

Which "alternate" hypothesis might also explain industrial melanism? A) Dark moths are more resistant to the toxic effects of pollution than light moths. B) Dark moths emigrate out of polluted areas to escape the pollution. C) Pollution kills important tree species that peppered moths depend on for egg laying. D) Because dark moths absorb more heat, they are more active and better able to avoid bird predation. E) Birds used the marks that Kettlewell placed on the moths when he released them to help them find and capture the moths.

A) Dark moths are more resistant to the toxic effects of pollution than light moths.

Vibrio cholerae lives in water and gets toxin genes from a virus by phage conversion. The toxin kills the intestinal epithelial cells in the human host, resulting in massive diarrhea. Untreated cholera has about a 50% mortality rate. How do the bacteria benefit? A) Diarrhea helps the bacteria to spread from person to person. B) Killing humans provides nutrients for the bacteria. C) They don't -- humans are not the main host and their symptoms are maladaptive for the bacteria. D) The bacteria reproduce faster in a dead human.

A) Diarrhea helps the bacteria to spread from person to person.

A medical researcher is trying to develop a diagnostic technique for a disease which is characterized by replication of a particular chromosomal region. What would be the most appropriate technique? A) FISH B) Gene chip C) Genome sequencing D) White blood cell count

A) FISH

A certain wastewater treatment plant uses aerobic bacteria, anaerobic bacteria, and archaebacteria during secondary treatment of sewage. Unfortunately, during a bad blizzard the aerated tanks froze, killing the microbes inside. What is likely to result? A) Floc levels will diminish. B) Methane production will go down. C) Solid material will not be effectively filtered out. D) Floc will not be effectively filtered out.

A) Floc levels will diminish.

An experimental chemical has been shown to selectively cleave phosphodiester bonds. How would this affect a virus? A) Fragment the genome B) Digest the capsid C) Dissociate the envelope D) Alter the host binding site E) Hydrolyze the protein coating

A) Fragment the genome

Select the experiments that can be characterized as reverse genetics: (check all that apply) A) Generation and analysis of a knockout mouse B) Random mutagenesis of an organism, then selecting mutants by phenotype C) RNA interference of a gene in C. elegans D) Using reverse transcriptase to create a cDNA library

A) Generation and analysis of a knockout mouse C) RNA interference of a gene in C. elegans

A friend makes the argument that transgenic crops have only been used to enrich large corporations, not to improve people's health. What is the best counterexample? A) Golden rice B) Bt maize C) Glyphosate-resistant soybeans D) Cre-Lox

A) Golden rice

In your research, you are comparing the transcriptome and the proteome for two related species. One gene in species B has a similar transcript but a much smaller protein than in species A, and the protein seems to be nonfunctional. What do you predict about this gene? (Select all that apply) A) It is a pseudogene. B) It will have an increased number of persistent mutations in species B. C) It probably has a STOP codon early in the coding region. D) It probably has a defect in the enhancer region. E) It probably is not methylated correctly.

A) It is a pseudogene. B) It will have an increased number of persistent mutations in species B. C) It probably has a STOP codon early in the coding region.

Which of the following is the best reason that the origin of species according to creation science should not be included in the curriculum of biology courses? A) It is not a scientifically testable theory. B) It has proven to be false. C) It has been superseded by more modern theories. D) It is contrary to the beliefs of most scientists. E) It constitutes the teaching of religion.

A) It is not a scientifically testable theory.

Why can't "scientific creationism" be considered a science? Check all that apply. A) It is not supported by any empirical observations. B) It does not obtain its principles from observation, as does science. C) Its assumptions lead to no hypotheses that could be tested and possibly disproved. D) The idea of creation by a supernatural agency lies outside the realm of science. E) Only non-scientists believe it.

A) It is not supported by any empirical observations. B) It does not obtain its principles from observation, as does science. C) Its assumptions lead to no hypotheses that could be tested and possibly disproved. D) The idea of creation by a supernatural agency lies outside the realm of science.

The evidence for industrial melanism being caused by an increase in the dark allele was provided from field tests carried out by A) Kettlewell. B) Lamarck. C) Darwin. D) Tutt. E) Wallace.

A) Kettlewell.

A researcher wants to create a mouse model for a disease, to allow her team to study possible therapies. The disease is known to be caused by a small deletion that removes a certain gene. Which type of mouse would be the best choice for this purpose? A) Knockout mouse B) Knockin mouse C) Conditional knockout mouse activated by a drug D) Mutant derived by traditional forward genetics screen E) Tissue-specific gene knockout

A) Knockout mouse

In your research, you have discovered that Protein X is often ubiquitinated in people with a certain disease. What would you predict about levels of Protein X in these patients? A) Levels of Protein X will be low due to degradation in the proteasome. B) Levels of Protein X will be the same, just carrying a ubiquitin tag. C) Levels of Protein X will be increased due to transcriptional activation. D) Levels of Protein X will be decreased due to negative feedback on transcription. E) Levels of Protein X will be increased due to protection from degradation.

A) Levels of Protein X will be low due to degradation in the proteasome.

Choose the true statement(s) about the evolutionary divergence of horses in North America. Check all that apply. A) Most changes are seen as adaptations for life in grassland habitats. B) The general trends during horse evolution are increase in body size, lengthening of limbs, reduction of digits on both sets of limbs, and tooth development for a grazing life style. C) Horse evolution is unusual in that rates of change were uniform and constant throughout most lineages. D) Living lineages of horses show much less diversity than existed in the past.

A) Most changes are seen as adaptations for life in grassland habitats. B) The general trends during horse evolution are increase in body size, lengthening of limbs, reduction of digits on both sets of limbs, and tooth development for a grazing life style. D) Living lineages of horses show much less diversity than existed in the past.

Which component of the PCR mix do researchers manipulate to induce a site-specific mutation? A) Primers B) Taq polymerase C) DNA template D) Reverse transcriptase

A) Primers

A pharmaceutical company is developing a new drug to treat a rare disease. They need to determine which of the cell's proteins can bind the drug. What tool can help them survey the proteome for drug interactions? A) Protein microarray B) DNA microarray C) SAGE D) ENCODE E) Using a monoclonal antibody

A) Protein microarray

Microarrays are created by robotically placing DNA on to a microscope slide and probing with A) RNA from the tissue of interest. B) another DNA from the tissue of interest. C) SNPs from the tissue of interest. D) STSs from the tissue of interest. E) clone-by-clone sequencing.

A) RNA from the tissue of interest.

An immunoassay was developed to rapidly diagnose patients infected with an emerging virus. However, the researchers discovered that some individuals were producing false negatives when tested, despite being infected with the virus. What might explain this? A) Rapid evolution of the viral antigen B) Changes in the length of the viral DNA C) Number of genome copies carried in each virion D) Changes in the antibody produced by the virus

A) Rapid evolution of the viral antigen

Which of the following two enzymes are needed to construct a cDNA library? A) Reverse transcriptase and DNA ligase B) Reverse transcriptase and Taq polymerase C) DNA ligase and Taq polymerase D) Taq polymerase and RNA polymerase

A) Reverse transcriptase and DNA ligase

You are studying a novel protein. To learn more about it, you performed a screen in yeast to identify proteins that could interact with it. From the screen you got a clone for a second gene. You had the clone sequenced, and you translated the gene sequence on your computer. What is the next logical step to learn more about the function of these two proteins? A) Run a BLAST search. B) Identify the intron/exon organization. C) Localize the gene to a specific chromosomal region. D) Search the human genome sequence for your clone.

A) Run a BLAST search.

Select all of the following that are valid counterarguments to the idea that evolution is "just a theory." A) Scientists use the word theory to describe unifying ideas. B) Evolution is just a collection of facts without a central theme and this is not a theory. C) Scientific theories are supported by many types of evidence and no empirical data refutes them. D) Evolution occurred in the past, but it is not occurring in the present, so it cannot be a theory.

A) Scientists use the word theory to describe unifying ideas. C) Scientific theories are supported by many types of evidence and no empirical data refutes them.

A new plant species is introduced to Daphne Major and produces small, thin seeds. This plant species is highly adapted to drought and after 5 years has replaced over 80% of the native plants that produce large seeds. How will this change affect the evolution of beak size in the medium ground finch population? A) Small beaks will be favored under all rainfall conditions. B) Small beaks will be favored in wet years and large beaks will be favored in dry years. C) Large beaks will be favored in wet years and small beaks will be favored in dry years. D) Large beaks will be favored under all rainfall conditions.

A) Small beaks will be favored under all rainfall conditions.

Choose the evidence supporting that snakes evolved from legged lizards. Check all that apply. A) Snakes have pelvic bones. B) The oldest snake-like fossils have leg bones. C) Transitional fossils show sections of the snake backbone evolving into legs. D) Snake embryos temporarily develop limb buds which are reabsorbed before birth.

A) Snakes have pelvic bones. B) The oldest snake-like fossils have leg bones. D) Snake embryos temporarily develop limb buds which are reabsorbed before birth.

Viruses may cause cancer in these three typical ways: A) Some viruses encode an oncogene in their genome. B) A viral genome may integrate into the host chromosome, disrupting a cell cycle gene. C) Some viral proteins interact with cell cycle regulatory proteins. D) Viral infection provides large amounts of nutrients, encouraging the cell to divide and proliferate. E) All viruses promote host cell proliferation, as a way to spread more virus. F) Cell proliferation is an adaptive response of the host to any viral infection, to outgrow the virus. G) When a DNA virus brings extra DNA into the host cell, that signals that S phase is complete.

A) Some viruses encode an oncogene in their genome. B) A viral genome may integrate into the host chromosome, disrupting a cell cycle gene. C) Some viral proteins interact with cell cycle regulatory proteins.

You want to insert your favorite gene, which has been digested with Ncol endonuclease on both ends, into a vector. Ncol recognizes the DNA sequence C*CATGG. The vector you want to use contains many endonuclease recognition sites, but does not include an Ncol site. Which restriction endonuclease would be the most suitable replacement to digest the vector? A) Sphl - G*CATGC B) Sunl - C*GTACG C) Kpnl - GGTAC*C D) CViAll - C*ATG

A) Sphl - G*CATGC

The TFIID complex is formed by A) TATA-binding protein TBP and TAFs. B) TATA-binding protein TBP, TAFs and RNA pol II. C) TAFs and the core promoter. D) TATA-binding protein and activators.

A) TATA-binding protein TBP and TAFs.

Industrial melanism involving the peppered moths (Biston sp.) is cited as an example of natural selection that has been observed in the last one hundred years. Recall that the peppered moth exhibits two distinct morphological types with dark and light colored wings. Which of the following statements about changes in these two types of moths as a result of industrial melanism is true? A) The dark forms are selected against in nonpolluted forests. B) The dark forms are distasteful to birds and are thus safe in polluted forests. C) The light forms are selected against in nonpolluted forests. D) Birds prey more on the dark forms in polluted forests E) Dark forms emigrate from nonpolluted forests to polluted forests.

A) The dark forms are selected against in nonpolluted forests.

You are studying regulation of a prokaryotic operon. Experiments show that expression of the operon is increased when levels of biosynthetic product from that pathway are low. Based on this information, what is a likely mode of regulation? A) The product binds a repressor, allowing it to bind the operator. B) The product binds an activator, helping RNA polymerase to bind the promoter. C) The product binds a repressor, preventing it from binding the operator. D) The product binds to the biosynthetic enzymes, blocking them directly.

A) The product binds a repressor, allowing it to bind the operator.

Which observations illustrate shared ancestry by anatomical comparison studies? Check all that apply. A) The same structure has evolved to carry out different functions. B) Different structures evolve in similar ways when subjected to the same selective pressures. C) A structure becomes vestigial. D) Structures are found to be homologous.

A) The same structure has evolved to carry out different functions. C) A structure becomes vestigial. D) Structures are found to be homologous.

A new winged species is discovered in the Amazon rainforest. Select the evidence that supports that this species' wings are homologous to vertebrate animals and analogous to insect wings. Check all that apply. A) The wings have an underlying bone structure. B) The wings are poisonous. C) Blood vessels are networked through the wings. D) The wings are covered in chitinous scales.

A) The wings have an underlying bone structure. C) Blood vessels are networked through the wings.

Which of the following is a unique feature of viruses that separates them from bacteria? A) They are generally smaller. B) They are often highly toxic. C) They lack proteins. D) They have different nucleotides in their hereditary material. E) They cannot exist outside of a host cell.

A) They are generally smaller.

In some ciliate protozoa, the codons UAA and UAG encode glutamate, rather than acting as STOP codons. How does this compare to other species? A) This is unusual - almost all species share the same "universal" genetic code. B) This is typical - every species has its own unique genetic code. C) This is not unusual - while most species have a similar genetic code, there are often variations for some of the amino acids.

A) This is unusual - almost all species share the same "universal" genetic code.

Which type of disease is LEAST likely to be able to be treated using genome editing with TALEN or CRISPR? A) Trisomy-21 B) Leukemia C) Cystic fibrosis D) Huntingtons

A) Trisomy-21

Which aspect(s) of natural selection is(are) illustrated by the figure below (21.2b)? Check all that apply. [Beak depth of parents vs offspring; Linear scatter plot, with regression line]

A) Variation must exist in the population. B) Variation among individuals must be genetically transmissible to the next generation.

A bacterial gene regulatory system is likely to have (check all that apply) A) a coding sequence. B) an operator. C) one or more introns. D) a motor. E) a ribosome recognition site.

A) a coding sequence. B) an operator. E) a ribosome recognition site.

The onset of AIDS is often accompanied by A) a steep drop in T cell numbers. B) macrophage infection. C) a positive HIV test. D) lung infections and other opportunistic infections. E) Kaposi's sarcoma.

A) a steep drop in T cell numbers.

In 2006, scientists discovered a fossil that had scales and gills, a flat head with eyes on top like a crocodile, and fin and neck bones that would allow it to prop itself out of the water. The best explanation for this fossil is that it is A) a transitional fossil between fish and amphibians. B) a transitional fossil between amphibians and reptiles. C) a ray-finned fish. D) a modern amphibian.

A) a transitional fossil between fish and amphibians.

A gel electrophoresis is performed, but when the gel imager is used, no bands appear. The researcher might have forgotten to A) add electric current. B) add antibody. C) ligate the DNA fragments together. D) include DNA dye. E) include an RNA probe.

A) add electric current. D) include DNA dye.

Elucidation of the histone code might A) allow us to turn specific genes on or off. B) allow the determination of nucleosome composition. C) lead to chromatin remodeling. D) allow us to control translation.

A) allow us to turn specific genes on or off.

Control of gene expression (check all that apply) A) allows bacteria to adapt to changing environments. B) is critical for development in multicellular organisms. C) allows bacteria to replicate without control. D) allows multicellular organisms to maintain homeostasis. E) it stops multicellular organisms functioning as a whole.

A) allows bacteria to adapt to changing environments. B) is critical for development in multicellular organisms. D) allows multicellular organisms to maintain homeostasis.

The reason segmental duplications pose a logistical challenge in the proper alignment of DNA sequences is that they A) are inherently repetitive. B) contain large numbers of LINEs, which interfere with sequence annotation. C) interfere with BLAST analysis. D) are often found in areas of constitutive heterochromatin.

A) are inherently repetitive.

In studying the medium ground finch on Daphne Major, the Grants noted that each generation of finches had beaks A) best suited for their parents' environment. B) best suited for their current environment. C) smaller than those of the previous generation. D) larger than those of the previous generation.

A) best suited for their parents' environment.

If the gp120 glycoprotein were damaged as a result of a mutation, HIV would have difficulty: A) binding to a host cell. B) leaving a macrophage. C) inserting its genes into the host cell's genome. D) assembling the capsid. E) attaching its RNA to a host cell's ribosome.

A) binding to a host cell.

The figure below shows results of bristle number in Drosophila flies after 35 generations of artificial selection. This figure suggests that A) bristle number has evolved beyond the original range of phenotypic variation for this trait. B) after 35 generations of selection, populations no longer exhibit variation in bristle number. C) natural selection cannot lead to large phenotypic changes. D) at the end of the experiment, "high population" flies were unable to interbreed with "low population" flies.

A) bristle number has evolved beyond the original range of phenotypic variation for this trait.

Select the pairs of organism characteristics that are homologous structures. Check all that apply. A) cactus spines; tree leaves B) human hand bones; whale fin bones C) bat wing; butterfly wing D) octopus eye; mouse eye

A) cactus spines; tree leaves B) human hand bones; whale fin bones

The progesterone receptor (PR) is a steroid hormone receptor and transcription factor. The protein SRC-1, which does not bind DNA by itself, can bind to PR and increase expression of genes regulated by PR. Based on this information, SRC-1 is best described as a(n) A) coactivator. B) inducer. C) general transcription factor. D) specific transcription factor.

A) coactivator.

52) The most ethical decisions for usage of genomic data and technology, like sequencing human genomes for customized treatments and constructing deadly pathogens for study, are based on (Select all that apply) A) consensus in the scientific community. B) oversight from governmental agencies. C) the directives of large financial donors. D) what can safely be achieved in the laboratory. E) subjectivity.

A) consensus in the scientific community. B) oversight from governmental agencies. D) what can safely be achieved in the laboratory. E) subjectivity.

Plants in the desert-adapted families Cactacea (cactus) and Euphorbia (euphorbs) share many of the same physical characteristics, such as succulent stems that store water and CAM photosynthesis, but they do not share a recent common ancestor. This evidence suggests that these families are an example of A) convergent evolution. B) homologous structures. C) vestigial structures. D) divergent evolution.

A) convergent evolution.

Choose the true statements about species that show convergent evolution. Check all that apply. A) do not share a recent common ancestor B) must be found in the same biogeographical region C) subject to similar selection pressures D) have similar phenotypes

A) do not share a recent common ancestor C) subject to similar selection pressures D) have similar phenotypes

Although the specific mechanism of RNA interference has not been fully defined, it involves A) double stranded RNA interference with mRNA. B) double stranded RNA interference with DNA. C) double stranded DNA interference with mRNA. D) double stranded mRNA interference with DNA.

A) double stranded RNA interference with mRNA.

The important advances stemming from comparative genomics include the ability to (Select all that apply) A) draw particular conclusions about species. B) draw general conclusions about evolution. C) infer function about an unsequenced genome using synteny. D) develop a haplotype map. E) distinguish how proteins bind to receptors.

A) draw particular conclusions about species. B) draw general conclusions about evolution. C) infer function about an unsequenced genome using synteny.

When comparing the genomes of prokaryotes verse eukaryotes, it can be accurately stated that A) eukaryotic genomes are larger than prokaryotic genomes. B) eukaryotic genomes are smaller than prokaryotic genomes. C) the size of the organism determines the size of the genome. D) larger and more complex organisms have more genes than smaller, less complex organisms.

A) eukaryotic genomes are larger than prokaryotic genomes.

Single-stranded ends generated by the same restriction enzyme are complementary to each other. They can be joined together A) even when the source of the DNA is different. B) only when the source of the DNA is the same. C) but the "sticky ends" will most likely have to be modified. D) but the hybridization of the two ends may cause a problem with cloning. E) only if the subunits have been methylated.

A) even when the source of the DNA is different.

The most recent techniques developed in the biological sciences allow the manipulation of DNA with the ultimate goal of intervening directly with the ________ fate of organisms. A) genetic B) developmental C) adult D) mitotic

A) genetic

Recombination frequency between genes can be used to generate a A) genetic map. B) physical map. C) restriction map. D) haplotype map.

A) genetic map.

The inclusive term that describes all of the DNA in the nucleus of a cell is its A) genome. B) chromosome. C) gene. D) proteome.

A) genome.

During development in the mother's uterus, human embryos have pharyngeal pouches (sometimes called gill slits) that later develop into various glands. Fish also have pharyngeal pouches as embryos, but these develop into gills. The best explanation for why human and fish embryos develop pharyngeal pouches is A) humans and fish share a common ancestor that had gills. B) human embryos need gill slits to breathe in the uterus. C) humans and fish both develop pharyngeal pouches by random chance. D) fish evolved from humans.

A) humans and fish share a common ancestor that had gills.

The enzyme beta-galactosidase acts on lactose to form galactose. In turn, the presence of galactose leads to expression of the enzymes responsible for the metabolism of galactose. In this case, lactose is serving as a carbon source and as a(n) A) inducer. B) repressor. C) DNA-binding protein. D) operon.

A) inducer.

The lactose analog isopropyl-beta-D-thio-galactoside (IPTG) is often used to regulate gene expression systems in bacteria. IPTG does not act as a substrate for beta-galactosidase, but can bind to, and inactivate, the repressor. In this case, IPTG serves as a(n) A) inducer. B) repressor. C) DNA-binding protein. D) operon.

A) inducer.

If you were given a bacterial strain with a mutation in the promoter region of the trp operon the most likely effect would be A) interference with RNA polymerase binding. B) to block the repressor from binding. C) derepression of the trp operon. D) enabling the trp operon to be expressed in the absence of tryptophan. E) lack of expression of just the first gene in the operon.

A) interference with RNA polymerase binding.

Non-coding DNA regions within a gene are referred to as A) introns. B) exons. C) templates. D) transposons. E) pseudogenes.

A) introns.

The ubiquitin-proteasome pathway (check all that apply) A) is used to regulate expression of a number of cell surface receptors. B) requires only one molecule of ATP to target a protein. C) targets proteins in a stepwise fashion via ubiquitin ligase adding ubiquitin residues to the protein. D) is used to digest macromolecules. E) does not destroy the ubiquitin moiety, but rather cleaves it off for reuse.

A) is used to regulate expression of a number of cell surface receptors. C) targets proteins in a stepwise fashion via ubiquitin ligase adding ubiquitin residues to the protein. E) does not destroy the ubiquitin moiety, but rather cleaves it off for reuse.

Small RNAs can regulate gene expression. One type, called micro RNA (miRNA), acts by binding directly to A) mRNA to prevent translation. B) tRNA to prevent transcription. C) mRNA to prevent transcription. D) tRNA to prevent translation.

A) mRNA to prevent translation.

A defining characteristic of draft sequences is that they have A) many gaps in regions of highly repetitive DNA. B) less than 1 error in 10,000 nucleotides. C) been found in various proteomes across the eukaryote life forms. D) been produced by alternative splicing. E) several problems, the main one being their contiguous DNA fragments.

A) many gaps in regions of highly repetitive DNA.

In some organisms, the primary function of a gene in a cell is to participate in regulating the body as a whole rather than responding to the cell's immediate environment. These organisms would be A) multicellular. B) diploid. C) bacterial. D) prokaryotic.

A) multicellular.

Control of the lac operon and lactose utilization in bacteria is (check all that apply) A) not induced in the presence of both glucose and lactose. B) only induced when there is glucose but not lactose. C) is a negative control, mediated by a repressor. D) controlled by the expression of three downstream genes. E) preferentially utilizing lactose as a carbon source.

A) not induced in the presence of both glucose and lactose. C) is a negative control, mediated by a repressor. D) controlled by the expression of three downstream genes.

A cluster of functionally-related genes that are regulated together and encoded into a single mRNA molecule is called a(n) A) operon. B) repressor. C) promoter. D) operator. E) CAP.

A) operon.

What is the name for parasitic viral DNA that has been integrated into the chromosome of its bacterial host? A) prophage B) prophase C) viroid D) virion E) arbovirus

A) prophage

A rare disease is now understood to be caused by a single mutant gene. When the researcher learns that the gene encodes a ________, he says "Oh good! We may be able to treat the disease with recombinant protein produced in E. coli and delivered by injection." A) protein hormone B) cell-surface receptor C) ribozyme D) component of chromatin E) mitochondrial enzyme

A) protein hormone

Most viruses form a capsid around their nucleic acid core. This capsid is composed of A) proteins. B) monosaccharides. C) glycoproteins. D) lipoproteins.

A) proteins.

An accurate and comprehensive description of pseudogenes must include the statement that (Select all that apply) A) pseudogenes may have some gene-like features such as a promoter and splice sites. B) pseudogenes encode proteins, but the translated proteins are non-functional. C) pseudogenes can provide insight into the evolutionary history of the related functional gene. D) every pseudogene has a similar DNA sequence to some functional gene. E) all pseudogene pretend to transcribe other genes when they only transcribe one type of genetic information.

A) pseudogenes may have some gene-like features such as a promoter and splice sites. C) pseudogenes can provide insight into the evolutionary history of the related functional gene. D) every pseudogene has a similar DNA sequence to some functional gene.

Silent copies of genes that have been inactivated by mutations are called A) pseudogenes. B) clones. C) exons. D) introns.

A) pseudogenes.

Three scientists are using different forms of PCR for their research. Abby wants to determine changes in gene expression levels in a tissue, so she uses ________. Bob is trying to extract genetic information from a wooly mammoth fossil, so he uses ________. Chris needs to express a gene in bacteria that matches the form expressed in kidney cells, so she uses ________. A) quantitative RT-PCR; PCR; RT-PCR B) PCR; quantitative RT-PCR; RT-PCR C) RT-PCR; PCR; quantitative RT-PCR D) RT-PCR; quantitative RT-PCR; PCR E) quantitative RT-PCR; RT-PCR; PCR

A) quantitative RT-PCR; PCR; RT-PCR

When comparing the actual number of genes, the organism with the highest number is A) rice. B) human. C) fruit fly. D) yeast.

A) rice.

The sequencing method that cuts the DNA of an entire chromosome into small fragments and then clones these fragments is called A) shotgun sequencing. B) clone-by-clone sequencing. C) RFLP sequencing. D) consensus sequencing.

A) shotgun sequencing.

Eukaryotic cell mRNA transcripts can remain in the cell for hours because they are A) stable. B) long. C) isolated. D) analogous.

A) stable.

Single-stranded complementary tails that are produced by restriction digestion are called ________ ends. A) sticky B) orphaned C) vectors D) 5'

A) sticky

All of the following are diseases caused by viruses except A) strep throat. B) AIDS. C) polio. D) small pox. E) measles.

A) strep throat.

The DNA-binding proteins of almost all regulatory proteins use one of a small set of shapes that enable them to fit into the DNA major groove. These shapes are called A) structural motifs. B) DNA prints. C) fingerprints. D) repressors. E) transcriptional domains.

A) structural motifs.

Conserved arrangements of segments of DNA in related genomes are referred to as A) synteny. B) homology. C) analogous DNA. D) a contig. E) a comparative genome.

A) synteny.

The primary significance of the 1000 Genomes Project is to A) take into account the variation in human genomes across populations. B) account for the inherent error rate of sequencing by including a greater sample size. C) identify the 1000 most important genes to human health. D) trace human ancestors back 1000 years.

A) take into account the variation in human genomes across populations.

The ends of chromosomes are called ________. A) telomeres B) centromeres C) caps D) DNA termini

A) telomeres

Choose the scientific evidence that supports evolutionary theory. Check all that apply. A) the fossil record B) homologous structures C) the molecular record D) intelligent design E) vestigial structures

A) the fossil record B) homologous structures C) the molecular record E) vestigial structures

A scientist is studying the lysogenic cycle of the lambda 1 phage of Escherichia coli. This means that she is investigating A) the integration and stabilizing of the lambda 1 phase into a host cell's genome. B) the integration of the bacteria's genome with the viral genome outside of the bacteria's cell wall. C) the integration of the viral genome into the ribosomes present in the bacteria to direct protein synthesis for the capsid formation. D) the integration and stabilizing of a virus into its capsid, which provides protection until conditions are better for reproduction.

A) the integration and stabilizing of the lambda 1 phase into a host cell's genome.

Certain proteins can bind to specific DNA regulatory sequences by entering A) the major groove of the DNA and reading the nucleotide base pairs. B) the minor groove of the DNA and reading the nucleotide base pairs. C) the major groove of RNA and reading the nucleotide base pairs. D) DNA's major groove by using DNA polymerase and reading the nucleotide base pairs. E) DNA's minor groove by using DNA polymerase and reading the nucleotide base pairs.

A) the major groove of the DNA and reading the nucleotide base pairs.

Progressive changes in the fossil record are evidence for evolution because A) they show descent with modification. B) they show inheritance of acquired characteristics. C) they show evolutionary change at the level of the individual. D) they show gaps in the fossil record.

A) they show descent with modification.

The eukaryotic transcription initiation complex is (check all that apply) A) transcription of virtually all genes transcribed by RNA pol II requiring the same suite of general factors. B) responsible for highly regulated transcription levels. C) only associated with RNA polymerase I. D) interactive with activators through DNA looping. E) a basal factor associated with RNA pol II after positioning RNA pol II at the start site.

A) transcription of virtually all genes transcribed by RNA pol II requiring the same suite of general factors. B) responsible for highly regulated transcription levels. D) interactive with activators through DNA looping.

As a microbiologist you have been asked to investigate the regulation of a novel gene in a bacterial species. Given what is known about bacteria, the logical place to begin your investigation is A) transcriptional regulation. B) translational regulation. C) alternative splicing regulation. D) regulation by enhancer elements. E) regulation by general transcription factors.

A) transcriptional regulation.

Examples of shapes in regulatory proteins that are used to bind to DNA include (check all that apply) A) zinc finger. B) TATA box. C) helix-turn-helix. D) leucine zipper. E) Doubledomain.

A) zinc finger. C) helix-turn-helix. D) leucine zipper.

Crop plants have been protected from certain insects by the addition of a gene for a specific insect toxin from the bacterium A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens. B) Bacillus thuringiensis. C) Herpes simplex. D) Pseudomonas. E) tobacco mosaic.

B) Bacillus thuringiensis.

Prior to using PCR to introduce mutations into DNA in vitro, what was a common method of mutagenesis used by scientists? A) Self-fertilization of plants or inbreeding of animal models B) Chemicals to induce mutations C) Physical manipulation of DNA (e.g. vortexing) D) Using only old parents to set crosses in plants and animals

B) Chemicals to induce mutations

Investigators have found a new species bacteria that lives under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions. They hypothesize that different genes are expressed in each condition. What experiment could test this hypothesis and identify important genes? A) Completely sequence the genome of the bacteria in both aerobic and anaerobic conditions B) Collect mRNA from both anaerobic and aerobic conditions and generate two cDNA libraries C) Measure levels of RNA Polymerase in both conditions D) Design primers to a specific region of the genome and sequence this region during both anaerobic and aerobic conditions

B) Collect mRNA from both anaerobic and aerobic conditions and generate two cDNA libraries

dicate which factors support the industrial melanism hypothesis. Check all that apply. A) Pollution inhibits the growth of dark colored lichen. B) Dark moths have greater camouflage on trees in polluted woodlands. C) Pollutants darken bark surfaces. D) Light moths have greater camouflage on trees in highly polluted woodlands.

B) Dark moths have greater camouflage on trees in polluted woodlands. C) Pollutants darken bark surfaces.

Evolution does not violate the second law of thermodynamics because A) evolution is a random process; it does not require an input of energy. B) Earth is not a closed system; it constantly receives an input of energy from the sun. C) living organisms are not subject to the second law. D) the disorder generated by extinction balances the order created by evolution.

B) Earth is not a closed system; it constantly receives an input of energy from the sun.

An example of an "emerging virus" (a virus in a new host) with a lethality rate in excess of 50% is A) influenza virus. B) Ebola virus. C) hepatitis B. D) variola virus. E) yellow fever.

B) Ebola virus.

The best technique for detecting chromosomal abnormalities is A) EST B) FISH C) STS D) SNP

B) FISH

Your city is considering a proposal to build a new algae-based biofuel plant. What benefits would this have over traditional fossil fuels? (check all that apply) A) The kelp fronds would provide habitat for endangered sea otters. B) It contributes less carbon to the atmosphere overall. C) It is a renewable resource. D) Biofuel doesn't need to be burned to provide energy. E) The system could be paired with wastewater treatment. F) The algae can be filtered from the water and used for fuel without refinement.

B) It contributes less carbon to the atmosphere overall. C) It is a renewable resource. E) The system could be paired with wastewater treatment.

How did the rice genome project influence other genome projects? A) It was the first genome sequenced, so it proved it could be done. B) It sped up the genome analysis of other cereal crops, due to synteny. C) It sped up the analysis of the human genome, since rice has even more genes. D) It helped analysis of all genomes, since it was the basis of the ENCODE algorithms.

B) It sped up the genome analysis of other cereal crops, due to synteny.

Which of the following were challenges that had to be overcome to sequence the genome of wheat, Triticum aestivum? (Select all that apply) A) Lack of advanced sequencing technology B) Large genome size (~5 times as large as human genome) C) High mutation rate of wheat genes D) Lack of interest/support in sequencing the genome E) An abundance of repetitive DNA

B) Large genome size (~5 times as large as human genome) E) An abundance of repetitive DNA

Which statement factors into artificial but not natural selection? A) Most organisms are capable of producing more offspring than typically survive. B) Phenotypic variation of a species has variable appeal to humans interested in that species. C) Phenotypic variation exists within populations. D) Phenotypic variation can influence reproductive success. E) Phenotypic variation within a species is due in part to inherited characteristics.

B) Phenotypic variation of a species has variable appeal to humans interested in that species.

In order for transcription to be initiated A) DNA polymerase must have access to the DNA double helix and must also be capable of binding to the gene's promoter. B) RNA polymerase must have access to the DNA double helix and must also be capable of binding to the gene's promoter. C) DNA polymerase must have access to the RNA and must also be capable of binding to the gene's promoter. D) RNA ligase must have access to the DNA double helix and must also be capable of binding to the gene's promoter. E) RNA polymerase must have access to the DNA double helix and also must be capable of binding to the gene's operator.

B) RNA polymerase must have access to the DNA double helix and must also be capable of binding to the gene's promoter.

The direction of genetic information transfer in a retrovirus (such as HIV) is A) DNA to mRNA to protein. B) RNA to DNA to mRNA to protein. C) DNA to protein. D) RNA to mRNA to protein. E) RNA to protein.

B) RNA to DNA to mRNA to protein.

Every cell within one organism has the same genome. In what way(s) can these cells differ from each other? (Select all that apply) A) Number of chromosomes B) Ratio of organelles C) Proteins produced D) Number of genes in the DNA E) Surface area of cell membrane

B) Ratio of organelles C) Proteins produced D) Number of genes in the DNA

Select the statements that provide direct biogeographical evidence for evolutionary theory. Check all that apply. A) Unrelated organisms from similar habitats exhibit similar characters. B) Terrestrial mammals are not found naturally on any island greater than 300 miles from a mainland. C) Organisms on islands are most similar to organisms on the nearby mainland, even when habitats on the mainland and island are quite different. D) Invasive rats have colonized more than 80% of the world's islands.

B) Terrestrial mammals are not found naturally on any island greater than 300 miles from a mainland. C) Organisms on islands are most similar to organisms on the nearby mainland, even when habitats on the mainland and island are quite different.

Imagine that a very unusual animal species had the ability to make its own aromatic amino acids using a 5-enolpyruvylshikimate-3-phosphate (EPSP) synthase enzyme similar to that of plants. What would happen if this animal foraged in a field of glyphosate-resistant plants? A) No effect B) They would become sick from the glyphosate that was sprayed on the plants C) They would also become glyphosate-resistant D) They would no longer need to make their own aromatic amino acids

B) They would become sick from the glyphosate that was sprayed on the plants

In eukaryotes, specific transcription factors have two distinct domains: A) a DNA-binding domain and a RNA-binding domain. B) a DNA-binding domain and an activation domain. C) a DNA-binding domain and a repressor domain. D) a DNA-binding domain and an enhancer domain. E) a DNA-binding domain and an operator domain.

B) a DNA-binding domain and an activation domain.

Domestication of dogs has led to A) a variety of homologous structures. B) a variety of phenotypes. C) a variety of mutations. D) a variety of reproductively isolated breeds. E) a variety of different species.

B) a variety of phenotypes.

Mollusk eyes and vertebrate eyes are A) analogous structures, because they arise from the same structures during development. B) analogous structures, because they have the same function but derive from different common ancestors. C) homologous structures, because they have different functions. D) homologous structures, because they are derived from the same common ancestor.

B) analogous structures, because they have the same function but derive from different common ancestors.

The evolution of similar forms in different lineages when exposed to the same selective pressures is A) called divergence. B) called convergence. C) referred to as successive homologies. D) referred to as descent. E) also known as natural selection.

B) called convergence.

The sequencing method that cuts DNA segments into fragments, arranges those fragments based on overlapping nucleotide sequences, and then clones these fragments is called A) shotgun sequencing. B) clone-by-clone sequencing. C) RFLP sequencing. D) consensus sequencing.

B) clone-by-clone sequencing.

Which of the following features of ancient horses are adaptations for living on open grasslands? Check all that apply. A) multiple toes that increased flexibility B) complex patterns of ridges on molar and premolars that increased chewing ability C) lengthening of limbs that increased running speed over long distances D) decrease in body size that increased agility in confined spaces

B) complex patterns of ridges on molar and premolars that increased chewing ability C) lengthening of limbs that increased running speed over long distances

The most common way to follow bacterial transformation with a plasmid is by A) manufacturing the bacterial protein. B) conferring antibiotic resistance. C) separating the altered cell surface. D) making the cells immortal. E) altering the physical appearance of the cells.

B) conferring antibiotic resistance.

You lead a research team challenged with the task of creating a regulatory protein able to shut off transcription of a particular gene. You focus your design around a binding site called an operator that is associated with the promotor. The physical location of the operator most likely to affect transcription would be A) upstream of the gene promoter. B) downstream of the gene promoter. C) internal to the gene itself. D) internal to the gene promoter.

B) downstream of the gene promoter.

The relative location of genes on a chromosome as determined by recombination frequencies is illustrated in a ________ map. A) DNA B) genetic C) chromosomal D) physical

B) genetic

HIV infects cells by recognizing the cell-surface markers with its own A) DNA. B) glycoproteins. C) reverse transcriptase. D) capsid protein. E) enzymes.

B) glycoproteins.

10) A defining characteristic of eukaryotic organisms is that they A) have their transcription occurring in the cytoplasm and translation in the nucleus. B) have their transcription occurring in the nucleus and translation in the cytoplasm. C) have only operons to assist in gene expression. D) carry out protein synthesis only in the presence of the cAMP molecule. E) use the leucine zipper primarily for the production of the amino acid tryptophan.

B) have their transcription occurring in the nucleus and translation in the cytoplasm.

The maintenance of a constant environment in a cell is called ________. A) active transport B) homeostasis C) gene expression D) translation

B) homeostasis

All vertebrates contain a similar pattern of organs, indicating that they are related to one another. This represents which of the following lines of evolutionary evidence? A) fossil record B) homology C) convergent evolution D) biogeography E) development

B) homology

The organism with the largest relative genome size is A) rice. B) human. C) fruit fly. D) yeast.

B) human.

The switch from a lysogenic prophage to a lytic cycle is called A) transformation. B) induction. C) latency. D) phage conversion. E) injection.

B) induction.

The HIV virus is considered a(n) ________ virus, because after getting integrated into the host cell chromosomes, it does not begin replicating immediately. A) phage B) latent C) transforming D) benign E) inducible

B) latent

The current estimates of the ENCODE project for percent functionality of the human genome based on the ENCODE definition of functionality is ________ the estimate of functionality based on the selected-effect functionality definition. A) greater than B) less than C) equal to

B) less than

Two strands of DNA that have been cut by an endonuclease can be sealed together by a(n) A) polymerase enzyme. B) ligase enzyme. C) exonuclease enzyme. D) protease enzyme. E) methylase enzyme.

B) ligase enzyme.

Natural selection has favored the dark form of the peppered moth in areas subject to severe air pollution, perhaps because on darkened trees, moth-eating birds see them less easily. As pollution abated, the light forms increased in the population because A) light moths had lower fitness than dark moths. B) light moths were able to produce more offspring than dark moths. C) light moths were more genetically variable than dark moths. D) birds ate more light moths.

B) light moths were able to produce more offspring than dark moths.

You have been asked to design a synthetic DNA motif, able to bind transcriptional regulatory proteins. The location on this motif that you will design for protein binding is the A) minor groove of the DNA double helix. B) major groove of the DNA double helix. C) phosphate backbone of the DNA double helix. D) sugar backbone of the DNA double helix. E) available hydrogen-bonds of bases in single-stranded DNA.

B) major groove of the DNA double helix.

The most precise method of obtaining estimates of the absolute ages of geological deposits is A) measure rates of sedimentary rock formation. B) measure the ratios of various radioactive isotopes in the deposits. C) apply the principle of superposition (younger deposits above older deposits). D) make salinity measurements in ocean sediment deposits. E) study the sequence of fossil types in the deposits.

B) measure the ratios of various radioactive isotopes in the deposits.

The enzyme dicer chops dsRNA molecules into small pieces of A) mRNA and miRNA. B) miRNA and siRNA. C) siRNA and rRNA. D) mRNA and siRNA.

B) miRNA and siRNA.

The majority of DNA in a human can be described as A) composed of short interspersed elements. B) noncoding. C) simple sequence repeats. D) segmental duplications. E) structural.

B) noncoding.

Histones that are tightly wound by DNA and are the basic unit of chromatin are called A) operons. B) nucleosomes. C) protein clusters. D) repressor genes. E) facilitators sites.

B) nucleosomes.

Small circular, extrachromosomal DNA segments are known as ________. A) vectors B) plasmids C) clones D) RNA

B) plasmids

The basic tool of genetic regulation is the ability of certain proteins to bind to specific A) regulatory RNA sequences. B) regulatory DNA sequences. C) repressor parts of the gene. D) promoter parts of the gene. E) enzymes of the cell.

B) regulatory DNA sequences.

The p300/CBP (CREB-binding protein) proteins are histone acetyltransferases that help regulate the transcription of many genes. Based on this information you can conclude that these proteins A) acetylate purines. B) remodel chromatin. C) recruit helicases. D) physically connect activator proteins.

B) remodel chromatin.

A protein that regulates transcription by binding to the operator is known as the A) operon. B) repressor. C) promoter. D) operator. E) CAP.

B) repressor.

An enzyme that has been isolated from retroviruses and is used to generate cDNA is A) transverse ligase. B) reverse transcriptase. C) reverse endonuclease. D) recombinant RNase. E) RNA polymerase.

B) reverse transcriptase.

You digest DNA from the frog Xenopus laevis with the enzyme NotI that produces sticky DNA ends. You can ligate your DNA to A) blunt AluI ends from Xenopus laevis. B) sticky NotI ends from Xenopus laevis. C) blunt AluI ends from bacteria. D) sticky NotI ends from bacteria. E) sticky EcoRI ends from Xenopus laevis. F) sticky EcoRI ends from bacteria.

B) sticky NotI ends from Xenopus laevis. D) sticky NotI ends from bacteria.

Homologous structures are A) structures of animals that appear to have evolved from different parts of their bodies. B) structures of animals that have different appearances and functions but seem to have evolved from the same body part in a common ancestor. C) structures of animals that have the same appearances and functions but obviously no common ancestor. D) structures of animals that have different appearances and functions but different ancestors.

B) structures of animals that have different appearances and functions but seem to have evolved from the same body part in a common ancestor.

When you compare Australian marsupials to placental mammals today A) the marsupials are all very primitive, having changed very little during the last 70 million years. B) the marsupials are very similar to placental mammals in the ways they have adapted to similar ecological niches. C) the marsupials have evolved much more rapidly than placental mammals and are more highly adapted. D) the marsupial fossils look remarkably similar to the placental mammals of today. E) living marsupials are little changed from the earliest marsupial fossil forms.

B) the marsupials are very similar to placental mammals in the ways they have adapted to similar ecological niches.

Scientists have demonstrated that the cholera bacteria, Vibrio cholerae, can exist as a rather harmless form or, by phage conversion, can exist as a disease-causing, virulent form. This conversion is caused by A) the phage entering the cholera bacterium genome and causing the bacterium's cell to lyse. B) the phage introducing a gene into the bacterium's chromosome that codes for the cholera toxin that can cause death in humans. C) the phage altering the cell wall of the cholera bacterium that produces a toxin that can cause death in humans. D) the phage alters the host cell, which permits direct entry of the cholera bacterium into the host cell leading to death in humans.

B) the phage introducing a gene into the bacterium's chromosome that codes for the cholera toxin that can cause death in humans.

The most likely explanation for why toothed whales have a blowhole is A) they evolved from an animal with gills. B) they evolved from an animal with nostrils. C) blowholes are better for large animals. D) blowholes are better for breathing underwater than gills are.

B) they evolved from an animal with nostrils.

Production of the iron-storing protein ferritin is regulated by aconitase, which binds to a 30-nucleotide sequence at the beginning of the ferritin mRNA and interferes with ribosome binding. Aconitase must be a A) transcription repressor protein. B) translation repressor protein. C) RNA interference protein. D) translation initiation protein.

B) translation repressor protein.

Mobile bits of DNA that can jump from one location on a chromosome to another location are called A) simple sequence repeats. B) transposons. C) exons. D) introns. E) pseudogenes.

B) transposons.

Bacterial plasmids and artificial chromosomes are used as ________ to insert foreign DNA into host cells and create recombinant genomes. A) clones B) vectors C) endonucleases D) subunits

B) vectors

A 6.85 kb EcoRI fragment of DNA is shown below. The location of several restriction sites is indicated. Scale is approximate. If you were to completely digest this fragment of DNA with PstI, how many pieces of DNA would you obtain? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

C) 3

A rock contains 18 mg of the radioactive isotope carbon-14. The half-life of carbon-14 is 5,600 years. How many half-lives and years will it take before the carbon-14 decays to less than 4 mg? A) 1 half-lives; 5,600 years B) 2 half-lives; 11,200 years C) 3 half-lives; 16,800 years D) 4 half-lives; 22,400 years E) 9 half-lives; 50,400 years

C) 3 half-lives; 16,800 years

BamHI is a Type II restriction enzyme that recognizes the sequence 5' G*GATCC 3', and cuts between the two Gs, leaving a 5' overhang. If you were to digest DNA with BamHI, what would be the sequence of the overhanging sticky ends of the two strands? A) 5' GATCC 3' and 5' GATCC 3' B) 5' GATCC 3' and 5' GGATC 3' C) 5' GATC 3' and 5' GATC 3' D) 5' GATC 3' and 5' CTAG 3' E) 5' G 3' and 5' G 3' F) 5' G 3' and 5' C 3'

C) 5' GATC 3' and 5' GATC 3'

What best describes whether a virus is likely to infect a particular cell? A) Viruses infect the first cells they encounter. B) If a host cell is weakened, viruses are likely to infect it. C) A virus will only infect host cells with the correct surface receptors. D) Viruses only attack epithelial cells, such as the cells lining the lungs. E) The initial choice is random but once a cell type is chosen it becomes the preferred host.

C) A virus will only infect host cells with the correct surface receptors.

A key difference between transforming plant cells and human cells is A) genes to be expressed in human cells require a eukaryotic promoter, and genes to be expressed in plants don't. B) DNA cannot be introduced into human cells. C) Agrobacterium is commonly used as a tool to directly transform plant cells but not human cells. D) a vector is needed to introduce DNA into human cells and not plant cells.

C) Agrobacterium is commonly used as a tool to directly transform plant cells but not human cells.

Comparing the evolution of domesticated dogs to the evolution of wolves over the same time period illustrates what relationship between artificial and natural selection? A) Artificial selection is slower than natural selection. B) Artificial selection is reversible; natural selection is not. C) Artificial selection is more likely to produce maladaptive structures than natural selection. D) Artificial selection cannot produce changes as large as changes produced by natural selection. E) In artificial selection, the magnitude of the selection pressure can be varied; in natural selection, it cannot.

C) Artificial selection is more likely to produce maladaptive structures than natural selection.

An insecticidal protein has been discovered in a bacterium known as A) Escherichia coli. B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens. C) Bacillus thuringiensis. D) Aspergillus sp.

C) Bacillus thuringiensis.

Which statement best describes the correlation between beak depths and the dryness of the environment? A) Birds with large beaks are favored during wet years. B) Birds with small beaks are favored in dry years. C) Birds with large beaks are favored during dry years. D) Birds with either size beak (large or small) are favored equally.

C) Birds with large beaks are favored during dry years.

You are studying the effects of specific transcription factors on the activation of gene expression. You notice that one particular transcription factor binds far away from the promoter of its target gene. What can explain this? A) The transcription factor transcribes small RNAs that then bind to the promoter and activate the gene's expression. B) The transcription factor tags the enhancer with ubiquitin to stimulate transcription. C) DNA looping brings the transcription factor closer to the promoter and initiates gene transcription. D) RNA looping brings the transcription factor closer to the promoter and initiates gene transcription.

C) DNA looping brings the transcription factor closer to the promoter and initiates gene transcription.

The PCR technique requires a DNA polymerase from an organism that can endure high heat, such as Thermus aquaticus. What step of the protocol makes the heat-stability most necessary? A) Synthesis B) Primer annealing C) Denaturation D) Antibody binding

C) Denaturation

The figure below shows the relationship between beak depth in the medium ground finch on Daphne Major and relative fitness. Assuming that beak depth is heritable, what do you predict about beak depth in the next generation?

C) Mean beak depth will stay about the same.

Check all of the correct statements regarding the use of metagenomics to describe viral diversity. A) Most samples are obtained from animals and plants. B) During sample collection, the actual virus needs to be isolated for analysis. C) Metagenomics has identified thousands of new viral species. D) Samples with the viruses are first analyzed by PCR.

C) Metagenomics has identified thousands of new viral species. D) Samples with the viruses are first analyzed by PCR.

A fourth type of restriction enzyme is identified that cleaves at precise locations like a type II enzyme, but it also occasionally makes mistakes and cuts elsewhere. Would this type of enzyme be a useful enzyme to use in molecular cloning? A) Yes, because it cuts correctly sometimes. B) No, because it is a precise enzyme. C) No, because cutting mistakes could lead to incorrect cloning. D) Yes, because cutting mistakes don't matter in molecular cloning.

C) No, because cutting mistakes could lead to incorrect cloning.

A doctor's office has run out of the latest flu vaccine, but many patients are asking for it. One of the nurses finds some vials from last year's batch in a refrigerator. Should they be used? A) Yes, because the preservatives and refrigeration ensure that the vaccine is still fresh. B) No, because each year the technology to make a good vaccine improves. C) No, because each year the vaccine is made against different subtypes of the flu virus. D) Maybe - the vaccine should be mixed in a test tube with the virus to see if it still inactivates it.

C) No, because each year the vaccine is made against different subtypes of the flu virus.

Which class of drugs would be effective against HIV but not against most other pathogenic viruses? A) Nucleotide analogs that halt replication. B) Receptor antagonists that block viral entry. C) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors that block reverse transcription. D) Translation inhibitors that stop assembly of viral proteins.

C) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors that block reverse transcription.

A technique used to amplify a desired piece of DNA is A) gel electrophoresis. B) RFLP. C) PCR. D) plasmid replication. E) Northern Blot.

C) PCR.

You have discovered a very small amount of DNA from an ancient organism that you want to save and study. What is the very first thing you should do to allow you to study this DNA in the lab? A) RT-PCR B) Gel electrophoresis C) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) D) Insert the DNA into a vector

C) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

Integrase inhibitors work by: A) Agglutinating the reverse transcriptase inhibitors B) Degrading the viral envelope C) Preventing the incorporation of the viral DNA into the genome D) Blocking the final viral assembly

C) Preventing the incorporation of the viral DNA into the genome

The gene encoding apolipoprotein B exists in two isoforms, APOB100 and APOB48. These two forms are produced as a result of A) tissue-specific expression. B) a gene mutation that results in a stop codon. C) RNA editing. D) alternative splicing.

C) RNA editing.

Which of the following is a virus with an icosahedral head, a capsid that contains primarily three proteins, a connecting neck with a collar and long whiskers, a long tail and a complex base plate? A) influenza virus B) measles virus C) T4 bacteriophage D) HIV E) tuberculosis

C) T4 bacteriophage

Many factors bind around the core promoter to form the eukaryotic initiation complex, but the most important one is ________, which directly binds the TATA box. A) TFIIA B) TFIIB C) TFIID D) TFIIE E) TFIIF F) TFIIH G) TAF

C) TFIID

Identify a sequence that is most likely to be recognized by a restriction enzyme. A) CGATGC B) CCCTTT C) TGGCCA D) TCATCA

C) TGGCCA

If a strain of bacteria had a mutation that blocked expression of the lac repressor, what would you expect as a result? A) The mutant strain would outcompete wildype strains, since it could always utilize lactose. B) The mutant strain would grow at the same rate as wildtype if lactose was not present. C) The mutant strain would waste energy producing enzymes in the absence of lactose. D) The mutant strain would act the same, because it would still require lac activator protein to turn on.

C) The mutant strain would waste energy producing enzymes in the absence of lactose.

A mutation in the gene encoding the integrase enzyme renders the protein non-functional. How would this affect-the HIV infection cycle? A) The gp120 glycoprotein would not be able to bind the CCR5 receptor. B) Reverse transcription would not be possible. C) The viral DNA would not be able to integrate the viral genome into a chromosome. D) Cutting and assembling the capsid would be halted.

C) The viral DNA would not be able to integrate the viral genome into a chromosome.

Once a prophage is present in a bacterial genome, viral genes are reproduced every time the bacterium multiplies. Expression of viral genes, however, is inhibited by a repressor protein. Cell stress can induce the formation of proteases that degrade the repressor. What will result? A) The virus will enter the lysogenic cycle. B) The bacterium will reject the viral genes. C) The virus will enter the lytic cycle. D) The bacterial genome will be denatured.

C) The virus will enter the lytic cycle.

As a scientist working for an anti-bioterrorism task force, you are asked to evaluate some biological samples for the presence of Yersinia pestis, the organism that causes the plague. After confirming that the samples do contain Y. pestis, you instruct your team to begin sequencing the strain. Since the genome sequence of Y. pestis is already known, why would sequencing this strain be useful? A) To provide better data for the genome database B) To establish the course of infection, and determine whether the strain is altered by causing infection C) To help determine the source of the strain, and learn whether it has been genetically engineered D) To create a vaccine for this particular strain

C) To help determine the source of the strain, and learn whether it has been genetically engineered

Which of the following statements about TSEs (transmissible spongiform encephalopathies) is false? A) TSEs include scrapie in sheep, mad cow disease, chronic wasting disease in deer and elk, and kuru and variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans. B) The incidence of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans increased after an outbreak of mad cow disease in England, suggesting that mad cow disease may be transmitted to humans. C) Viroids are the likely cause of TSEs. D) TSEs do not seem to be affected by treatments that would eliminate nucleic acid-based diseases. E) Infectious TSE preparations do not seem to contain DNA or RNA.

C) Viroids are the likely cause of TSEs.

A scientist studying evolution of peppered moths (Biston betularia) in Michigan observed that the percentage of melanic moths increased by around 2% from 1960-1961. Has evolution occurred in this population? A) No, because melanism wasn't adaptive at that time. B) No, because the frequency of the melanic moths did not change enough to be considered evolution. C) Yes, because the frequency of the melanic moths in the population changed over time. D) Yes, because the frequency of melanic moths decreased.

C) Yes, because the frequency of the melanic moths in the population changed over time.

The primary transcripts in eukaryotes are most accurately described as A) composed of RNA polymerase and associated histones. B) having the exons removed and the introns retained for translation. C) a faithful copy of the entire gene including exons and introns. D) an exact copy of the gene, but the introns have been removed. E) an RNA copy, but the noncoding exons and introns have been removed.

C) a faithful copy of the entire gene including exons and introns.

If you were able to look very closely at a portion of DNA and find methylated histones, you would A) be mistaken since only DNA can be methylated, not histones. B) be looking at a region of active chromatin. C) be looking at a region of inactive chromatin. D) be looking at a chromatin remodeling complex.

C) be looking at a region of inactive chromatin.

Viruses are characterized by all of the following except A) being found in every organism investigated so far. B) being specific to the hosts they infect. C) being capable of independent reproduction. D) being acellular.

C) being capable of independent reproduction.

Today, the fossil record A) can be dated only in terms of how layers relate to each other (i.e. older layers are below younger layers); no actual dates can be estimated. B) can be dated reasonably well only with uranium-238. C) can be dated reasonably well using a variety of radioactive isotopes with known half-lives. D) can be dated precisely, to within a single year, using radioactive isotopes. E) can be dated precisely, to within a single year, using DNA hybridization.

C) can be dated reasonably well using a variety of radioactive isotopes with known half-lives.

Virulent viruses multiply within infected cells and eventually A) cause an alternation of generations in the host cell, releasing new viruses. B) cause the transformation of the host cell, releasing new viruses. C) cause lysis of the host cell, releasing new viruses. D) cause the transduction of the host cell, releasing new viruses. E) cause a transfer of material from the host cell, releasing new viruses.

C) cause lysis of the host cell, releasing new viruses.

The marsupials in Australia closely resemble the placental animals of the rest of the world. This is an example of A) the fossil record. B) homology. C) convergent evolution. D) biogeography. E) development.

C) convergent evolution.

The observation that different geographical areas sometimes exhibit plant and animal communities of similar appearance, even though the individual plants and animals are not closely related, is called A) the fossil record. B) homology. C) convergent evolution. D) divergent evolution. E) adaptation.

C) convergent evolution.

DNA methylation is the only known natural modification of DNA. It affects A) adenine bases. B) guanine bases. C) cytosine bases. D) thymine bases.

C) cytosine bases.

Industrial melanism is a term A) describing the color change induced by living in industrialized areas. B) explaining that the darker moths have higher mutation rates because of industrialization. C) describing the evolutionary process in which initially light-colored organisms become dark as a result of natural selection. D) explaining that the darker moths having higher reproductive success because of their pigmentation. E) describing the widespread implementation of pollution controls.

C) describing the evolutionary process in which initially light-colored organisms become dark as a result of natural selection.

Nearly all viruses are constructed of A) DNA with a protein wrapping, called a capsid. B) RNA with a protein wrapping, called a capsid. C) either DNA or RNA with a protein wrapping, called a capsid. D) either DNA or RNA, however many do not have the capsid.

C) either DNA or RNA with a protein wrapping, called a capsid.

18) Gel ________ is a process that separates DNA or protein fragments according to their size, by causing them to migrate within a gel in response to an electric field. A) duplication B) blotting C) electrophoresis D) migration

C) electrophoresis

Restriction enzymes are A) proteases. B) lipases. C) endonucleases. D) exonucleases.

C) endonucleases.

A layer of lipoprotein and glycoprotein that covers the outer surface of some viruses is the A) capsid. B) casing. C) envelope. D) membrane. E) viroid.

C) envelope.

Through control of gene expression, a bacterial cell responds to changing ________ conditions. A) internal B) protein C) environmental D) genetic

C) environmental

A human gene is composed of numerous fragments of protein-encoding information known as ________. A) DNA B) mRNA C) exons D) introns

C) exons

Which one of the following features of Archaeopteryx clearly demonstrates that it was on the evolutionary line leading from dinosaurs to birds? A) egg-laying ability B) teeth C) feathers D) bony tail E) claws on forelimbs

C) feathers

In order for the scientists to artificially select Drosophila for their number of bristles, A) they had to induce mutations into their populations of Drosophila. B) they had to study the population for millions of years. C) genetic variation had to be present in the population. D) dramatic mutations had to be produced by the selection. E) the number of bristles in each Drosophila had to be random.

C) genetic variation had to be present in the population.

The main form of glucose repression in the lac operon is A) induction. B) repression. C) inducer exclusion. D) the CAP/cAMP system.

C) inducer exclusion.

All of the following are part of phage conversion except A) injection of phage gene into host. B) transcription and translation of phage gene. C) induction of phage. D) expression of phage gene by host. E) integration of phage gene to form a prophage.

C) induction of phage.

The proteins necessary for the use of lactose in E. coli are collectively called the A) lac regulator. B) lac suppressor. C) lac operon. D) lac promoter. E) lac transcriptional operator.

C) lac operon.

If a virus enters the lytic phase in a host's cell, it will cause the host cell to A) reject the virus. B) shrink because of the loss of cytoplasm that has been used in the synthesis of viral DNA. C) lyse due to the action of enzymes. D) replicate itself at a higher than normal frequency. E) initiate an attack on the virus.

C) lyse due to the action of enzymes.

The hallmark of multicellular organisms is their ability to A) grow and divide rapidly. B) adjust quickly to outside environment. C) maintain homeostasis. D) quickly synthesize amount and type of enzymes according to available nutrients. E) respond by gene action to oxygen availability.

C) maintain homeostasis.

Vertebrate cells possess a protein that binds to clusters of 5-methylcytosine and ensures the gene will stay in the "off" position. This control of gene regulation is a result of A) translation. B) enhancer expression. C) methylation. D) promoter expression. E) operator suppression.

C) methylation.

Using actual landmarks within DNA sequences, scientists can generate a ________ map. A) genetic B) DNA C) physical D) chromosomal

C) physical

You are working to identify enhancer regions of a particular gene. The best place to look is A) immediately upstream of the promoter. B) immediately downstream of the promoter. C) primarily upstream of the promoter, possibly some distance away. D) primarily downstream of the promoter, including the exons of the coding region.

C) primarily upstream of the promoter, possibly some distance away.

A site at the 5' end of a gene where RNA polymerase attaches to initiate transcription is called a(n) A) operon. B) repressor. C) promoter. D) operator. E) CAP.

C) promoter.

A technique used in dating a rock can be used to accurately predict the age of the fossils occurring in the rocks. This technique involves A) fossil dating. B) successive rock layering. C) radioactive isotope decay. D) structural geology. E) developmental geology.

C) radioactive isotope decay.

Enzymes that cleave DNA at specific sites are called ________. A) vectors B) peptidases C) restriction endonucleases D) DNAses

C) restriction endonucleases

To avoid confusion and facilitate ease of data interpretation, researchers working on cloned DNA from the same species use A) restriction fragment length polymorphisms. B) shotgun sequencing. C) sequenced-tagged sites. D) clone by clone sequencing. E) consensus sequencing.

C) sequenced-tagged sites.

Identical copies of genes that can be transcribed simultaneously are called A) segmental duplications. B) pseudogenes. C) tandem clusters. D) multigene families. E) expressed sequences.

C) tandem clusters.

Viruses that become established as stable parts of the host cell genome are called A) lethal. B) potent. C) temperate. D) virulent.

C) temperate.

The enormous genetic diversity of HIV has made it especially difficult to create a vaccine against the virus. We can attribute this genetic diversity to A) mutation hotspots in the hemagglutinin (H) molecule. B) mutation hotspots in the CD4+ molecule. C) the high error rate of reverse transcriptase. D) the high sensitivity of the virus to UV radiation.

C) the high error rate of reverse transcriptase.

Your research group has recently determined the complete genomic sequence of the organism Examus biologisium. You instruct your group to begin sequence annotation, which involves A) shotgun cloning. B) the alignment of contigs. C) the identification of open reading frames. D) the construction of a genetic map.

C) the identification of open reading frames.

The streamlined bodies seen in sharks, tuna, and dolphins best relate to A) a recent shared common ancestor. B) dissimilar selection pressures. C) the physical properties of water. D) the need to escape fast-moving predators. E) intelligent design.

C) the physical properties of water.

You work for a pharmaceutical company that designs small RNAs, used to control expression of disease genes. The primary focus area of your research should be A) transcriptional repression. B) transcriptional activation. C) translational repression. D) translational activation.

C) translational repression.

The side toes of a horse, the pelvis of the whale, and the human appendix are all examples of structures that resemble structures of presumed ancestors, which are known as A) analogous structures. B) homologous structures. C) vestigial structures. D) homeotic mutations. E) acquired structures.

C) vestigial structures.

The half-life of carbon-14 is 5,600 years. A fossil that has one-eighth the normal proportion of carbon-14 to carbon-12 is probably A) 2,800 years old. B) 5,600 years old. C) 11,200 years old. D) 16,800 years old. E) 22,400 years old.

D) 16,800 years old.

Humans are diploid organisms, containing two sets of chromosomes. How many sets of chromosomes does wheat, Triticum aestivum, have? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 E) 8

D) 6

Given a sequencing reaction length of approximately 500 successive nucleotides, what is the absolute minimum number of sequencing reactions needed to determine the complete human genome, excluding overlap and redundancy? A) 3.1 billion B) 6200 C) 12.4 million D) 6.2 million

D) 6.2 million

Within its core a nucleosome contains ________ histones. A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 64

D) 8

Your research project involves the characterization of a recently identified transcription factor. As part of your project, you want to determine if this transcription factor binds directly to any of the general transcription factors. Unfortunately, you are having trouble expressing the full-length protein. What approach may help achieve your research goal? A) You must find a way to express the full-length protein, since transcription factor functions do not lie in separate domains. B) Identify the RNA that mediates the protein-protein binding. C) Express and purify only the DNA-binding domain, and test for binding. D) Express and purify only the activation domain, and test for binding.

D) Express and purify only the activation domain, and test for binding.

Gardasil is marketed as a cervical cancer vaccine, but it is actually a human papilloma virus (HPV) vaccine. Why is this done? A) The virus multiplies more rapidly in cancerous cells. B) Cancer cells are particularly susceptible to viral infection. C) Genital warts is a sign of cancer. D) HPV in the cervical epithelial cells may cause the cells to become cancerous.

D) HPV in the cervical epithelial cells may cause the cells to become cancerous.

Radioactive isotopes are used in dating materials from the distant past. Which of the following statements about radioactive dating techniques is true? A) It gives the general ages of rock strata. (±1 million years). B) It gives exact ages of rock strata. (± 1 year). C) It uses a technique in which the degree of radioactive decay is measured, the younger the rock the more radioactive decay. D) It uses a technique in which the degree of radioactive decay is measured, the older the rock the more radioactive decay. E) It does not work well with fossil remains that have not absorbed radiation.

D) It uses a technique in which the degree of radioactive decay is measured, the older the rock the more radioactive decay.

Considerably more phenotypic variation exists in domesticated varieties of species like dogs and cabbages than exists in non-domesticated species like lions and maple trees. Which one of the following statements best explains why this is true? A) There is no selection and mating is random under domestication. B) During domestication, very high rates of mutation are induced. C) Genetic drift is important because domestication involves small populations. D) Many domesticated varieties would not survive in the natural world. E) Domesticated species exhibit "hybrid vigor" (heterosis).

D) Many domesticated varieties would not survive in the natural world.

Can a virus be killed? A) Yes, destroying its genome kills it. B) No, viruses are capable of self-assembly and cannot be permanently killed. C) Yes, separating the genes from the capsid kills it. D) No, viruses are nonliving and cannot die.

D) No, viruses are nonliving and cannot die.

Which of the following types of information would be most useful in an effort to move a DNA fragment from one plasmid vector to another, using molecular cloning techniques? A) DNA fingerprint data B) Sequence of PCR primers C) Data from cloning of Dolly the sheep D) Restriction maps of the plasmids

D) Restriction maps of the plasmids

Diseases such as scrapie in sheep, "mad cow" disease in cattle, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans are known as A) viroids. B) viruses. C) retroviruses. D) TSEs (transmissible spongiform encephalopathies). E) emerging viruses, for example Ebola.

D) TSEs (transmissible spongiform encephalopathies).

The ________ from Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used in genetic engineering involving crop plant genes. A) restriction endonucleases B) DNA C) Ti vector D) Ti plasmid

D) Ti plasmid

The pair of traits that best illustrates convergent evolution is A) an elephant's tusks and a beaver's teeth. B) a lizard's arm and a bird's wing. C) a dragonfly's wing and a butterfly's wing. D) a cartilage skeleton in a shark and a bone skeleton in a dolphin.

D) a cartilage skeleton in a shark and a bone skeleton in a dolphin.

Inhabitants of oceanic islands resemble forms of the nearest mainland but show some differences. This is an example of A) the fossil record. B) homology. C) convergent evolution. D) biogeography. E) development.

D) biogeography.

Distances on a genetic map are measured in ________ units. A) centromere B) DNA C) dalton D) centimorgan

D) centimorgan

Some of the most dramatic evidence for evolution has come from human agriculture. One of the most highly artificially selected crop plants is A) peas. B) tomatoes. C) potatoes. D) corn. E) asparagus.

D) corn.

All of the following involve molecular biology techniques except A) ligating DNA fragments together. B) using restriction enzymes to cut specific sequences of DNA. C) using a DNA polymerase to copy DNA via PCR. D) creation of Okazaki fragments.

D) creation of Okazaki fragments.

Convergent evolution occurs when two species living in A) the same area become reproductively isolated. B) different areas become reestablished and are able to reproduce. C) the same area are competing for the same resource thus causing one to evolve away from the other. D) different areas evolve similarities through natural selection acting on those characteristics.

D) different areas evolve similarities through natural selection acting on those characteristics.

One of the DNA-binding motifs in many eukaryotic organisms that contains a nearly identical sequence of 60 amino acids is known as the A) nonhelical zipper. B) leucine zipper. C) zinc finger. D) homeodomain. E) helix-turn-helix.

D) homeodomain.

A commercially significant human protein now produced in bacteria is A) hemoglobin. B) gamma globulins. C) AZT. D) human insulin. E) HIV vaccine.

D) human insulin.

The ENCODE project seeks to A) sequence the genomes of all animals. B) sequence the DNA of all organisms. C) identify the coding sequences of human DNA. D) identify the functional elements of the human genome. E) identify the proteins encoded by the human genome.

D) identify the functional elements of the human genome.

The infection cycle of HIV includes all of the following steps except A) attachment. B) entry. C) replication. D) immediately killing the host cell. E) viral DNA integrates into the host chromosome.

D) immediately killing the host cell.

Prions are A) strands of nucleic acids encased in a protein coat. B) viral nucleic acids integrated into the host chromosomes. C) viral-infected cells. D) infectious proteins with no associated nucleic acid. E) proteins coded by genes.

D) infectious proteins with no associated nucleic acid.

Groups of related, but distinctly different genes that appear to have arisen from a single ancestral gene are referred to as A) segmental duplications. B) pseudogenes. C) tandem clusters. D) multigene families. E) expressed sequences.

D) multigene families.

A site of negative genetic regulation where binding by repressor blocks transcription is the A) operon. B) repressor. C) promoter. D) operator. E) CAP.

D) operator.

Recently a class of infectious proteins with no associated nucleic acid have been identified. They are referred to as A) bacteriophages. B) latent viruses. C) viroids. D) prions. E) virions.

D) prions.

In multicellular organisms, the mechanism most directly responsible for directing development and maintaining homeostasis is gene A) mutation. B) duplication. C) deletion. D) regulation.

D) regulation.

While they are simple relative to cells, viruses often have a very diverse collection of components. Which one of the following choices is LEAST likely to be found as part of a virus? A) proteins with functional binding sites B) membrane components C) single-stranded DNA D) ribosomes E) glycoproteins

D) ribosomes

Rice and its grain relatives, maize, barley, and wheat, diverged from a common ancestor 50 million years ago. However, the chromosomes of these plants demonstrate extensive conserved arrangements of segments. This phenomenon is called A) linkage disequilibrium. B) single nucleotide polymorphisms. C) contig. D) synteny. E) expressed sequence equilibrium.

D) synteny.

A large portion (45%) of the human genome is composed of A) introns. B) exons. C) templates. D) transposons. E) pseudogenes.

D) transposons.

When E. coli cells produce the amino acid tryptophan, a cluster of five genes is transcribed together. This cluster of genes is referred to as the A) trp transcriptional operator. B) trp regulator. C) trp suppressor. D) trp operon. E) trp promoter.

D) trp operon.

It could be said that today's Australian marsupials and today's placental mammals have A) undergone divergent evolution. B) undergone selective advantage. C) undergone heterozygote advantage. D) undergone convergent evolution. E) developed homologous structures.

D) undergone convergent evolution.

You are studying the function of a recently identified gene in C. elegans. You perform genetic screens for several months in an attempt to isolate loss-of-function gene mutations, but your efforts are unsuccessful. Your advisor suggests you try another approach to eliminate gene function. The best technique to accomplish this goal would be A) to design a repressor to bind to the operon of this gene. B) use a histone deacetylase to induce a transcriptionally inactive state. C) use a C. elegans strain with a homozygous TFIID mutation to prevent the translation initiation complex from forming. D) use RNA interference to prevent mRNA translation.

D) use RNA interference to prevent mRNA translation.

Plasma from a sick mouse is filtered across a membrane that has a 200 nm pore size. If the filtrate is still infectious when injected into a healthy mouse, then the pathogen is most likely a(n): A) bacterium B) archaean C) fungus D) virus E) parasitic worm

D) virus

What kind of pathogen would retain its ability to cause infections after being treated with powerful proteolytic chemicals that would destroy all proteinaceous material? A) A virus B) A prion C) A fungus D) A bacterium E) A viroid

E) A viroid

A protein that initiates gene transcription and allows for non-glucose molecules to be used is A) operon. B) repressor. C) promoter. D) operator. E) CAP.

E) CAP.

Regulatory proteins can identify specific sequences on the DNA double helix without unwinding the helix. This is accomplished by inserting A) RNA promoters into either the major groove or the minor groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude. B) DNA-binding motifs into the minor groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude. C) DNA polymerase into the major groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude. D) RNA polymerase into the major groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude. E) DNA-binding motifs into the major groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude.

E) DNA-binding motifs into the major groove of the double helix where the edges of the nitrogen bases protrude.

In a hypothetical study, equal numbers of marked dark and light moths are released in polluted and unpolluted woodlands and recaptured 10 days later. According to the industrial melanism hypothesis, which of the following results is unexpected? A) More marked dark moths should be recaptured in polluted woodlands than in unpolluted woodlands. B) Fewer marked light moths should be recaptured in polluted woodlands than in unpolluted woodlands. C) Fewer marked dark moths should be recaptured in unpolluted woodlands than in polluted woodlands. D) More marked light moths should be recaptured in unpolluted woodlands than in polluted woodlands. E) Fewer unmarked dark moths should be captured in polluted woodlands than unmarked light moths.

E) Fewer unmarked dark moths should be captured in polluted woodlands than unmarked light moths.

Which of the following statements about the types and subtypes of the influenza (flu) virus is FALSE? A) Of the three major types of flu virus (A, B, and C), only Type A can occur in humans, other mammals, and birds. B) Flu subtype is determined by the kinds of proteins representing the H and N protein spikes making up the capsid of the virus. C) The A(H2N2) and the A(H3N2) strains of the virus require different vaccines. D) High mutation rates create more diversity in strains of flu than does genetic recombination. E) Genetic recombination between influenza and other types of viruses is common.

E) Genetic recombination between influenza and other types of viruses is common.

Which of the following statements about bacteriophage is false? A) Bacteriophages do not have a viral envelope. B) A temperate phage can have its DNA integrated into the host chromosome as a prophage. C) Ultraviolet radiation can cause induction. D) A prophage is replicated with the bacterial chromosome and passed to the two new daughter cells. E) Late genes are only expressed during the lysogenic cycle.

E) Late genes are only expressed during the lysogenic cycle.

Which one of the following is not important to the concept of homology? A) Homologous features must be found in a common ancestor. B) It can include anatomical, physiological, or molecular features. C) Features must share a common developmental pattern. D) Species with homologous features must be related. E) None of the features being compared can be vestigial.

E) None of the features being compared can be vestigial.

Which of the following statements about emerging viruses is false? A) Emerging viruses are able to "jump" from one species to another. B) Hantavirus, which causes a hemorrhagic-type fever, originates in deer mice. C) Ebola is an emerging virus of unknown origins that can have a mortality rate in excess of 50%. D) The emerging virus SARS is a coronavirus. E) The stable genome of the SARS virus makes it an unlikely candidate for vaccine development.

E) The stable genome of the SARS virus makes it an unlikely candidate for vaccine development.

Benign Vibrio cholerae becomes pathogenic by all of the following steps except A) a bacteriophage introduces a gene coding for the cholera toxin. B) the cholera toxin gene is incorporated into the benign Vibrio cholerae chromosome. C) the benign host is transformed into a disease-causing agent by the toxin. D) the cholera toxin gene is translated. E) a bacteriophage binds only to benign Vibrio cholerae without pili.

E) a bacteriophage binds only to benign Vibrio cholerae without pili.

Sequences of DNA assembled by identifying overlaps among smaller DNA segments are known as A) single strand polymorphisms. B) synteny. C) draft sequences. D) the proteome. E) a contig.

E) a contig.

After 35 generations (about 1 year's time), the two populations R and S were studied. Researchers found A) no change was seen; it's much too soon. B) some slight increase of bristle numbers was already evident. C) a vast, overlapping range of bristle numbers was seen. D) a slight increase in bristles in S, a slight decrease in R, with a little overlap in the middle ranges. E) a huge increase in S, a huge decrease in R, with no overlap whatsoever.

E) a huge increase in S, a huge decrease in R, with no overlap whatsoever.

Viruses infect every organism that has been investigated for their presence. However, viruses can only replicate in A) very limited conditions, depending on their capsid type. B) a very limited manner if they are a retrovirus. C) a very limited manner depending on their envelope capability with the host's cell membrane or cell wall. D) their lytic stage outside the host cell membrane. E) a very limited number of the host's cells.

E) a very limited number of the host's cells.

Phages are viruses that can infect A) humans. B) plants. C) insects. D) farm animals. E) bacteria.

E) bacteria.

Which of the following would NOT be a component of a newly produced HIV virus particle? A) protein capsid B) RNA C) reverse transcriptase D) viral envelope E) complementary DNA

E) complementary DNA

Some regions of chromosomes remain highly condensed, tightly coiled, and untranscribed throughout the cell cycle. These regions are referred to as A) transposable elements. B) single sequence repeats. C) noncoding DNA. D) short interspersed elements. E) constitutive heterchromatin.

E) constitutive heterchromatin.

Transcriptional control-proteins increase the rate of transcription by binding to A) mRNA sequences within the DNA. B) tRNA sequences within the DNA. C) operator sequences within the DNA. D) promoter sequences within the DNA. E) enhancer sequences within the DNA.

E) enhancer sequences within the DNA.

The "scientific creationism" view includes all of the following beliefs except that A) biblical account of the origin of the earth is literally true. B) the earth is much younger than most scientists believe. C) all species of organisms were individually created. D) the organisms did not change from their original appearance. E) extinct species are replaced with new ones.

E) extinct species are replaced with new ones.

Each HIV particle possesses a ________ on its surface, called gp120, that precisely binds to a protein, called CD4, that is found on the surfaces of the immune system cells called macrophages and T cells. A) nucleic acid B) phospholipid C) polysaccharide D) glycolipid E) glycoprotein

E) glycoprotein

One way in which retroviruses differ from all other types of viruses is that retroviruses A) possess an RNA genome. B) possess only single-stranded nucleic acids. C) can create a prophage. D) have single-strained RNA that serves as viral mRNA. E) have the enzyme reverse transcriptase.

E) have the enzyme reverse transcriptase.

The most common DNA-binding motif is the A) nonhelical zipper. B) leucine zipper. C) zinc finger. D) homeodomain. E) helix-turn-helix.

E) helix-turn-helix.

54) The pattern of wet years and dry years shown will probably move the population toward A) all having larger beaks. B) all having smaller beaks. C) having intermediate size beaks. D) having two, distinct populations. E) maintaining abundant variation in beak depth.

E) maintaining abundant variation in beak depth.

The shape of the beaks of Darwin's finches and industrial melanism are often cited as examples of the process of ________ leading to evolutionary change. A) artificial selection B) coevolution C) intelligent design D) founder effect E) natural selection

E) natural selection

In vertebrates, DNA methylation - the addition of a methyl group to DNA nucleotides - ensures that A) the gene functions without interruption. B) no errors will be made during transcription. C) the nucleosome will quickly form, which assists in mRNA formation. D) once that gene is transcribed, the mRNA is saved and used over and over again. E) once a gene is turned off, it will remain off.

E) once a gene is turned off, it will remain off.

Mad cow disease is caused by a A) bacterium. B) virus. C) viroid. D) virion. E) prion.

E) prion.

Enhancers are the binding sites for the A) promoters of DNA synthesis. B) suppressor factors. C) coactivation factors. D) mediator factors. E) specific transcription factors.

E) specific transcription factors.

Your research team has been asked to quantify levels of cellular RNAs in rats before and after exercise. The primary focus of your work will be to analyze the A) proteome. B) spliceosome. C) nucleosome. D) different RNA motifs. E) transcriptome.

E) transcriptome.

Organisms containing DNA from an outside source are called A) transcribed organisms. B) compound organisms. C) hybrid organisms. D) plasmid organisms. E) transgenic organisms.

E) transgenic organisms.

Long interspersed elements (LINEs) are a type of A) pseudogene. B) proteome. C) exon. D) intron. E) transposon.

E) transposon.

Structures that have no apparent function but had a function in ancestral species are A) the fossil record. B) the molecular record. C) homology. D) development. E) vestigial structures.

E) vestigial structures.

After an oil spill, bacteria that can metabolize hydrocarbons are released for bioremediation. After a month, two areas affected by the spill show different levels of improvement. Which factor should be measured to determine the difference in effectiveness between the two sites? A) Temperature B) Oxygen levels C) pH D) Salinity E) Nutrient levels F) All of these factors may play a role.

F) All of these factors may play a role.

T or F: Both dideoxy terminator and next-generation sequencing methods require a genomic library to be constructed prior to sequencing the DNA of interest.

FALSE

T or F: In the United States it is currently legal for a company to patent genes.

FALSE

T or F: Nucleotide analogs are a class of drugs that are highly effective against many types of viruses. They work by halting the replication of viral genes. They are equally effective at stopping the spread of prion diseases.

FALSE

T or F: Retroviruses are unique because they are a combination of RNA and DNA.

FALSE

T or F: Tetracycline is effective against viruses because it disrupts the action of the viral ribosomes.

FALSE

T or F: The pneumonia caused by the influenza virus results from the accumulation of fluid and cell debris in the lungs. This occurs during the lysogenic life cycle of the virus.

FALSE

T or F: Viruses are self-replicating but the replication is much faster in a host cell.

FALSE

________ infects the CD4+ T cells, which are required for normal immunity.

HIV

Match each of the following characteristics with the appropriate sequencing method: 1. Heavily dependent on computing power to assemble many small reads of sequenced DNA 2. Millions of sequencing reactions can be carried out simultaneously 3. PCR is used to create sections of DNA that are sequenced by adding one nucleotide at a time 4. Use electrophoresis to separate DNA fragments for final nucleotide identification 5. Dependent on the use of fluorescent tagged nucleotides to identify the sequence 6. Fragments of DNA are made by incorporating nucleotides that cannot have additional bases added to them, halting replication

Next-generation sequencing: 1, 2, 3, Dideoxy terminator sequencing: 4, 6 Both: 5

The SARS virus is a member of the family of viruses called ________.

coronavirus

Outside the protein sheath, many viruses have a(n) ________ made of protein, lipid, and carbohydrate.

envelope

Viruses are ________ -coated fragments of DNA or RNA.

protein

Viruses can ________ only after they have entered a host cell, and only by using the host's cellular machinery.

reproduce

A ________ can contain DNA or RNA as its genetic material, but not both.

virus