Blood Administration NCLEX Practice Questions, NUR 211 Blood Transfusion NCLEX Questions, 1- blood nclex, 6-NCLEX Medication/IV Calculations, 5-Part 1: Medications/Blood IV therapy PN NCLEX Oct, 4-Module 8: Pharmacology and Intravenous Therapies, 3-S...

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A physician prescribes the administration of parenteral nutrition (PN), to be started at a rate of 50 mL/hr by way of infusion pump through an established subclavian central line. After the first 2 hours of the PN infusion, the client suddenly complains of difficulty breathing and chest pain. The nurse immediately: A Obtains blood for culture B Clamps the PN infusion line C Obtains a sample for blood glucose testing D Obtains an electrocardiogram (ECG)

B Clamps the PN infusion line

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment should be included in the plan of care? 1. Apical rate every hour 2. Continuous pulse oximetry 3. Blood glucose levels every 6 hours 4. Hemoglobin and hematocrit every 8 hour

Blood glucose levels every 6 hours Complications associated with TPN therapy include hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia, infection, fluid overload, air embolism, and electrolyte imbalance. It is standard care to monitor blood glucose levels at 6-hour intervals to assess for hyperglycemia. The remaining options contain assessments that are not routine for a client receiving TPN.

The nurse is monitoring a child who is receiving ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) with BAL (British anti-Lewisite) for the treatment of lead poisoning. The nurse reviews the laboratory results for the child during treatment with this medication and is particularly concerned with monitoring which laboratory test result? 1. Cholesterol level 2. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 3. Complete blood cell (CBC) count 4. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) levels

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level Kidney function tests should be monitored because EDTA is nephrotoxic. The calcium level should also be monitored because EDTA enhances the excretion of calcium. The remaining laboratory results are not the primary concern during treatment with EDTA.

The nurse is undergoing annual recertification in basic life support (BLS). The BLS instructor asks the nurse to identify the pulse point to use when determining pulselessness on an infant. Which response by the nurse identifies the most appropriate pulse point? 1. Radial 2. Carotid 3. Brachial 4. Popliteal

Brachial When assessing a pulse in an infant (younger than 1 year), the pulse should be checked at the brachial artery. This is because the relatively short, fat neck of an infant makes palpation of the carotid artery difficult. The pulses in the remaining options are also difficult to locate and palpate in an infant

The nurse has administered a dose of salmeterol to a client. The client develops a generalized rash and urticaria, and the eyelids begin to swell. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Apply a lanolin-based cream to the rash. 2. Encourage the client to drink fluids quickly. 3. Assess the client's vision with a Snellen chart. 4. Call the health care provider (HCP) immediately.

Call the health care provider (HCP) immediately. Hypersensitivity reaction can occur in clients taking salmeterol. Signs include rash; urticaria; and swelling of the face, lips, or eyelids. The nurse should call the HCP immediately if any of these occur. The other options are incorrect.

The nurse has a prescription to give amiodarone intravenously to a client. What is the priority assessment during administration of this medication? 1. Blood pressure 2. Cardiac rhythm 3. Skin color and dryness 4. Oxygen saturation level

Cardiac rhythm Amiodarone is an antidysrhythmic used to treat life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias. The client requires continuous cardiac monitoring, with infusion of the medication by an intravenous pump. Although the other assessments are not incorrect, monitoring of cardiac rhythm is the priority nursing action.

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client transferred to the medical unit from the critical care unit. The nurse notes that the client received intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) therapy while in the critical care unit. The nurse suspects that the client received this therapy for which condition? 1. Heart failure 2. Pulmonary edema 3. Cardiogenic shock 4. Aortic insufficiency

Cardiogenic shock IABP therapy most often is used in the treatment of cardiogenic shock and is most effective if instituted early in the course of treatment. Use of IABP therapy is contraindicated in clients with aortic insufficiency and thoracic and abdominal aneurysms. This therapy is not used in the treatment of congestive heart failure or pulmonary edema.

The nurse enters a client's room to assess the client, who began receiving a blood transfusion 45 minutes earlier, and notes that the client is flushed and dyspneic. On assessment, the nurse auscultates the presence of crackles in the lung bases. The nurse determines that this client most likely is experiencing which complication of blood transfusion therapy? 1. Bacteremia 2. Hypovolemia 3. Circulatory overload 4. Transfusion reaction

Circulatory overload Circulatory overload is caused by the infusion of blood at a rate too rapid for the client to tolerate. With circulatory overload, crackles are present in addition to dyspnea. An allergic reaction, which is one type of blood transfusion reaction, would produce symptoms such as flushing, dyspnea, itching, and a generalized rash. Hypovolemia is not likely a complication of blood transfusion. With bacteremia, the client would have a fever, which is not part of the clinical picture presented.

The nurse hears that a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) at 100 mL/hr has bilateral crackles and 1+ pedal edema during shift report. When the nurse obtains a daily weight, the nurse notes that the client has gained 4 lbs (1.8 kg) in 2 days. Which action should the nurse take first? 1. Administer the prescribed daily diuretic. 2. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe. 3. Compare the intake and output records of the past 2 days. 4. Slow the TPN infusion rate to 50 mL/hr per infusion pump.

Compare the intake and output records of the past 2 days. The client is showing signs of fluid retention and possible excess fluid intake, as noted by the presence of crackles, edema, and weight gain. Noting the client's intake and output records adds to the database of information, which should then be reported. The problem may or may not be related to the TPN. (Other possible causes are impaired respiratory, cardiovascular, or renal function.) The nurse should not decrease the infusion rate without a health care provider's (HCP's) prescription. In addition, it is not recommended to increase or decrease the rate of TPN infusions because of the problems of hyperosmolar diuresis, hypoglycemia, or hyperglycemia. Coughing and deep breathing will have little, if any, effect on peripheral edema and weight gain. Administering a daily diuretic may delay necessary and immediate treatment and is incorrect.

A client with a left arm fracture supported in a cast complains of loss of sensation in the left fingers. The nursing assessment identifies pallor in the distal portion of the arm, poor capillary refill, and a diminished left radial pulse. On the basis of these findings, the nurse would take which as a priority action? 1. Apply ice to the site. 2. Document the findings. 3. Administer pain medication. 4. Contact the health care provider (HCP).

Contact the health care provider (HCP). The client with limb pallor, slow capillary refill, weakened or lost pulse, and absence of sensation or motion in the distal limb may have arterial damage from a lacerated, contused, thrombosed, or severed artery. These signs also can occur with constriction from a tight cast. Regardless of the cause, the nurse notifies the HCP immediately. Emergency intervention is needed, which could entail removal of the constricting bandage, fracture reduction, or surgery to repair the area. Application of ice could exacerbate the problem. Although the nurse would document the findings, this is not the priority action. No data are presented in the question to indicate that the client needs pain medication.

A client with rheumatoid arthritis is taking high doses of acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin, ASA). While assessing the client for aspirin toxicity, which question should the nurse ask the client? A "Are you constipated?" B "Are you having any diarrhea?" C "Do you have any double vision?" D "Do you have any ringing in the ears?"

D "Do you have any ringing in the ears?"

A nurse is making initials rounds on a group of assigned clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first? A A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) at a rate of 50 mL/hr for the last 24 hours B A client receiving PN at a rate of 50 mL/hr whose temp was 99° F on the previous shift C A client receiving PN at a rate of 100 mL/hr who has complained of needing frequent trips to the bathroom to void D A client whose PN solution was decreased to a rate of 25 mL/hr who is now complaining of weakness, headache, and sweating

D A client whose PN solution was decreased to a rate of 25 mL/hr who is now complaining of weakness, headache, and sweating

The emergency department staff prepares for the arrival of a child who has ingested a bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which medication does the nurse ensure is available? A Pancreatin B Protamine sulfate C Phytonadione (vitamin K) D Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

D Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) Rationale: Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is the antidote to acetaminophen. Pancreatin is a pancreatic enzyme replacement or supplement. Protamine sulfate is the antidote to heparin. Phytonadione is the antidote to warfarin sodium (Coumadin).

Betaxolol (Betoptic) eye drops have been prescribed for the treatment of a client's glaucoma. The nurse tells the client to return to the clinic: A To have her weight checked B To give a sample for urinalysis C To have the blood glucose level checked D For measurement of blood pressure and apical pulse

D For measurement of blood pressure and apical pulse

A nurse has a written prescription to remove an intravenous (IV) line. Which of the following items should the nurse obtain from the unit supply area for use in applying pressure to the site after removing the IV catheter? A Adhesive bandage B Alcohol swab C Povidone-iodine (Betadine) swab D Sterile 2 × 2 gauze

D Sterile 2 × 2 gauze

A client with heart failure and hypotension has been started on intravenous medication therapy with inamrinone. The nurse determines which finding, if noted in the client, is an adverse effect of the medication? 1. Decreased weight 2. Decreased blood pressure 3. Absence of lung crackles 4. Reduced peripheral edema

Decreased blood pressure Inamrinone is an inotropic agent used to relieve the manifestations of heart failure. Therapeutic effects include a decrease in weight (fluid), lung crackles, dyspnea, and edema. Blood pressure should remain stable or increase (if the client is hypotensive). Hypotension is an adverse effect of the medication.

Which nursing action is essential prior to initiating a new prescription for 500 mL of fat emulsion (lipids) to infuse at 50 mL/hour? 1. Ensure that the client does not have diabetes. 2. Determine whether the client has an allergy to eggs. 3. Add regular insulin to the fat emulsion, using aseptic technique. 4. Contact the health care provider (HCP) to have a central line inserted for fat emulsion infusion.

Determine whether the client has an allergy to eggs. The client beginning infusions of fat emulsions must be first assessed for known allergies to eggs to prevent anaphylaxis. Egg yolk is a component of the solution and provides emulsification. The remaining options are unnecessary and are not related to the administration of fat emulsion.

The emergency department nurse is preparing to administer fomepizole to a client suspected of ingesting antifreeze solution during a suicidal attempt. The nurse should prepare to administer this medication by which method? 1. Direct intravenous (IV) bolus 2. Diluting the medication and administering it rapidly by the IV route 3. Administering the medication through a nasogastric tube, followed by activated charcoal 4. Diluting the medication in 100 mL of 0.9% normal saline and administering it over 30 minutes

Diluting the medication in 100 mL of 0.9% normal saline and administering it over 30 minutes Fomepizole is used for the treatment of known or suspected ethylene glycol (antifreeze) intoxication. It is administered via the IV route, is not administered undiluted, and is not administered by rapid IV infusion. It is diluted in at least 100 mL of 0.9% normal saline or 5% dextrose in water and administered over a 30-minute period

One unit of packed red blood cells has been prescribed for a client with severe anemia. The client has received multiple transfusions in the past, and it is documented that the client has experienced urticaria-type reactions from the transfusions. The nurse anticipates that which medication will be prescribed before administration of the red blood cells to prevent this type of reaction? 1. Ibuprofen 2. Acetaminophen 3. Diphenhydramine 4. Acetylsalicylic acid

Diphenhydramine An urticaria-type reaction is characterized by a rash accompanied by pruritus. This type of transfusion reaction is prevented by pretreating the client with an antihistamine such as diphenhydramine. The remaining medications would not prevent an urticaria-type reaction. Acetaminophen may be prescribed before the administration to assist in preventing an elevated temperature.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who sustained an inhalation burn injury. Which nursing intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for this client? 1. Elevate the head of the bed. 2. Monitor oxygen saturation levels every 4 hours. 3. Encourage coughing and deep breathing every 4 hours. 4. Assess respiratory rate and breath sounds every 4 hours.

Elevate the head of the bed. Nursing interventions for the client with an inhalation burn injury include assessing the respiratory rate every hour, monitoring oxygen saturation levels every hour, and assisting the client in coughing and deep breathing every hour. The head of the bed is elevated to facilitate lung expansion.

A client is brought to the emergency department having experienced blood loss related to an arterial laceration. Which blood component should the nurse expect the health care provider to prescribe? 1. Platelets 2. Granulocytes 3. Fresh-frozen plasma 4. Packed red blood cells

Fresh-frozen plasma Fresh-frozen plasma is often used for volume expansion as a result of fluid and blood loss. It is rich in clotting factors and can be thawed quickly and transfused quickly. Platelets are used to treat thrombocytopenia and platelet dysfunction. Granulocytes may be used to treat a client with sepsis or a neutropenic client with an infection that is unresponsive to antibiotics. Packed red blood cells are a blood product used to replace erythrocytes.

A client has experienced high blood pressure and crackles in the lungs during previous blood transfusions. The client asks the nurse whether it is safe to receive another transfusion. The nurse explains that which medication most likely will be prescribed before the transfusion is begun? 1. Furosemide 2. Acetaminophen 3. Diphenhydramine 4. Acetylsalicylic acid

Furosemide Fluid overload is one of the potential complications of a blood transfusion and is characterized by a variety of signs, including high blood pressure, fluid in the lungs manifesting as crackles, and distended jugular veins. This type of transfusion reaction is prevented by pretreating the client with a diuretic such as furosemide. Acetaminophen and aspirin are analgesics, which can also be used for analgesia. These medications may reduce fever as well but do not treat fluid overload.

A client has a closed head injury with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The increased ICP is being managed by mannitol 25 g by the intravenous (IV) route every 2 hours. The nurse is planning to administer this medication via IV pump in what manner? 1. Mixed in solution with the IV antibiotics 2. Giving it slowly over 30 to 90 minutes 3. Piggybacked into the packed red blood cells 4. Giving it rapidly over 5 minutes by IV bolus

Giving it slowly over 30 to 90 minutes Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. When used to treat increased ICP, it is given slowly over 30 to 90 minutes, not rapidly and not via IV bolus. Mannitol should not be mixed in solution with antibiotics, and nothing should be piggybacked with packed red blood cells.

While changing the tapes on a newly inserted tracheostomy tube, the client coughs and the tube is dislodged. Which is the initial nursing action? 1. Call the health care provider to reinsert the tube. 2. Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening. 3. Call the respiratory therapy department to reinsert the tracheotomy. 4. Cover the tracheostomy site with a sterile dressing to prevent infection.

Grasp the retention sutures to spread the opening. If the tube is dislodged accidentally, the initial nursing action is to grasp the retention sutures and spread the opening. If agency policy permits, the nurse then attempts to replace the tube immediately. Calling ancillary services or the health care provider will delay treatment in this emergency situation. Covering the tracheostomy site will block the airway.

The nurse is preparing to infuse (piggyback) a 50-mL dose of a compatible medication through the primary intravenous (IV) line. How should the nurse correctly attach the medication bag? 1. Hanging the medication bag level with the primary IV bag 2. Hanging the medication bag lower than the primary IV bag 3. Hanging the medication bag higher than the primary IV bag 4. Disconnecting the primary IV solution and plugging in the medication

Hanging the medication bag higher than the primary IV bag For an intermittent IV infusion that is piggybacked to the primary IV line, the bag for the intermittent infusion is placed higher than the primary solution bag. This allows gravity to assist in infusing the medication. Once the intermittent infusion is complete, the primary IV infusion will resume at the drip rate set for the intermittent infusion. For this reason, it also is important to remember to check the infusion frequently and reset the primary IV drip rate correctly once the intermittent infusion is complete.

What is infiltration?

IV fluid goes out of vein, and into the interstitial space, it is tissue injury but not as extreme as extravasation

Measuring infiltration should be done after?

IV has been removed

The nurse in the hospital emergency department is preparing to administer fomepizole to a client with ethylene glycol (antifreeze) intoxication. The nurse should plan to administer this medication by which route? 1. Oral route 2. Intramuscular route 3. Intravenous (IV) route 4. Through a nasogastric tube

Intravenous (IV) route Fomepizole is a medication that is used to treat known or suspected ethylene glycol (antifreeze) intoxication. It is administered via the IV route. The routes in the remaining options are incorrect.

56. IV lactated Ringer's solution is prescribed for a postoperative client. A nursing student is caring for the client, and the nursing instructor asks the student about the tonicity of the prescribed solution. The student responds by telling the instructor the solution is?

Isotonic solution

Why is it important for the nurse to check the client's vital signs PRIOR to the infusion?

It's important to have a baseline value, otherwise it will be harder to see if a transfusion reaction ocur

A client with parenteral nutrition (PN) infusing has disconnected the tubing from the central line catheter. The nurse assesses the client and suspects an air embolism. The nurse should immediately place the client in which position? 1. On the left side, with the head lower than the feet 2. On the left side, with the head higher than the feet 3. On the right side, with the head lower than the feet 4. On the right side, with the head higher than the feet

On the left side, with the head lower than the feet Air embolism occurs when air enters the catheter system, such as when the system is opened for intravenous (IV) tubing changes or when the IV tubing disconnects. Air embolism is a critical situation; if it is suspected, the client should be placed in a left side-lying position. The head should be lower than the feet. This position is used to minimize the effect of the air traveling as a bolus to the lungs by trapping it in the right side of the heart. The positions in the remaining options are inappropriate if an air embolism is suspected.

A client with total parenteral nutrition (TPN) infusing has disconnected the tubing from the central line catheter. The nurse assesses the client and suspects an air embolism. The nurse should immediately place the client in which position? 1. On the left side, with the head lower than the feet 2. On the left side, with the head higher than the feet 3. On the right side, with the head lower than the feet 4. On the right side, with the head higher than the feet

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is immediately initiated on a client who is unconscious and has no pulse. A monitor is attached and it is determined that the rhythm is shockable, and defibrillation with 1 shock is delivered. Which action should the nurse plan to take next? 1. Defibrillate 1 more time, and then terminate the resuscitation effort. 2. Administer a bolus of fluid intravenously, and resume defibrillation attempts. 3. Perform CPR for 5 cycles, and then defibrillate again if the rhythm is shockable. 4. Perform CPR for 1 minute, assess, and then defibrillate up to 3 more times.

Perform CPR for 5 cycles, and then defibrillate again if the rhythm is shockable. If a client is unconscious and has no pulse, the nurse would shout for help (activate emergency response) and immediately initiate CPR. If the rhythm is shockable, a shock is delivered and then CPR is delivered for 5 cycles. This pattern is repeated 2 more times if the rhythm remains shockable. Treatment with medications is also done during this time to reverse the cause of the ventricular fibrillation. Each of the other options is incorrect.

The nurse assigned to the pediatric unit finds an infant unresponsive and without respirations or a pulse. What is the nurse's next action after calling for help? 1. Check for carotid pulse. 2. Call anesthesia for intubation. 3. Begin rescue breathing with head tilt-chin lift. 4. Perform compressions at 100 to 120 times per minute.

Perform compressions at 100 to 120 times per minute. After pressing the emergency response button in the room, the nurse should begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on the infant, starting with chest compressions. The rate of chest compressions is 100 to 120 times per minute. The brachial pulse is assessed on infants; the carotid pulse is difficult to palpate due to their short, thick necks. When a cardiopulmonary arrest alert is called, an experienced staff member with intubation skills is usually included on the response team. Compressions are started before rescue breathing.

The nurse notes that the site of a client's peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter is reddened, warm, painful, and slightly edematous proximal to the insertion point of the IV catheter. After taking appropriate steps to care for the client, the nurse should document in the medical record that the client experienced which condition? 1. Phlebitis of the vein 2. Infiltration of the IV line 3. Hypersensitivity to the IV solution 4. Allergic reaction to the IV catheter material

Phlebitis of the vein Phlebitis at an IV site can be distinguished by client discomfort at the site and by redness, warmth, and swelling proximal to the catheter. If phlebitis occurs, the nurse should discontinue the IV line and insert a new IV line at a different site. Coolness at the site would be noted if the IV catheter was infiltrated. An allergic reaction produces a rash, redness, and itching. A major reaction, such as hypersensitivity, can cause dyspnea, a swollen tongue, and cyanosis.

The nurse notes that the site of a client's peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter is reddened, warm, painful, and slightly edematous proximal to the insertion point of the IV catheter. After taking appropriate steps to care for the client, the nurse should document in the medical record that which occurred? 1. Phlebitis of the vein 2. Infiltration of the IV line 3. Hypersensitivity to the IV solution 4. Allergic reaction to the IV catheter

Phlebitis of the vein Phlebitis at an IV site can be distinguished by client discomfort at the site, as well as redness, warmth, and swelling proximal to the catheter. The IV line should be discontinued, and a new line should be inserted at a different site. The remaining options are incorrect occurrences.

The nurse is caring for a client who sustained multiple fractures in a motor vehicle crash 12 hours earlier. The client now exhibits severe dyspnea, tachycardia, and mental confusion, and the nurse suspects fat embolism. Which is the initial nursing action? 1. Reassess the vital signs. 2. Palpate bilateral peripheral pulses. 3. Perform a neurological assessment. 4. Position the client in a Fowler's position.

Position the client in a Fowler's position. Clients with fractures are at risk for fat embolism. With suspected fat embolism, the nurse would position the client in a sitting (Fowler's) position to relieve dyspnea. Supplemental oxygen is indicated to reduce the signs of hypoxia. The health care provider needs to be notified. Vital signs will need to be taken, but this action may delay initial and required interventions. Peripheral pulse assessment is not a priority action. A neurological assessment needs to be performed, but this would not be the initial nursing action

The emergency department nurse is preparing to administer fomepizole to a client suspected of having ethylene glycol (antifreeze) intoxication. The nurse obtains the vial of medication and notes that the medication has solidified. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Discard the vial. 2. Run the vial under warm water. 3. Contact the health care provider. 4. Call the pharmacy and request another vial of medication.

Run the vial under warm water. Fomepizole is used in the treatment of known or suspected ethylene glycol (antifreeze) intoxication. It is administered via the intravenous (IV) route. It is diluted in at least 100 mL of 0.9% normal saline or 5% dextrose in water and administered over a 30-minute period. If the medication solidifies in the vial, the nurse should run the vial under warm water. The remaining options are inappropriate or unnecessary actions

The nurse is caring for a restless client who is beginning nutritional therapy with parenteral nutrition (PN). The nurse should plan to ensure that which action is taken to prevent the client from sustaining injury? 1. Calculate daily intake and output. 2. Monitor the temperature once daily. 3. Secure all connections in the PN system. 4. Monitor blood glucose levels every 12 hours.

Secure all connections in the PN system. The nurse should plan to secure all connections in the tubing (connections are used per agency protocol). This helps to prevent the restless client from pulling the connections apart accidentally. The nurse should also monitor intake and output, but this does not relate specifically to a risk for injury as presented in the question. Also, monitoring the temperature and blood glucose levels does not relate to a risk for injury as presented in the question. In addition, the client's temperature and blood glucose levels are monitored more frequently than the time frames identified in the options to detect signs of infection and hyperglycemia, respectively

A postoperative client receives a dose of naloxone hydrochloride for respiratory depression shortly after transfer to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit. After administration of the medication, the nurse should assess the client for which change? 1. Pupillary changes 2. Scattered lung wheezes 3. Sudden increase in pain 4. Sudden episodes of vomiting

Sudden increase in pain Naloxone hydrochloride is an antidote to opioids, and it also may be given to postoperative clients to treat respiratory depression. When given postoperatively for respiratory depression, it may reverse the effects of analgesics. Therefore, the nurse must assess the client for a sudden increase in level of postoperative pain. The remaining options are unrelated to the administration of naloxone.

A client has been discharged to home on total parenteral nutrition (TPN). With each visit, the home care nurse should assess which parameters most closely in monitoring this therapy? 1. Pulse and weight 2. Temperature and weight 3. Pulse and blood pressure 4. Temperature and blood pressure

Temperature and weight The client receiving TPN at home should have the temperature monitored as a means of detecting infection, which is a potential complication of this therapy. An infection also could result in sepsis because the catheter is in a blood vessel. The client's weight is monitored as a measure of the effectiveness of this nutritional therapy and to detect hypervolemia. The pulse and blood pressure are important parameters to assess, but they do not relate specifically to the effects of TPN.

The child with croup is being discharged from the hospital. The nurse provides instructions to the mother and advises the mother to bring the child to the emergency department if which occurs? 1. The child is irritable. 2. The child appears tired. 3. The child develops stridor. 4. The child takes fluids poorly.

The child develops stridor. The mother should be instructed to bring the child to the emergency department if the child develops stridor at rest, cyanosis, severe agitation or fatigue, or moderate to severe retractions or is unable to take oral fluids.

Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl) 25 mg orally every 6 hours is prescribed for a child with an allergic reaction. The child weighs 25 kg. The safe pediatric dosage is 5 mg/kg/day. What should the nurse determine about the medication dosage?

The dosage is within the safe range.

Morphine sulfate, 2.5 mg, is prescribed for a child. The safe pediatric dose is 0.05 to 0.1 mg/kg/dose. The child weighs 50 kg. Which statement describes the prescribed dosage for this child?

The dose is within the safe dosage range.

The nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line. What assessment should the nurse perform to detect the most common complication of TPN? 1. Vital signs 2. Auscultate lungs 3. Kidney function tests 4. Listen for bowel sounds

Vital signs The most common complication associated with TPN is infection. Monitoring the temperature would provide data that would indicate infection in the client. Monitoring kidney function tests would not provide information related to infection. Auscultating lungs assists in identifying if fluid overload is present, not infection. Listening for bowel sounds does not assist in assessing for infection in this case.

The nurse, listening to the morning report, learns that an assigned client received a unit of granulocytes the previous evening. The nurse makes a note to assess the results of which daily serum laboratory studies to assess the effectiveness of the transfusion? 1. Hematocrit level 2. Erythrocyte count 3. Hemoglobin level 4. White blood cell count

White blood cell count The client who has neutropenia may receive a transfusion of granulocytes, or WBCs. These clients often have severe infections and are unresponsive to antibiotic therapy. The nurse notes the results of follow-up WBC counts and differential to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy. The nurse also continues to monitor the client for signs and symptoms of infection. Erythrocyte count and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are determined after transfusion of packed red blood cells.

2. Client receiving a blood transfusion, rings for the nurse. The client is flushed, itching, and dyspenic. The nurse believes the client is experiencing?

a transfusion reaction

The nurse is picking up a unit of packed red blood cells at the hospital blood bank. After putting the pen down, the nurse glances at the clock, which reads 1:00. The nurse calculates that the transfusion must be started by: a. 1:30 b. 2:00 c. 2:30 d. 3:00

a. 1:30 Blood must be hung as soon as possible within 30 mintues after it is obtained from the blood bank.

When are warm compresses applied?

after IV is removed, and only if infiltrated solution is not damaging to surrounding tissue

Eliminate slow rate of infusion and check for loose catheter connections because?

alike in that they continue the IV therapy

What should the nurse not solely depend on?

blood return for assurance that the cannula is in the vein. The blood return may occur, even if the cannula is only partially in the vein

What are the s/s of air embolism?

chest pain, dyspnea, hypoxia, anxiety, tachycardia, hypotension

What if the IV tubing is not changed?

could cause systemic infectino

Why does the pulse rate increase in fluid overload?

heart tries to pump the extra fluid volume

7. A nurse is assessing client's peripheral site. The nurse finds the site is pale, swollen, cool, IV has stopped running. What has probably occured?

infiltration

What does fluid overload cause?

neck vein distention, and fluid shifting in alveoli (lung crackles)

What problems would cause warmth of the site?

phlebitis, infection, thrombosis

What are manifestations of hyperglycemia?

polyuria, polydipsia, polyphage

A client with cancer is placed on permanent total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse considers psychosocial support when planning care for this client when the client makes which correct statement? 1. "Death is imminent for me because of this." 2. "This treatment requires disfiguring surgery." 3. "Nausea and vomiting occur regularly and will prevent social activity." 4. "I'll need to adjust to the idea of living without eating by the usual route."

"I'll need to adjust to the idea of living without eating by the usual route." Permanent TPN is indicated for clients who can no longer absorb nutrients via the enteral route. These clients may no longer be able to take nutrition orally and will need to adjust to the idea of living without eating by the usual route. The remaining options are incorrect statements. There are no data in the question that indicate that death is imminent. Port implantation does not require disfiguring surgery. Nausea and vomiting are not associated with administering TPN.

A physician prescribes an intramuscular dose of 200,000 units of penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin) for an adult client. The label on the 10-mL ampule sent from the pharmacy reads, Penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin), 300,000 units/mL. How many milliliters of medication does the nurse prepares to ensure administration of the correct dose? (Round your answer to the nearest tenth.)

A pediatric client with a ventricular septal defect repair is placed on a maintenance dose of digoxin (Lanoxin). The safe dose is 0.03 mg/kg/day, and the client's weight is 7.2 kg. The health care provider (HCP) prescribes the digoxin to be given twice daily. How much digoxin should the nurse administer to the client at each dose?

0.1

18. The medication prescribed is heparin sodium 650 units subcutaneously every 12 hours. The medication vial reads heparin sodium (Liquaemin), 1000 units/mL. The nurse prepares how many milliliters to administer one dose?

0.65 mL

The medication prescribed is atropine sulfate, 0.4 mg intramuscularly, immediately. The medication label states atropine sulfate, 0.3 mg/0.5 mL. The nurse prepares how much medication to administer the dose? Fill in the blank and round answer to one decimal place.

0.7

A health care provider prescribes atenolol (Tenormin) 0.05 g orally daily. The label on the medication bottle states, atenolol 50-mg tablets. How many tablet(s) will the nurse administer to the client? Fill in the blank.

The nurse is reading a health care provider's prescription and notes that a client is to receive a medication at 1:00 pm. Using the military time clock, the nurse administers the medication at which time? Refer to figure.

9. Nurse is listing tasks to be performed. The nurse plans to check the IV of assigned patient receiving fluid replacement therapy at least every?

1 hour

The nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank and has checked the blood bag properly with another nurse. Just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse should assess which PRIORITY item? 1) Vital signs 2) Skin color 3) Urine output 4) Latest hematocrit level

1) Vital signs Rationale: A change in vital signs during the transfusion from baseline may indicate that a transfusion reaction is occurring. This is why the nurse assesses vital signs BEFORE the procedure and again after the first 15 minutes. The other options do not identify assessments that are a priority just before beginning a transfusion.

A client being hemodialyzed suddenly becomes short of breath and complains of chest pain. The client is tachycardic, pale, and anxious and the nurse suspects air embolism. What are the priority nursing actions? Select all that apply. 1. Administer oxygen to the client. 2. Continue dialysis at a slower rate after checking the lines for air. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP) and Rapid Response Team. 4. Stop dialysis, and turn the client on the left side with head lower than feet. 5. Bolus the client with 500 mL of normal saline to break up the air embolus.

1. Administer oxygen to the client. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP) and Rapid Response Team. 4. Stop dialysis, and turn the client on the left side with head lower than feet. If the client experiences air embolus during hemodialysis, the nurse should terminate dialysis immediately, position the client so the air embolus is in the right side of the heart, notify the HCP and Rapid Response Team, and administer oxygen as needed. Slowing the dialysis treatment or giving an intravenous bolus will not correct the air embolism or prevent complications.

A nurse is preparing to hang an intravenous (IV) solution of 1000 mL 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's to flow at 80 mL/hour. The nurse time-tapes the bag with a start time of 07:00. After making hourly marks on the time-tape, the nurse notes that the completion time for the bag is:

1. 17:00 2. 17:30 3. 19:30 4. 21:00 Answer: 3 Rationale: At a rate of 80 mL/hour, the 1000-mL bag will be finished infusing in 12.5 hours. This brings the end time to 19:30, using military time.

A nurse is caring for a client who had a small bowel resection the previous day and has continuous gastric suction attached to the nasogastric tube. Which intravenous solution should the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the client?

1. Normal saline 2. 25% albumin 3. 5% dextrose in water 4. Lactated Ringer's solution Answer: 4 Rationale: Electrolyte solutions such as lactated Ringer's are used to replace fluid from gastrointestinal (GI) tract losses. Albumin is used for shock and protein replacement; 5% dextrose in water contains only glucose and no electrolytes to replace gastrointestinal losses. Normal saline contains no glucose, and glucose is essential for calories when a client takes nothing per mouth (NPO).

A client is complaining of pain at the site of the intravenous (IV) infusion device. The nurse checks the IV site and determines that the client has developed phlebitis. Which action should the nurse take?

1. Remove the IV. 2. Apply ice packs to the site. 3. Slow the rate of the IV infusion. 4. Change the dressing on the IV site. Answer: 1 Rationale: The nurse should plan to remove the IV and apply warm moist compresses to the area to speed resolution of the inflammation. Ice packs should not be applied, and slowing the rate and changing the dressing are interventions that delay removing the IV.

A nurse takes a client's temperature before giving a blood transfusion. The temperature is 100° F orally. The nurse reports the finding to the registered nurse and anticipates that which of the following actions will take place?

1. The transfusion will begin as prescribed. 2. The blood will be held, and the health care provider will be notified. 3. The transfusion will begin after the administration of an antihistamine. 4. The transfusion will begin after the administration of 600 mg of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Answer: 2 Rationale: If the client has a temperature of 100° F or more, the unit of blood should be held until the health care provider is notified and has the opportunity to give further prescriptions. The other options are incorrect actions.

Morphine sulfate, 2.5 mg subcutaneously, is prescribed for a client postoperatively. The medication label reads 2 mg/mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer? Fill in the blank.

1.25

61. Morphine sulfate, 2.5 mg subcutaneously, is prescribed for a client postoperatively. The medication label reads "1/15 grains/mL". How many milliliters should the nurse administer?

1/15 grain * 54.8 mg/grain in 1 mL 2.5 mg in x mL 0.6 mL

The nurse is caring for a client with chronic cancer pain who is requesting pain medication. The health care provider's prescription reads MS Contin (morphine sulfate) 0.6 mg/kg orally every 4 hours as needed for pain. The client weighs 110 pounds. The liquid morphine sulfate available is 10 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?

The nurse is preparing a small dose of a medication for administration to an infant. The nurse selects which syringe for preparing the medication? Refer to figure.

A health care provider prescribes phenobarbital (Luminal), 10 mg by mouth daily. The medication bottle is labeled 15 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters (mL) will the nurse administer? Fill in the blank. Record your answer using one decimal place.

3.3

The health care provider's prescription reads "phenytoin (Dilantin) 0.2 g orally, twice daily." The medication label states 100-mg capsules. How many capsule(s) should the nurse plan to administer over a 24 hour period? Fill in the blank.

A physician prescribes 1000 mL of 5% dextrose in water, to be infused over 24 hours. The drop factor is 60 gtt/mL. At how many drops per minute does the nurse set the flow rate? (Round your answer to the nearest whole number).

What are other examples of isotonic solution, besides lactated ringer's?

5% dextrose in water, 0.9% normal saline, 5% dextrose in 0.225% normal saline

1 grain, how many mg?

64.8 mg (NCLEX says 1 gr = 60 mg)

A client with schizophrenia has been taking an antipsychotic medication for 2 months. For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor the client closely? A Akathisia B Pelvic thrusts C Athetoid limbs D Protruding tongue

A Akathisia

A nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis who is exhibiting signs of cholinergic crisis. Which medication does the nurse ensure is available to treat this crisis? A Atropine sulfate B Protamine sulfate C Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) D Pyridostigmine bromide (Mestinon)

A Atropine sulfate

Metoprolol (Lopressor) has been prescribed for a client with hypertension. For which common side effects of the medication does the nurse monitor the client? Select all that apply. A Fatigue B Dry eyes C Weakness D Impotence E Nightmares

A Fatigue C Weakness D Impotence Rationale: One common side effect of beta-adrenergic-blocking agents, such as metoprolol, is impotence. Fatigue and weakness are also common. Rarer central nervous system side effects include mental status changes, nervousness, depression, and insomnia. Altered taste, dry eyes, and nightmares are rare side effects.

A client taking hydrochlorothiazide reports to the clinic for follow-up blood tests. For which side effect of the medication does the nurse monitor the client's laboratory results? A Hypokalemia B Hypocalcemia C Hypernatremia D Hypermagnesemia

A Hypokalemia

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client, hospitalized with heart failure, who has a history of Parkinson disease and is taking benztropine mesylate (Cogentin) daily. Which intervention does the nurse identify as a priority in the plan? A Monitoring intake and output B Monitoring the client's pupillary response C Placing the client in a right side-lying position D Checking the client's hemoglobin level daily

A Monitoring intake and output

A nurse is reading the medical record of a client receiving haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse notes that the physician has documented that the client is experiencing signs of akathisia. On the basis of the physician's note, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to find during assessment of the client? A Motor restlessness B Puffing of the cheeks C Puckering of the mouth D Protrusion of the tongue

A Motor restlessness

A nurse notes that the site of a client's peripheral IV catheter is reddened, warm, painful, and slightly edematous in the area of the insertion site. After taking appropriate steps to care for the client, the nurse documents in the medical record that the client has experienced: A Phlebitis of the vein B Infiltration of the IV line C Hypersensitivity to the IV solution D An allergic reaction to the IV catheter material

A Phlebitis of the vein

The medication prescription states to administer acetaminophen (Tylenol), 650 mg orally for a temperature of more than 38° C. The medication bottle states Tylenol (acetaminophen), 325 mg tablets. The nurse takes the client's temperature and notes that it is 101° F. The nurse plans to take which action?

Administer two Tylenol tablets.

A unit of platelets was just received from the blood bank for transfusion to an assigned client. The nurse should select tubing with which feature for the transfusion? 1. An in-line filter 2. At least 3 Y-ports 3. Self-sealing valves 4. Tinted to protect the blood from light

An in-line filter The tubing used for platelet administration has an in-line filter. This helps ensure that any particles larger than the size of the filter are caught in the filter and are not infused into the client. Self-sealing valves and Y-ports are unnecessary. These features may be used to administer medication. No medication is infused through the intravenous (IV) line that the blood is infusing through. If the client needed medications as a result of a complication while receiving blood or for another reason, it would need to be administered via a different IV site and line. Platelets do not need to be protected from light.

The medication prescribed is heparin sodium 650 units subcutaneously every 12 hours. The medication vial reads heparin sodium (Liquaemin), 1000 units/mL. The nurse prepares how many milliliters to administer one dose?

Answer: 0.65 Rationale: Follow the formula for dosage calculation.

Answer: 0.7 Rationale: Follow the formula for dosage calculation.

The medication prescribed is meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol), 35 mg intramuscularly. The medication label states meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol), 50 mg/mL. The nurse plans to prepare how much medication to administer the dose?

Answer: 0.7 Rationale: Follow the formula for dosage calculations.

A nurse is asked to regulate the flow rate of an intravenous (IV) solution being administered to a client. The IV bag contains 50 mL of solution and the solution is to be administered over 30 minutes. The administration set has a drop factor of 10 drops (gtt)/mL. The nurse should regulate the roller clamp on the infusion set to deliver how many drops per minute? Round to the nearest whole number.

Answer: 17 Rationale: The formula and calculation for this IV flow rate is:

The nurse notes that a client's total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution is 4 hours behind. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Assess the infusion pump to be sure it is functioning properly and is set at the correct rate. 2. Increase the infusion rate to a rate that allows the infusion volume to correct itself within a 2-hour period. 3. Replace the TPN solution with 10% dextrose, and restart the solution the following day. 4. Administer the TPN solution using gravity flow because the infusion pump is malfunctioning.

Assess the infusion pump to be sure it is functioning properly and is set at the correct rate. If an infusion falls behind schedule, the nurse should not increase the rate in an attempt to catch up, because a hyperosmotic reaction, among other reactions, could result. The solution should not be replaced by another or restarted the next day. An infusion pump should always be used to administer TPN solution.

A health care provider's prescription reads as follows: "Ampicillin, 125 mg intramuscular every 6 hours." The medication label reads, "1 gram when reconstituted with 7.4 mL of bacteriostatic water." How many milliliters should the nurse draw up for one dose?

0.92

A client in the postpartum unit complains of sudden, sharp chest pain. The client is tachycardic, and the respiratory rate is increased. The health care provider diagnoses a pulmonary embolism. Which actions should the nurse plan to take? Select all that apply. 1. Administer oxygen. 2. Assess the blood pressure. 3. Start an intravenous (IV) line. 4. Prepare to administer warfarin sodium. 5. Prepare to administer morphine sulfate. 6. Place the client on bed rest in a supine position.

1. Administer oxygen. 2. Assess the blood pressure. 3. Start an intravenous (IV) line. 5. Prepare to administer morphine sulfate. If pulmonary embolism is suspected, oxygen is administered to decrease hypoxia. The client also is kept on bed rest, with the head of the bed elevated to reduce dyspnea. Morphine sulfate may be prescribed for the client to reduce pain and apprehension. An IV line also will be required, and vital signs must be monitored. Heparin therapy (not warfarin sodium) is administered.

A client is brought to the emergency department complaining of substernal chest pain. To distinguish between angina and myocardial infarction, the nurse assesses for which characteristics of angina? Select all that apply 1. Chest pain that resolves with rest 2. Chest pain requiring an opioid for relief 3. Chest pain that is relieved by nitroglycerin 4. Chest pain that lasts longer than 30 minutes 5. Chest pain that is usually precipitated by exertion

1. Chest pain that resolves with rest 3. Chest pain that is relieved by nitroglycerin 5. Chest pain that is usually precipitated by exertion Angina is chest pain caused by a temporary imbalance between the coronary arteries' ability to supply oxygen and the cardiac muscle's demand for oxygen. Myocardial infarction refers to injury and necrosis of myocardial tissue that occurs when the tissue is abruptly and severely deprived of oxygen. When a client complains of chest pain, it is critical that treatment is immediately initiated and that the nurse assesses for characteristics of angina versus those associated with myocardial infarction. Angina is characterized by substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm. The pain is usually precipitated by exertion or stress, is relieved by nitroglycerin or rest, and lasts less than 15 minutes. Characteristics of myocardial infarction include substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm; pain in the jaw, abdomen, back, or shoulder can also occur. The substernal chest pain occurs without cause, usually in the morning; is relieved only by opioids, and lasts 30 minutes or longer.

The nurse is performing discharge teaching for a client with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which instructions should the nurse include? Select all that apply. 1. Wear a MedicAlert tag or bracelet. 2. Report redness or swelling at the catheter insertion site. 3. Have a repair kit available in the home for use if needed. 4. Keep activity level to a minimum while this catheter is in place. 5. Cover the PICC dressing with plastic when in the shower or bath

1. Wear a MedicAlert tag or bracelet. 2. Report redness or swelling at the catheter insertion site. 3. Have a repair kit available in the home for use if needed. 5. Cover the PICC dressing with plastic when in the shower or bath. The client should be taught that there are only minor activity restrictions with this catheter. The client should protect the site during bathing and should carry MedicAlert identification. The client should have a repair kit in the home for PRN use, because it is a long-term catheter. Redness or swelling at the catheter insertion site needs to be reported because this could indicate a sign of infection

Which of these clients are most likely to develop fluid (circulatory) overload? Select all that apply.

1. A premature infant 2. A 101-year-old man 3. A client on renal dialysis 4. A client with diabetes mellitus 5. A 29-year-old woman with pneumonia 6. A client with congestive heart failure Answer: 1 2 3 6 Rationale: Clients with cardiac, respiratory, renal, or liver diseases and older and very young clients cannot tolerate an excessive fluid volume. The risk of fluid (circulatory) overload exists with these clients.

A client who is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) complains of a headache. The nurse notes that the client has an increased blood pressure and a bounding pulse. The nurse reports the findings, knowing that these signs are indicative of which complication of this therapy?

1. Sepsis 2. Air embolism 3. Fluid overload 4. Hyperglycemia Answer: 3 Rationale: The client's signs and symptoms are consistent with fluid overload. The increased intravascular volume increases the blood pressure, whereas the pulse rate increases as the heart tries to pump the extra fluid volume. A fever would be present in a client with sepsis. Signs and symptoms of an air embolus include confusion, pallor, lightheadedness, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, anxiety, and unresponsiveness. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are manifestations of hyperglycemia.

A nurse is assisting with caring for a client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. The nurse tells the client that it is most important to report which of the following signs immediately?

1. Sore throat or earache 2. Chills, itching, or rash 3. Unusual sleepiness or fatigue 4. Mild discomfort at the catheter site Answer: 2 Rationale: The client is told to report chills, itching, or rash immediately, because these could be signs of a possible transfusion reaction. Mild discomfort at the catheter site may be indicative of a problem, or it could result from the size of the IV catheter required to infuse the blood product. Sore throat, earache, sleepiness, and fatigue, are unrelated to a transfusion reaction.

58. A nurse is checking the remaining volume in a 1000-mL IV bag that is schedules to infuse over 8 hours. The nurse had just noted that at 11:00 AM the remaining IV fluid is at the 500-mL level. When she returns at noon, which value (mL) should the IV fluid be?

1000 mL/ 8 hour = 125 mL/hour 500-125 = 375

The nurse is picking up a unit of packed red blood cells at the hospital blood bank. After putting the pen down, the nurse glances at the clock, which reads 1300. The nurse calculates that the transfusion must be started by which time? 1. 1330 2. 1400 3. 1430 4. 1500

1330 Blood must be hung as soon as possible (within 30 minutes) after it is obtained from the blood bank. After that time, the blood temperature will be higher than 50°F (10°C), and the blood could be unsafe for use. For this reason, the remaining options are incorrect.

13. Client going to be transfused with a unit of packed red blood cells. The nurse understands it is necessary to remain with the client for what time period after transfusion has started?

15 minutes

A client is to receive 1000 mL of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) at a rate of 100 mL/hr. The drop (gtt) factor is 10 drops (gtt) per mL. The nurse adjusts the flow rate to deliver how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to the nearest whole number.

The medication prescribed is zidovudine (Retrovir), 0.2 g orally, three times daily. The medication label states zidovudine, 100-mg tablets. The nurse prepares to administer how many tablets for one dose? Fill in the blank.

The nurse is making initial rounds on the nursing unit to assess the condition of assigned clients. Which assessment findings are consistent with infiltration? Select all that apply. 1. Pain and erythema 2. Pallor and coolness 3. Numbness and pain 4. Edema and blanched skin 5. Formation of a red streak and purulent drainage

2. Pallor and coolness 3. Numbness and pain 4. Edema and blanched skin An infiltrated intravenous (IV) line is one that has dislodged from the vein and is lying in subcutaneous tissue. Pallor, coolness, edema, pain, numbness, and blanched skin are the results of IV fluid being deposited in the subcutaneous tissue. When the pressure in the tissues exceeds the pressure in the tubing, the flow of the IV solution will stop, and if an electronic pump is being used, it will alarm. Erythema can be associated with infection, phlebitis, or thrombosis. Formation of a red streak and purulent drainage is associated with phlebitis and infection

The nurse is checking the remaining volume in a 1000-mL intravenous (IV) bag that is scheduled to infuse over 8 hours on an electronic infusion pump. The nurse has just noted at 11:00 am that the remaining IV fluid is at the 500-mL level. At 12:00 noon at which numerical level (mL) should the IV fluid be? Fill in the blank.

375

The prescription reads to infuse an insulin drip at 12 mL/hr. There are 100 units regular insulin in 250 mL of normal saline. How many units of insulin will the client receive per hour? Fill in the blank.

4.8

48. Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (benadryl), 25 mg orally every 6 hours, is prescribed for a child who weighs 25 kg. The safe pediatric dosage is 5 mg/kg/day. Is the dosage safe?

5 mg/kg/day *25 kg = 125 mg/day (safe dosage) given: 25 mg/ 6 hr * 24 hr/1 day = 100

Use process of eliminate and notice that?

5% dextrose in water, 10 % dextrose in water, 5% dextrose in 0.9% saline are comparable or alike. All contain dextrose, and the 0.45% saline is the only different one

A Akathisia Rationale: Approximately 5 to 60 days after starting an antipsychotic medication, the client may exhibit the side effect of akathisia, manifested by motor restlessness (continually tapping a foot, rocking back and forth in a chair, or shifting weight from one foot to another). Pelvic thrusts, athetoid limbs, and a protruding tongue are effects that may occur after 6 to 24 months of an antipsychotic medication.

A Atropine sulfate Rationale: The treatment for cholinergic crisis is atropine sulfate. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, and acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen (Tylenol). Pyridostigmine bromide is an anticholinesterase agent used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis to improve muscle strength. An overdose of this medication can cause cholinergic crisis.

A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with renal colic who is receiving meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) for pain. Which side effects does the nurse make a note of needing to be alert to in the plan of care? Select all that apply. A Hypotension B Constipation C Bradycardia D Urine retention E Respiratory depression

A Hypotension B Constipation D Urine retention E Respiratory depression

A nurse suspects that a client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) through a central line has an air embolism. The nurse immediately positions the client on the: A Left side with the head lower than the feet B Left side with the head higher than the feet C Right side with the head lower than the feet D Right side with the head higher than the feet

A Left side with the head lower than the feet

Risperidone (Risperdal) is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. Which laboratory study does the nurse expect to see among the physician's prescriptions? A Platelet count B Creatinine level C Sedimentation rate D Red blood cell count

A Platelet count

A client who has been taking lisinopril (Prinivil) complains to the nurse of a persistent dry cough. The nurse tells the client that: A This is a side effect of therapy B He probably has an upper respiratory infection C He needs to have his blood counts checked D A chest x-ray is required because the cough is a sign of heart failure

A This is a side effect of therapy Rationale: One common side effect of therapy with any of the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as lisinopril, is a persistent dry cough. The cough generally does not improve while the client is taking the medication. Clients are advised to notify the physician if the cough becomes troublesome to them. The cough is reversible with discontinuation of the therapy. The other options are incorrect interpretations of the client's complaint.

The nurse has a new prescription to administer verapamil by the intravenous (IV) route. In administering this medication, the most important nursing action should be to use what item to monitor the client's response to the medication? 1. A pulse oximeter 2. A cardiac monitor 3. Supplemental oxygen 4. A noninvasive blood pressure monitor

A cardiac monitor Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that may be used to treat rapid-rate supraventricular tachydysrhythmias such as atrial flutter or atrial fibrillation. A cardiac monitor is used to determine the client's response to the medication. A pulse oximeter and oxygen are related to respiratory care and may be other useful adjuncts to care, but they are not directly related to the use of this medication. A noninvasive blood pressure monitor also is helpful but is not as essential or critical as the cardiac monitor.

The nurse is teaching cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to a group of community members. The nurse tells the group that when chest compressions are performed on infants, the sternum should be depressed how far? 1. At least 2 inches (5 cm) 2. About 1½ inches (4 cm) 3. At least one half the depth of the chest 4. Deep enough to make a finger impression

About 1½ inches (4 cm) According to the American Heart Association's 2015 guidelines, when CPR is performed on infants, the sternum should be depressed at least one third the depth of chest, which is about 1½ inches or 4 cm. The remaining options are incorrect.

A client is scheduled to receive digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.125 mg by mouth. The licensed practical nurse (LPN) reads the medication label and notes that each tablet contains 0.25 mg.The LPN should perform which action?

Administer half of a medication tablet.

A postpartum client with femoral thrombophlebitis has developed sudden shortness of breath and appears very anxious. What is the nurse's priority action for this client? 1. Check the client's blood pressure immediately. 2. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 to 45 degrees. 3. Initiate an intravenous line if one is not already in place. 4. Administer oxygen by face mask as per protocol at 8 to 10 L/min.

Administer oxygen by face mask as per protocol at 8 to 10 L/min. This client is at increased risk for pulmonary embolus and is exhibiting symptoms. Because pulmonary circulation is compromised in the presence of an embolus, cardiorespiratory support is initiated by oxygen administration. Although the remaining options may be implemented, none of these is the priority nursing action.

A client in a postpartum unit complains of sudden sharp chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse notes that the client is tachycardic and the respiratory rate is elevated. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism. Which should be the initial nursing action? 1. Initiate an intravenous line. 2. Assess the client's blood pressure. 3. Prepare to administer morphine sulfate. 4. Administer oxygen, 8 to 10 L/minute, by face mask.

Administer oxygen, 8 to 10 L/minute, by face mask. If pulmonary embolism is suspected, oxygen should be administered, 8 to 10 L/minute, by face mask. Oxygen is used to decrease hypoxia. The client also is kept on bed rest with the head of the bed slightly elevated to reduce dyspnea. Morphine sulfate may be prescribed for the client, but this would not be the initial nursing action. An intravenous line also will be required, and vital signs need to be monitored, but these actions would follow the administration of oxygen.

The nurse in the hospital emergency department is caring for a client with suspected opioid overdose and is preparing to administer the reversal agent via the intravenous route. Which statement is correct about the administration of this medication? 1. Prepare only 1 dose of the reversal agent. 2. Administer the entire dose by slow intravenous push. 3. Administer the medication rapidly by the intravenous route. 4. After the initial dose, prepare to administer additional intravenous doses if needed.

After the initial dose, prepare to administer additional intravenous doses if needed. The reversal agent for opioids is naloxone hydrochloride, which should be titrated every 2 to 5 minutes according to client response. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

A health care provider's prescription reads: tobramycin sulfate, 7.5 mg intramuscularly twice daily. The medication label states 10 mg/mL. How many mL will the nurse give to administer one dose?

Answer: 0.75 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating the appropriate medication dosage.

A health care provider prescribes meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol), 40 mg intramuscularly stat, for a postoperative client in pain. The medication label states meperidine hydrochloride, 50 mg/mL. How many mL will the nurse prepare to administer to the client?

Answer: 0.8 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating the medication dosage. In this question, it is not necessary to perform a conversion.

The nurse is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on a client who has had a cardiac arrest. An automatic external defibrillator (AED) is available to treat the client. Which activity will allow the nurse to assess the client's cardiac rhythm? 1. Hold the defibrillator paddles firmly against the chest. 2. Apply adhesive patch electrodes to the chest and move away from the client. 3. Connect standard electrocardiographic electrodes to a transtelephonic monitoring device. 4. Apply standard electrocardiographic monitoring leads to the client, and observe the rhythm.

Apply adhesive patch electrodes to the chest and move away from the client. The nurse or rescuer puts two adhesive patch electrodes on the client's chest in the usual defibrillator positions. The nurse stops CPR and requests that anyone near the client move away and not touch the client. The defibrillator then analyzes the rhythm, which may take up to 30 seconds. The machine then indicates whether defibrillation is necessary.

The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube drainage system. During repositioning of the client, the chest tube accidentally pulls out of the pleural cavity. Which is the initial nursing action? 1. Apply an occlusive dressing. 2. Reinsert the chest tube quickly. 3. Contact the respiratory therapist. 4. Contact the health care provider (HCP).

Apply an occlusive dressing. If a chest tube is accidentally pulled out, the nurse would immediately apply an occlusive dressing and then contact the HCP. It is not appropriate and not a nursing role to reinsert a chest tube. It is not necessary to contact the respiratory therapist. The HCP needs to be notified, but this is not the initial nursing action.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver with portal hypertension. The client vomited 500 mL bright red emesis and states that he is feeling lightheaded. In which priority order should the nurse perform these interventions? Arrange the actions in the order they should be performed. All options must be used.

Apply oxygen. Ensure that 2 large-bore intravenous lines are present with an isotonic solution infusing. Check the client's blood pressure. Ask the client if he is taking any nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications. The client has an upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed. Upper GI bleeding is an emergency because it can lead to hypovolemic shock. The first intervention of those listed should be to apply oxygen in an attempt to maximize the amount of oxygen being delivered by the decreased number of red blood cells due to the bleeding. The next action should be to ensure that 2 large-bore intravenous (IV) lines are present, and begin replacement of the intravascular fluid volume with an isotonic IV fluid. The nurse should then check the blood pressure. These are all actions to stabilize and assess the client's current condition. The last intervention is to ask the client about nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications. Although it is important to identify the cause of the bleeding and obtain a complete history of events leading up to the bleeding episode, this needs to be deferred until emergency care is initiated.

The police arrive at the emergency department with a client who has lacerated both wrists. Which is the initial nursing action 1. Administer an antianxiety agent. 2. Assess and treat the wound sites. 3. Secure and record a detailed history. 4. Encourage and assist the client to ventilate feelings.

Assess and treat the wound sites. The initial nursing action is to assess and treat the self-inflicted injuries. Injuries from lacerated wrists can lead to a life-threatening situation. Other interventions, such as options 1, 3, and 4, may follow after the client has been treated medically.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who sustained circumferential burns of both legs. Which assessment would be the initial priority in caring for this client? 1. Assessing heart rate 2. Assessing respiratory rate 3. Assessing peripheral pulses 4. Assessing blood pressure (BP)

Assessing peripheral pulses The client who receives circumferential burns to the extremities is at risk for altered peripheral circulation. The priority assessment would be to assess for peripheral pulses to ensure that adequate circulation is present. Although the respiratory rate and BP also would be assessed, the priority with a circumferential burn is assessment for the presence of peripheral pulses because the airway is not affected in this case.

A client with schizophrenia who has been taking an antipsychotic medication calls the clinic nurse and says, "I need to cancel my appointment with the psychiatrist again, because I still have this awful sore throat. It's so bad that my mouth has a sore." How does the nurse respond to the client? A "I wouldn't be upset. It happens when you aren't drinking enough water." B "I think you need to come in for blood work today, because this may be a side effect of your medicine." C "Do you remember when you started this medication? Your psychiatrist told you how important it is to keep your appointments with him." D "You probably have a simple flu, but it might help if you gargle with some antiseptic mouthwash every 2 hours or so and drink plenty of water."

B "I think you need to come in for blood work today, because this may be a side effect of your medicine."

At 1300, the nurse is documenting the receipt of a unit of packed blood cells at the hospital blood bank. The nurse calculates that the transfusion must be started by: A 1315 B 1330 C 1345 D 1400

B 1330

A nurse is teaching a client how to mix regular and NPH insulin in the same syringe. The nurse tells the client to: A Shake the NPH insulin bottle before mixing the two types B Draw the regular insulin into the syringe first C Remove all of the air from the bottle before mixing the two types D Keep insulin refrigerated at all times

B Draw the regular insulin into the syringe first

A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of chronic renal failure who is receiving dialysis. Epoetin alfa (Epogen), to be administered subcutaneously, has been prescribed, and the nurse is drawing the medication from a single-use vial. The nurse should prepare the medication by: A Shaking the vial before drawing up the medication B Drawing up the medication and discarding the unused portion C Obtaining the medication from the medication freezer and allowing it to thaw D Mixing the medication with 0.1 mL of heparin before administration to prevent clotting

B Drawing up the medication and discarding the unused portion

A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking acetazolamide (Diamox) for glaucoma. Which of the following, documented in the assessment data, indicates to the nurse that the client may be experiencing an adverse effect of the medication? A Tinnitus B Jaundice C No change in peripheral vision D Pupillary constriction in response to light

B Jaundice

A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate for the management of preeclampsia. Which of the following assessment findings indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing magnesium toxicity? A Proteinuria of +3 B Sudden drop in fetal heart rate C Presence of deep tendon reflexes D Serum magnesium level of 6 mEq/L

B Sudden drop in fetal heart rate

A client is receiving heparin sodium by way of continuous IV infusion. For which adverse effects of the therapy does the nurse assess the client? Select all that apply. A Tinnitus B Tarry stools C Slowed pulse D Bleeding from the gums E Increased blood pressure

B Tarry stools D Bleeding from the gums

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client admitted to the nursing unit who has sustained an extensive burn injury involving 45% of total body surface area. When planning for fluid resuscitation, the nurse should consider that fluid shifting to the interstitial spaces is greatest during which time period? 1. Immediately after the injury 2. Within 12 hours after the injury 3. Between 18 and 24 hours after the injury 4. Between 42 and 72 hours after the injury

Between 18 and 24 hours after the injury The maximum amount of edema in a client with a burn injury is seen between 18 and 24 hours after the injury. With adequate fluid resuscitation the transmembrane potential is restored to normal within 24 to 36 hours after the burn. The remaining options are incorrect

A client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) by way of a central venous access device complains of shakiness and is diaphoretic. Based on these findings, the nurse should perform which assessment next? 1. Lung sounds 2. Mental status 3. Blood pressure 4. Blood glucose level

Blood glucose level Hypoglycemia is one of the potential complications associated with TPN. Shakiness and diaphoresis are signs of hypoglycemia; therefore, based on these findings, the nurse should first check the blood glucose level. Lung sounds may provide information about refeeding syndrome, which is a complication of TPN causing fluid overload. However, the assessment findings do not indicate that this is occurring. Mental status could be affected by hypoglycemia; however, the nurse has enough information to suspect this complication already and therefore should assess the blood glucose before assessing mental status. Blood pressure is not specifically related to the information in the question and the associated complication of TPN

A client is having frequent premature ventricular contractions. The nurse should place priority on assessment of which item? 1. Sensation of palpitations 2. Causative factors, such as caffeine 3. Blood pressure and oxygen saturation 4. Precipitating factors, such as infection

Blood pressure and oxygen saturation Premature ventricular contractions can cause hemodynamic compromise. Therefore, the priority is to monitor the blood pressure and oxygen saturation. The shortened ventricular filling time can lead to decreased cardiac output. The client may be asymptomatic or may feel palpitations. Premature ventricular contractions can be caused by cardiac disorders; states of hypoxemia; any number of physiological stressors, such as infection, illness, surgery, or trauma; and intake of caffeine, nicotine, or alcohol.

The nurse should report which assessment finding to the health care provider (HCP) before initiating thrombolytic therapy in a client with pulmonary embolism? 1. Adventitious breath sounds 2. Temperature of 99.4°F (37.4°C) orally 3. Blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg 4. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute

Blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated in a number of preexisting conditions in which there is a risk of uncontrolled bleeding, similar to the case in anticoagulant therapy. Thrombolytic therapy also is contraindicated in severe uncontrolled hypertension because of the risk of cerebral hemorrhage. Therefore, the nurse would report the results of the blood pressure to the HCP before initiating therapy.

A child is receiving succimer for the treatment of lead poisoning. The nurse should monitor which most important laboratory result? 1. Iron level 2. Calcium level 3. Red blood cell count 4. Blood urea nitrogen level

Blood urea nitrogen level Succimer is a medication that is used to treat lead poisoning. Renal function (blood urea nitrogen and creatinine) is monitored closely during the administration of chelation therapy because the medication is excreted via the kidneys. Although it is important to monitor the iron level, calcium level, and red blood cell count, these results are not specific to chelation therapy, so they are not the most important lab values to monitor.

The nurse is told by a health care provider that a client in hypovolemic shock will require plasma expansion. The nurse should prepare which supplies for transfusion? 1. Bag of platelets with filtered tubing 2. Bottle of albumin with vented tubing 3. Cryoprecipitate bag with vented tubing 4. Infusion pump and bag of packed red blood cells

Bottle of albumin with vented tubing Albumin may be used as a plasma expander. Albumin is supplied in a bottle, and vented tubing is required for transfusion. Platelets are used when the client's platelet count is low. Cryoprecipitate is useful in treating bleeding from hemophilia or disseminated intravascular coagulopathy because it is rich in clotting factors. Cryoprecipitate is usually supplied in bags, so vented tubing is not required. Packed red blood cells replace erythrocytes and are not a plasma expander.

The nursing instructor teaches a group of students about cardiopulmonary resuscitation. The instructor asks a student to identify the most appropriate location at which to assess the pulse of an infant younger than 1 year of age. Which response would indicate that the student understands the appropriate assessment procedure? 1. Radial artery 2. Carotid artery 3. Brachial artery 4. Popliteal artery

Brachial artery To assess a pulse in an infant (younger than 1 year), the pulse is checked at the brachial or femoral artery. The infant's relatively short, fat neck makes palpation of the carotid artery difficult. The popliteal and radial pulses are also difficult to palpate in an infant.

Erythromycin is prescribed for a client with a respiratory tract infection. The nurse provides instructions to the client regarding the administration of the oral medication and tells the client to take the medication: A With juice B With a meal C On an empty stomach D At bedtime, with a snack

C On an empty stomach

C On an empty stomach Rationale: Oral erythromycin should be taken on an empty stomach with a full glass of water. Some preparations may be administered with food if gastrointestinal upset occurs, but it is best to administer the drug on an empty stomach.

A depressed client is found unconscious on the floor in the dayroom of a health care facility. The nurse finds several empty bottles of a prescribed tricyclic antidepressant lying near the client. Which is the priority action of the nurse? 1. Call the Poison Control Center. 2. Call the emergency response team. 3. Determine the exact number of pills taken. 4. Induce vomiting and notify the health care provider.

Call the emergency response team. Tricyclic antidepressants can be fatal when taken as an overdose, regardless of the amount ingested. Life-threatening symptoms can develop after an overdose. Immediate emergency medical attention and cardiac monitoring are necessary with an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants. Options that delay immediate intervention would not be the priority actions. Vomiting is not induced in an unconscious client.

The nurse is caring for a client who had a resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm yesterday. The client has an intravenous (IV) infusion at a rate of 150 mL/hour, unchanged for the last 10 hours. The client's urine output for the last 3 hours has been 90, 50, and 28 mL (28 mL is most recent). The client's blood urea nitrogen level is 35 mg/dL (12.6 mmol/L) and the serum creatinine level is 1.8 mg/dL (159 mcmol/L), measured this morning. Which nursing action is the priority? 1. Check the urine specific gravity. 2. Call the health care provider (HCP). 3. Put the IV line on a pump so that the infusion rate is sure to stay stable. 4. Check to see if the client had a blood sample for a serum albumin level drawn.

Call the health care provider (HCP). Following abdominal aortic aneurysm resection or repair, the nurse monitors the client for signs of acute kidney injury. Acute kidney injury can occur because often much blood is lost during the surgery and, depending on the aneurysm location, the renal arteries may be hypoperfused for a short period during surgery. Normal reference levels are BUN, 10-20 mg/dL (3.6-7.1 mmol/L), and creatinine, male, 0.6-1.2 mg/dL (53-106 mcmol/L) and female, 0.5-1.1 mg/dL (44-97 mcmol/L). Options 1 and 4 are not associated with the data in the question. The IV should have already been on a pump. Urine output lower than 30 mL/hour is reported to the HCP.

31. Nurse is preparing to administer medication through an NG tube connected to suction. What indicates the accurate procedure for medication administration?

Clamp the NG tube for 30 minutes after medication administration

The nurse is monitoring a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The client suddenly develops respiratory distress, dyspnea, and chest pain, and the nurse suspects air embolism. In order of priority, how should the nurse plan the actions to take? Arrange the actions in the order that they should be performed. All options must be used.

Clamp the intravenous (IV) catheter. Position the client in a left Trendelenburg's position. Contact the health care provider (HCP). Administer oxygen. Take the client's vital signs. Document the occurrence.

The nurse is monitoring the amount of lochia drainage in a client who is 2 hours postpartum and notes that the client has saturated a perineal pad in 15 minutes. How should the nurse respond to this finding initially? 1. Document the finding. 2. Encourage the client to ambulate. 3. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake. 4. Contact the health care provider (HCP) and inform the HCP of this finding.

Contact the health care provider (HCP) and inform the HCP of this finding. Lochia is the discharge from the uterus in the postpartum period; it consists of blood from the vessels of the placental site and debris from the decidua. The following can be used as a guide to determine the amount of flow: scant = less than 2.5 cm (<1 inch) on menstrual pad in 1 hour; light = less than 10 cm (<4 inches) on menstrual pad in 1 hour; moderate = less than 15 cm (<6 inches) on menstrual pad in 1 hour; heavy = saturated menstrual pad in 1 hour; and excessive = menstrual pad saturated in 15 minutes. If the client is experiencing excessive bleeding, the nurse should contact the HCP in the event that postpartum hemorrhage is occurring. It may be appropriate to encourage increased fluid intake, but this is not the initial action. It is not appropriate to encourage ambulation at this time. Documentation should occur once the client has been stabilized.

Intravenous (IV) fluids have been infusing at 100 mL/hour via a central line catheter in the right internal jugular for approximately 24 hours to increase urine output and maintain the client's blood pressure. Upon entering the client's room, the nurse notes that the client is breathing rapidly and coughing. For which additional signs of a complication should the nurse assess based on the previously known data? 1. Excessive bleeding 2. Crackles in the lungs 3. Incompatibility of the infusion 4. Chest pain radiating to the left arm

Crackles in the lungs Circulatory (fluid) overload is a complication of IV therapy. Signs include rapid breathing, dyspnea, a moist cough, and crackles. Blood pressure and heart rate also increase if circulatory overload is present. Therefore, since the nurse previously noted rapid breathing and coughing, the nurse should then assess for a moist cough and crackles. Hematoma is another potential complication and is characterized by ecchymosis, swelling, and leakage at the IV insertion site, as well as hard and painful lumps at the site. Allergic reaction is a complication of administration of IV fluids or medication and is characterized by chills, fever, malaise, headache, nausea, vomiting, backache, and tachycardia; this type of reaction could also occur if the IV solutions infused are incompatible; however, there was no indication of multiple solutions being infused simultaneously in this question. Chest pain radiating to the left arm is a classic sign of cardiac compromise and is not specifically related to a complication of IV therapy.

The nurse is monitoring a client who required a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube because other measures for treating bleeding esophageal varices were unsuccessful. The client complains of severe pain of abrupt onset. Which nursing action is most appropriate? 1. Cut the tube. 2. Reposition the client. 3. Assess the lumens of the tubes. 4. Administer the prescribed analgesics.

Cut the tube. Spontaneous rupture of the gastric balloon, upward migration of the tube, and occlusion of the airway are possible complications associated with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube. Esophageal rupture also may occur and is characterized by the abrupt onset of severe pain. In the event of any of these life-threatening emergencies, the tube is cut and removed.

D Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

A client with HIV infection has been started on therapy with zidovudine (AZT, Retrovir). The nurse tells the client to report to the laboratory in 3 months for testing to detect adverse effects of the therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests is most important in light of the therapy that has been prescribed for this client? A Creatinine B Serum potassium C Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) D Complete blood count (CBC)

D Complete blood count (CBC)

A client has a prescription for short-term therapy with enoxaparin (Lovenox). The nurse explains to the client that this medication is being prescribed to: A Prevent pain B Relieve back spasms C Increase the client's energy level D Reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis

D Reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis

The emergency department nurse is monitoring a client who received treatment for a severe asthma attack. The nurse determines that the client's respiratory status has worsened if which is noted on assessment? 1. Diminished breath sounds 2. Wheezing during inhalation 3. Wheezing during exhalation 4. Wheezing throughout the lung fields

Diminished breath sounds Diminished breath sounds may be an indication of severe obstruction and possibly respiratory failure. Wheezing is not a reliable manifestation to determine the severity of an asthma attack. For wheezing to occur, the client must be able to move sufficient air to produce breath sounds. Wheezing usually occurs first on exhalation. As the asthma attack progresses, the client may wheeze during both inspiration and expiration.

A client with rapid-rate atrial fibrillation has a new prescription for diltiazem hydrochloride by intravenous (IV) bolus followed by a continuous IV infusion of the same medication. What should the nurse plan for with the administration of this medication? 1. Applying a nonrebreather mask 2. Discontinuing the infusion after 24 hours 3. Monitoring the cardiac rhythm every hour 4. Administering the IV bolus over 2 to 3 seconds

Discontinuing the infusion after 24 hours Diltiazem hydrochloride is a calcium channel blocker used in the treatment of atrial flutter and fibrillation. It decreases myocardial contractility and workload, thereby decreasing the need for oxygen. A bolus of 0.25 mg/kg is given slowly over 2 minutes, and a continuous infusion of 5 to 10 mg/hour may be administered for up to 24 hours. Therefore, the nurse should prepare to discontinue the infusion after 24 hours. Upon discontinuation of infusion, heart rate reduction may last from 0.5 hours to more than 10 hours (median duration 7 hours). A nonrebreather mask is not necessary. The client's cardiac rhythm is monitored continuously.

A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a single-lumen central intravenous (IV) line is scheduled to receive an antibiotic by the IV route. Which action by the nurse is appropriate before hanging the antibiotic solution? 1. Ensure a separate IV access for the antibiotic. 2. Turn off the solution for 30 minutes before administering the antibiotic. 3. Flush the central IV line with 60 mL of normal saline before giving the antibiotic. 4. Check with the pharmacy to be sure the antibiotic can be given through the TPN solution line.

Ensure a separate IV access for the antibiotic. The TPN solution line is used only for the administration of the solution. Any other IV medication must be run though a separate IV access site; therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

40. The nurse notes the appearance of skin breakdown on a client's hand at the site of intravenous catheter that had medication infusing. The nurse determines that which adverse effect occured? Figure shows open region, top few layers of skin gone/down to adipose, circular, swollen edges, red

Extravasation (vesicant substance ate through the skin)

A client begins experiencing wheezing, anxiety, swelling, and hives after eating shellfish and is brought to the emergency department. Which immediate action should the nurse implement? 1. Administer epinephrine. 2. Maintain a patent airway. 3. Administer a corticosteroid. 4. Apply a MedicAlert bracelet.

Maintain a patent airway Swelling, hives, lowered blood pressure, anxiety, and wheezing are indicative of anaphylaxis. If the client experiences an anaphylactic reaction, the immediate action would be to maintain a patent airway. The client then would receive epinephrine. Corticosteroids may also be prescribed. The client will need to be instructed about obtaining and wearing a MedicAlert bracelet, but this is not the immediate action.

The nurse has developed a nursing care plan for a client with a burn injury to implement during the emergent phase. Which priority intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? 1. Monitor vital signs every 4 hours. 2. Monitor mental status every hour. 3. Monitor intake and output every shift. 4. Obtain and record weight every other day.

Monitor mental status every hour. During the emergent phase after a burn injury, because of fluid volume deficits secondary to a burn injury, vital signs should be monitored every hour (every 4 hours is too infrequent) until the client is hemodynamically stable. The nurse should monitor the mental status of the client every hour for the first 48 hours. The weight should be obtained and recorded daily or twice daily, and intake and output measurements should be recorded on an hourly basis.

The nurse is caring for a client following enucleation and notes the presence of bright red drainage on the dressing. Which most appropriate action should the nurse take at this time? 1. Document the finding. 2. Continue to monitor the drainage. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Mark the drainage on the dressing and monitor for any increase in bleeding.

Notify the health care provider (HCP). If the nurse notes the presence of bright red drainage on the dressing, it must be reported to the HCP, because this indicates hemorrhage. Options 1, 2, and 4 are inappropriate at this time.

A client begins to experience drainage of small amounts of bright red blood from the tracheostomy tube 24 hours after a supraglottic laryngectomy. Which is the best nursing action? 1. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 2. Increase the frequency of suctioning. 3. Add moisture to the oxygen delivery system. 4. Document the character and amount of drainage.

Notify the health care provider (HCP). Immediately after laryngectomy, a small amount of bleeding occurs from the tracheostomy that resolves within the first few hours. Otherwise, bleeding that is bright red may be a sign of impending rupture of a vessel. The bleeding in this instance represents a potential threat to life, and the HCP is notified to further evaluate the client and suture or repair the source of the bleeding. The other options do not address the urgency of the problem. Failure to notify the HCP places the client at risk.

The nurse is preparing a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion at the medication cart. As the nurse goes to insert the spike end of the IV tubing into the IV bag, the tubing drops and the spike end hits the top of the medication cart. The nurse should take which action? 1. Obtain a new IV bag. 2. Obtain new IV tubing. 3 Wipe the spike end of the tubing with povidine-iodine. 4. Scrub the spike end of the tubing with an alcohol swab.

Obtain new IV tubing. The nurse should obtain new IV tubing because contamination has occurred and could cause systemic infection in the client. There is no need to obtain a new IV bag because the bag was not contaminated. Wiping with povidine-iodine or alcohol is insufficient and is contraindicated because the spike will be inserted into the IV bag.

The nurse is preparing a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion at the medication cart. As the nurse goes to insert the spike end of the IV tubing into the IV bag, the tubing drops and the spike end hits the top of the medication cart. The nurse should take which action? 1. Obtain a new IV bag. 2. Obtain new IV tubing. 3. Wipe the spike end of the tubing with povidone iodine. 4. Scrub the spike end of the tubing with an alcohol swab.

Obtain new IV tubing. The nurse should obtain new IV tubing because contamination has occurred and could cause systemic infection to the client. There is no need to obtain a new IV bag because the bag was not contaminated. Wiping with povidone iodine or alcohol is insufficient and is contraindicated because the spike will be inserted into the IV bag.

The nurse is initiating 1-rescuer cardiopulmonary resuscitation on an adult client. The nurse should place the hands in which position to begin chest compressions? 1. On the lower half of the sternum 2. On the upper half of the sternum 3. On the lower third of the sternum 4. On the upper third of the sternum

On the lower half of the sternum Chest locations are found by placing the hands on the lower half of the sternum. To locate this area, find the notch where the rib margin meets the sternum, and place the middle finger on this notch and the index finger next to it. Next, place the heel of the opposite hand on the lower half of the sternum, close to the index finger. Remove the first hand, place it on top of the hand on the sternum, and begin chest compressions. Chest compressions will not be as effective with the hand placements described in the remaining options.

A client with a history of gastric ulcer complains of a sudden, sharp, severe pain in the midepigastric area, which then spreads over the entire abdomen. The client's abdomen is rigid and boardlike on palpation, and the client obtains most comfort from lying in the knee-chest position. The nurse suspects which condition and should perform which action? 1. Obstruction; call the operating room. 2. Perforation; notify the health care provider. 3. Intractability; administer cleansing enema. 4. Hemorrhage; increase intravenous fluid rate.

Perforation; notify the health care provider. The signs and symptoms described in the question are consistent with perforation of the ulcer, which may progress to peritonitis if the perforation is large enough. A client with intestinal obstruction would most likely complain of abdominal pain and distention and nausea and vomiting. Intractability is a term that refers to continued manifestations of a disease process despite ongoing medical treatment. A client with hemorrhage would vomit blood or coffee-ground material or would expel black, tarry, or bloody stools.

A client arrives in the emergency department with a penetrating eye injury from wood chips that occurred while cutting wood. The nurse assesses the eye and notes a piece of wood protruding from the eye. What is the initial nursing action? 1. Apply an eye patch. 2. Perform visual acuity tests. 3. Irrigate the eye with sterile saline. 4. Remove the piece of wood using a sterile eye clamp.

Perform visual acuity tests. If the eye injury is the result of a penetrating object, the object may be noted protruding from the eye. This object must never be removed except by the ophthalmologist because it may be holding ocular structures in place. Application of an eye patch or irrigation of the eye may disrupt the foreign body and cause further tearing of the cornea.

A client with depression receiving phenelzine sulfate suddenly complains of a severe headache and neck stiffness and soreness and then begins to vomit. The nurse takes the client's blood pressure and notes that it is 210/102 mm Hg. On the basis of the findings, the nurse should obtain which medication from the emergency drawer of the medication cart? 1. Phentolamine 2. Protamine sulfate 3. Calcium gluconate 4. Phenobarbital sodium

Phentolamine The antidote for hypertensive crisis is phentolamine. Hypertensive crisis may be manifested by hypertension, occipital headache radiating frontally, neck stiffness and soreness, nausea, vomiting, sweating, fever and chills, clammy skin, dilated pupils, and palpitations. Tachycardia or bradycardia and constricting chest pain also may be present.

Following infusion of a unit of packed red blood cells, the client has developed new onset of tachycardia, bounding pulses, crackles, and wheezes. Which action should the nurse implement first? 1. Maintain bed rest with legs elevated. 2. Place the client in high Fowler's position. 3. Increase the rate of infusion of intravenous fluids. 4. Consult with the health care provider (HCP) regarding initiation of oxygen therapy.

Place the client in high Fowler's position. New onset of tachycardia, bounding pulses, and crackles and wheezes posttransfusion is evidence of fluid overload, a complication associated with blood transfusions. Placing the client in a high Fowler's (upright) position will facilitate breathing. Measures that increase blood return to the heart, such as leg elevation and administration of IV fluids, should be avoided at this time. In addition, administration of fluids cannot be initiated without a prescription. Consulting with the HCP regarding administration of oxygen may be necessary, but positional changes take a short amount of time to do and should be initiated first.

A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is demonstrating signs and symptoms of an air embolism. What is the first action by the nurse 1. Stop the TPN solution. 2. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 3. Place the client in the high Fowler's position. 4. Place the client on the left side in the Trendelenburg's position.

Place the client on the left side in the Trendelenburg's position. Although stopping the TPN solution will not treat the problem, it will prevent it from worsening, and is a quick action that can be completed first. Lying on the left side may prevent air from flowing into the pulmonary veins. Trendelenburg's position increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases the amount of blood pulled into the vena cava during inspiration. The high Fowler's position is not helpful at this time. The HCP should be notified, but this is not the first action.

The nurse caring for a client with a chest tube turns the client to the side and the chest tube accidentally disconnects from the water seal chamber. Which initial action should the nurse take? 1. Call the health care provider (HCP). 2. Place the tube in a bottle of sterile water. 3. Replace the chest tube system immediately. 4. Place a sterile dressing over the disconnection site.

Place the tube in a bottle of sterile water. If the chest drainage system is disconnected, the end of the tube is placed in a bottle of sterile water held below the level of the chest. The HCP may need to be notified, but this is not the initial action. The system is replaced if it breaks or cracks or if the collection chamber is full. Placing a sterile dressing over the disconnection site will not prevent complications resulting from the disconnection.

Methylergonovine (Methergine) intramuscularly is prescribed for a postpartum client. Before administering the medication, the nurse explains to the client that the medication will:

Prevent postpartum bleeding

A client admitted with hypertensive crisis has an intravenous (IV) infusion of 1000 mL of normal saline with 20 mEq of potassium chloride added. A prescription is written to administer sodium nitroprusside by continuous IV infusion. The nurse should plan to do which to administer this medication? 1. Monitor the blood pressure every 15 minutes during administration. 2. Protect the sodium nitroprusside from light with an opaque material. 3. Check the solution for a faint brown coloration and discard it if this is noticed. 4. Piggyback the sodium nitroprusside into the IV line containing the potassium chloride.

Protect the sodium nitroprusside from light with an opaque material. Sodium nitroprusside can be degraded by light and should be protected with an opaque material. It is dispensed in powdered form and must be dissolved and diluted for the IV solution. A fresh solution may have a faint brown coloration, but solutions that are deeply colored, such as blue-green or dark red, should be discarded. No other medication should be mixed with the infusion solution. During the infusion, the blood pressure should be monitored continuously either through an arterial line or with an electronic monitoring device.

The nurse is preparing to administer lipid emulsion to a client who has just been started on total parenteral nutrition. Before administering the lipid emulsion, the nurse asks the client about allergies. The nurse should withhold the lipid emulsion and contact the health care provider if the client identifies an allergy to which food item? 1. Milk 2. White bread 3. Soybean oil 4. Strawberries

Soybean oil Most fat emulsions are prepared from soybean oil, and the primary components are linoleic, oleic, palmitic, linolenic, and stearic acids. The nurse would ask the client about an allergy to soybean oil. The remaining options are not a concern.

The nurse is caring for a client immediately after removal of the endotracheal tube. The nurse should report which sign immediately if experienced by the client? 1. Stridor 2. Occasional pink-tinged sputum 3. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths/minute 4. A few basilar lung crackles on the right

Stridor

An emergency department nurse is caring for a conscious child who was brought to the emergency department after the ingestion of half a bottle of acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin). The nurse anticipates that which will be the initial treatment? 1. Placement of a dialysis catheter 2. The administration of an emetic 3. The administration of vitamin K 4. The administration of sodium bicarbonate

The administration of an emetic Initial treatment of acetylsalicylic acid overdose includes the administration of an emetic or gastric lavage. Activated charcoal may be administered to decrease absorption. Fluids and sodium bicarbonate may be administered intravenously to enhance excretion but would not be the initial treatment. Dialysis is used in extreme cases if the child is unresponsive to therapy. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin sodium overdose.

An adult client has been unsuccessfully defibrillated for ventricular fibrillation, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) is resumed. The nurse confirms that CPR is being administered effectively by noting which action? 1. The ratio of compressions to ventilations is 30:2. 2. The carotid pulse is palpable with each compression. 3. Respirations are given at a rate of 10 breaths per minute. 4. The chest compressions are given at a depth of 1.5 to 2 inches (2.5 to 5 cm).

The carotid pulse is palpable with each compression. With effective compressions, carotid pulsations should be present. At its best, CPR produces only 30% of the normal cardiac output, so correct technique is vital. Assessment of the carotid pulse during CPR is the most accurate way to assess the effectiveness of CPR. Correct procedure for CPR in an adult includes a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30:2. With adults, compressions are performed at a depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm). The 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio yields an effective rate of 10 breaths per minute.

A client is brought into the emergency department in ventricular fibrillation (VF). The nurse prepares to defibrillate by placing defibrillation pads on which part of the chest? 1. The upper and lower halves of the sternum 2. Parallel between the umbilicus and the right nipple 3. The right shoulder and the back of the left shoulder 4. To the right of the sternum and to the left of the precordium

To the right of the sternum and to the left of the precordium The nurse would place 1 gel pad to the right of the sternum just below the clavicle and the other gel pad to the left of the precordium. The nurse would then place the electrode paddles over the pads. The remaining options identify incorrect positions.

The nurse walking in a downtown business area witnesses a worker fall from a ladder. The nurse rushes to the victim, who is unresponsive. A layperson is attempting to perform resuscitative measures. The nurse should intervene if which action by the layperson is noted? 1. Use of the head tilt-chin lift 2. Checking the scene for safety 3. Use of the jaw thrust maneuver 4. Moving the client away from a busy traffic road

Use of the head tilt-chin lift Whenever a neck injury is suspected, the jaw thrust maneuver should be used during basic life support (BLS) to open the airway. The head tilt-chin lift produces hyperextension of the neck and could cause complications if a neck injury is present. The scene should be checked for safety, and the client should be moved away from a busy traffic road in order to ensure safety.

The nurse is watching the cardiac monitor and notices that the rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves, the QRS complexes are wide, and the ventricular rate is regular but more than 140 beats/minute. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing which dysrhythmia? 1. Sinus tachycardia 2. Ventricular fibrillation 3. Ventricular tachycardia 4. Premature ventricular contractions

Ventricular tachycardia Ventricular tachycardia is characterized by the absence of P waves, wide QRS complexes (longer than 0.12 seconds), and typically a rate between 140 and 180 impulses/minute. The rhythm is regular.

The nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank and has checked the blood bag properly with another nurse. Just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse should assess which priority item? 1. Vital signs 2. Skin color 3. Urine output 4. Latest hematocrit level

Vital signs A change in vital signs during the transfusion from baseline may indicate that a transfusion reaction is occurring. This is why the nurse assesses vital signs before the procedure and again after the first 15 minutes and thereafter per agency policy. The other options do not identify assessments that are a priority just before beginning a transfusion.

The nurse monitors the client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) for complications of the therapy and should assess the client for which manifestations of hyperglycemia? 1. Fever, weak pulse, and thirst 2. Nausea, vomiting, and oliguria 3. Sweating, chills, and abdominal pain 4. Weakness, thirst, and increased urine output

Weakness, thirst, and increased urine output The high glucose concentration in PN places the client at risk for hyperglycemia. Signs of hyperglycemia include excessive thirst, fatigue, restlessness, confusion, weakness, Kussmaul respirations, diuresis, and coma when hyperglycemia is severe. If the client has these symptoms, the blood glucose level should be checked immediately. The remaining options do not identify signs specific to hyperglycemia.

A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse monitors the client for complications of the therapy and should assess the client for which manifestations of hyperglycemia? 1. Fever, weak pulse, and thirst 2. Nausea, vomiting, and oliguria 3. Sweating, chills, and abdominal pain 4. Weakness, thirst, and increased urine output

Weakness, thirst, and increased urine output The high glucose concentration in TPN places the client at risk for hyperglycemia. Signs of hyperglycemia include excessive thirst, fatigue, restlessness, confusion, weakness, Kussmaul respirations, diuresis, and coma when hyperglycemia is severe. If the client has these symptoms, the blood glucose level should be checked immediately. The remaining options do not identify signs specific to hyperglycemia.

When would levels of hemoglobin and hematocrit increase?

client has received transfusion of RBC

Why eliminate phlebitis and thrombosis first from the question?

comparable, or alike, and r/t vein injury

Fluid overload?

crackles and dyspnea

5. nurse is helping a client who has received a transfusion of platelets. The nurse determines the client is benefiting most from the therapy if the client exhibits?

decrease in oozing from gums and puncture sites

Phlebitis at IV site determined by?

discomfort of client, redness, warmth, swelling

Changing the dressing on a daily basis is not necessary unles/

dressing becomes wet

When should the IV site dressing be changed?

every 48-72 hours, which is every 2 to 3 days. For the question 2/11-2/12 would be acceptable

What is phlebitis?

inflammation of the vein due to medication/chemical trauma, mechanical trauma from IV going in, or a local infection

Hypotonic solution compared to isotonic solution?

lower concentration of salt or more water than an isotonic solution

Safe nursing practice, monitoring an IV at least?

once per hour for an adult client (problems can occur quickly); best to select most frequently occuring time-frame

Nurse is checking insertion site of a peripheral IV. the nurse notes the site to be red, warm, edematous inthe area of the vein to the IV catheter. The nurse interprets this as?

phlebitis of the vein

Why is it important the nurse closes the roller clamp prior to spiking?

prevent the solution from running freely through the tubing. then the nurse should uncap the proximal (spike) portion of the tubing, and attach it. The roller clamp is then opened slowly, and fluid flows through the tubing in a controlled fashion so air is not in the tubing!

What does phelebitis result in?

redness, warmth, swelling proximal to the IV catheter (and discomfort)

What should occur with phlebitis?

remove IV catheter and insert at new location

71. A nurse notes blanching, coolness, edema at the peripheral intravenous site. Which is the most appropriate action?

remove the IV

Nurse has been told to discontinue an IV line. The nurse removes the catheter by withdrawing the catheter while applying pressure to a site with?

sterile 2X2 gauze

26. The med prseecription states to administer Tylenol 650 mg orally for temp of more than 38 degrees (100.4 F). The med bottle states Tylenol is 325 mg tablets. The nurse takes the client's temp and notes that it is 101. The nurse does what?

temperature of client is over 100.4, administer 2 tylenol tablets

Why is 15 minutes, the time for the nurse to wait?

this is the most likely time a transfusion reaction will occur

How long should the nurse wait before reconnecting the tube to the suction?

up to 30 minutes, medication needs time for absorption

What is extravasation?

when tissue is damaged due to medication leakage through the surrounding skin and subcutaneous tissue/ can cause necrosis of tissue

The nurse has received a prescription to transfuse a client with a unit of packed red blood cells. Before explaining the procedure to the client, the nurse should ask which initial question? 1. "Have you ever had a transfusion before?" 2. "Why do you think that you need the transfusion?" 3. "Have you ever gone into shock for any reason in the past?" 4. "Do you know the complications and risks of a transfusion?"

"Have you ever had a transfusion before?" Asking the client about personal experience with transfusion therapy provides a good starting point for client teaching about this procedure. Questioning about previous history of shock and knowledge of complications and risks of transfusion is not helpful because it may elicit a fearful response from the client. Although determining whether the client knows the reason for the transfusion is important, it is not an appropriate statement in terms of eliciting information from the client regarding an understanding of the need for the transfusion.

The nurse provides a list of instructions to a client being discharged to home with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The nurse determines that the client needs further instructions if the client made which statement? 1. "I need to wear a MedicAlert tag or bracelet." 2. "I need to restrict my activity while this catheter is in place." 3. "I need to keep the insertion site protected when in the shower or bath." 4. "I need to check the markings on the catheter each time the dressing is changed."

"I need to restrict my activity while this catheter is in place." The client should be taught that only minor activity restrictions apply with this type of catheter. The client should carry or wear a MedicAlert identification and should protect the site during bathing to prevent infection. The client should check the markings on the catheter during each dressing change to assess for catheter migration or dislodgement

The nurse provides a list of instructions to a client being discharged to home with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The nurse determines that the client needs further instruction if the client makes which statement? 1. "I need to wear a MedicAlert tag or bracelet." 2. "I need to restrict my activity while this catheter is in place." 3. "I need to have a repair kit available in the home for use if needed." 4. "I need to keep the insertion site protected when in the shower or bath

"I need to restrict my activity while this catheter is in place." The client should be taught that only minor activity restrictions apply with this type of catheter. The client should protect the site during bathing and should carry or wear a MedicAlert identification. The client should have a repair kit in the home for use as needed because the catheter is for long-term use.

The mother of a 3-year-old boy calls the emergency department and states that she found an empty bottle of acetaminophen on the floor. She states that she thinks her child ingested all of the medication. What is the priority question for the nurse to ask the mother? 1. "Is your child breathing okay?" 2. "Is your child alert and oriented?" 3. "Where is your child at this moment?" 4. "Do you know how many tablets were in the bottle?"

"Is your child breathing okay?" Airway is always the highest assessment data to obtain during a poison control call. Once this information is obtained, the child's neurological status can be determined in terms of his orientation and other information, such as that referred to in the remaining options.

A client is scheduled for placement of a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). The nurse has explained the advantages of this catheter to the client. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for further explanation? 1. "It is reasonable in cost." 2. "There is less pain and discomfort." 3. "This type of catheter is very reliable." 4. "It is specifically designed for short-term use."

"It is specifically designed for short-term use." A PICC is a central line that is inserted in the upper arm. It is a flexible catheter that terminates in the superior vena cava of the heart. Placement is verified by x-ray or other methods prior to use. PICCs are intended to be used for clients needing long-term intravenous catheter placement. They are reasonable in cost because they do not need routine replacement, as do traditional peripheral intravenous catheters. The catheter also is reliable. The catheter is less likely to result in infiltration and can be used for administration of a number of different types of medications without extravasation.

The nurse is providing care for a client who sustained burns over 30% of the body from a fire. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client is edematous in both burned and unburned body areas. The client's wife asks why her husband "looks so swollen." What is the nurse's best response? 1. "Constricted blood vessels have caused a loss of protein in the blood." 2 "Leaking blood vessels have led to increased protein amounts in the blood." 3 "Leaking blood vessels have led to decreased protein amounts in the blood." 4. "Constricted blood vessels have led to increased protein amounts in the blood."

"Leaking blood vessels have led to decreased protein amounts in the blood." In extensive burn injuries (greater than 25% of total body surface area), the edema occurs in both burned and unburned areas as a result of the increase in capillary permeability and hypoproteinemia. Edema also may be caused by the volume and oncotic pressure effects of the large fluid resuscitation volumes required.

The nursing educator has just completed a lecture to a group of nurses regarding care of the client with a burn injury. A major aspect of the lecture was care of the client at the scene of a fire. Which statement, if made by a nurse, indicates a need for further instruction? 1. "Flames should be doused with water." 2. "The client should be maintained in a standing position." 3. "Flames may be extinguished by rolling the client on the ground." 4. "Flames may be smothered by the use of a blanket or another cover."

"The client should be maintained in a standing position." The client should be placed or maintained in a supine position; otherwise, flames may spread to other parts of the body, causing more extensive injury. Flame burns may be extinguished by rolling the client on the ground, smothering the flames with a blanket or other cover, or dousing the flames with water.

How to change celcius to farenhei, 38 degrees C to F?

(38*9)= 342/5= 68.4 + 32= 100.4

47. A health care provider prescribes one unit of packed red blood cells to infuse over 4 hours. One unit of blood containts 250 mL and the drop factor is 10 gtt/1 mL. The RN asks the LPN to assist with monitoring the flow rate during infusion. The LPN monitors the flow rate, knowing how many gtt/min should infuse?

*note infusion over 4 hours use all the data given 250 mL/4 hours * 1 hour/60 minutes * 10 gtt/1 mL

A client with sickle cell anemia is being treated for sickle cell crisis. The health care provider prescribes morphine sulfate 2 mg. The concentration of the vial is 10 mg/mL of solution. How many milliliters of solution should the nurse administer? Fill in the blank.

0.2

A health care provider's prescription reads "cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) 100 mcg intramuscular." The medication label reads "cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12), 0.5 mg/mL." The nurse administers how many milliliters to the client? Fill in the blank. Record the answer to one decimal place.

0.2

A health care provider has prescribed phytonadione 2.5 mg intramuscularly. The nurse reads the label on the medication vial and administers how many mL to the client? Refer to the figure and fill in the blank. Record your answer to two decimal places.

0.25

The medication prescribed is atropine sulfate, 0.4 mg. The medication label states atropine sulfate, 0.5 mg/0.5 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer to the client? Fill in the blank.

0.4

55. A registered nurse tells a licensed pn, the hcp has prescribed hypotonic IV solution for a client. Which IV solution should the LPN obtain for administration to client?

0.45 % saline

The medication prescribed is prochlorperazine 5 mg intramuscularly, every 4 hours as needed. The medication label states prochlorperazine 10 mg/mL. The nurse prepares how much medication to administer the dose? Fill in the blank.

0.5

A health care provider prescribes meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) 15 mg intramuscularly for a client in pain. The medication label states, meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) 25 mg per mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer to the client? Fill in the blank.

0.6

The medication prescribed is heparin sodium 650 units subcutaneously, every 12 hours. The medication vial reads heparin sodium 1000 units/mL. The nurse prepares how many milliliters to administer one dose? Fill in the blank.

0.65

0.7

The nurse is preparing to administer 35 mg of a prescribed intramuscular (IM) dose of medication to a client. The medication label reads 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer to the client? Fill in the blank.

0.7

A health care provider's prescription reads: tobramycin sulfate, 7.5 mg intramuscularly twice daily. The medication label states 10 mg/mL. How many milliliters (mL) will the nurse give to administer 1 dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to two decimal places.

0.75

The medication prescribed is hydromorphone hydrochloride (Dilaudid), 3 mg intramuscularly, every 4 hours as needed. The medication label reads hydromorphone hydrochloride (Dilaudid), 4 mg/1 mL. The nurse should prepare to administer how many mL to the client? Fill in the blank.

0.75

A health care provider has prescribed prochlorperazine 4 mg intramuscularly for a client who is vomiting. The nurse reads the label on the medication vial and administers how many milliliters (mL) to the client? Fill in the blank. Refer to the figure.

0.8

A health care provider prescribes an intramuscular (IM) dose of 250,000 units of penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin). The label on the 10-mL ampule sent from the pharmacy reads penicillin G benzathine 300,000 units/mL. How much medication will the nurse prepare to administer the correct dose? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to one decimal place.

0.8

A health care provider prescribes meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol), 40 mg intramuscularly stat, for a postoperative client in pain. The medication label states meperidine hydrochloride, 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters (mL) will the nurse prepare to administer to the client? Fill in the blank.

0.8

A client has a prescription to receive a unit of packed red blood cells. The nurse should obtain which intravenous (IV) solution from the IV storage area to hang with the blood product at the client's bedside? 1. Lactated Ringer's 2. 0.9% sodium chloride 3. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride 4. 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride

0.9% sodium chloride Sodium chloride 0.9% (normal saline) is a standard isotonic solution used to precede and follow infusion of blood products. Dextrose is not used because it could result in clumping and subsequent hemolysis of red blood cells (RBCs). Lactated Ringer's is not the solution of choice with this procedure.

A client is complaining of abdominal pain and nausea. The prescription is as follows: give hydroxyzine (Vistaril) 25 mg intramuscularly and meperidine (Demerol) 25 mg intramuscularly, stat. Hydroxyzine (Vistaril) is available 50 mg/mL. Meperidine (Demerol) is available in 25 mg/0.5 mL. The nurse should combine the doses in one syringe for administration to the ventrogluteal muscle. How many milliliters should the nurse administer in total? Fill in the blank.

A health care provider prescribes phenytoin (Dilantin) 0.1 g orally twice daily. The medication label states, 100-mg capsules. How many capsule(s) will the nurse prepare to administer the dose? Fill in the blank.

A health care provider's prescription reads atenolol (Tenormin), 0.025 g orally daily. The medication bottle reads atenolol, 25-mg tablets. The nurse prepares how many tablet(s) to administer the dose? Fill in the blank.

A health care provider's prescription reads ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 0.5 g orally twice daily. The medication label reads ciprofloxacin 500 mg tablets. The nurse prepares how many tablet(s) to administer 1 dose? Fill in the blank.

A health care provider's prescription reads triazolam (Halcion), 125 mcg orally at bedtime daily. The medication bottle is labeled triazolam, 0.125-mg tablets. The nurse prepares how many tablet(s) to administer 1 dose? Fill in the blank.

A physician s prescription reads, Phenytoin (Dilantin) 0.1 g by mouth twice daily. The medication label indicates that the bottle contains 100-mg capsules. How many capsules does the nurse prepare for administration of one dose?

The health care provider's prescription reads "levothyroxine (Synthroid), 100 mcg orally daily." The medication label reads "levothyroxine, 0.1 mg/tablet." The nurse prepares to administer how many tablet(s) to the client? Fill in the blank. Record your answer using one decimal place.

The nurse has received a prescription to transfuse a client with a unit of packed red blood cells. Before explaining the procedure to the client, the nurse should ask which INITIAL question? 1) "Have you ever had a transfusion before?" 2) "Why do you think that you need the transfusion?" 3) "Have you ever gone into shock for any reason in the past?" 4) "Do you know the complications and risks of a transfusion?"

1) "Have you ever had a transfusion before?" Rationale: Asking the client about personal experience with transfusion therapy provides a good starting point for client teaching about this procedure. Questioning about previous history of shock and knowledge of complications and risks of transfusion are not helpful because they may elicit a fearful response from the client. Although determining whether the client knows the reason for the transfusion is important, it is not an appropriate statement in terms of eliciting information from the client regarding an understanding of the need for the transfusion.

A client requiring surgery is anxious about the possible need for a blood transfusion during or after the procedure. The nurse suggests to the client to take which action(s) to reduce the risk of possible transfusion complications? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY. 1) Ask a family member to donate blood ahead of time. 2) Give an autologous blood donation before the surgery. 3) Take iron supplements before surgery to boost hemoglobin levels. 4) Request that any donated blood be screened twice by the blood bank. 5) Take adequate amounts of vitamin C several days prior to the surgery date.

1) Ask a family member to donate blood ahead of time. 2) Give an autologous blood donation before the surgery. Rationale: A donation of the client's own blood before a scheduled procedure is autologous. Donating autologous blood to be reinfused as needed during or after surgery reduces the risk of disease transmission and potential transfusion complications. The next most effective way is to ask a family member to donate blood before surgery. Blood banks do not provide extra screening on request. Preoperative iron supplements are helpful for iron deficiency anemia but are not helpful in replacing blood lost during the surgery. Vitamin C enhances iron absorption, but also is not helpful in replacing blood lost during surgery.

The nurse who is about to begin a blood transfusion knows that blood cells start to deteriorate after a certain period of time. Which item is important to check regarding the age of blood cells before the transfusion is begun? 1) Expiration date 2) Presence of clots 3) Blood group and type 4) Blood identification number

1) Expiration date Rationale: The nurse notes the expiration date on the unit of blood to ensure that the blood is fresh. Blood cells begin to deteriorate over time, so safe storage is usually limited to 35 days. Careful notation of the expiration date by the nurse is an essential part of the verification process before hanging a unit of blood. The nurse also notes the blood identification (unit) number, blood group and type, and client's name. The nurse also inspects the unit of blood for leaks, abnormal color, clots, and bubbles and returns the unit to the blood bank if clots are noted.

30. The IV prescription is 3000 mL of 5% dextrose to run over 24-hour period. The drop factor is 10 gtt/1mL. The nurse plans to adjust the flow rate to how many gtt/minute (round to whole number)?

1) Method: use units 10 gtt/1 mL * 3000 mL * 1/24hour * 1 hr/60 minutes = 21 gtt/min 2) Total volume/Time in minutes * drop factor 3000 mL/1440 minutes *10 gtt

A client receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) begins to vomit. The client's blood pressure is 90/50 from a baseline of 125/78. The client's temperature is 100.8F orally from a baseline of 99.2F orally. The nurse determines that the client may be experiencing which complication of a blood transfusion? 1) Septicemia 2) Hyperkalemia 3) Circulatory overload 4) Delayed transfusion reaction

1) Septicemia Rationale: Septicemia occurs with the transfusion of blood contaminated with microorganisms. Signs include CHILLS, FEVER, VOMITING, DIARRHEA, HYPOTENSION, and the development of SHOCK. Hyperkalemia causes weakness, paresthesias, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and dysrhythmias. Circulatory overload causes cough, dyspnea, chest pain, wheezing, tachycardia, and hypertension. A delayed transfusion reaction can occur days to years after a transfusion. Signs include fever, mild jaundice, and a decreased hematocrit level.

The nurse, caring for a group of adult clients on an acute care medical-surgical nursing unit, determines that which clients would be the most likely candidates for parenteral nutrition (PN)? Select all that apply. 1. A client with extensive burns 2. A client with cancer who is septic 3. A client who has had an open cholecystectomy 4. A client with severe exacerbation of Crohn's disease 5. A client with persistent nausea and vomiting from chemotherapy

1. A client with extensive burns 2. A client with cancer who is septic 4. A client with severe exacerbation of Crohn's disease 5. A client with persistent nausea and vomiting from chemotherapy PN is indicated in clients whose gastrointestinal tracts are not functional or must be rested, cannot take in a diet enterally for extended periods, or have increased metabolic need. Examples of these conditions include those clients with burns, exacerbation of Crohn's disease, and persistent nausea and vomiting due to chemotherapy. Other clients would be those who have had extensive surgery, have multiple fractures, are septic, or have advanced cancer or acquired immunodeficiency syndrome. The client with the open cholecystectomy is not a candidate because this client would resume a regular diet within a few days following surgery.

A client develops an anaphylactic reaction after receiving morphine. The nurse should plan to institute which actions? Select all that apply. 1. Administer oxygen. 2. Quickly assess the client's respiratory status. 3. Document the event, interventions, and client's response. 4. Leave the client briefly to contact a health care provider (HCP). 5. Keep the client supine regardless of the blood pressure readings. 6. Start an intravenous (IV) infusion of D5W and administer a 500-mL bolus.

1. Administer oxygen. 2. Quickly assess the client's respiratory status. 3. Document the event, interventions, and client's response. An anaphylactic reaction requires immediate action, starting with quickly assessing the client's respiratory status. Although the HCP and the Rapid Response Team must be notified immediately, the nurse must stay with the client. Oxygen is administered and an IV of normal saline is started and infused per HCP prescription. Documentation of the event, actions taken, and client outcomes needs to be done. The head of the bed should be elevated if the client's blood pressure is normal.

A new nursing graduate is caring for a client who is attached to a cardiac monitor. While assisting the client with bathing, the nurse observes the sudden development of ventricular tachycardia (VT), but the client remains alert and oriented and has a pulse. Which interventions would the nurse take? Select all that apply. 1. Administer oxygen. 2. Defibrillate the client. 3. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG). 4. Contact the health care provider (HCP). 5. Assess circulation, airway, and breathing. 6. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

1. Administer oxygen. 3. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG). 4. Contact the health care provider (HCP). 5. Assess circulation, airway, and breathing. With VT in a stable client, the nurse assesses circulation, airway, and breathing; administers oxygen; and confirms the rhythm via a 12-lead ECG. The HCP is contacted, and antidysrhythmics may be prescribed. With pulseless VT, the HCP or a specially trained nurse must immediately defibrillate the client or initiate CPR followed by defibrillation as soon as possible.

The nurse in a medical unit is caring for a client with heart failure. The client suddenly develops extreme dyspnea, tachycardia, and lung crackles and the nurse suspects pulmonary edema. The nurse immediately asks another nurse to contact the health care provider and prepares to implement which priority interventions? Select all that apply. 1. Administering oxygen 2. Inserting a Foley catheter 3. Administering furosemide 4. Administering morphine sulfate intravenously 5. Transporting the client to the coronary care unit 6. Placing the client in a low Fowler's side-lying position

1. Administering oxygen 2. Inserting a Foley catheter 3. Administering furosemide 4. Administering morphine sulfate intravenously Pulmonary edema is a life-threatening event that can result from severe heart failure. In pulmonary edema, the left ventricle fails to eject sufficient blood, and pressure increases in the lungs because of the accumulated blood. Oxygen is always prescribed, and the client is placed in a high Fowler's position to ease the work of breathing. Furosemide, a rapid-acting diuretic, will eliminate accumulated fluid. A Foley catheter is inserted to measure output accurately. Intravenously administered morphine sulfate reduces venous return (preload), decreases anxiety, and also reduces the work of breathing. Transporting the client to the coronary care unit is not a priority intervention. In fact, this may not be necessary at all if the client's response to treatment is successful.

A client requiring surgery is anxious about the possible need for a blood transfusion during or after the procedure. The nurse suggests to the client to take which actions to reduce the risk of possible transfusion complications? Select all that apply. 1. Ask a family member to donate blood ahead of time. 2. Give an autologous blood donation before the surgery. 3. Take iron supplements before surgery to boost hemoglobin levels. 4. Request that any donated blood be screened twice by the blood bank. 5. Take adequate amounts of vitamin C several days prior to the surgery date.

1. Ask a family member to donate blood ahead of time. 2. Give an autologous blood donation before the surgery. A donation of the client's own blood before a scheduled procedure is autologous. Donating autologous blood to be reinfused as needed during or after surgery reduces the risk of disease transmission and potential transfusion complications. The next most effective way is to ask a family member to donate blood before surgery. Blood banks do not provide extra screening on request. Preoperative iron supplements are helpful for iron deficiency anemia but are not helpful in replacing blood lost during the surgery. Vitamin C enhances iron absorption, but also is not helpful in replacing blood lost during surgery

The nurse who is about to begin a blood transfusion knows that blood cells start to deteriorate after a certain period of time. The nurse takes which actions in order to prevent a complication of the blood transfusion as it relates to deterioration of blood cells? Select all that apply. 1. Checks the expiration date 2. Inspects for the presence of clots 3. Checks the blood group and type 4. Checks the blood identification number 5. Hangs the blood within the specified time frame per agency policy

1. Checks the expiration date 5. Hangs the blood within the specified time frame per agency policy The nurse notes the expiration date on the unit of blood to ensure that the blood is fresh. Blood cells begin to deteriorate over time, so safe storage usually is limited to 35 days. Careful notation of the expiration date by the nurse is an essential part of the verification process before hanging a unit of blood. The nurse also needs to hang the blood within the specified time frame after receiving it from the blood bank per agency policy to ensure that the blood being transfused is fresh. The blood bank keeps the blood regulated at a specific temperature, and therefore it must be infused within a specified time frame once received on the unit. The nurse also notes the blood identification (unit) number, blood group and type, and client's name, but this is not specifically related to the degradation of blood cells. The nurse also inspects the unit of blood for leaks, abnormal color, clots, and bubbles and returns the unit to the blood bank if clots are noted. Again, this is not related to the degradation of blood cells over time.

The nurse is assisting in monitoring a client who is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Before leaving the room, the nurse tells the client to immediately report which symptoms of a transfusion reaction? Select all that apply. 1. Chills 2. Fatigue 3. Sleepiness 4. Chest pain 5. Lower back pain 6. Difficulty breathing

1. Chills 4. Chest pain 5. Lower back pain 6. Difficulty breathing The nurse should instruct the client to immediately report signs of a transfusion reaction, which can include chest pain, lower back pain, chills, itching, rash, or difficulty breathing. These signs of transfusion reaction would require the nurse to stop the transfusion. Fatigue and sleepiness are unrelated to transfusion reaction.

The occupational health nurse is called to care for an employee who experienced a traumatic amputation of a finger. Which actions should the nurse take to provide emergency care and prepare the client for transport to the hospital? Select all that apply. 1. Elevate the extremity above heart level. 2. Assess the employee for airway or breathing problems. 3. Remove the layered gauze every 10 minutes to check the bleeding. 4. Wrap the severed finger in moistened gauze, and place it in a bag of ice water. 5. Examine the amputation site and apply direct pressure to the site using layers of gauze.

1. Elevate the extremity above heart level. 2. Assess the employee for airway or breathing problems. 5. Examine the amputation site and apply direct pressure to the site using layers of gauze. The nurse would assess the victim for airway or breathing problems immediately. Then the nurse would examine the amputation site and apply direct pressure using layers of dry gauze or another type of cloth. Sterile gloves and sterile gauze should always be used if available. If sterile materials are not available, clean materials should be used if possible. The gauze that is applied is a pressure dressing and is not removed because of the risk of dislodgment of a clot that may be forming; the pressure dressing will be removed at the hospital. The extremity is elevated above the victim's heart level to decrease the bleeding. The severed finger should be wrapped in dry, sterile gauze (if available) or a clean cloth. It is placed in a watertight, sealed plastic bag. Then the watertight, sealed plastic bag is placed in a bag of ice water. The severed finger is never placed directly on ice; contact between the finger and water is avoided because of the risk of tissue damage. The severed part is transported to the hospital with the victim for possible replanting. Additionally, emergency medical services is called to transport the victim to the hospital.

An emergency department nurse is caring for a child with suspected acute epiglottitis. Which nursing interventions apply in the care of this child? Select all that apply. 1. Ensure a patent airway. 2. Obtain a throat culture. 3. Maintain the child in a supine position. 4. Obtain a pediatric-size tracheostomy tray. 5. Prepare the child for a chest radiographic study. 6. Place the child on an oxygen saturation monitor.

1. Ensure a patent airway. 4. Obtain a pediatric-size tracheostomy tray. 5. Prepare the child for a chest radiographic study. 6. Place the child on an oxygen saturation monitor. Acute epiglottitis is a serious obstructive inflammatory process that requires immediate intervention. The nurse immediately ensures a patent airway. To reduce respiratory distress, the child should sit upright. Examining the throat with a tongue depressor or attempting to obtain a throat culture is contraindicated because it could precipitate further obstruction. A complete blood count is obtained, and the child is placed on an oxygen saturation monitor. Lateral neck and chest radiographic films are obtained to determine the degree of obstruction, if present. A pediatric-size tracheostomy tray should be readily available, and intubation may be necessary if respiratory distress is severe.

The client who has had radical neck dissection begins to hemorrhage at the incision site. Which immediate actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor the client's airway. 2. Call the Rapid Response Team. 3. Call the health care provider (HCP). 4. Apply manual pressure over the site. 5. Lower the head of the bed to a flat position.

1. Monitor the client's airway. 2. Call the Rapid Response Team. 3. Call the health care provider (HCP). 4. Apply manual pressure over the site If the client begins to hemorrhage from the surgical site following radical neck dissection, the nurse elevates the head of the bed to maintain airway patency and prevent aspiration. The nurse applies pressure over the bleeding site and stays with the client and ask someone to call the Rapid Response Team and the HCP immediately.

Which interventions would be included in the care of a client with a head injury and a subarachnoid bolt? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor vital signs. 2. Monitor neurological status. 3. Monitor the dressing for signs of infection. 4. Monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure. 5. Drain cerebrospinal fluid when the intracranial pressure is elevated.

1. Monitor vital signs. 2. Monitor neurological status. 3. Monitor the dressing for signs of infection. 4. Monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure. A subarachnoid bolt is inserted into the subarachnoid space and is used to measure intracranial pressure. Because a subarachnoid bolt is placed in the subarachnoid space, it is not capable of draining cerebrospinal fluid, which is produced in the ventricles. Therefore, the option to drain cerebrospinal fluid is not an intervention. The remaining options are appropriate interventions.

A client has had radical neck dissection and begins to hemorrhage at the incision site. The nurse should take which actions in this situation? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor vital signs. 2. Monitor the client's airway. 3. Apply manual pressure over the site. 4. Lower the head of the bed to a flat position. 5. Call the health care provider (HCP) immediately.

1. Monitor vital signs. 2. Monitor the client's airway. 3. Apply manual pressure over the site. 5. Call the health care provider (HCP) immediately. If the client begins to hemorrhage from the surgical site after radical neck dissection, the nurse elevates the head of the bed to maintain airway patency and prevent aspiration. The nurse applies pressure over the bleeding site and calls the HCP immediately. The nurse also monitors the client's airway and vital signs.

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus in the emergency department is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which interventions should the nurse anticipate being prescribed initially? Select all that apply. 1. Monitoring urine for ketones 2. Intravenous potassium replacement 3. Administration of intravenous insulin 4. A bolus of 5% dextrose intravenously 5. Administration of a liter of 0.9% NaCl intravenously.

1. Monitoring urine for ketones 2. Intravenous potassium replacement 3. Administration of intravenous insulin 5. Administration of a liter of 0.9% NaCl intravenously. DKA is caused by a profound deficiency of insulin and is characterized by hyperglycemia (blood glucose level greater than or equal to 250 mg/dL [13.9 mmol/L]), ketosis (ketones in urine or serum), metabolic acidosis, dehydration, and hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct options are 1, 2, 3, and 5. Option 4 is incorrect, as clients with DKA have a profound deficiency of insulin and an elevated blood glucose; therefore, dextrose would not be administered as an initial intervention.

The nurse is providing care for a client with new onset of a dysrhythmia. The nurse anticipates which prescriptions from the health care provider? Select all that apply. Refer to Figure. 1. Oxygen therapy 2. An echocardiogram 3. An intravenous dose of metoprolol 4. One dose of atropine to promote slowing of the rate 5. A bolus of intravenous heparin followed by a continuous infusion

1. Oxygen therapy 2. An echocardiogram 3. An intravenous dose of metoprolol 5. A bolus of intravenous heparin followed by a continuous infusion In atrial fibrillation the ventricles often beat with a rapid rate in response to the numerous atrial impulses. Heart dilation and blood pooling in the atria can lead to thrombus formation, which increases the risk for stroke or other embolic events; therefore, heparin is indicated. The rapid and irregular ventricular rate decreases ventricular filling and reduces cardiac output, further impairing the heart's perfusion ability. Therefore, oxygen and metoprolol (to slow the ventricular response) are appropriate. An echocardiogram will help to assess heart valve function because mitral valve disease can lead to atrial fibrillation. Atropine will increase the heart rate further.

A client rings the call light and complains of pain at the site of an intravenous (IV) infusion. The nurse assesses the site and determines that phlebitis has developed. The nurse should take which actions in the care of this client? Select all that apply. 1. Remove the IV catheter at that site. 2. Apply warm moist packs to the site. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Start a new IV line in a proximal portion of the same vein. 5. Document the occurrence, actions taken, and the client's response.

1. Remove the IV catheter at that site. 2. Apply warm moist packs to the site. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 5. Document the occurrence, actions taken, and the client's response. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the vein that can occur from mechanical or chemical (medication) trauma or from a local infection and can cause the development of a clot (thrombophlebitis). The nurse should remove the IV at the phlebitic site and apply warm moist compresses to the area to speed resolution of the inflammation. Because phlebitis has occurred, the nurse also notifies the HCP about the IV complication. The nurse should restart the IV in a vein other than the one that has developed phlebitis. Finally, the nurse documents the occurrence, actions taken, and the client's response.

A client complains of pain at the site of an intravenous (IV) infusion. The nurse assesses the site and determines that phlebitis has developed. The nurse should take which actions in the care of this client? Select all that apply. 1. Remove the IV catheter at that site. 2. Apply warm, moist packs to the site. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Start a new IV line in a proximal portion of the same vein. 5. Document the occurrence, actions taken, and the client's response.

1. Remove the IV catheter at that site. 2. Apply warm, moist packs to the site. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 5. Document the occurrence, actions taken, and the client's response. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the vein that can occur from mechanical or chemical (medication) trauma or from a local infection and can cause the development of a clot (thrombophlebitis). The nurse should remove the IV at the phlebitic site and apply warm, moist compresses to the area to speed resolution of the inflammation. Because phlebitis has occurred, the nurse also notifies the HCP about the IV complication. The nurse should restart the IV in a vein other than the one that has developed phlebitis. Finally, the nurse documents the occurrence, actions taken, and the client's response.

When creating a mechanically ventilated client's plan of care for prevention of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), the nurse should include which measures in the plan? Select all that apply. 1. Suction the oral cavity whenever needed. 2. Apply topical antibiotics to the oral cavity. 3. Change the ventilator circuit tubing every 2 hours. 4. Maintain the client in a supine position at all times. 5. Practice frequent oral hygiene, including teeth brushing. 6. Wear gloves when suctioning or handling the endotracheal tube.

1. Suction the oral cavity whenever needed. 5. Practice frequent oral hygiene, including teeth brushing. 6. Wear gloves when suctioning or handling the endotracheal tube. Measures to prevent VAP include removing subglottic secretions every 2 hours and whenever needed; frequent oral hygiene, which includes teeth brushing; hand hygiene before and after each client contact; and application of gloves after hand washing and before suctioning. Topical antibiotics have no effect. Ventilator circuit tubing does not need to be changed every 2 hours; depending on agency policy, tubing is changed every 24 or 48 hours. Head of the bed elevation is maintained at a minimum of 30 degrees; a supine position can lead to aspiration.

A hospitalized child with leukemia has received chemotherapy by the intravenous (IV) route, and a discharge to home is being planned. Laboratory values indicate that the child is neutropenic. During the course of the chemotherapy, the IV infiltrated and the child has a small open area at the site of infiltration that is being treated daily by cleansing and the application of a topical antibiotic. The nurse instructs the mother regarding the signs of infection at this affected site. Which statement by the mother indicates that the mother understands the instructions?

1. "Pus at the site means that an infection is present." 2. "If I see redness at the site, I don't need to worry as long as there is no pus." 3. "I will clean the site and apply the topical ointment every day." 4. "If the temperature is elevated, I don't need to be concerned, because this is normal with affected white blood cells." Answer: 3 Rationale: Some neutropenic children will not produce purulent drainage. Because pus is made of white blood cells, drainage cannot be used as a sign of infection. Redness may be the only sign. An elevated temperature is a sign of infection. Option 3 is the only correct statement.

1. 0.1 mg 2. 0.37 mg 3. 0.5 mg 4. 2.5 mg Answer: 1 Rationale: Calculate the dosage by weight first: therefore 0.03 mg/day × 7.2 kg = 0.21 mg/day. Next, note that the HCP prescribes digoxin to be given twice daily; therefore two doses in 24 hours will be administered, and 0.21 mg/day divided by two doses = 0.1 mg for each dose.

A registered nurse (RN) tells a licensed practical nurse (LPN) that the health care provider has prescribed a hypotonic IV solution for a client. Which IV solution should the LPN obtain for administration to the client?

1. 0.45% saline 2. 5% dextrose in water 3. 10% dextrose in water 4. 5% dextrose in 0.9% saline Answer: 1 Rationale: 5% dextrose in water is an isotonic solution; 10% dextrose in water and 5% dextrose in 0.9% saline are hypertonic solutions; 0.45% saline is hypotonic and is probably the only hypotonic solution used in clinical situations. Distilled water is another example of a hypotonic solution. Hypotonic solutions contain a lower concentration of salt or more water than an isotonic solution.

Sulfisoxazole, 1 g orally four times daily, is prescribed for an adolescent with a urinary tract infection. The medication label reads "500-mg tablets." The nurse has determined that the prescribed dose is safe. How many tablets per dose should the nurse administer to the adolescent?

1. 0.5 tablet 2. 1 tablet 3. 2 tablets 4. 3 tablets Answer: 3 Rationale: Change grams to milligrams, knowing that 1000 mg = 1 g. When converting from grams to milligrams (larger to smaller), move the decimal point three places to the right; thus, 1.0 g = 1000 mg. Then, use the medication calculation formula.

A health care provider's prescription reads as follows: "Ampicillin, 125 mg intramuscular every 6 hours." The medication label reads "1 gram and reconstitute with 7.4 mL of bacteriostatic water." How many milliliters should the nurse draw up for one dose?

1. 0.54 mL 2. 0.92 mL 3. 1.1 mL 4. 7.4 mL Answer: 2 Rationale: Convert grams to milligrams. With the metric system, to convert larger to smaller, multiply by 1000 or move the decimal three places to the right. Then, use the medication calculation formula: 1 g = 1000 mg Formula:

Penicillin G procaine (Wycillin), 1,000,000 units given intramuscularly, is prescribed for an adolescent with an infection. The medication label reads as follows: "1,200,000 units/2 mL." The nurse has determined that the prescribed dose is safe. How many milliliters per dose should the nurse administer to the adolescent?

1. 0.8 mL 2. 1.2 mL 3. 1.44 mL 4. 1.66 mL Answer: 4 Rationale: Use the medication calculation formula.

1. 0.8 mL 2. 1.2 mL 3. 4 mL 4. 5 mL Answer: 1 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating medication doses.

Which of the following laboratory results indicate a therapeutic drug level? Refer to the figure. Select all that apply.

1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 5. 5 Answer: 1 3 5 Rationale: Options 1, 3, and 5 are the only therapeutic drug levels; all the rest are abnormal (too high). Therapeutic drug levels are as follows: carbamazepine (Tegretol) is 5 to 12 mcg/mL; digoxin (Lanoxin) is 0.5 to 2 ng/mL; gentamicin is 5 to 10 mcg/mL; phenytoin (Dilantin) is 10 to 20 mcg/mL; theophylline is 10 to 20 mcg/mL; and tobramycin is 5 to 10 mcg/mL.

A nurse is reading a health care provider's prescription and notes that a client is to receive a medication at 1:00 ᴘᴍ. Using the military time clock, the nurse administers the medication at which time? Refer to figure.

1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 Answer: 1 Rationale: According to the National Patient Safety goals, health care agencies are mandated to use military time, which is a 24-hour system that avoids misinterpretation of ᴀᴍ and ᴘᴍ times. Instead of two 12-hour cycles in standard time, the military clock is one 24-hour time cycle. 1:00 ᴘᴍ is 1300 military time.

A nurse hangs a 1000-mL intravenous (IV) bag of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) at 0700. The IV is to infuse at 100 mL/hr, and the nurse places a time tape on the IV bag. At noon the nurse would expect that the infusion line on the IV bag would be at which point? Refer to figure.

1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 Answer: 2 Rationale: If an IV is to infuse at 100 mL/hr, in a 5-hour period (0700 to 1200 [noon]) a total of 500 mL would have infused. Therefore the infusion line would be at the 500-mL point.

A nurse is preparing a small dose of a medication for administration to an infant. The nurse selects which syringe for preparing the medication? Refer to figure.

1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 Answer: 2 Rationale: The tuberculin syringe has a long, thin barrel. The syringe, calibrated in sixteenths of a minim and hundredths of a milliliter, has a capacity of 1 mL. It is used to prepare small amounts of medication such as small, precise doses for infants or young children. Option 1 is a 3-mL syringe that is used to administer intramuscular and subcutaneous injections. Option 3 is a 5-mL syringe and option 4 is an insulin syringe. Insulin syringes are used to administer insulin.

A nurse is making a worksheet and listing the tasks that need to be performed for assigned adult clients during the shift. The nurse writes on the plan to check the IV of an assigned client who is receiving fluid replacement therapy at least every:

1. 1 hour 2. 2 hours 3. 3 hours 4. 4 hours Answer: 1 Rationale: Safe nursing practice includes monitoring an IV infusion at least once per hour for an adult client. Options 2, 3, and 4 do not provide time frames that are safe or acceptable.

A health care provider has prescribed phenobarbital sodium (Luminal Sodium), 25 mg orally twice daily, for a child with febrile seizures. The medication label reads as follows: "Phenobarbital sodium, 20 mg/5 mL." The nurse has determined that the dose prescribed is a safe dose for the child. How many milliliters per dose should the nurse administer to the child?

1. 2 mL 2. 4.5 mL 3. 6.25 mL 4. 7 mL Answer: 3 Rationale: Use the medication calculation formula.

A nurse is checking the IV dressing of a client with a peripheral intravenous solution infusing. The date on the dressing is 2/9 (February 9). The nurse calculates that the dressing should be changed on which of the following dates?

1. 2/10 2. 2/12 3. 2/14 4. 2/16 Answer: 2 Rationale: The IV site dressing should be changed every 48 to 72 hours, which is every 2 to 3 days. With an insertion date of 2/9, the due date for change, depending on agency policy, would be either 2/11 or 2/12. Changing the dressing every 5 to 7 days (options 3 and 4) would place the client at risk for infection. Changing the dressing on a daily basis is not necessary unless the dressing becomes wet.

A client is going to be transfused with a unit of packed red blood cells. The nurse understands that it is necessary to remain with the client for what time period after the transfusion is started?

1. 5 minutes 2. 15 minutes 3. 30 minutes 4. 45 minutes Answer: 2 Rationale: The nurse must remain with the client for the first 15 minutes of a transfusion, which is the most likely time that a transfusion reaction will occur. This enables the nurse to detect a reaction and intervene quickly. The nurse engages in safe nursing practice by obtaining coverage for the other clients during this time. Options 1 is too short of a time period. Options 3 and 4 are lengthy time periods.

A registered nurse has just hung a 250-mL bag of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) on a client. The licensed practical nurse assisting in caring for the client plans to remain with the client for at least how many minutes following the start of the infusion?

1. 5 minutes 2. 15 minutes 3. 30 minutes 4. 60 minutes Answer: 2 Rationale: The nurse must remain with the client for the first 15 minutes of a transfusion, which is the most frequent period during which a transfusion reaction may occur. This enables the nurse to quickly detect a reaction and intervene quickly. Option 1 is not ample time to remain with the client. The time frames in options 3 and 4 are unnecessary.

A nurse is administering intramuscular iron to an assigned client. The nurse should take which action to avoid skin staining around the injection site?

1. Administer the injection in the thigh. 2. Massage the site after injection. 3. Use a Z-track method for administration. 4. Administer the injection in the nondominant arm. Answer: 3 Rationale: Proper technique for administering iron by the intramuscular route includes using a Z-track technique and changing the needle after drawing it up, but before the medication is given. The medication should be given in the upper outer quadrant of the buttock, and not in an exposed area such as the arms or thighs. The site should not be massaged after injection.

The medication prescription states to administer Tylenol (acetaminophen) 650 mg orally for a temperature of more than 38° C. The medication bottle states Tylenol (acetaminophen), 325 mg tablets. The nurse takes the client's temperature and notes that it is 101° F. The nurse plans to take which of the following actions?

1. Administer two Tylenol tablets. 2. Administer three Tylenol tablets. 3. Do not administer the Tylenol at this time. 4. Check the client's temperature in 30 minutes. Answer: 1 Rationale: Convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, and then calculate the dose to be administered. Step 1: Conversion of Fahrenheit to Celsius: To convert Fahrenheit to Celsius, subtract 32, and divide the result by 1.8: C = (101 - 32) = 69, divided by 1.8 = 38.3° Step 2: Dosage Calculation: Therefore option 1 is the correct answer.

A client has a prescription to receive purified protein derivative (PPD) 0.1 mL intradermally (Mantoux test). The nurse prepares to administer the PPD and obtains a tuberculin syringe with a 26-gauge, 5/8-inch needle, knowing that the needle will be inserted:

1. Almost parallel to the skin with bevel side up 2. At a 45-degree angle with bevel side down 3. Almost parallel to the skin with bevel side down 4. At a 30-degree angle with bevel side down Answer: 1 Rationale: A Mantoux skin test is administered by giving 0.1 mL of PPD intradermally. This involves drawing the medication into a tuberculin syringe with a 25- to 27-gauge, 5/8-inch needle. The injection is given by inserting the needle as close as possible to a parallel position with the skin and with the needle bevel facing up. This results in formation of a wheal, when administered correctly.

A nurse is assisting with caring for a client who has received a transfusion of platelets. The nurse determines that the client is benefiting most from this therapy if the client exhibits which of the following?

1. An increased hematocrit level 2. An increased hemoglobin level 3. A decline of the temperature to normal 4. A decrease in oozing from puncture sites and gums Answer: 4 Rationale: Platelets are necessary for proper blood clotting. The client with insufficient platelets may exhibit frank bleeding or the oozing of blood from puncture sites, wounds, and mucous membranes. The client's temperature would decline to normal after the infusion of granulocytes if those transfused cells were then instrumental in fighting infection in the body. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels would be seen when the client has received a transfusion of red blood cells.

A health care provider prescribes a parenteral nutrition solution to start at 50 mL/hr by infusion pump via an established subclavian central line. After 2 hours of initiating the parenteral nutrition infusion, the client suddenly complains of difficulty in breathing and chest pain. Which action would the nurse prepare to do first?

1. Auscultate the client's lung sounds. 2. Clamp the parenteral nutrition infusion. 3. Obtain the client's blood glucose level. 4. Perform an electrocardiogram (ECG). Answer: 2 Rationale: A complication of a subclavian central line can be an embolism resulting from air or thrombus. A sudden onset of chest pain shortly after the initiation of parenteral nutrition may mean that this complication has developed. The central line is clamped, not discontinued, and the health care provider is notified immediately. Option 1 is an appropriate action but not the first action. Option 3 is not a priority because the client's symptoms do not indicate the presence of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. The health care provider will probably prescribe an ECG, but this action would not be the initial action in this situation.

A client who is receiving a blood transfusion rings the call bell for the nurse. When entering the room, the nurse notes that the client is flushed, dyspneic, and complaining of generalized itching. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing:

1. Bacteremia 2. Fluid overload 3. Hypovolemic shock 4. A transfusion reaction Answer: 4 Rationale: The signs and symptoms exhibited by the client are consistent with a transfusion reaction. With bacteremia, the client would have a fever, which is not part of the clinical picture presented. With fluid (circulatory) overload, the client would have crackles in addition to dyspnea. There is no correlation between the signs mentioned in the question and hypovolemic shock. The signs identified in the question are indicative of an allergic reaction, which is one type of blood transfusion reaction.

A nurse has been instructed to discontinue an IV line. The nurse removes the catheter by withdrawing the catheter while applying pressure to the site with a(n):

1. Band-Aid 2. Alcohol swab 3. Betadine swab 4. Sterile 2 × 2 gauze Answer: 4 Rationale: A dry, sterile dressing such as a sterile 2 × 2 gauze is used to apply pressure to the site while the catheter is discontinued and removed. This material is absorbent, sterile, and nonirritating to the site. A Band-Aid may be used to cover the site after hemostasis has occurred. An alcohol swab or Betadine would irritate the opened puncture site and would not stop the blood flow.

A nurse is preparing an IV solution and tubing for a client who requires IV fluids. While preparing to prime the tubing, the tubing drops and hits the top of the medication cart. The nurse should plan to do which of the following?

1. Change the IV tubing. 2. Wipe the tubing with Betadine. 3. Scrub the tubing with an alcohol swab. 4. Scrub the tubing before attaching it to the IV bag. Answer: 1 Rationale: The nurse should change the IV tubing. The tubing has become contaminated, and, if used, it could result in a systemic infection in the client. Wiping or scrubbing the tubing is insufficient to prevent systemic infection.

A nurse notes blanching, coolness, and edema at the peripheral intravenous (IV) site. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?

1. Check for a blood return. 2. Remove the IV. 3. Apply a warm compress. 4. Measure the area of infiltration. Answer: 2 Rationale: Blanching, coolness, and edema of the IV site are signs of infiltration. Because infiltration can be damaging to the surrounding tissue, the most appropriate action is to remove the IV to prevent any further damage. The nurse should not depend solely on the blood return for assurance that the cannula is in the vein because a blood return may be present even if the cannula is only partially in the vein. Warm compresses may be applied to the infiltrated area only after the IV is removed and only if the infiltrated solution is not damaging to the surrounding tissues. Measuring the area of infiltration should only be done after the IV has been removed so that further tissue damage is assessed.

A nurse is caring for a client with a multilumen catheter and is monitoring for signs of an air embolism. Which clinical manifestations that would be noted in this complication? Select all that apply.

1. Cyanosis 2. Chest pain 3. Coughing 4. Hypertension 5. Crackles heard in the lung bases on auscultation 6. A churning "windmill" sound heard over the right ventricle on auscultation Answer: 1 2 3 6 Rationale: All clients with intravenous lines are at risk for air embolism. Because an air embolism can be life threatening, it is essential that the nurse monitor for the presence of chest pain, coughing, hypotension, cyanosis, and hypoxia. In addition, if the client does have an air embolism, auscultation over the right ventricle may reveal a churning "windmill" sound.

A client has been on parenteral nutrition for 8 weeks. The health care provider prescribes that the parenteral nutrition be weaned down by 50 mL/hr/day until discontinued. The client asks the nurse, "Why doesn't the doctor just stop the parenteral nutrition instead of dragging it on for 3 days?" The nursing response would be to explain that the health care provider is concerned about which phenomenon?

1. Dehydration 2. Hypokalemia 3. Hypernatremia 4. Rebound hypoglycemia Answer: 4 Rationale: Clients receiving parenteral nutrition are receiving high concentrations of glucose. To give the pancreas time to adjust to decreasing glucose loads, the infusion rates are tapered down. Before discontinuing the parenteral nutrition, the body must adjust to the lowered glucose levels. If the parenteral nutrition were suddenly withdrawn, the client would probably have rebound hypoglycemia. Options 1, 2, and 3 are not concerns when the parenteral nutrition is discontinued.

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. Within an hour after the initiation of a transfusion, the nurse finds the client to be restless, with reports of chills and back pain. The nurse notes that there is dark urine in the Foley catheter drainage bag. The nurse interprets that the client is experiencing which reaction?

1. Delayed hemolytic 2. Acute hemolytic 3. Hyperkalemic 4. Allergic Answer: 2 Rationale: The client is experiencing an acute hemolytic reaction to the transfusion. The nurse in this instance would immediately stop the infusion and notify the health care provider. A delayed hemolytic reaction typically occurs from 2 to 14 days after transfusion. A hyperkalemic reaction occurs when blood is transfused that has been stored for too long, resulting in red blood cell hemolysis. The client experiencing a hyperkalemic reaction would exhibit nausea, muscle weakness or paresthesias, apprehension, bradycardia, electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, and possibly cardiac arrest. An allergic reaction is characterized by flushing, nausea and vomiting, respiratory stridor, hypotension, and other signs of anaphylaxis.

A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a 1-year-old child. Which of the following locations would the nurse select to administer the medication?

1. Deltoid muscle 2. Dorsogluteal muscle 3. Ventrogluteal muscle 4. Vastus lateralis muscle Answer: 4 Rationale: The vastus lateralis muscle is the best choice for all age groups and should always be used in children younger than 3 years of age. The ventrogluteal muscle is safe for children older than 18 months because it is free of major blood vessels and nerves. The dorsogluteal muscle develops with walking, so it should not be used until the child has been walking for at least 1 year. The deltoid muscle is not used for children because the small muscle mass cannot hold large volumes of medication or medications that must be injected deep into the muscle mass.

A client wishes to donate blood for a family member and asks the nurse about the procedure for identifying compatibility. The nurse tells the client that which test will be done to test compatibility?

1. Eosinophil count 2. Monocyte count 3. Indirect Coombs' 4. Red blood cell count Answer: 3 Rationale: The indirect Coombs' test detects circulating antibodies against red blood cells (RBCs) and is the "screening" component of the prescription to "type and screen" a client's blood. This test is used in addition to the ABO typing, which is normally done to determine blood type. The direct Coombs' test is used to detect idiopathic hemolytic anemia, by detecting the presence of autoantibodies against the client's RBCs. Eosinophil and monocyte counts are part of a complete blood count, a routine hematological screening test. A red blood cell count is also part of a complete blood count and determines the number of circulating red blood cells but does not determine compatibility.

A nurse is monitoring a client receiving a blood transfusion for circulatory overload. The nurse understands that which of the following is a clinical indication of circulatory overload?

1. Fatigue 2. Flat neck veins 3. Moist, productive cough 4. Decreasing blood pressure Answer: 3 Rationale: Chest or lumbar pain, cyanosis, dyspnea, moist productive cough, crackles in the lung bases, distended neck veins, and an increase in blood pressure are clinical indications of circulatory overload caused by excessive infusion amounts or too rapid an infusion rate. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

A nurse is assisting in monitoring a client who is receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells. Before leaving the room, the nurse tells the client that it is most important to immediately report which of the following signs if they occur?

1. Fatigue 2. Nausea 3. Headache 4. Backache Answer: 4 Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to immediately report signs of a transfusion reaction, which can include a backache among other signs such as chills, itching, or rash. These signs of transfusion reaction would require the nurse to stop the transfusion. Fatigue, headache, and nausea are not specifically related to transfusion reaction; however, if these occur, the nurse should investigate their cause.

When assisting in the identification process required before a blood transfusion, which action will the nurse take when it is noted that all of the necessary information is correct, except for the client's name?

1. Hang the unit of blood because the blood information matches. 2. Notify the health care provider that the client will not receive any blood. 3. Re-label the transfusion with the correct name. 4. Call the blood bank about the discrepancy. Answer: 4 Rationale: The nurse should call the blood bank and notify the personnel about the discrepancy. The unit should not be hung, and information on the requisition or bag should not be altered in any way. The nurse assigned to the client may choose to call the health care provider, but the nature of that communication would be to report a delay in the transfusion because of the problem, not to report that there would be no transfusion.

A nurse enters a client's room to check the client who began receiving a blood transfusion 45 minutes earlier. The client is flushed and dyspneic. The nurse listens to the client's lung sounds and notes the presence of crackles in the lung bases. The client states that she was just going to ring the call bell for the nurse. The nurse determines that this client is most likely experiencing which of the following complications of blood transfusion therapy?

1. Hypovolemic shock 2. Transfusion reaction 3. Fluid (circulatory) overload 4. Bacteremia Answer: 3 Rationale: With fluid (circulatory) overload, the client has the presence of crackles in the lungs in addition to dyspnea. Hypovolemic shock (restlessness, increased pulse, decreased blood pressure) is not likely to occur in a client receiving fluids. An allergic reaction, which is one type of blood transfusion reaction, would produce symptoms such as flushing, dyspnea, itching, and a generalized rash. With bacteremia, the client would have a fever, which is not part of the clinical picture presented.

A nurse is assisting in the preparation of a client for a blood transfusion. Which item is the most important for the completion of the identification process?

1. Identification bracelet 2. Social Security number 3. Client's current address 4. Medical record number Answer: 1 Rationale: The identification bracelet that is placed on the client at admission is the most important item for proper client identification. The ID bracelet contains the client's name, age, health care provider's name, room number, and a hospital and/or medical record identification number. It contains the same information that is present on the client's addressograph card, which is stamped on all client requisitions. The Social Security number and address are irrelevant for the procedure described. The medical record number would most likely be present on the client ID bracelet.

A client with a peripheral intravenous (IV) site calls the nurse to the room and tells the nurse that the IV site is swollen. The nurse checks the IV site and notes that it is also cool and pale and that the IV has stopped running. The nurse documents that which has probably occurred?

1. Infection 2. Phlebitis 3. Infiltration 4. Thrombosis Answer: 3 Rationale: An infiltrated IV is one that has dislodged from the vein, and is lying in subcutaneous tissue. The pallor, coolness, and swelling are the result of IV fluid being deposited in the subcutaneous tissue. When the pressure in the tissues exceeds the pressure in the tubing, the flow of the IV solution will stop. The corrective action is to remove the catheter and start a new IV line. The other three options are likely to be accompanied by warmth at the site, not coolness.

A client receiving intravenous (IV) fluid therapy complains of burning and a feeling of tightness at the IV insertion site. On assessment, the nurse detects coolness and swelling at the site and notes that the IV rate has slowed. The nurse determines that which of the following has occurred?

1. Infection 2. Phlebitis 3. Infiltration 4. Thrombosis Answer: 3 Rationale: An infiltrated IV line is one that has dislodged from the vein and is lying in subcutaneous tissue. Pallor, coolness, and swelling at the IV site result when IV fluid is deposited in the subcutaneous tissue. When the pressure in the tissues exceeds the pressure in the tubing, the flow of IV solution will slow down or stop. The corrective action is to remove the catheter and start a new IV line at another site. Options 1, 2, and 4 are likely to be accompanied by warmth at the site, not coolness.

A nurse notes redness, warmth, and a yellowish drainage at the insertion site of a central venous catheter in a client receiving parenteral nutrition. The nurse immediately reports these findings, knowing that:

1. Infections of a central catheter site can lead to septicemia. 2. The client is allergic to the dressing material covering the site. 3. The parenteral nutrition solution has infiltrated and must be stopped. 4. The client is experiencing an allergy to the parenteral nutrition solution. Answer: 1 Rationale: Redness, warmth, and purulent drainage are signs of an infection, not an allergic reaction. Infiltration causes the surrounding tissue to become cool and pale.

A nurse is preparing to administer an acetaminophen (Tylenol) suppository to a child. The nurse plans to:

1. Insert the suppository 1 to 2 cm into the rectum. 2. Position the child on the right side with the left leg flexed. 3. Ask the child to expel the suppository after it has been inserted. 4. Ask the child to hold the breath during insertion of the suppository. Answer: 1 Rationale: When administering a suppository to a child, the child should be positioned on the left side with the right leg flexed. The child should be asked to take a deep breath to further relax the sphincter. The suppository is gently inserted past the internal sphincter; the distance required to place the medication is approximately 1 to 2 cm. After insertion, the buttocks should be held together until the urge to expel the suppository has passed.

A normal saline 0.9% intravenous (IV) solution is prescribed for a client. The IV is to run at 100 mL/hr. The nurse prepares the solution, understanding that which of the following is a characteristic of this type of solution?

1. Is hypertonic with the plasma and other body fluids 2. Is hypotonic with the plasma and other body fluids 3. Affects the plasma osmolarity 4. Is the same solution as sodium chloride 0.9% Answer: 4 Rationale: Sodium chloride 0.9% is the same solution as normal saline 0.9%. This solution is isotonic, and isotonic solutions frequently are used for intravenous infusion because they do not affect the plasma osmolarity.

Intravenous (IV) lactated Ringer's solution is prescribed for a postoperative client. A nursing student is caring for the client, and the nursing instructor asks the student about the tonicity of the prescribed IV solution. The student responds by telling the instructor that the solution is:

1. Isotonic 2. Hypotonic 3. Hypertonic 4. Normotonic Answer: 1 Rationale: Lactated Ringer's solution is an isotonic solution. Other isotonic solutions include 5% dextrose in water, 0.9% normal saline, and 5% dextrose in 0.225% normal saline. 0.45% normal saline is hypotonic; 10% dextrose in water, 5% dextrose in 0.9% normal saline, and 5% dextrose in 0.45% normal saline are hypertonic solutions.

A nurse is instructed to complete a medication reconciliation form on a newly admitted client. Why is it important for the nurse to ensure that this process is completed accurately?

1. It makes sure that the client's medical insurance will pay the cost of the medications. 2. It educates the client about the reason why medications are being given. 3. It notifies the client's pharmacy about the medications the client is taking in the hospital. 4. It helps to make sure that the health care provider is aware of all of the medications the client is taking and has been taking at home. Answer: 4 Rationale: Medication reconciliation is an organized process to avoid medication errors by comparing the client's medication prescriptions to all of the medications that the client has been taking. Health care providers must review this list and prescribe appropriate medications. This process is not used to educate clients and families on current medications or to determine if the client's insurance will pay the cost of the medications. Notifying the pharmacy of what medications the client is taking while in the hospital is not a specific purpose of the medication reconciliation process.

A nurse is assigned to care for a client receiving parenteral nutrition via the subclavian vein. The nurse would identify which intervention in the plan of care for the client as the priority?

1. Monitoring the insertion site for signs of infection 2. Maintaining the client in a semi-Fowler's position on his back at all times 3. Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe 4. Taking the blood pressure hourly Answer: 1 Rationale: Parenteral nutrition that is infusing via a central line, such as through the subclavian vein, is more likely to become infected than a standard peripheral intravenous line. Infection may quickly lead to sepsis. At least every 4 to 6 hours, the insertion site should be inspected. It is not necessary to place the client in the semi-Fowler's position on his back at all times. It is advisable to encourage a client to cough and deep breathe, but this action does not relate to the subject of the question. It is not necessary to take the blood pressure hourly.

A client has been receiving parenteral nutrition at 125 mL/hr for 5 days. On data collection, the LPN notes bilateral crackles and 2+ pedal edema and that the client has gained 3 pounds in 5 days. Which nursing action would be appropriate as the initial action?

1. Notify the registered nurse of the findings. 2. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe. 3. Check the client's medication prescriptions for a diuretic. 4. Slow the parenteral nutrition infusion rate to 100 mL/hr. Answer: 1 Rationale: The client is showing signs of fluid retention and possible excess fluid intake. Crackles, edema, and weight gain signify fluid shifts from intravascular spaces to the interstitial spaces. The problem may or may not be related to the parenteral nutrition. Other possible causes of fluid retention include impaired respiratory and cardiovascular function, impaired kidney function, or a combination of factors. The nurse needs to notify the registered nurse of the findings. The registered nurse will then notify the health care provider for further prescriptions. Option 2 will have little, if any, effect on peripheral edema and weight gain. Option 3 infers that a diuretic will help the situation, and it is possible that the health care provider will prescribe a diuretic; however, the health care provider needs to be aware of the change in the physical condition of the client. The nurse should not increase or decrease the rate of parenteral nutrition infusions without a health care provider's prescription to do so.

A nurse is doing a routine assessment of a client's peripheral IV site. The nurse notes that the site is cool, pale, and swollen and that the IV has stopped running. The nurse determines that which of the following has probably occurred?

1. Phlebitis 2. Infection 3. Infiltration 4. Thrombosis Answer: 3 Rationale: An infiltrated IV is one that has dislodged from the vein and is lying in subcutaneous tissue. The pallor, coolness, and swelling are the result of IV fluid being deposited into the subcutaneous tissue. When the pressure in the tissues exceeds the pressure in the tubing, the flow of the IV solution will stop. The other three options identify complications that are likely to be accompanied by warmth at the site rather than coolness.

The nurse notes the appearance of skin breakdown on a client's hand at the site of an intravenous catheter that had medication infusing. The nurse determines that which adverse effect occurred? Refer to figure.

1. Phlebitis 2. Infiltration 3. Thrombosis 4. Extravasation Answer: 4 Rationale: Extravasation refers to the tissue injury that occurs from leakage of medication into surrounding skin and subcutaneous tissue; it can also cause tissue necrosis. Phlebitis is an inflammation of the vein that can occur from mechanical or chemical (medication) trauma or from a local infection. Phlebitis can cause the development of a clot (thrombophlebitis). Infiltration is seepage of the intravenous fluid out of the vein and into the surrounding interstitial spaces. It is a form of tissue injury but the injury is not to the extent that occurs with extravasation.

A nurse is checking the insertion site of a peripheral IV catheter. The nurse notes the site to be reddened, warm, painful, and slightly edematous in the area of the vein proximal to the IV catheter. The nurse interprets that this is likely the result of:

1. Phlebitis of the vein 2. Infiltration of the IV line 3. Hypersensitivity to the IV solution 4. An allergic reaction to the IV catheter material Answer: 1 Rationale: Phlebitis at an IV site results in discomfort at the site and redness, warmth, and swelling proximal to the IV catheter. The IV catheter should be removed, and a new IV line should be inserted at a different site. The remaining options are incorrect; the signs and symptoms in the question are not associated with these conditions.

A nurse is preparing to administer medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube that is connected to suction. Which of the following indicates the accurate procedure for medication administration?

1. Position the client supine to assist with medication absorption. 2. Clamp the NG tube for 30 minutes after medication administration. 3. Aspirate the NG tube after medication administration to maintain patency. 4. Change the suction setting to low intermittent suction for 30 minutes after medication administration. Answer: 2 Rationale: If a client has an NG tube connected to suction, the nurse should wait up to 30 minutes before reconnecting the tube to the suction apparatus to allow adequate time for medication absorption. Aspirating the NG tube will remove the medication that has just been administered. Low intermittent suction will also remove the medication. The client should not be placed in the supine position because of the risk for aspiration.

A client rings the call bell and complains of pain at the site of an intravenous (IV) infusion. The licensed practical nurse (LPN) inspects the site and determines that the client has developed phlebitis. The LPN would plan to avoid which of the following actions in the care of this client?

1. Prepare to apply warm moist packs to the site. 2. Prepare to start a new line in a proximal portion of the same vein. 3. Prepare to discontinue the IV catheter at that site. 4. Notify the registered nurse (RN). Answer: 2 Rationale: As directed, the LPN should discontinue the IV at the phlebitic site and apply warm, moist compresses to the area to speed resolution of the inflammation. Because phlebitis has occurred, the LPN also notifies the RN, who will contact the health care provider about the IV complication. The LPN should prepare for restarting the IV in a vein other than the one that has developed phlebitis.

One unit of packed red blood cells has been prescribed for a client postoperatively because the client's hemoglobin level is low. The health care provider prescribes diphenhydramine (Benadryl) to be administered before the administration of the transfusion. The nurse determines that this medication has been prescribed to:

1. Prevent a fever. 2. Promote sedation. 3. Prevent a rash and pruritus. 4. Promote bone marrow absorption. Answer: 3 Rationale: An urticarial reaction is characterized by a rash accompanied by pruritus. This type of transfusion reaction is prevented by pretreating the client with an antihistamine, such as diphenhydramine. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect statements. Acetaminophen (Tylenol), however, may be prescribed before the administration to assist in preventing an elevated temperature.

A nurse is checking a peripheral intravenous (IV) site and notes blanching, coolness, and edema at the site. The nurse should do which first?

1. Remove the IV. 2. Check for a blood return. 3. Apply a warm compress. 4. Measure the area of infiltration. Answer: 1 Rationale: Blanching, coolness, and edema of the IV site are all classic signs of infiltration. Because infiltration can be damaging to the surrounding tissue, the first action by the nurse is to remove the IV to prevent any further damage. The nurse should not depend solely on the blood return for assurance that the cannula is in the vein because a blood return may be present even if the cannula is only partially in the vein. Warm compresses may be applied to the infiltrated area only after the IV is removed and only if the infiltrated solution is not damaging to the surrounding tissues. Measuring the area of infiltration should be done only after the IV has been removed so that tissue damage is thoroughly assessed.

A nurse notes that the site of a client's peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter is reddened, warm, painful, and slightly edematous proximal to the insertion point of the IV catheter. Based on these findings, the initial nursing action is to:

1. Remove the IV. 2. Slow the rate of infusion. 3. Check for loose catheter connections. 4. Notify the health care provider. Answer: 1 Rationale: Phlebitis at an IV site can be determined by client discomfort at the site, as well as by redness, warmth, and swelling proximal to the catheter. The line should be removed, and a new line should be inserted at a different site. Options 2 and 3 are incorrect. The health care provider should be notified if phlebitis occurred, but this is not the initial action.

A client who has been receiving parenteral nutrition by way of a central venous access device complains of chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse quickly assesses the client's vital signs and notes that the pulse rate has increased and that the blood pressure has dropped. The nurse determines that the client is likely experiencing:

1. Sepsis 2. Air embolism 3. Fluid overload 4. Fluid imbalance Answer: 2 Rationale: The signs and symptoms of air embolism include chest pain, dyspnea, hypoxia, anxiety, tachycardia, and hypotension. The nurse also would hear a loud churning sound over the pericardium on auscultation of the chest. The signs and symptoms of sepsis include fever, chills, and general malaise. The signs and symptoms of a fluid imbalance depend on the type of imbalance that the client is experiencing. Fluid overload causes increased intravascular volume, which increases the blood pressure and the pulse rate as the heart tries to pump the extra fluid volume. Fluid overload also causes neck vein distention and the shifting of fluid into the alveoli, resulting in lung crackles. Complications would be reported to the registered nurse and/or the health care provider immediately.

A client had a 1000-mL bag of 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride hung at 15:00. The nurse, making rounds at 15:45, finds that the client is complaining of a pounding headache, is dyspneic with chills, is apprehensive, and has an increased pulse rate. The intravenous (IV) bag has 400 mL remaining. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

1. Sit the client up in bed. 2. Place the client in Trendelenburg's position. 3. Shut off the infusion. 4. Discontinue the angiocatheter and IV. Answer: 3 Rationale: The client's symptoms are compatible with speed shock. This may be verified by noting that 600 mL has infused in the course of 45 minutes. The first action of the nurse from the options presented is to shut off the infusion. The nurse may elevate the head of the bed to aid the client's breathing. Placing the client in Trendelenburg's position is not an appropriate action. The registered nurse is notified immediately, who then contacts the health care provider. The angiocatheter does not need to be removed. It may be needed to treat this complication.

A nurse hangs a 1000-mL bag of intravenous (IV) fluid on an assigned client. Forty-five minutes later, the nurse notes that the client is complaining of a pounding headache, is dyspneic, is apprehensive, and has an increased pulse rate. The IV bag has 500 mL remaining. The nurse should take which of the following actions first?

1. Sit the client up in bed. 2. Slow the rate of infusion. 3. Shut off the IV infusion. 4. Remove the IV. Answer: 3 Rationale: The client's symptoms are compatible with speed shock. This may be verified by noting that 500 mL has infused in the course of 45 minutes. The first action of the nurse is to shut off the IV infusion. Other actions may follow in rapid sequence. The nurse may elevate the head of the bed to aid the client's breathing. The health care provider is notified immediately. Slowing the infusion rate is inappropriate because the client will continue receiving fluid. The IV does not have to be removed; it may be needed to manage the complication.

A nurse checks the peripheral intravenous (IV) site dressing and notes that it is damp and that the tape is loose. The nurse would first:

1. Stop the infusion immediately. 2. Check that the tubing is securely attached. 3. Increase the IV flow rate to assess for further leaking. 4. Prepare to restart the IV at a site medial to the original site. Answer: 2 Rationale: If there is leakage at the IV site, the nurse should first locate the source. The nurse should assess the site further to be certain that all connections are secure. The nurse should not increase the IV flow rate. Although it is true that it may leak more, it may also cause more tissue damage if the IV was infiltrating. Information about the IV must first be gathered so that the cause of the leaking can be determined before interventions can be planned.

A nursing student is assisting the clinic nurse with the administration of immunizations in the well-baby clinic. The student is asked to administer a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine to a child and prepares to administer the vaccine:

1. Subcutaneously in the gluteal muscle 2. Subcutaneously in the upper arm 3. Intramuscularly in the deltoid muscle 4. Intramuscularly in the thigh Answer: 2 Rationale: MMR is administered subcutaneously into the outer aspect of the upper arm. Each child should receive two vaccinations, the first between 12 and 15 months of age and the second between 4 and 6 years or 11 and 12 years. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

A client requiring upcoming surgery is extremely anxious about the need for possible blood transfusion and is concerned about the risk of infection from contaminated blood. The nurse suggests that the client consider which option as an effective method to minimize this risk?

1. Take iron supplements before surgery to boost hemoglobin levels. 2. Request that any donated blood be screened twice by the blood bank. 3. Ask a friend or family member to donate blood ahead of time. 4. Arrange an autologous blood donation before the planned surgery. Answer: 4 Rationale: Donating autologous blood to be reinfused as needed during or after surgery minimizes the risk of cross-infection from contaminated blood. The next most effective way is to ask a family member to donate blood before surgery. Blood banks do not provide extra screening on request. Preoperative iron supplements are helpful for iron deficiency anemia but are not helpful in affecting the possibility of infection.

Cloxacillin sodium (Tegopen) 100 mg orally every 8 hours is prescribed for a child with an elevated temperature who is suspected of having a respiratory tract infection. The child weighs 17 pounds. The safe pediatric dosage is 50 mg/kg/day. Which statement most accurately describes the prescribed dosage for this child?

1. The dosage is too low. 2. The dosage is too high. 3. The dosage is within the safe dosage range. 4. There is not enough information to determine the safe dosage. Answer: 1 Rationale: Convert pounds to kilograms by dividing by 2.2. Pounds to kilograms: 17 lb divided by 2.2 lb/kg = 7.72 kg Safe dosage parameter: 50 mg/kg/day × 7.72 kg = 386 mg/day Dosage frequency: 100 mg × 3 doses (every 8 hours) = 300 mg/day The dosage is within the safe dosage range.

Penicillin V (Pen-VK), 250 mg orally every 8 hours, is prescribed for a child with a respiratory infection. The child's weight is 45 pounds. The safe pediatric dosage is 25 to 50 mg/kg/day. Which statement most accurately describes the prescribed dosage for this child?

1. The dosage is too low. 2. The dosage is too high. 3. The dosage is within the safe dosage range. 4. There is not enough information to determine the safe dosage. Answer: 3 Rationale: Convert pounds to kilograms by dividing by 2.2 and then determine the dosage frequency. Pounds to kilograms: 45 lb divided by 2.2 lb/kg = 20.45 kg Dosage parameters: 25 mg/kg/day × 20.45 kg = 511.25 mg/day 50 mg/kg/day × 20.45 kg = 1022.5 mg/day Dosage frequency: 250 mg × 3 doses (every 8 hours) = 750 mg/day The dosage is within the safe dosage range.

A health care provider has prescribed phenobarbital sodium (Luminal Sodium), 25 mg orally twice daily for a child with febrile seizures. The child's weight is 7.2 kg. The safe pediatric dosage is 1 to 6 mg/kg/day. The nurse determines that:

1. The dosage is too low. 2. The dosage is too high. 3. The dosage is within the safe range. 4. There is not enough information to determine the safe dosage. Answer: 2 Rationale: Calculate the dosage parameters, using the safe dosage range identified in the question and the child's weight in kilograms. Next determine the total daily dosage. Dosage parameters: 1 mg/kg/day × 7.2 kg = 7.2 mg/day 6 mg/ kg/day × 7.2 kg = 43.2 mg/day Dosage frequency: 25 mg × 2 doses = 50 mg/day The dosage is too high.

1. The dosage is too low. 2. The dosage is too high. 3. The dosage is within the safe range. 4. There is not enough information to determine the safe dosage. Answer: 3 Rationale: Calculate the dosage parameters, using the safe dosage range identified in the question and the child's weight in kilograms. Next, determine the total daily dosage. Dosage parameters: 5 mg/kg × 25 kg = 125 mg/day Dosage frequency: 25 mg × 4 doses = 100 mg/day The dosage is safe.

A nurse is checking postoperative prescriptions and planning care for a 110-pound child after spinal fusion. Morphine sulfate, 8 mg subcutaneously every 4 hours as needed (PRN) for pain, is prescribed. The pediatric drug reference states that the safe dosage is 0.1 to 0.2 mg/kg/dose every 2 to 4 hours. From this information, the nurse determines that:

1. The dosage is too low. 2. The dosage is too high. 3. The dosage is within the safe range. 4. There is not enough information to determine the safe dosage. Answer: 3 Rationale: Convert pounds to kilograms by dividing by 2.2, because 1 kg = 2.2 pounds. Therefore, 110 lb divided by 2.2 = 50 kg. Then determine the dosage parameters. Dosage parameters: 0.1 mg/kg × 50 kg = 5 mg 0.2 mg/kg × 50 kg = 10 mg The dosage is safe.

Penicillin G procaine (Wycillin), 1 million units intramuscularly, has been prescribed for the child with a throat infection. The child's weight is 62 pounds. The safe pediatric dosage for a child that weighs greater than 60 pounds is 600,000 to 1,200,000 units daily. The nurse determines that:

1. The dosage is too low. 2. The dosage is too high. 3. The dosage is within the safe range. 4. There is not enough information to determine the safe dosage. Answer: 3 Rationale: The child's weight is 62 pounds, which falls within the safe pediatric dosage range of 600,000 to 1,200,000 units daily. The dosage is safe.

Morphine sulfate, 2.5 mg, is prescribed for a child. The safe pediatric dose is 0.05 to 0.1 mg/kg/dose. The child weighs 50 kg. Which statement most accurately describes the prescribed dosage for this child?

1. The dose is too low. 2. The dose is too high. 3. The dose is within the safe dosage range. 4. There is not enough information to determine the safe dosage range. Answer: 3 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating a safe dosage range. Dosage parameters: 0.05 mg/kg/dose × 50 kg = 2.5 mg/dose 0.1 mg/kg/dose × 50 kg = 5 mg/dose The dose is within the safe dosage range.

Diphenhydramine hydrochloride (Benadryl), 25 mg orally every 6 hours, is prescribed for a child with an allergic reaction. The child weighs 25 kg. The safe pediatric dosage is 5 mg/kg/day. The nurse determines that:

1. The dose is too low. 2. The dose is too high. 3. The dose is within the safe dosage range. 4. There is not enough information to determine the safe dose. Answer: 3 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating a safe dosage range. Safe dose parameter: 5 mg/kg/day × 25 kg = 125 mg/day Dosage frequency: 25 mg × 4 doses (every 6 hours) = 100 mg/day The dose is within the safe dosage range.

A client who was receiving a blood transfusion has experienced a transfusion reaction. The nurse sends the blood bag that was used for the client to which of the following areas?

1. The pharmacy 2. The laboratory 3. The blood bank 4. The risk-management department Answer: 3 Rationale: The nurse prepares to return the blood transfusion bag containing any remaining blood to the blood bank. This allows the blood bank to complete any follow-up testing procedures that are needed after a transfusion reaction has been documented. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

A client is scheduled for insertion of a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC), and the nurse explains the advantages of this catheter. Which statement by the client indicates a lack of understanding about this type of catheter?

1. There is less pain and discomfort. 2. This type of catheter is very reliable. 3. It is reasonable in cost. 4. It is specifically designed for short-term use. Answer: 4 Rationale: PICC catheters are intended to be used for clients who need long-term catheter placement. It is reasonable in cost because the catheter does not need routine replacement, as do traditional peripheral IV catheters. The catheter is more comfortable for the client because there is no repeated venipuncture with catheter change. The catheter is also very reliable. It is less likely to infiltrate and can be used for administration of a number of different types of medications.

A client has a prescription to receive 1000 mL of 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride. After gathering the appropriate equipment, the nurse takes which action first before spiking the IV bag with the tubing?

1. Uncaps the distal end of the tubing 2. Uncaps the spike portion of the tubing 3. Opens the roller clamp on the IV tubing 4. Closes the roller clamp on the IV tubing Answer: 4 Rationale: The nurse should first clamp the tubing to prevent the solution from running freely through the tubing after it is attached to the IV bag. The nurse should next uncap the proximal (spike) portion of the tubing and attach it to the IV bag. The roller clamp is then opened slowly, and the fluid is allowed to flow through the tubing in a controlled fashion to prevent air from remaining in parts of the tubing.

A nurse teaches a client how to administer enoxaparin (Lovenox) subcutaneously. The nurse determines that the client understands the correct procedure if the client does which on a return demonstration?

1. Uses a 1-inch needle 2. Massages after injection 3. Aspirates before injection 4. Bunches the skin before injection Answer: 4 Rationale: With subcutaneous injection of enoxaparin, the administration technique is the same as for heparin. The smallest-gauge needle available (25- to 27-gauge) is used to prevent injection site hematoma, a "bunching" technique is used, and the medication is injected deep into fatty abdominal tissue. Aspiration before injecting is not done, and the injection site is not massaged. The needle is withdrawn gently to minimize bleeding, and injection sites are rotated systematically.

A nurse is assigned to care for a client with a peripheral IV infusion. The nurse is providing hygiene care to the client and would avoid which of the following while changing the client's hospital gown?

1. Using a hospital gown with snaps at the sleeves 2. Disconnecting the IV tubing from the catheter in the vein 3. Checking the IV flow rate immediately after changing the hospital gown 4. Putting the bag and tubing through the sleeve, followed by the client's arm Answer: 2 Rationale: The tubing should not be removed from the IV catheter. With each break in the system, there is an increased chance of introducing bacteria into the system, which can lead to infection. Options 1 and 4 are appropriate. The flow rate should be checked immediately after changing the hospital gown, because the position of the roller clamp may have been affected during the change.

A nurse is assisting with caring for a client who will receive a unit of blood. Just before the infusion, it is most important for the nurse to check the client's:

1. Vital signs 2. Skin color 3. Oxygen saturation 4. Latest hematocrit level Answer: 1 Rationale: A change in the vital signs may indicate that a transfusion reaction is occurring. The nurse assesses the client's vital signs before the procedure to obtain a baseline, every 15 minutes for the first half hour after beginning the transfusion, and every half hour thereafter. Options 2, 3, and 4 may be checked but are not the most important.

A client with an indwelling intravenous (IV) catheter has a prescription for an IV solution to be changed to 1000 mL 0.9% sodium chloride to infuse at 100 mL/hr. When determining the rationale for the change in fluid, the nurse interprets that the client probably needs this type of solution because it:

1. Will increase the plasma osmolarity 2. Will decrease the plasma osmolarity 3. Is isotonic with the plasma and other body fluids 4. Is hypotonic with the plasma and other body fluids Answer: 3 Rationale: Sodium chloride 0.9% is isotonic and is frequently used for intravenous infusion because it does not affect the plasma osmolarity. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect regarding this type of solution.

A nurse is preparing a continuous intravenous (IV) infusion at the medication cart. As the nurse goes to attach the distal end of the IV tubing to a needleless device, the tubing drops and hits the top of the medication cart. Which of the following is the appropriate action by the nurse?

1. Wipe the tubing port with povidone-iodine. 2. Scrub the needleless device with an alcohol swab. 3. Attach a new needleless device. 4. Change the IV tubing. Answer: 4 Rationale: The nurse should change the IV tubing because it has become contaminated and could cause systemic infection to the client. Wiping the port with povidone-iodine is insufficient and would be contraindicated regardless, because the catheter will be attached directly to an angiocatheter in the client's vein. The needleless device has not been contaminated and does not need replacement or cleansing.

A nurse has just been told by the health care provider that a prescription has been written to administer an iron injection to a client. The nurse anticipates giving the medication by which method?

1. Z-track 2. Subcutaneous using a ⅝-inch needle 3. Intramuscular using a 1-inch needle 4. Direct intravenous push after dilution Answer: 1 Rationale: The correct technique for administering parenteral iron is deep in the gluteal muscle using the Z-track technique. Usually a 1½-inch needle is used to administer the injection, depending on the size of the client. This method minimizes the possibility that the injection will stain the skin a dark color. The medication is not given by the subcutaneous route or by direct intravenous push.

A health care provider's prescription reads "meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) 125 mg by the intramuscular route stat." The medication vial reads 100 mg/mL. How many milliliters of the medication should the nurse draw into the syringe for injection? Fill in the blank. Record answer to two decimal places.

1.25

The medication is an intramuscular dose of 400,000 units of penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin). The medication label reads penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin) 300,000 units/mL. The nurse prepares how much medication to administer the correct dose? Fill in the blank and record the answer using one decimal place.

1.3

The health care provider's prescription reads "levothyroxine (Synthroid), 150 mcg orally daily." The medication label reads "levothyroxine, 0.1 mg/tablet." The nurse prepares to administer how many tablet(s) to the client? Fill in the blank. Record your answer using one decimal place.

1.5

Penicillin G procaine, 1,000,000 units given intramuscularly, is prescribed for an adolescent with an infection. The medication label reads as follows: "1,200,000 units/2 mL." The nurse has determined that the prescribed dose is safe. How many milliliters per dose should the nurse administer to the adolescent?

1.66

A health care provider has prescribed a liquid oral suspension of amoxicillin (Amoxil). The prescription reads 0.25 gram (g) orally 3 times daily. How many milliliters (mL) should the nurse administer to the client per dose? Refer to the figure. Fill in the blank.

A health care provider prescribes potassium chloride (KCl) elixir, 20 mEq orally daily. The medication label states potassium chloride (KCl), 30 mEq/15 mL. How many milliliters should the nurse prepare to administer the dose? Fill in the blank.

Penicillin V potassium 250 mg orally every 8 hours is prescribed for a child with a respiratory infection. The medication label reads: Penicillin, 125 mg per 5 mL. The nurse has determined that the dosage prescribed is a safe dose for the child. How many milliliters (mL) will the nurse administer to the child per dose? Fill in the blank.

38. A nurse is asked to regulate the flow rate of an IV solution being administered. The IV bag contains 50 mL of solution, and the solution is to be administered over 30 minutes. The administration set has a drop factor of 10 drops (gtt)/mL. The nurse should regulate the roller clamp on the infusion set to deliver how many drops per minute?

10 gtt/mL * 50 mL/30

The nurse is making initial rounds at the beginning of the shift and notes that the parenteral nutrition (PN) bag of an assigned client is empty. Which solution should the nurse hang until another PN solution is mixed and delivered to the nursing unit? 1. 5% dextrose in water 2. 10% dextrose in water 3. 5% dextrose in Ringer's lactate 4. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride

10% dextrose in water The client is at risk for hypoglycemia; therefore, the solution containing the highest amount of glucose should be hung until the new PN solution becomes available. Because PN solutions contain high glucose concentrations, the 10% dextrose in water solution is the best of the choices presented. The solution selected should be one that minimizes the risk of hypoglycemia. The remaining options will not be as effective in minimizing the risk of hypoglycemia.

A client is brought to the emergency department immediately after a smoke inhalation injury. The nurse initially prepares the client for which treatment? 1. Pain medication 2. Endotracheal intubation 3. Oxygen via nasal cannula 4. 100% humidified oxygen by face mask

100% humidified oxygen by face mask With a smoke inhalation injury, the client is immediately treated with 100% humidified oxygen delivered by face mask. This method provides a greater concentration of oxygen than oxygen delivered via nasal cannula. Endotracheal intubation is needed if the client exhibits respiratory stridor, which indicates airway obstruction. Pain medication may be needed but would not be the initial intervention.

A client arrives at the emergency department following a burn injury that occurred in the basement at home, and an inhalation injury is suspected. What would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for the client? 1. 100% oxygen via an aerosol mask 2. Oxygen via nasal cannula at 6 L/minute 3. Oxygen via nasal cannula at 15 L/minute 4. 100% oxygen via a tight-fitting, nonrebreather face mask

100% oxygen via a tight-fitting, nonrebreather face mask If an inhalation injury is suspected, administration of 100% oxygen via a tight-fitting nonrebreather face mask is prescribed until carboxyhemoglobin levels fall (usually below 15%). In inhalation injuries, the oropharynx is inspected for evidence of erythema, blisters, or ulcerations. The need for endotracheal intubation also is assessed. Administration of oxygen by aerosol mask and cannula are incorrect and would not provide the necessary oxygen supply needed for adequate tissue perfusion for the client with a likely inhalation injury.

75. A nurse is preparing to hang an intravenous solution of 1000 mL 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's to flow at 80 mL/hour. The nurse time-tapes the bag with a start time of 07:00. After making horuly marks on the time-tape, the nurse notes that the completion time for the bag is?

1000 mL/x hours = 80 mL/ 1 hour Take 12.5 hours 07:00 + 12.5 = 19:30 (not .5)

79. Health care provider's prescription reads: cyanobalamin (vitamin B12) 100 mcg intramuscular. THe medication label reads "cyanocobalamin (vit B12), 0.5 mg/mL. The nurse administers how many mL to the client

1000 mcg = 1 mg 0.5 mg/1 mL = 0.1/ x = 0.2 mL

A physician prescribes 1000 mL of normal saline 0.45% for infusion over 8 hours. The drop factor is 10 gtt/mL. At how many drops per minute does the nurse set the flow rate? (Round your answer to the nearest whole number).

A physician s prescription for an adult client reads, Potassium chloride 15 mEq by mouth. The label on the medication bottle reads, 20 mEq potassium chloride/15 mL. How many milliliters of KCl does the nurse prepare to ensure administration of the correct dose of medication? (Round your answer to the nearest whole number.)

The nurse is preparing to administer 30 mEq of liquid potassium chloride (KCl) to an adult client. The label on the medication bottle reads 40 mEq/15 mL. The nurse prepares how many milliliters of KCl to administer the correct dose of medication? Fill in the blank. Round your answer to the nearest whole number.

The home care nurse is monitoring a client's response to total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The client's weight 1 week earlier was 114 lbs (52 kg). The nurse determines that the client is gaining weight as expected if which morning weight is noted? 1. 116 lbs (52.6 kg) 2. 119 lbs (53.9 kg) 3. 120 lbs (54.4 kg) 4. 122 lbs (55.3 kg)

116 lbs (52.6 kg) The client receiving TPN should not gain more than 3 lbs (1.4 kg) per week, with optimal weight gain being 1 to 2 lbs (0.5 to 1 kg) per week. The weight goal for the client on TPN is individual and depends on the client's metabolic needs and baseline weight (whether underweight, overweight, or at optimal weight). The correct option identifies a reasonable weight gain of 2 lbs (1 kg) per week. The remaining options indicate weekly weight gains that are greater than expected.

A pulmonary artery catheter is inserted into a client during cardiac surgery. The nurse is monitoring the right atrial pressure (RAP). Which finding requires immediate nursing intervention? 1. 4 mm Hg 2. 6 mm Hg 3. 8 mm Hg 4. 12 mm Hg

12 mm Hg The normal RAP is 1 to 8 mm Hg; therefore, all options within this range (1, 2, and 3) are normal findings. An elevated RAP can be indicative of right ventricular failure.

A health care provider prescribes 3000 mL of 5% dextrose to be administered over a 24-hour period. The nurse prepares to set the infusion rate knowing that how many milliliters per hour are to be administered? Fill in the blank.

125

46. Health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of 5% dextrose to run at 125 mL/hour. THe nurse calculates the infusion rate, knowing it will take how many hours for 1 L to infuse?

125x = 1000 x= 8 hours or total volume in mL (1000) ------- mL/hour (125 mL/hour) = 8 hours

The nurse is assigned to a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) who had a blood glucose measurement done at 06:00. The nurse documents on the client's clinical worksheet for the day that the blood glucose level should be checked next at which time? 1. 08:00 2. 12:00 3. 16:00 4. 18:00

12:00 The client's blood glucose level should be monitored every 4 to 6 hours during TPN therapy. Depending on agency policy, this may be done every 8 hours instead. Monitoring the blood glucose level every 2 hours is unnecessary. Monitoring every 10 or 12 hours is insufficient.

The health care provider prescribes ibuprofen (children's Motrin) 5 mg per kg for a child who weighs 13 pounds. How many milligrams (mg) should the nurse administer to the child? Fill in the blank. Record your answer using one decimal place.

143

A client sustained a burn injury at 7:00 a.m. The client's spouse states that before the burn, the client's body weight was 198 lbs. The health care provider has estimated that the total body surface area (BSA) burned is 83%. Using the Parkland (Baxter) formula (4 mL × kilograms of body mass × percent total BSA), the nurse determines that the total amount of intravenous lactated Ringer's solution that the client will receive by 3 p.m. of the same day on which the burn occurred is which value? Fill in the blank.

14940 The Parkland (Baxter) formula for estimating fluid requirements is 4 mL × kilograms of body mass × percent total BSA. Half of this total is administered in the first 8 hours after the burn. First, convert pounds to kilograms by dividing 198 lbs by 2.2, which equals 90. Therefore, 4 × 90 × 83 = 29,880 mL, divided by 2 = 14,940 mL.

Ampicillin sodium 250 mg in 50 mL of normal saline (NS) is being administered over a period of 30 minutes. The drop (gtt) factor is 10 drops (gtt) per mL. The nurse is asked to check the flow rate of the infusion. The nurse determines that the infusion is running at the prescribed rate if the infusion is delivering how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to the nearest whole number.

The nurse is asked to regulate the flow rate of an intravenous (IV) solution being administered to a client. The IV bag contains 50 mL of solution and the solution is to be administered over 30 minutes. The administration set has a drop factor of 10 drops (gtts)/mL. The nurse should regulate the roller clamp on the infusion set to deliver how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Round answer to the nearest whole number.

The nurse has a prescription to administer whole blood to a client who does not currently have an intravenous (IV) line inserted. When obtaining supplies to start the blood infusion, the nurse should select an angiocatheter of at least which size? 1. 19 gauge 2. 21 gauge 3. 24 gauge 4. 26 gauge

19 gauge Blood components are usually administered with at least a 19-gauge needle, cannula, or catheter. Larger sizes (e.g., 18- or 16-gauge) may be preferred if rapid transfusions are given. Smaller needles can be used for platelets, albumin, and clotting factor replacement.

The nurse is preparing to hang an intravenous (IV) solution of 1000 mL 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's to flow at 80 mL/hour. The nurse time-tapes the bag with a start time of 07:00. After making hourly marks on the time-tape, the nurse notes that the completion time for the bag would be what?

19:30

17. Medication prescribed is digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.25 orally daily. Med lable 0.125 mg/tablet. THe nurse prepares how many tablets to administer the dose?

A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is prescribed oral lorazepam (Ativan) 4 mg daily to help manage his manic behavior. The medication label reads 2 mg/mL. To ensure the correct dose, the nurse administers how many milliliters per dose? Fill in the blank.

A health care provider prescribes atenolol (Tenormin) 0.05 g by mouth daily. The label on the medication bottle states atenolol 25-mg tablets. How many tablets will the nurse administer to the client? Fill in the blank.

A health care provider prescribes digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.5 mg orally daily for a client with heart failure. The medication label states, 0.25 mg per tablet. How many tablet(s) will the nurse administer to the client? Fill in the blank.

A health care provider prescribes tetracycline hydrochloride (Sumycin) 0.5 g orally 4 times daily. The medication label on the bottle of medication reads tetracycline hydrochloride 250 mg tablets. The nurse prepares how many tablet(s) to administer one dose? Fill in the blank.

A health care provider's prescription reads "ketorolac (Toradol), 30 mg intramuscular every 6 hours as needed." The medication label reads "ketorolac (Toradol), 15 mg/mL." The nurse prepares to administer how many milliliters to the client? Fill in the blank.

A health care provider's prescription reads theophylline 100 mg orally every 6 hours. The medication label reads 50-mg capsules. How many capsules will the nurse give to administer one dose? Fill in the blank.

A physician s prescription reads, Clindamycin phosphate (Cleocin Phosphate) 0.3 g in 50 mL NS, to be administered IV over 30 minutes. The medication label reads, Clindamycin phosphate (Cleocin Phosphate) 150 mg/mL. How many milliliters of medication does the nurse prepare to ensure that the correct dose is administered?

Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin), 1 g orally four times daily, is prescribed for an adolescent with a urinary tract infection. The medication label reads, "500-mg tablets." The nurse has determined that the prescribed dose is safe. How many tablets per dose should the nurse administer to the adolescent?

The medication prescribed is digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.25 mg orally, daily. The medication label reads digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.125 mg/tablet. The nurse should prepare how many tablet(s) to administer the dose? Fill in the blank.

The medication prescribed is levodopa 1 g orally, daily. The medication label states levodopa, 500-mg tablets. The nurse prepares to administer how many tablets at the evening dose? Fill in the blank.

The medication prescribed is metoclopramide hydrochloride (Reglan) 10 mg intramuscularly times one dose. The medication label reads metoclopramide hydrochloride (Reglan), 5 mg/mL. The nurse prepares how much medication to administer the dose? Fill in the blank.

The medication prescription reads phenytoin (Dilantin), 0.2 g orally, twice daily. The medication label states 100-mg capsules. The nurse prepares how many capsule(s) to administer one dose? Fill in the blank.

The nurse hangs a 1000-mL intravenous (IV) bag of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) at 0700. The IV is to infuse at 100 mL/hr, and the nurse places a time tape on the IV bag. At noon the nurse should expect that the infusion line on the IV bag would be at which point? Refer to figure.

A client is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation, and the health care provider prescribes medication therapy. Prior to initiating medication therapy, which cardiac rhythm would the nurse expect to note on the cardiac monitor? Click on the image to indicate your answer.

2 In atrial fibrillation, multiple rapid impulses from many foci depolarize in the atria in a totally disorganized manner. The atria quiver, which can lead to thrombus formation. Usually no definitive P waves can be observed, only fibrillatory waves before each QRS. Medication therapy is often effective for treating atrial fibrillation. In normal sinus rhythm (option 1), atrial and ventricular rhythms are regular and the rates are 60 to 100 beats per minute. Ventricular tachycardia (option 3) occurs because of a repetitive firing of an irritable ventricular ectopic focus at a rate of 140 to 250 beats/minute or more; it can lead to cardiac arrest. In ventricular fibrillation (option 4), impulses from many irritable foci in the ventricles fire in a totally disorganized manner. It is characterized by a chaotic rapid rhythm in which the ventricles quiver and there is no cardiac output. The client lacks a pulse, blood pressure, respirations, and heart sounds. Ventricular fibrillation is fatal if not successfully terminated within 3 to 5 minutes

A client has a prescription to receive a unit of packed red blood cells. The nurse should obtain which intravenous (IV) solution from the IV storage area to hang with the blood product at the client's bedside? 1) Lactated Ringer's 2) 0.9% sodium chloride 3) 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride 4) 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride

2) 0.9% sodium chloride Rationale: Sodium chloride 0.9% (normal saline) is a standard isotonic solution used to precede and follow infusion of blood products. Dextrose is not used because it could result in clumping and subsequent hemolysis of red blood cells. Lactated Ringer's is not the solution of choice with this procedure.

The nurse has just received a prescription to transfuse a unit of packed red blood cells for an assigned client. Approximately how long will the nurse need to stay with the client to ensure that a transfusion reaction is not occurring? 1) 5 minutes 2) 15 mintues 3) 30 minutes 4) 45 mintues

2) 15 mintues Rationale: The nurse must remain with the client for the first 15 minutes of a transfusion, which is usually when a transfusion reaction may occur. This enables the nurse to detect a reaction and intervene quickly.

Following infusion of a unit of packed red blood cells, the client has developed new onset of tachycardia, bounding pulses, crackles, and wheezes. Which action should the nurse implement FIRST? 1) Maintain bed rest with legs elevated 2) Place the client in high-Fowler's position 3) Increase the rate of infusion of intravenous fluids 4) Consult with the HCP regarding initiation of oxygen therapy.

2) Place the client in high-Fowler's position Rationale: New onset of tachycardia, bounding pulses, crackles and wheezes post-transfusion are evidence of fluid overload, a complication associated with blood transfusions. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's (upright) position will facilitate breathing. Measures that increase blood return to the heart, such as leg elevation and administration of intravenous fluids, should be avoided at this time. In addition, administration of fluids cannot be initiated without a prescription. Consulting with the HCP regarding administration of oxygen may be necessary, but positional changes take a short amount of time to do and should be initiated first.

A client is brought to the emergency department having experienced blood loss related to an arterial laceration. Fresh-frozen plasma is prescribed and transfused to replace fluid and blood loss. The nurse understands that which is the rationale for transfusing fresh-frozen plasma to this client? 1) To treat the loss of platelets 2) To promote rapid volume expansion 3) Because a transfusion must be done slowly 4) Because it will increase the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels

2) To promote rapid volume expansion Rationale: Fresh-frozen plasma is often used for volume expansion as a results of fluid and blood loss. It does not contain platelets, so it is not used to treat any type of low platelet count disorder. It is rich in clotting factors and can be thawed quickly and transfused quickly. It will not specifically increase the hemoglobin and hematocrit level.

A client is brought to the emergency department with partial-thickness burns to his face, neck, arms, and chest after trying to put out a car fire. The nurse should implement which nursing actions for this client? Select all that apply. 1. Restrict fluids. 2. Assess for airway patency. 3. Administer oxygen as prescribed. 4. Place a cooling blanket on the client. 5. Elevate extremities if no fractures are present. 6. Prepare to give oral pain medication as prescribed.

2. Assess for airway patency. 3. Administer oxygen as prescribed. 5. Elevate extremities if no fractures are present. The primary goal for a burn injury is to maintain a patent airway, administer intravenous (IV) fluids to prevent hypovolemic shock, and preserve vital organ functioning. Therefore, the priority actions are to assess for airway patency and maintain a patent airway. The nurse then prepares to administer oxygen. Oxygen is necessary to perfuse vital tissues and organs. An IV line should be obtained and fluid resuscitation started. The extremities are elevated to assist in preventing shock and decrease fluid moving to the extremities, especially in the burn-injured upper extremities. The client is kept warm since the loss of skin integrity causes heat loss. The client is placed on NPO (nothing by mouth) status because of the altered gastrointestinal function that occurs as a result of a burn injury.

A client is brought to the emergency room with a snake bite to the arm. Which treatment interventions should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply. 1. Apply ice to the site. 2. Deliver supplemental oxygen. 3. Apply a tourniquet just above the site. 4. Maintain the extremity at the level of the heart. 5. Infuse crystalloid fluids through 2 large-bore intravenous (IV) lines. 6. Immobilize the affected extremity in a position of function with a splint.

2. Deliver supplemental oxygen. 4. Maintain the extremity at the level of the heart. 5. Infuse crystalloid fluids through 2 large-bore intravenous (IV) lines. 6. Immobilize the affected extremity in a position of function with a splint. Interventions include giving supplemental oxygen, keeping the arm at the level of the heart, infusing crystalloid fluids through 2 large-bore IV lines, and immobilizing the arm in a position of function with a splint. Applying a tourniquet and placing ice on the area are contraindicated because they enhance the effect of the venom. Keep the person warm and provide calm reassurance. Also, apply continuous cardiac and blood pressure monitoring equipment to quickly detect clinical deterioration. Because venom can cause severe pain at the bite site, opioids are indicated. Provide tetanus prophylaxis and wound care as part of the collaborative plan of care.

The nurse in the labor room is performing an initial assessment on a newborn. The infant is exhibiting mild to moderate respiratory distress, audible bowel sounds in the chest, and a scaphoid abdomen. The infant is responding poorly to bag and mask ventilation. The nurse plans for which actions in the care of this infant? Select all that apply. 1. Start chest compressions. 2. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 3. Orally administer a sucrose solution. 4. Position the infant flat on his or her right side. 5. Prepare for endotracheal tube (ET) placement. 6. Insert an orogastric tube and connect it to low suction.

2. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 5. Prepare for endotracheal tube (ET) placement. 6. Insert an orogastric tube and connect it to low suction. Worsening respiratory distress, audible bowel sounds in the chest, and a flat or scaphoid abdomen are all signs and symptoms of a congenital diaphragmatic hernia. For this condition to be verified, appropriate x-rays must be prescribed by the HCP. If verified, operative intervention is necessary. As mechanical ventilation is administered, the bowel fills with air, thus worsening the respiratory status of the infant; therefore, gastrointestinal decompression is necessary as well as ventilation via an ET tube rather than a bag and mask. There is no evidence in the question that the infant requires chest compressions. The infant must be kept NPO (nothing by mouth) for operative intervention and to decrease gastric distention. Proper positioning for this condition is supine with the head elevated.

The nurse is assessing a client hospitalized with acute pericarditis. The nurse monitors the client for cardiac tamponade, knowing that which signs are associated with this complication of pericarditis? Select all that apply. 1. Bradycardia 2. Pulsus paradoxus 3. Distant heart sounds 4. Falling blood pressure (BP) 5. Distended jugular veins

2. Pulsus paradoxus 3. Distant heart sounds 4. Falling blood pressure (BP) 5. Distended jugular veins Assessment findings with cardiac tamponade include tachycardia, distant or muffled heart sounds, jugular vein distention, and a falling BP, accompanied by pulsus paradoxus (a drop in inspiratory BP by more than 10 mm Hg).

What electrolytes and amounts are usually contained in total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for an adult client without renal or hepatic impairment? Select all that apply. 1. Calcium 2 to 5 mEq 2. Sodium 1 to 2 mEq/kg 3. Magnesium 8 to 20 mEq 4. Potassium 1 to 2 mEq/kg 5. Phosphate 20 to 40 mmol

2. Sodium 1 to 2 mEq/kg 3. Magnesium 8 to 20 mEq 4. Potassium 1 to 2 mEq/kg 5. Phosphate 20 to 40 mmol Individual requirements for TPN should be assessed daily at the beginning of therapy and then several times a week as the treatment progresses. The following are ranges for average daily electrolyte requirements for adult clients without renal or hepatic impairment: sodium 1 to 2 mEq/kg; potassium 1 to 2 mEq/kg; chloride as needed to maintain acid-base balance; magnesium 8 to 20 mEq; calcium 10 to 15 mEq; and phosphate 20 to 40 mmol.

The nurse is caring for a client recovering from a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which supplies should be readily accessible for the care of this client? Select all that apply. 1. Tourniquet 2. Suction supplies 3. Calcium gluconate 4. Prefilled syringe of 50% glucose 5. Tracheostomy tube insertion set

2. Suction supplies 3. Calcium gluconate 5. Tracheostomy tube insertion set Although not common, airway obstruction after thyroid surgery is an emergency situation. Therefore, oxygen, suction equipment, calcium gluconate (to treat tetany if it occurs), and a tracheostomy tube insertion set should be readily available in the client's room. These items will be needed to treat this emergency situation. Therefore, options 2, 3, and 5 are correct. There is no reason that a tourniquet needs to be readily available; 50% glucose is used to treat severe hypoglycemia.

32. Morphine sulfate, 2.5 mg, is prescribed for a child. The safe pediatric dosage is 0.05 to 0.1 mg/kg/dose. The child weights 50 kg. Which statement describe the prescribed dosage?

2.5 mg/50 kg= 0.05 mg/kg This dosage is safe or 0.05 mg/kg/dose *50 kg = 2.5 mg/dose (safe 0.1 mg/kg/dose *50 kg = 5 mg/dose

57. A nurse is checking the IV dressing of a client with a peripheral intravenous solution infusing. The date on the dressing is 2/9 (Feb 9). The nurse calculates that the dressing should be changed on which of the following dates?

2/12

A health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of 0.9% normal saline (NS) to run over 8 hours. The drop (gtt) factor is 10 drops (gtt) per 1 mL. The nurse adjusts the flow rate to run at how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to the nearest whole number.

A health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of normal saline to be infused over a period of 12 hours. The drop (gtt) factor is 15 drops (gtt)/mL. The nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to the nearest whole number.

A health care provider prescribes 2000 mL of 5% dextrose in water to run over 24 hours. The drop (gtt) factor is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse plans to adjust the flow rate at how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Round answer to the nearest whole number.

A health care provider prescribes a bolus of 500 mL of 0.9% normal saline (NS) to run over 4 hours. The drop (gtt) factor is 10 drops (gtt) per 1 mL. The nurse plans to adjust the flow rate at how many gtt per minute? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to the nearest whole number.

A physician prescribes 2000 mL of 5% dextrose and normal saline 0.45% for infusion over 24 hours. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. At how many drops per minute does the nurse set the flow rate? (Round to the nearest whole number).

The intravenous prescription is 1000 mL of 0.9% NaCl (normal saline) to run over 12 hours. The drop factor is 15 gtts/1 mL. The nurse plans to adjust the flow rate to how many gtts/minute? Fill in the blank and record the answer to the nearest whole number.

The intravenous prescription is 3000 mL of 5% dextrose (D5W) to run over a 24-hour period. The drop factor is 10 gtts/1 mL. The nurse plans to adjust the flow rate to how many gtts/minute? Fill in the blank and record the answer to the nearest whole number.

A licensed practical nurse (LPN) is asked to prepare an intravenous (IV) infusion of 1000 mL 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's at 80 mL/hr to be administered to an assigned client. The LPN time-tapes the bag with a start time of 09:00. After making hourly marks on the time-tape, the LPN notes that which time would mark the completion time for the bag?

21:30

A health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of normal saline (NS) to be infused over a period of 10 hours. The drop (gtt) factor is 15 drops (gtt) per mL. The nurse adjusts the flow rate at how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank.

A postoperative client has a prescription to receive an intravenous (IV) infusion of 1000 mL normal saline solution over a period of 10 hours. The drop (gtt) factor for the IV infusion set is 15 gtts/mL. The nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank.

41. A postoperative client has a prescription to receive an IV infusion of 1000 mL normal saline solution over 10 hours. THe drop (gtt) factor for the IV infusion set is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute?

25 gtt/minute 15 gtt/mL * 1000 mL/10 hours * 1 hour/60 minutes

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia who is being prepared for discharge has been prescribed oral risperidone (Risperdal) 6 mg daily. The medication label reads 2 mg/tablet. To ensure the correct dose, the nurse instructs the client to take how many tablets once daily? Fill in the blank.

A client originally was prescribed oral sertraline (Zoloft) 25 mg daily for depression. The dose has been gradually increased in an effort to control the symptoms. The current dose is 75 mg daily. The medication label reads 25 mg/tablet.To receive the correct dose, the nurse instructs the client to take how many tablets once daily? Fill in the blank.

The nurse has just received a unit of packed red blood cells from the blood bank for transfusion to an assigned client. The nurse is careful to select tubing especially made for blood products, knowing that this tubing is manufactured with which item? Click on the image to indicate your answer.

3) An in-line filter Rationale: The tubing used for blood administration has an in-line filter. The filter helps ensure that any particles larger than the size of the filter are caught in the filter and are not infused into the client. Tinted tubing is incorrect because blood does not need to be protected from light. The tubing should be macrodrip, not microdrip, to allow blood to flow freely through the drip chamber. An air vent is unnecessary because the blood bag is not made of glass.

Packed red blood cells have been prescribed for a client with low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The nurse takes the client's temperature before hanging the blood transfusion and records 100.6 F orally. Which action should the nurse take? 1) Begin the transfusion as prescribed. 2) Administer an antihistamine and begin the transfusion. 3) Delay hanging the blood and notify the health care provider. 4) Administer two tablets of acetaminophen (Tylenol) and begin the transfusion.

3) Delay hanging the blood and notify the health care provider. Rationale: If the client has a temperature higher than 100 F, the unit of blood should not be hung until the HCP is notified and has the opportunity to give further prescriptions. The HCP likely will prescribe that the blood be administered regardless of the temperature, but the decision is not within the nurse's scope of practice to make. The nurse needs an HCP's prescription to administer medications to the client.

The nurse determines that a client is having a transfusion reaction. After the nurse stops the transfusion, which action should be taken NEXT? 1) Remove the intravenous (IV) line. 2) Run a solution of 5% dextrose in water. 3) Run normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate. 4) Obtain a culture of the tip of the catheter device removed from the client.

3) Run normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate. Rationale: If the nurse suspects a transfusion reaction, the nurse stops the transfusion and infuses normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate pending further health care provider prescriptions. This maintains a patent IV access line and aids in maintaining the client's intravascular volume. The nurse would NOT remove the IV line because then there would be no IV access route. Obtaining a culture of the tip of the catheter device removed from the client is incorrect. First, the catheter should NOT be removed. Second, cultures are performed when infection, NOT transfusion reactions, is suspected. Normal saline is the solution of choice over solutions containing dextrose because saline does not cause red blood cells to clump.

Which clinical manifestations of a tension pneumothorax should be of immediate concern to the nurse? Select all that apply 1. Bradypnea 2. Flattened neck veins 3. Decreased cardiac output 4. Hyperresonance to percussion 5. Tracheal deviation to the opposite side

3. Decreased cardiac output 4. Hyperresonance to percussion 5. Tracheal deviation to the opposite side Tension pneumothorax is the rapid accumulation of air in the pleural space. This causes extremely high intrapleural pressures, resulting in tension on the heart and great vessels. This can cause decreased cardiac output (tachycardia, hypotension), hyperresonance on percussion, and a tracheal shift away from the affected side. Bradypnea and flattened neck veins are incorrect because the client would have tachypnea and distended neck veins.

The nurse is caring for a client who is pulseless and experiencing this dysrhythmia. Which interventions should the nurse anticipate implementing in collaboration with the health care provider (HCP)? Select all that apply. Refer to Figure. 1. Prepare for cardioversion. 2. Prepare to administer digoxin 3. Prepare to administer amiodarone. 4. Prepare to administer epinephrine. 5. Provide cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

3. Prepare to administer amiodarone. 4. Prepare to administer epinephrine. 5. Provide cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Pulseless ventricular tachycardia is treated the same way as ventricular fibrillation with measures that include defibrillation, CPR and medication therapy, with agents such as epinephrine and amiodarone and others.

The nurse is obtaining blood from a client's double-lumen central venous catheter for blood cultures. Which actions are correct for performing this procedure? Select all that apply. 1. Use the distal port of the catheter for obtaining the blood specimen. 2. Flush with 5 to 10 mL of normal saline before obtaining the specimen. 3. Turn the infusion off for at least 1 minute before obtaining the specimen. 4. Use the initial specimen of blood obtained from the catheter for the blood cultures. 5. Discard the first syringe of blood and use the second syringe for the blood cultures.

3. Turn the infusion off for at least 1 minute before obtaining the specimen. 4. Use the initial specimen of blood obtained from the catheter for the blood cultures When drawing blood from a double-lumen central venous catheter, the proximal port is used because it is usually the port with the largest lumen. For blood cultures, the initial specimen is used for the sample, and the line is not flushed beforehand. Turning off the infusion for 1 minute prevents contaminating the sample with intravenous solution.

The nurse is teaching adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) guidelines to a group of laypeople. The nurse observes the group correctly demonstrate 2-rescuer CPR when which ratio of compressions to ventilations is performed on the mannequin? 1. 10:1 2. 15:2 3. 20:1 4. 30:2

30:2 When performing CPR on adults, the ratio of chest compressions to breaths should be 30:2 for both 1-rescuer and 2-rescuer CPR. The ratio of 15:2 is used for children and infants during 2-rescuer CPR.

A health care provider prescribes 3000 mL of 0.9% normal saline to run over 24 hours. The drop (gtt) factor is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse plans to adjust the flow rate at how many drops per minute? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to the nearest whole number.

A health care provider prescribes 3000 mL of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) to run over a 24-hour period. The drop (gtt) factor is 15 drops (gtt) per 1 mL. The nurse adjusts the flow rate to run at how many gtt per minute? Fill in the blank. Record your answer to the nearest whole number.

A physician prescribes 1000 mL of 5% dextrose in water to be infused over 8 hours. The drop factor is 15 gtt/mL. At how many drops per minute does the nurse set the flow rate? (Round your answer to the nearest whole number).

The health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of 0.45% normal saline to run over 8 hours. The drop (gtt) factor is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse plans to adjust the flow rate to how many gtt/min? Fill in the blank. Round your answer to the nearest whole number.

A client in ventricular fibrillation is about to be defibrillated. To convert this rhythm effectively, the monophasic defibrillator machine should be set at which energy level (in joules, J) for the first delivery? 1. 50 J 2. 120 J 3. 200 J 4. 360 J

360 J The energy level used for all defibrillation attempts with a monophasic defibrillator is 360 joules.

A client with severe blood loss resulting from multiple trauma requires rapid transfusion of several units of blood. The nurse asks another health team member to obtain which device for use during the transfusion procedure to help reduce the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias? 1) Infusion pump 2) Pulse oximeter 3) Cardiac monitor 4) Blood-warming device

4) Blood-warming device Rationale: If several units of blood are to be administered, a blood warmer should be used. Rapid transfusion of cool blood places the client at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. To prevent this, the nurse warms the blood with a blood-warming device. Pulse oximetry and cardiac monitoring equipment are useful for the early assessment of complications but do not reduce the occurrence of cardiac dysrhythmias. Electronic infusion devices are not helpful in this case because the infusion must be rapid, and infusion devices generally are used to control the flow rate. In addition, not all infusion devices are made to handle blood or blood products.

The client has received a transfusion of platelets. The nurse evaluates that the client is benefiting most from this therapy if the client exhibits which finding? 1) Increased hematocrit level 2) Increased hemoglobin level 3) Decline of elevated temperature to normal 4) Decreased oozing of blood from puncture sites and gums

4) Decreased oozing of blood from puncture sites and gums Rationale: Platelets are necessary for proper blood clotting. The client with insufficient platelets may exhibit frank bleeding or oozing of blood from puncture sites, wounds, and mucous membranes. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels would occur when the client has received a transfusion of red blood cells. An elevated temperature would decline to normal after infusion of granulocytes if those cells were instrumental in fighting infection in the body.

The nurse, listening to the morning report, learns that an assigned client received a unit of granulocytes the previous evening. The nurse makes a note to assess the results of which daily serum laboratory studies to assess the effectiveness of the transfusion? 1) Hematocrit level 2) Erythrocyte count 3) Hemoglobin level 4) White blood cell count

4) White blood cell count Rationale: The client who has neutropenia may receive a transfusion of granulocytes, or white blood cells. These clients often have severe infections and are unresponsive to antibiotic therapy. The nurse notes the results of follow-up white blood cell counts and differential to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy. The nurse also continues to monitor the client for signs and symptoms of infection. Erythrocyte count and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are determined after transfusion of packed red blood cells.

29. The medication is an IM dose of 400,000 units of penicillin G. The label on the 10-mL ampule sent from the pharmacy reads penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin) 300,000 units/mL. The nurse prepares how much medication to administer the correct dosage?

4/3= 1.3 remember that the vial is 10 mL 3,000,000/10 = 400,000/x

The nurse is preparing to assist in administering neonatal resuscitation with a ventilation bag and mask because the newborn is apneic, gasping, and has a heart rate below 100 beats/min. The nurse should perform how many ventilations per minute at which pressure? 1. 20 to 40 breaths/min, 15 to 20 cm H2O pressure 2. 20 to 40 breaths/min, 30 to 40 cm H2O pressure 3. 40 to 60 breaths/min, 15 to 20 cm H2O pressure 4. 40 to 60 breaths/min, 30 to 40 cm H2O pressure

40 to 60 breaths/min, 15 to 20 cm H2O pressure If the newborn is apneic or has gasping respirations after stimulation or if the heart rate is below 100 beats/min, positive pressure ventilation by bag and mask can be given. The anesthesia bag used for neonatal resuscitation should have a pressure gauge. Ventilations should be given at a rate of 40 to 60 breaths/min at pressures of 15 to 20 cm H2O.

A client involved in a motor vehicle crash presents to the emergency department with severe internal bleeding. The client is severely hypotensive and unresponsive. The nurse anticipates that which intravenous (IV) solution will most likely be prescribed? 1. 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's 2. 0.33% sodium chloride (⅓ normal saline) 3. 0.225% sodium chloride (¼ normal saline) 4. 0.45% sodium chloride (½ normal saline)

5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's The goal of therapy with this client is to expand intravascular volume as quickly as possible. The 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's solution (hypertonic solution) would increase intravascular volume and immediately replace lost fluid volume until a transfusion could be administered, resulting in an increase in the client's blood pressure. The solutions in the remaining options would not be given to this client because they are hypotonic solutions and, instead of increasing intravascular space, would move into the cells via osmosis.

A client involved in a motor vehicle crash presents to the emergency department with severe internal bleeding. The client is severely hypotensive and unresponsive. The nurse anticipates that which intravenous (IV) solution will most likely be prescribed for this client? 1. 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's solution 2. 0.33% sodium chloride (⅓ normal saline) 3. 0.45% sodium chloride (½ normal saline) 4. 0.225% sodium chloride (¼ normal saline)

5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's solution For this client, the goal of therapy is to expand intravascular volume as quickly as possible. In this situation, the client will likely experience a decrease in intravascular volume from blood loss, resulting in decreased blood pressure. Therefore, a solution that increases intravascular volume, replaces immediate blood loss volume, and increases blood pressure is needed. The 5% dextrose in lactated Ringer's (hypertonic) solution would increase intravascular volume and immediately replace lost fluid volume until a transfusion could be administered, resulting in an increase in the client's blood pressure. The solutions in the remaining options would not be given to this client because they are hypotonic solutions and, instead of increasing intravascular space, the solutions would move into the cells via osmosis.

A health care provider has prescribed phenobarbital sodium (luminal sodium), 25 mg orally twice daily, for a child with febrile seizures. The medication label reads as follows: "Phenobarbital sodium, 20 mg/5 mL." The nurse has determined that the dose prescribed is a safe dose for the child. How many milliliters per dose should the nurse administer to the child?

6.25

The health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) to run at 125 mL/hr. The nurse calculates the infusion rate, knowing that it will take how many hours for 1 liter (L) to infuse? Fill in the blank.

The prescription reads to give ondansetron hydrochloride 0.15 mg/kg of body weight 30 minutes before receiving chemotherapy. The client weighs 132 pounds. How many milligrams (mg) of ondansetron hydrochloride will the nurse administer? Fill in the blank.

A client with heart failure being discharged home will be taking furosemide (Lasix). Which of the following statements by the client indicates to the nurse that the teaching has been effective? A "I'll weigh myself every day." B "I'll take my pulse every day." C "I'll measure my urine output." D "I'll check my ankles every day for swelling."

A "I'll weigh myself every day."

A "I'll weigh myself every day." Rationale: A client taking furosemide must be able to monitor fluid status throughout therapy. Weighing oneself each day is the easiest and most accurate way to accomplish this. Checking the ankles for swelling and measuring urine output are incorrect because of the difficulty of assessing fluid status accurately in these ways. Taking daily pulse is not necessary and unrelated to the administration of furosemide.

A client with a thoracic spinal cord injury is receiving dantrolene sodium (Dantrium). Which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing an undesired effect of the medication? A "I'm feeling really drowsy." B "My legs are very relaxed." C "I can't seem to get enough to eat." D "I urinate about the same amount as I always did."

A "I'm feeling really drowsy."

A "I'm feeling really drowsy." Rationale: Drowsiness, diarrhea, and hepatotoxicity are the adverse effects of this muscle relaxant, which is used to treat the chronic spasticity seen with spinal cord injury. The drowsiness may interfere with the client's rehabilitation. Relaxed legs are a desired effect. Some clients experience anorexia and urinary frequency.

A client has a prescription for a unit of packed red blood cells (RBCs). Which of the following IV solutions should the nurse obtain to hang with the blood product at the client's bedside? A 0.9% sodium chloride B Lactated Ringer's solution (LR) C 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride D 5% dextrose in water in 0.45% sodium chloride

A 0.9% sodium chloride

A 0.9% sodium chloride Rationale: Sodium chloride (normal saline, NS) 0.9% is an isotonic solution that is typically used both to precede and follow infusion of a blood product. Dextrose is not used because it could result in clumping and subsequent hemolysis of RBCs. LR is not the solution of choice for this procedure, even though it is an isotonic solution.

Which client situation is most appropriate for the nurse to consult with the Rapid Response Team (RRT)? 1. A 56-year-old client, fourth hospital day after coronary artery bypass procedure, sore chest, pain with walking, temperature 97°F (36.1°C), heart rate 84 beats/min, respirations 22 breaths/min, blood pressure 122/78 mm Hg, bored with hospitalization 2. A 45-year-old client, 2 years after kidney transplant, second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia, no urine output for 6 hours, temperature 101.4°F (38.6°C), heart rate 98 beats/min, respirations 20 breaths/min, blood pressure 168/94 mm Hg 3. A 72-year-old client, 24 hours after removal of a chest tube that was used to drain pleural fluid (effusion), temperature 97.8°F (36.6°C), heart rate 92 beats/min, respirations 28 breaths/min, blood pressure 136/86 mm Hg, anxious about going home 4. An 86-year-old client, 48 hours after operative repair of fractured hip, alert, oriented, using patient-controlled analgesia pump, temperature 96.8°F (36°C), heart rate 60 beats/min, respirations 16 breaths/min, blood pressure 120/82 mm Hg, talking with daughter

A 45-year-old client, 2 years after kidney transplant, second hospital day for treatment of pneumonia, no urine output for 6 hours, temperature 101.4°F (38.6°C), heart rate 98 beats/min, respirations 20 breaths/min, blood pressure 168/94 mm Hg The role of an RRT is to provide internal consultative services to staff nurses to detect client problems early. Absence of urine output and temperature and blood pressure elevation describe a client who may be rejecting a transplanted kidney. The constellation of symptoms described indicates possible rejection. Internal consultation could validate that assessment. The remaining options indicate expected characteristics of the clients described and provide no indication of need for RRT consultation.

A nurse discontinues infusion of a unit of blood after the client experiences a transfusion reaction. Once the incident has been documented appropriately, where does the nurse send the blood transfusion bag? A Blood bank B Risk management C Microbiology laboratory D Infection-control department

A Blood bank

A Blood bank Rationale: The nurse returns the transfusion bag, containing any remaining blood, to the blood bank. This allows the blood bank to perform any follow-up testing needed in the event of a documented transfusion reaction. The other options are incorrect because they do not handle post transfusion reaction procedures or testing.

Packed red blood cells have been prescribed for a client with low hemoglobin and hematocrit values. The nurse takes the client's temperature orally before hanging the blood transfusion and notes that it is 100.0° F. What should the nurse do next? A Call the healthcare provider B Begin the transfusion as prescribed C Administer an antihistamine and begin the transfusion D Administer 2 tablets of acetaminophen (Tylenol) and begin the transfusion

A Call the healthcare provider

A Call the healthcare provider Rationale: If the client has a temperature of 100.0° F or higher, the unit of blood should not be hung until the physician has been notified and had the opportunity to give further prescriptions. It is likely that the healthcare provider will prescribe the blood to be administered despite the temperature, but it is not within the nurse's scope of practice to make that determination. Therefore the other options are incorrect. Additionally, medications are not administered to the client without a prescription.

A client is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) with fat emulsion (lipids) piggybacked to the PN solution. For which signs of an adverse reaction to the fat emulsion should the nurse monitor the client? Select all that apply. A Chills B Pallor C Headache D Chest and back pain E Nausea and vomiting F Subnormal temperature

A Chills C Headache D Chest and back pain E Nausea and vomiting

A Chills C Headache D Chest and back pain E Nausea and vomiting Rationale: Signs of an adverse reaction to fat emulsion include chest and back pain, chills, fever, dyspnea, cyanosis, diaphoresis, flushing, headache, nausea and vomiting, pressure over the eyes, vertigo, and thrombophlebitis at the infusion site.

A nurse has taught a client taking a methylxanthine bronchodilator about beverages that must be avoided. Which beverage choices by the client indicate to the nurse that the client needs further education? Select all that apply. A Cocoa B Coffee C Lemonade D Orange juice E Chocolate milk

A Cocoa B Coffee E Chocolate milk

A Cocoa B Coffee E Chocolate milk Rationale: Cola, coffee, and chocolate contain xanthine and should therefore be avoided by the client taking a methylxanthine bronchodilator, because they will enhance the effects of the medication, increasing the likelihood of cardiovascular and central nervous system side effects. Lemonade and orange juice are acceptable choices.

A nurse is assessing a client who is being hospitalized with a diagnosis of pneumonia. The client's husband tells the nurse that the client is taking donepezil hydrochloride (Aricept). The nurse should ask the husband about the client's history of which disorder? A Dementia B Seizure disorder C Diabetes mellitus D Posttraumatic stress disorder

A Dementia

A Dementia Rationale: Donepezil hydrochloride is a cholinergic agent that is used in the treatment of mild to moderate dementia of the Alzheimer type. It enhances cholinergic function by increasing the concentration of acetylcholine, slowing the progression of Alzheimer disease. The disorders in the other options are not treated with this medication.

The serum theophylline level of a client who is taking the medication (Theo-24) is 16 mcg/mL. On the basis of this result, the nurse will initially: A Document the normal value on the chart B Call the healthcare provider immediately C Call the rapid response team to help with the emergency D Call the pharmacy to alert the pharmacist regarding the client's theophylline level

A Document the normal value on the chart

A Document the normal value on the chart Rationale: The normal therapeutic range for theophylline is 10 to 20 mcg/mL. A level above 20 mcg/mL is considered toxic. A value of 16 mcg/mL is within the therapeutic range.

A Fatigue C Weakness D Impotence

Carbamazepine (Tegretol) is prescribed for a client with trigeminal neuralgia. Which of the following side effects does the nurse instruct the client to report to the physician? Select all that apply. A Fever B Nausea C Headache D Sore throat E Mouth sores Rationale: Drowsiness, headache, nausea, and vomiting are frequent side effects of carbamazepine. Adverse reactions include blood dyscrasias; fever, sore throat, mouth ulcerations, unusual bleeding or bruising, or joint pain may be indicative of a blood dyscrasia, and the physician should be notified.

A Fever D Sore throat E Mouth sores

A Fever D Sore throat E Mouth sores Rationale: Drowsiness, headache, nausea, and vomiting are frequent side effects of carbamazepine. Adverse reactions include blood dyscrasias; fever, sore throat, mouth ulcerations, unusual bleeding or bruising, or joint pain may be indicative of a blood dyscrasia, and the physician should be notified.

A Hypokalemia Rationale: The client taking a potassium-wasting diuretic such as hydrochlorothiazide must be monitored for reductions in the potassium level. Other fluid and electrolyte imbalances that may occur with use of this medication are hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypophosphatemia. The nurse should also educate the client about foods that are rich in potassium.

A Hypotension B Constipation D Urine retention E Respiratory depression Rationale: Side effects of meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) include respiratory depression, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, drowsiness and mental clouding, constipation, and urine retention.

A Left side with the head lower than the feet Rationale: When air embolism is suspected, the client should be placed in a left side-lying position with the head lower than the feet. This position is used to minimize the effect of the air traveling as a bolus to the lungs by trapping it in the right side of the heart. The positions in the other options are incorrect.

A client with tuberculosis is being started on isoniazid (INH), and the nurse stresses the importance of returning to the clinic for follow-up blood testing. Which blood test will be performed? A Liver enzymes B Serum creatinine C Blood urea nitrogen D Red blood cell count

A Liver enzymes

A Liver enzymes Rationale: INH therapy can increase hepatic enzymes and cause hepatitis. Therefore the client's liver enzymes are assessed when therapy is initiated and during the first 3 months of therapy. Monitoring may be continued further in the client who is older than 50 or abuses alcohol. The other options are not specifically related to the use of this medication.

A nurse is caring for a client with histoplasmosis who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B (Fungizone). What should the nurse do while the medication is being administered? A Monitor the client's urine output B Monitor the client for hypothermia C Check the client's neurological status D Check the client's blood glucose level

A Monitor the client's urine output

A Monitor the client's urine output Rationale: Amphotericin B can produce medication toxicity during administration and exhibit symptoms such as chills, fever, headache, vomiting, and impairment of renal function. The medication is also irritating to the IV site, commonly causing thrombophlebitis. The nurse administering this medication watches for all of these problems. The other options are not specifically related to the administration of this medication.

A Monitoring intake and output Rationale: Urine retention is a side effect of benztropine mesylate (Cogentin). The nurse must be alert for infrequent voiding of small amounts, which may be indicative of urine retention, dysuria, abdominal distention, or overflow incontinence. This monitoring is also an important intervention for the client with heart failure. Monitoring pupillary response and checking the client's hemoglobin level daily are not interventions specific to this medication. The client with heart failure is placed in an upright position to facilitate breathing.

A Motor restlessness Rationale: Akathisia —motor restlessness, or the desire to keep moving —may appear within 6 hours of administration of the first dose of haloperidol. It may be difficult to distinguish from psychotic agitation. Tardive dyskinesia is uncontrolled rhythmic movements of the mouth, face, and extremities, including lip smacking or puckering, puffing of the cheeks, uncontrolled chewing, and rapid or wormlike movements of the tongue. The physician should be notified if any of these symptoms occurs.

Phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) is being administered to a client with depression. The client suddenly complains of a severe frontally radiating occipital headache, neck stiffness and soreness, and vomiting. On further assessment, the client exhibits signs of hypertensive crisis. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer, anticipating that it will be prescribed as the antidote to treat phenelzine-induced hypertensive crisis? A Phentolamine B Protamine sulfate C Calcium gluconate D Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

A Phentolamine

A Phentolamine Rationale: The antidote to treat phenelzine-induced hypertensive crisis is phentolamine; a dose of 5 to 10 mg is usually injected intravenously. Hypertensive crisis may manifest as hypertension, frontally radiating occipital headache, neck stiffness and soreness, nausea, vomiting, sweating, fever and chills, clammy skin, dilated pupils, and palpitations. Tachycardia or bradycardia and constricting chest pain may also be present.

A Phlebitis of the vein Rationale: Phlebitis at an IV site can be identified by client discomfort at the site, as well as by redness, warmth, and swelling in the area of the catheter. The IV should be removed and a new one inserted at a different site. The remaining options are incorrect. Coolness and swelling would be noted if infiltration had occurred. The symptoms of hypersensitivity and allergic reaction depend on whether these complications are local or systemic.

A Platelet count Rationale: Baseline assessment includes renal and liver function parameters. Risperidone is used with caution — often at a reduced dosage — in clients with renal or hepatic impairment, clients with underlying cardiovascular disorders, and in older or debilitated clients. The laboratory tests identified in the other options are not necessary.

A nurse has just hung a transfusion of packed red blood cells and stayed with the client for the appropriate amount of time. Before leaving the room, the nurse tells the client that it is most important to immediately report which specific sign if it occurs? Select all that apply. A Rash B Chills C Fatigue D Backache E Tiredness

A Rash B Chills D Backache

A Rash B Chills D Backache Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report signs of a transfusion reaction, such as a backache, chills, itching, or rash, immediately. If a transfusion reaction occurs, the nurse would stop the transfusion immediately. Fatigue, tiredness, and nausea are not specifically related to a transfusion reaction.

A nurse is assessing a peripheral intravenous (IV) site and notes blanching, coolness, and edema at the insertion site. What should the nurse do first? A Remove the IV B Apply a warm compress C Check for blood return D Measure the area of infiltration

A Remove the IV

A Remove the IV Rationale: Blanching, coolness, and edema of the IV site are all signs of infiltration. Because infiltration may result in damage to the surrounding tissue, the nurse must first remove the IV cannula to prevent any further damage. The nurse should not depend solely on the blood return for assurance that the cannula is in the vein, because blood return may be present even if the cannula is only partially in the vein. Compresses may be used, but the compress (warm or cool) depends on the type of solution infusing and physician preference. The nurse should measure the area of infiltration after the IV has been removed so that further tissue damage is prevented.

A nurse notes that the site of a client's peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter is reddened, warm, painful, and slightly edematous near the insertion point of the catheter. On the basis of this assessment, the nurse first: A Removes the IV catheter B Slows the rate of infusion C Notifies the healthcare provider D Checks for loose catheter connections

A Removes the IV catheter

A Removes the IV catheter Rationale: Phlebitis is an inflammatory process in the vein. Phlebitis at an IV site may be indicated by client discomfort at the site or by redness, warmth, and swelling in the area of the catheter. The IV catheter should be removed and a new IV line inserted at a different site. Slowing the rate of infusion and checking for loose catheter connections are not correct responses. The healthcare provider would be notified if phlebitis were to occur, but this is not the initial action.

A client rings the call bell and complains of pain at the site of an IV infusion. The nurse assesses the site and determines that phlebitis has developed. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply. A Removing the IV catheter at that site B Applying warm, moist compresses to the IV site C Notifying the healthcare provider about the finding D Encouraging the client to scrub the site while in the shower E Starting a new IV line in a proximal portion of the same vein

A Removing the IV catheter at that site B Applying warm, moist compresses to the IV site C Notifying the healthcare provider about the finding

A Removing the IV catheter at that site B Applying warm, moist compresses to the IV site C Notifying the healthcare provider about the finding Rationale: The nurse should remove the IV from the phlebitic site and apply warm, moist compresses to the area to speed resolution of the inflammation. The nurse also notifies the physician of this complication. The nurse should restart the IV line in a vein other than the one in which phlebitis has developed. The nurse should discourage the client from rubbing the site while in the shower, because this could cause sloughing of the tissue.

A This is a side effect of therapy

A home care nurse has been assigned a client who has been discharged home with a prescription for parenteral nutrition (PN). Which of the following parameters does the nurse plan to check at each visit as a means of identifying complications of the PN therapy? Select all that apply. A Weight B Glucose test C Temperature D Peripheral pulses E Hemoglobin and hematocrit

A Weight B Glucose test C Temperature

A Weight B Glucose test C Temperature Rationale: When a client is receiving PN therapy, the nurse monitors the client's weight to determine the effectiveness of the therapy. The nurse should weigh the client at each visit to make sure that the client has not gained or lost an excessive amount of weight. Because the formula contains a large amount of dextrose, the healthcare provider should check the client's glucose level frequently. The nurse caring for a client receiving PN at home should also monitor the temperature to detect infection, which is a potential complication of this therapy. An infection in the intravenous line could result in sepsis, because the catheter is in a blood vessel. The peripheral pulses and hemoglobin and hematocrit readings may provide data but are unrelated to complications associated with PN therapy.

The nurse is inserting an intravenous (IV) line into a client's vein. After the initial stick, the nurse would continue to advance the catheter in which situation? 1. The catheter advances easily. 2. The vein is distended under the needle. 3. The client does not complain of discomfort. 4. A backflash of blood is noted in the catheter.

A backflash of blood is noted in the catheter. The IV catheter has entered the lumen of the vein successfully when blood backflash shows in the IV catheter. The vein should have been distended by the tourniquet before it was cannulated. Client discomfort varies with the client, the site, and the nurse's insertion technique and is not a reliable measure of catheter placement. The nurse should not advance the catheter until placement in the vein is verified by blood return.

Vasopressin therapy is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of bleeding esophageal varices. The nurse is preparing to administer the medication to the client. Which essential item is needed during the administration of this medication? 1. An airway 2. A suction setup 3. A cardiac monitor 4. A tracheotomy set

A cardiac monitor The major action of vasopressin is constriction of the splanchnic blood flow. Continuous electrocardiogram and blood pressure monitoring are essential because of the constrictive effects of the medication on the coronary arteries. The remaining options are not essential items required during the administration of this medication. However, these items may be needed if a complication arises.

A client arrives in the emergency department following an automobile crash. The client's forehead hit the steering wheel and a hyphema is diagnosed. The nurse should place the client in which position? 1. Flat in bed 2. A semi Fowler's position 3. Lateral on the affected side 4. Lateral on the unaffected side

A semi Fowler's position A hyphema is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber. Hyphema is produced when a force is sufficient to break the integrity of the blood vessels in the eye and can be caused by direct injury, such as a penetrating injury from a BB or pellet, or indirectly, such as from striking the forehead on a steering wheel during an accident. The client is treated by bed rest in a semi Fowler's position to assist gravity in keeping the hyphema away from the optical center of the cornea.

A nurse is preparing medication for administration. In addition to the right medication, the nurse adheres to which of the following additional rights of medication administration. Select all that apply. a. The right route b. The right staff member c. The right time d. The right client e. The right documentation f. The right dose

A, C, D, E, F There are six rights to administering medications: The right medication, the right client, the right dose, the right route, the right time, and the right documentation.

A client receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) begins to vomit. The client's blood pressure is 90/50 from a baseline of 125/78. The client's temperature is 100.8F orally from a baseline of 99.2F orally. The nurse determines that the client may be experiencing which complication of a blood transfusion? a. Septicemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Circulatory overload d. Delayed transfusion reaction

A. Septicemia Septicemia occurs with the transfusion of blood contaminated with microorganisms. Signs include chills, fever, vomiting, diarrhea, hypotension, and the development of shock. Hyperkalemia causes weakness, paresthesias, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and dysrythmias. Circulatory overload causes cough, dyspnea, chest pain, wheezing, tachycardia, and hypertension. A delayed transfusion reaction can occur days or weeks after a tranfusion. Signs include fever, mild jaundice, and a decreased hematocrit level.

The nurse has discontinued a unit of blood that was infusing into a client because the client experienced a transfusion reaction. After documenting the incident appropriately, the nurse sends the blood bag and tubing to which of the following departments? a. Blood bank b. Risk management c. Environmental services d. Infection control

A. blood bank The nurse returns the blood transfusion bag containing any remaining blood to the blood bank. This allows the blood bank to complete any follow-up testing procedures needed once a transfusion reaction has been documented. The other option identify incorrect departments.

The nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank and has checked the blood bag properly with another nurse. Just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse assesses which priority item? a. Vital signs b. Skin color c. Urine output D. Latest hematocrit level

A. vital signs A change in VS during the transfusion from baseline may indicate that a transfusion reaction is occurring. This is why the nurse assesses vital signs before the procedure and again after the first 15 minutes.

The nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is being seen in the clinic with a suspected acetaminophen overdose. What is the nurse's priority of care? 1. Administer acetylcysteine. 2. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram. 3. Ask the client about other medication use. 4. Ask the client why so many acetaminophen were taken.

Administer acetylcysteine. The antidote for acetaminophen is acetylcysteine, which works by preventing the hepatotoxic metabolites of acetaminophen from forming, so early administration is essential. Although the other options may be part of the client's assessment, they do not need to be carried out immediately.

A client hospitalized with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction calls for the unit nurse because the client is experiencing chest pain. The nurse administers a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet as prescribed. The client, who is receiving oxygen by nasal cannula, reports that her chest pain is unrelieved by the nitroglycerin. Which is the next nursing action for this client? 1. Call the client's family. 2. Increase the flow rate of oxygen. 3. Contact the health care provider (HCP). 4. Administer another nitroglycerin tablet.

Administer another nitroglycerin tablet. For the hospitalized client, nitroglycerin tablets are administered 1 tablet every 5 minutes, for a total of 3 tablets per episode of chest pain, as long as the client maintains a systolic blood pressure of 100 mm Hg or higher. Increasing the flow rate of oxygen may be prescribed by the HCP but would not be the next nursing action. If 3 nitroglycerin tablets do not relieve the client's chest pain, the HCP needs to be notified. It is premature to call the client's family.

Fetal distress is occurring with a laboring client. As the nurse prepares the client for a cesarean birth, what is the most important nursing action? 1. Slow the intravenous flow rate. 2. Continue the oxytocin drip if infusing. 3. Place the client in a high Fowler's position. 4. Administer oxygen, 8 to 10 L/minute, via face mask.

Administer oxygen, 8 to 10 L/minute, via face mask. Oxygen is administered, 8 to 10 L/minute, via face mask to optimize oxygenation of the circulating blood. Option 1 is incorrect because the intravenous infusion should be increased (per health care provider prescription) to increase the maternal blood volume. Option 2 is incorrect because oxytocin stimulation of the uterus is discontinued if fetal heart rate patterns change for any reason. Option 3 is incorrect because the client is placed in the lateral position with her legs raised to increase maternal blood volume and improve fetal perfusion.

A client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) experiences sudden development of chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, cyanosis, and a decreased level of consciousness. What should the nurse suspect as a complication of the TPN? 1. Air embolism 2. Hyperglycemia 3. Catheter-related sepsis 4. Allergic reaction to the catheter

Air embolism Signs and symptoms of air embolism include decreased level of consciousness, tachycardia, dyspnea, anxiety, feelings of impending doom, chest pain, cyanosis, and hypotension. The signs and symptoms in the question do not indicate hyperglycemia, an infection (catheter-related sepsis), or an allergic reaction.

The nurse enters the room of a client who began receiving a blood transfusion 45 minutes earlier to check on the client. The client is complaining of "itching all over" and has a generalized rash. The client's temperature has not changed from baseline and the lungs are clear to auscultation. Which complication of blood transfusion therapy should the nurse determine that this client is most likely experiencing? 1. Bacteremia 2. Fluid overload 3. Hypovolemic shock 4. Allergic transfusion reaction

Allergic transfusion reaction The client is most likely experiencing an allergic transfusion reaction based on the clinical manifestation of pruritus. Bacteremia usually manifests with fever. With fluid overload, the client has the presence of crackles in the lungs in addition to dyspnea. Other clinical manifestations of fluid overload include hypertension, a bounding pulse, distended jugular veins, restlessness, and confusion. Hypovolemic shock is not likely a transfusion reaction because intravascular fluid is being administered.

Answer: 0.2 Rationale: Convert 100 mcg to mg. In the metric system, to convert smaller to larger, divide by 1000 or move the decimal three places to the left. Therefore, 100 mcg = 0.1 mg. Then follow the formula:

Answer: 0.2 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating medication doses.

A health care provider has prescribed phytonadione (vitamin K) 2.5 mg intramuscularly. The nurse reads the label on the medication vial and administers how many mL to the client? Refer to figure.

Answer: 0.25 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating medication doses.

The medication prescribed is atropine sulfate, 0.4 mg. The medication label states atropine sulfate, 0.5 mg/0.5 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer to the client?

Answer: 0.4 Rationale: Follow the formula for dosage calculation.

A client has just delivered an 8 lb 8 oz infant boy after a prolonged labor. The pediatrician prescribes ampicillin 50 mg to be given by the intramuscular route to the newborn every 8 hours. The nurse is initiating the first dose. Ampicillin is available in powder form for injection. The directions on the bottle indicate reconstitution with 0.9 mL of sterile diluent for a concentration of 125 mg/mL. How many mL would the nurse prepare to administer the first dose?

Answer: 0.4 Rationale: Use the dosage calculation formula.

A health care provider's prescription reads atenolol (Tenormin), 0.025 g orally daily. The medication bottle reads atenolol, 50-mg tablets. The nurse prepares how many tablet(s) to administer the dose?

Answer: 0.5 Rationale: Convert 0.025 g to milligrams. In the metric system, to convert larger to smaller, multiply by 1000 or move the decimal three places to the right. Therefore 0.025 g = 25 mg. Next use the medication formula to calculate the correct dose.

A health care provider's prescription reads atenolol (Tenormin) 0.025 grams orally daily. The medication bottle reads atenolol (Tenormin), 50-mg tablets. The nurse prepares how many tablet(s) to administer the dose?

Answer: 0.5 Rationale: Convert 0.025 grams to milligrams. In the metric system, to convert larger to smaller, multiply by 1000 or move the decimal three places to the right. Therefore, 0.025 g = 25 mg, which is equal to ½ or 0.5 tablet.

Atropine sulfate, 0.2 mg given intramuscularly, is prescribed for a child. The medication label reads as follows: "0.4 mg/mL." The nurse has determined that the prescribed dose is safe. How many milliliters should the nurse administer to the child?

Answer: 0.5 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating medication dosage.

Morphine sulfate, 2.5 mg subcutaneously, is prescribed for a client postoperatively. The medication label reads "1/15 grains/mL." How many milliliters should the nurse administer? Round answer to the nearest tenth position.

Answer: 0.6 Rationale: Convert grains (gr) to milligrams (mg) and then use the medication calculation formula.

Answer: 0.6 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating medication dosages.

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed intramuscular (IM) dose of meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol), 35 mg, to a client. The medication label reads meperidine hydrochloride, 50 mg/mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer to the client?

Answer: 0.7 Rationale: Use the medication calculation formula and note the prescribed (35 mg) and available doses (50 mg/mL).

The medication prescribed is hydromorphone hydrochloride (Dilaudid), 3 mg intramuscular every 4 hours as needed. The medication label reads hydromorphone hydrochloride (Dilaudid), 4 mg/1 mL. The nurse prepares to administer how many mL to the client?

Answer: 0.75 Rationale: Follow the formula for dosage calculation.

Answer: 0.8 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating the appropriate medication dosage. In this question, it is not necessary to perform a conversion. The data needed to perform this calculation are the health care provider's prescription (250,000 units of penicillin G benzathine) and the available amount of 300,000 units/mL.

Answer: 1 Rationale: Convert 0.05 g to milligrams. In the metric system, to convert larger to smaller, multiply by 1000 or move the decimal three places to the right. Therefore 0.05 g = 50 mg. The nurse will administer one tablet.

Answer: 1 Rationale: Convert 0.5 g to milligrams (mg). In the metric system, to convert larger to smaller, multiply by 1000 or move the decimal three places to the right. Therefore, 0.5 g = 500 mg. The nurse would administer one tablet.

Answer: 1 Rationale: Convert 125 mcg to mg. In the metric system, to convert smaller to larger, divide by 1000 or move the decimal three places to the left. Therefore, 125 mcg = 0.125 mg. One tablet is administered.

A health care provider's prescription reads "meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) 125 mg by the intramuscular route stat." The medication vial reads 100 mg/mL. How many milliliters of the medication would the nurse draw into the syringe for injection?

Answer: 1.25 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating the appropriate medication dose. In this question, it is not necessary to perform a conversion.

The medication is an intramuscular dose of 400,000 units of penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin). The label on the 10-mL ampule sent from the pharmacy reads penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin) 300,000 units/mL. The nurse prepares how much medication to administer the correct dose? (Round answer to the nearest tenth position.)

Answer: 1.3 Rationale: Follow the formula for dosage calculation.

A health care provider prescribes levothyroxine (Synthroid) 150 mcg orally daily for a client with hypothyroidism. The medication label states, 0.1 mg per tablet. The home care nurse will instruct the client to take how many tablet(s)?

Answer: 1.5 Rationale: Convert 150 mcg to milligrams. In the metric system, to convert smaller to larger, divide by 1000 or move the decimal three places to the left. Therefore 150 mcg = 0.15 mg. Next, use the formula for determining the correct dosage.

A health care provider's prescription reads "levothyroxine (Synthroid), 150 mcg orally daily." The medication label reads "levothyroxine, 0.1 mg/tablet." The nurse prepares to administer how many tablet(s) to the client?

Answer: 1.5 Rationale: Convert 150 mcg to milligrams. In the metric system, to convert smaller to larger, divide by 1000, or move the decimal three places to the left. Therefore 150 mcg = 0.15 mg.

A health care provider has prescribed a liquid oral suspension of amoxicillin (Amoxil). The prescription reads 0.25 gram (g) orally three times daily. How many milliliters (mL) should the nurse administer to the client per dose? Refer to figure.

Answer: 10 Rationale: Convert grams to milligrams first before using the formula. To convert larger to smaller, move the decimal point three places to the right. Therefore, 0.25 gram = 250 mg.

A health care provider prescribes potassium chloride (KCl) elixir, 20 mEq orally twice daily. The medication label states potassium chloride (KCl), 30 mEq/15 mL. The nurse prepares to administer the morning dose. How many milliliters will the nurse prepare to administer one dose?

Answer: 10 Rationale: Follow the formula for dosage calculation.

A health care provider prescribes one unit of packed red blood cells to infuse over 4 hours. One unit of blood contains 250 mL, and the drop factor is 10 gtt/1 mL. The registered nurse asks the licensed practical nurse (LPN) to assist with monitoring the flow rate during the infusion. The LPN monitors the flow rate, knowing that how many gtt/min should infuse? Round the answer to the nearest whole number.

Answer: 10 Rationale: The prescribed 250 mL is to be infused over 4 hours. Follow the formula, and multiply 250 mL by 10 (gtt factor). Then divide the result by 240 minutes (4 hours × 60 minutes). The infusion is to run at 10.4 or 10 gtt/min.

Answer: 10 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating the appropriate medication dose.

A nurse is preparing to administer 30 mEq of liquid potassium chloride (KCl) to an adult client. The label on the medication bottle reads 40 mEq of KCl/15 mL. The nurse prepares how many milliliters of KCl to administer the correct dose of medication? Round answer to the nearest whole number.

Answer: 11 Rationale: Use the formula to calculate medication dosages.

Answer: 125 Rationale: To determine how many milliliters per hour are to be administered, simply divide the total prescribed amount of IV solution by the prescribed time period for infusion. Therefore, 3000 mL divided by 24 hours is 125 mL.

One unit of packed red blood cells is infusing into a client over a 4-hour period. The unit of blood contains 250 mL. The drop factor is 15 drops (gtt) per 1 mL. The nurse determines that the flow rate should be set at how many drops per minute? Round answer to the nearest whole number.

Answer: 16 Rationale: Use the formula to calculate the infusion rate.

A client is to receive 1000 mL of 5% dextrose in water (D5W) at a rate of 100 mL/hr. The drop (gtt) factor is 10 drops (gtt) per mL. The nurse adjusts the flow rate to deliver how many gtt per minute? Round to the nearest whole number.

Answer: 17 Rationale: The first step is to determine how many hours the intravenous (IV) infusion will last. This requires simple division of the total volume of milliliters (mL) to be infused (1000 mL) by the total milliliters per hour (100 mL), which is 10 hours. Then convert hours to minutes, which is 600 minutes. Next use the formula to calculate the flow rate.

Ampicillin sodium 250 mg in 50 mL of normal saline (NS) is being administered over a period of 30 minutes. The drop (gtt) factor is 10 drops (gtt) per mL. The nurse is asked to check the flow rate of the infusion. The nurse determines that the infusion is running at the prescribed rate if the infusion is delivering how many gtt per minute? (Round answer to the nearest whole number.)

Answer: 17 Rationale: The prescribed 50 mL is to be infused over 30 minutes. Follow the formula and multiply 50 mL by 10 (gtt factor). Then divide the result by 30 minutes. Round answer to the nearest whole number. The infusion is to run at 17 gtt/minute.

The medication prescribed is zidovudine (AZT), 0.2 g orally every 4 hours. The medication label states zidovudine (AZT), 100-mg tablets. The nurse prepares to administer how many tablets for one dose?

Answer: 2 Rationale: Convert 0.2 g to mg. In the metric system, to convert larger to smaller, multiply by 1000, or move the decimal three places to the right; therefore 0.2 g = 200 mg.

A health care provider prescribes phenytoin (Dilantin) 0.2 g orally twice daily. The medication label states, 100-mg capsules. How many capsule(s) will the nurse prepare to administer the dose?

Answer: 2 Rationale: Convert 0.2 g to milligrams. In the metric system, to convert larger to smaller, multiply by 1000 or move the decimal three places to the right. Therefore 0.2 g = 200 mg. The nurse will administer two capsules.

A health care provider's prescription reads "phenytoin (Dilantin) 0.2 g orally, twice daily." The medication label states 100-mg capsules. How many capsule(s) will the nurse prepare to administer one dose?

Answer: 2 Rationale: Convert 0.2 g to milligrams. In the metric system, to convert larger to smaller, multiply by 1000, or move the decimal three places to the right. Therefore 0.2 g = 200 mg.

A health care provider prescribes tetracycline hydrochloride (Sumycin) 0.5 g orally four times daily. The medication label on the bottle of medication reads tetracycline hydrochloride 250 mg tablets. The nurse prepares how many tablet(s) to administer one dose?

Answer: 2 Rationale: Convert 0.5 g to mg. In the metric system, to convert larger to smaller, multiply by 1000 or move the decimal three places to the right. Therefore, 0.5 g = 500 mg. Next use the medication calculation formula to determine the correct dose.

The medication prescribed is levodopa (Larodopa), 1 g orally, twice daily. The medication label states levodopa, 500-mg tablets. The nurse prepares to administer how many tablets at the evening dose?

Answer: 2 Rationale: Convert 1 g to milligrams. In the metric system, to convert larger to smaller, multiply by 1000, or move the decimal three places to the right; therefore 1 g = 1000 mg.

The medication prescribed is digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.25 mg orally daily. The medication label reads digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.125 mg/tablet. The nurse prepares how many tablet(s) to administer the dose?

Answer: 2 Rationale: Follow the formula for dosage calculation.

The medication prescribed is metoclopramide hydrochloride (Reglan) 10 mg intramuscularly times one dose. The medication label reads metoclopramide hydrochloride (Reglan), 5 mg/mL. The nurse plans to prepare how much medication to administer the dose?

Answer: 2 Rationale: Follow the formula for dosage calculation.

The medication prescribed is prochlorperazine (Compazine), 20 mg intramuscular every 4 hours as needed. The medication label states prochlorperazine 10 mg/mL. The nurse prepares how much medication to administer the dose?

Answer: 2 Rationale: Follow the formula for dosage calculation.

A health care provider prescribes digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.5 mg PO daily for a client with congestive heart failure. The medication label states, 0.25 mg per tablet. How many tablet(s) will the nurse administer to the client?

Answer: 2 Rationale: Follow the formula for the calculation of the correct dose.

Answer: 2 Rationale: Formula: Convert 0.05 g to mg. In the metric system, to convert the larger unit of measure to the smaller unit of measure, multiply by 1000 or move the decimal three places to the right. Therefore 0.05 g = 50 mg. The nurse will administer two tablets.

Answer: 2 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating medication dosages.

A health care provider's prescription reads theophylline timed-release capsules (Slo-Bid), 100 mg orally every 6 hours. The medication label reads 50-mg capsules. How many capsules will the nurse give to administer one dose?

Answer: 2 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating the appropriate medication dosage.

A health care provider prescribes digoxin (Lanoxin), 0.25 mg by mouth (PO) daily, for a client with congestive heart failure. The medication label states 0.125 mg per tablet. How many tablet(s) will the nurse administer to the client?

Answer: 2 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating the appropriate medication dosage. In this question, it is not necessary to perform a conversion.

Answer: 2 Rationale: Use the medication calculation formula to answer the question.

A health care provider's prescription reads potassium chloride 20 mEq in 1000 mL normal saline and infuse at 100 mL/hr. The nurse assisting in caring for the client determines that the client will receive how many mEq of potassium every hour?

Answer: 2 Rationale: Use the ratio and proportion formula to solve this problem, and then solve for x. 20 mEq: 1000 mL :: x mg: 100 mL Multiply means and extremes then divide to solve for x. 1000x = 2000 x = 2 mEq

The medication prescription reads phenytoin (Dilantin) 0.2 g orally twice daily. The medication label states 100-mg capsules. A nurse prepares how many capsule(s) to administer one dose?

Answer: 2 Rationale: You must convert 0.2 g to milligrams. In the metric system, to convert larger to smaller, multiply by 1000 or move the decimal three places to the right. Therefore, 0.2 g equals 200 mg. After conversion from grams to milligrams, use the formula to calculate the correct dose.

A client is to receive 1000 mL of 5% dextrose in water over a period of 125 mL/hr. The drop (gtt) factor is 10 drops (gtt)/mL. The nurse sets the flow rate at how many gtt per minute? (Round answer to the nearest whole number.)

Answer: 21 Rationale: The first step is to determine how many hours the IV administration will infuse. This requires simple division of the total volume of milliliters to be infused (1000 mL) by the total milliliters per hour (125 mL). This calculates to 8 hours and is then converted to minutes, which is 480 minutes (8 hours × 60 minutes). Next, use the formula to calculate the flow rate.

Answer: 21 Rationale: The prescribed 1000 mL is to be infused over 8 hours. Follow the formula and multiply 1000 mL by 10 (gtt factor). Then divide the result by 480 minutes (8 hours X 60 minutes). The infusion is to run at 20.8 or 21 gtt/minute.

A health care provider prescribes 2000 mL of 5% dextrose in water to run over 24 hours. The drop (gtt) factor is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse plans to adjust the flow rate at how many gtts per minute? (Round answer to the nearest whole number.)

Answer: 21 Rationale: The prescribed 2000 mL is to be infused over 24 hours. Follow the formula and multiply 2000 mL by 15 (gtt factor). Then divide the result by 1440 minutes (24 hours × 60 minutes). The infusion is to run at 20.8, or 21 gtt/minute.

Answer: 21 Rationale: The prescribed 500 mL is to be infused over 4 hours. Follow the formula and multiply 500 mL by 10 (gt factor). Then, divide the result by 240 minutes (4 hours X 60 minutes). The infusion is to run at 20.8 or 21 gtt/minute.

A health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of normal saline to be infused over a period of 12 hours. The drop (gtt) factor is 15 drops (gtt)/mL. The nurse sets the flow rate at how many gtt per minute? (Round answer to the nearest whole number.)

Answer: 21 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating IV infusion rates. Convert 12 hours to minutes (12 hours × 60 minutes = 720 minutes).

The intravenous prescription is 1000 mL of 0.9% NaCl (normal saline) to run over 12 hours. The drop factor is 15 gtt/1 mL. The nurse plans to adjust the flow rate to how many gtt/minute? (Round answer to the nearest whole number.)

Answer: 21 Rationale: Use the intravenous (IV) flow rate formula.

The intravenous prescription is 3000 mL of 5% dextrose (D5W) to run over a 24-hour period. The drop factor is 10 gtt/1 mL. The nurse plans to adjust the flow rate to how many gtt/minute? (Round answer to the nearest whole number.)

Answer: 21 Rationale: Use the intravenous (IV) flow rate formula.

Answer: 25 Rationale: The prescribed 1000 mL is to be infused over 10 hours. Follow the formula and multiply 1000 mL by 15 (gtt factor). Then divide the result by 600 minutes (10 hours x 60 minutes). The infusion is to run at 25 gtt/minute.

A postoperative client has a prescription to receive an intravenous (IV) infusion of 1000 mL normal saline solution over a period of 10 hours. The drop (gtt) factor for the IV infusion set is 15 gtt/mL. The nurse sets the flow rate at how many drops per minute?

Answer: 25 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating IV flow rates.

Answer: 3 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating medication dosages.

A client originally was prescribed oral sertraline (Zoloft) 25 mg daily for depression. The dose was been gradually increased in an effort to control the symptoms. The current dose is 75 mg daily. The medication label reads 25 mg/tablet. To receive the correct dose, the nurse instructs the client to take how many tablets once daily?

Answer: 3 Rationale: Use the formula for calculating medication dosages.

A health care provider prescribes phenobarbital (Luminal), 10 mg by mouth daily. The medication bottle is labeled 15 mg/5 mL. How many milliliters will the nurse administer? Round the answer to the nearest tenth.

Answer: 3.3 Rationale: Follow the formula for the calculation of the medication dose.

A health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of 0.45% NaCl (half-normal saline) to run over 8 hours. The drop (gtt) factor is 15 gtt/1 mL. The nurse plans to adjust the flow rate to how many gtt/min? Round the answer to the nearest whole number.

Answer: 31 Rationale: The prescribed 1000 mL is to be infused over 8 hours. Follow the formula, and multiply 1000 mL by 15 (gtt factor). Then divide the result by 480 minutes (8 hours × 60 minutes). The infusion is to run at 31.2 or 31 gtt/min.

Answer: 31 Rationale: The prescribed 3000 mL is to be infused over 24 hours. Follow the formula and multiply 3000 mL by 15 (gtt factor). Then divide the result by 1440 minutes (24 hours x 60 minutes). The infusion is to run at 31 gtt/minute.

A health care provider prescribes 3000 mL of 0.9% normal saline to run over 24 hours. The drop (gtt) factor is 15 gtts/mL. The nurse plans to adjust the flow rate at how many gtts per minute? (Round answer to the nearest whole number.)

Answer: 31 Rationale: The prescribed 3000 mL is to be infused over 24 hours. Follow the formula and multiply 3000 mL by 15 (gtt factor). Then divide the result by 1440 minutes (24 hours × 60 minutes). The infusion is to run at 31.2 or 31 gtts/minute.

A nurse is checking the remaining volume in a 1000-mL IV bag that is scheduled to infuse over 8 hours. The nurse has just noted that at 11:00 ᴀᴍ the remaining IV fluid is at the 500-mL level. When she returns at 12:00 noon at which numerical level (mL) should the IV fluid be?

Answer: 375 Rationale: If the IV is scheduled to run over 8 hours, then the hourly rate is 125 mL/hr. Using 500 mL as the reference point, the next hourly marking would be at 375 mL, which is 125 mL less than 500.

The prescription reads to infuse an insulin drip at 12 mL/hr. There are 100 units regular insulin in 250 mL of normal saline. How many units of insulin will the client receive per hour?

Answer: 4.8 Rationale: Use ratio and proportion method of calculation. 100 units: 250 mL = X: 12 mL 250X = 1200 X = 4.8

A health care provider prescribes 1000 mL of 5% dextrose (D5W) to run at 125 mL/hr. The nurse calculates the infusion rate, knowing that it will take how many hours for 1 L to infuse?

Answer: 8 Rationale: To determine how many hours it will take for 1 L to infuse, first recall that 1 L is equal to 1000 mL. Next, divide the 1000 mL by the amount being delivered in 1 hour.

The prescription reads to give ondansetron hydrochloride 0.15 mg/kg of body weight 30 minutes before receiving chemotherapy for the treatment of cancer. The client weighs 132 pounds. How many mg of ondansetron hydrochloride will the nurse administer?

Answer: 9 Rationale: First convert pounds to kilograms 1 pound = 2.2 kg. Divide 132 pounds by 2.2 to yield 60 kg. Therefore the client weighs 60 kg. Then use ratio and proportion to calculate the milligrams: 0.15 mg : 1 kg :: x : 60 kg Multiply means and extremes then divide to solve for x. Therefore, 1x = 9

When performing a surgical dressing change of a client's abdominal dressing, the nurse notes an increase in the amount of drainage and separation of the incision line. The underlying tissue is visible to the nurse. What should the nurse do next? 1. Apply a sterile dressing soaked with povidone-iodine. 2. Apply a sterile dressing soaked with normal saline. 3. Irrigate the wound, and apply a dry sterile dressing. 4. Leave the incision exposed to the air to dry the area.

Apply a sterile dressing soaked with normal saline. Wound dehiscence is the separation of wound edges at the suture line. Signs and symptoms include increased drainage and the exposure of underlying tissues. These usually occur 6 to 8 days after surgery. The client should be instructed to remain quiet and avoid coughing or straining. The client should be positioned to prevent further stress on the wound. Sterile dressings soaked with sterile normal saline should be used to cover the wound. The health care provider must be notified after applying this initial dressing to the wound.

Which step should occur first when using an automated external defibrillator (AED)? 1. Press the shock button if indicated. 2. Place the AED in the analyze mode. 3. Apply defibrillator pads on the client. 4. Check to see that no one is touching the client.

Apply defibrillator pads on the client. Knowing that the device needs to be in contact with the client in order to read the heart rhythm will lead you to select the option of placing the defibrillator pads on the client as the first step. The nurse next checks to see that no one is touching the client. The nurse then places the AED in the analyze mode. Then the shock button is pressed, if indicated.

The nurse witnesses an accident whereby a pedestrian is hit by an automobile. The nurse stops at the scene and assesses the victim. The nurse notes that the victim is responsive and has suffered trauma to the thorax resulting in a flail chest involving at least 3 ribs. What is the nurse's priority action for this victim? 1. Assist the victim to sit up. 2. Remove the victim's shirt. 3. Turn the victim onto the side opposite the flail chest. 4. Apply firm but gentle pressure with the hands to the flail segment.

Apply firm but gentle pressure with the hands to the flail segment. If flail chest is present, the nurse applies firm but gentle pressure to the flail segments of the ribs to stabilize the chest wall, which will ultimately help the victim's respiratory status. The nurse does not move an injured client for fear of worsening an undetected spinal injury. Removing the victim's shirt is of no value in this situation and could in fact result in chilling the victim, which is counterproductive. Injured clients should be kept warm until help arrives at the scene.

The client sustains a contusion of the eyeball following a traumatic injury with a blunt object. Which intervention should be initiated immediately? 1. Apply ice to the affected eye. 2. Irrigate the eye with cool water. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Accompany the client to the emergency department.

Apply ice to the affected eye. Treatment for a contusion begins at the time of injury. Ice is applied immediately. The client then should be seen by an HCP and receive a thorough eye examination to rule out the presence of other eye injuries.

The nurse should evaluate that defibrillation of a client was most successful if which observation was made? 1. Arousable, sinus rhythm, blood pressure (BP) 116/72 mm Hg 2. Nonarousable, sinus rhythm, BP 88/60 mm Hg 3. Arousable, marked bradycardia, BP 86/54 mm Hg 4. Nonarousable, supraventricular tachycardia, BP 122/60 mm Hg

Arousable, sinus rhythm, blood pressure (BP) 116/72 mm Hg After defibrillation, the client requires continuous monitoring of electrocardiographic rhythm, hemodynamic status, and neurological status. Respiratory and metabolic acidosis develop during ventricular fibrillation because of lack of respiration and cardiac output. These can cause cerebral and cardiopulmonary complications. Arousable status, adequate BP, and a sinus rhythm indicate successful response to defibrillation.

A client who attempted suicide by hanging is brought to the emergency department by emergency medical services. Which is the immediate nursing action? 1. Take the client's vital signs, including pulse oximetry reading. 2. Assess the client's respiratory status and for the presence of neck injuries. 3. Perform a focused assessment, paying particular attention to the client's neurological status. 4. Call the mental health crisis team and notify them that a client who attempted suicide is being admitted.

Assess the client's respiratory status and for the presence of neck injuries. The immediate nursing action for a client who attempted suicide is to assess physiological status. Airway is always the priority. Therefore, assessing the client's respiratory status and for the presence of neck injuries is the immediate action that the nurse takes. Although the remaining options identify appropriate nursing actions, they are not the priority.

n order of priority, how should the nurse perform abdominal thrusts on an unconscious adult? Arrange the actions in the order that they should be performed. All options must be used.

Assess unconsciousness. Open the airway. Look in the mouth and remove the object blocking the airway, if seen. Attempt ventilation. Perform abdominal thrusts. For health care providers (HCPs) such as the nurse, the sequence for removing a foreign body airway obstruction in an adult is as follows. After determining unconsciousness, the airway is opened and the rescuer looks into the mouth of the victim and removes the object blocking the airway, if it is seen. Next, the HCP attempts to ventilate the victim. If unsuccessful, the victim's head is repositioned and ventilation is reattempted. Five abdominal thrusts are then delivered. The sequence is repeated until successful.

The nurse is watching the cardiac monitor, and a client's rhythm suddenly changes. There are no P waves; instead, there are fibrillatory waves before each QRS complex. How should the nurse correctly interpret the client's heart rhythm? 1. Atrial fibrillation 2. Sinus tachycardia 3. Ventricular fibrillation 4. Ventricular tachycardia

Atrial fibrillation Atrial fibrillation is characterized by a loss of P waves and fibrillatory waves before each QRS complex. The atria quiver, which can lead to thrombus formation.

The family of a client with a spinal cord injury rushes to the nursing station, saying that the client needs immediate help. On entering the room, the nurse notes that the client is diaphoretic with a flushed face and neck and is complaining of a severe headache. The pulse rate is 40 beats/minute, and the blood pressure is 230/100 mm Hg. The nurse acts quickly, suspecting that the client is experiencing which condition? 1. Spinal shock 2. Pulmonary embolism 3. Autonomic dysreflexia 4. Malignant hyperthermia

Autonomic dysreflexia The client with a spinal cord injury is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia with an injury above the level of the seventh thoracic vertebra (T7). Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by severe, throbbing headache; flushing of the face and neck; bradycardia; and sudden severe hypertension. Other signs include nasal stuffiness, blurred vision, nausea, and sweating. Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening syndrome triggered by a noxious stimulus below the level of the injury. The data in the question are not associated with the conditions noted in the remaining options.

A nurse instructs a client with myxedema about the dosage, method of administration, and side effects of levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the nurse's instructions? A "I should take the medication in the evening." B "I need to report any episodes of palpitations, chest pain, or dyspnea." C "I can expect diarrhea, insomnia, and excessive sweating." D "If I feel nervous or have tremors, I should only take half the dose."

B "I need to report any episodes of palpitations, chest pain, or dyspnea."

B "I need to report any episodes of palpitations, chest pain, or dyspnea." Rationale: One major concern when initiating thyroid hormone-replacement therapy is that the dose is too high, which can lead to cardiovascular problems. For this reason, clients need to be made aware of the early signs and symptoms of toxicity and urged to report these findings immediately to the physician. Diarrhea, insomnia, and excessive sweating are signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism; though they may occur with thyroid-replacement therapy, they are not expected and should be reported. Tremors and nervousness are also signs of toxicity, which should be reported. Clients should never take it upon themselves to adjust hormone dosage. Levothyroxine sodium is administered in the morning.

A nurse provides instructions to a client who will be taking furosemide (Lasix). Which of the following statements by the client indicates to the nurse that the client needs additional instruction? A "I need to sit or stand up slowly." B "I should expect to have ringing in my ears." C "I need to maintain my fluid intake." D "This medication will make me urinate."

B "I should expect to have ringing in my ears."

B "I should expect to have ringing in my ears." Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic. Adverse effects of furosemide therapy include orthostatic hypotension and ototoxicity. Therefore the client should change positions slowly to help prevent lightheadedness. The client must also contact the physician if signs of ototoxicity, such as hearing loss or ringing in the ears, occur. Fluid intake should be maintained to prevent dehydration.

B "I think you need to come in for blood work today, because this may be a side effect of your medicine." Rationale: Agranulocytosis, an adverse effect of antipsychotic medications, is characterized by a sore throat with mouth sores, fever, and malaise. Any client taking such a medication who complains of flulike symptoms should be evaluated carefully. For this reason, the psychiatrist usually prescribes periodic blood tests while a client is taking antipsychotic medications. The incorrect options ignore the client's complaints.

Warfarin sodium (Coumadin) has been prescribed, and the nurse teaches the client about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates that further teaching is necessary? A "I won't play football anymore." B "I won't take any over-the-counter medications except aspirin." C "I'll use an electric shaver until the doctor stops the Coumadin prescription." D "I'll buy one of those medication alert tags that tells people I'm taking an anticoagulant."

B "I won't take any over-the-counter medications except aspirin."

B "I won't take any over-the-counter medications except aspirin." Rationale: No over-the-counter medications of any kind should be ingested by a client taking an anticoagulant. This is especially true of aspirin and aspirin-containing products (because of the potential for bleeding). The other options are correct statements. Strenuous games (e.g., contact sports) that may result in bruising and skin breakdown should be avoided. Electric shavers are less irritating to the skin than razors and less likely to cause skin breakdown. Medication alert tags are recommended in case of emergency. The client should also be taught to carry an identification card listing all medications currently being taken.

A young female client with schizophrenia says to the nurse, "Since I started on Zyprexa [olanzapine] last year, I'm doing well in school and all, but I've gained so much weight, and it's really bothering me. What can I do about this?" Which response by the nurse would be therapeutic? A "Well, I think you're overreacting. Today people think they should be skinny-minnies, even though it's not healthy." B "Weight gain can be a side effect of the medication, so you need to watch your diet and exercise. How much weight have you gained?" C "That medication isn't any more likely to cause weight gain than the others you're taking. Perhaps we could go over your diet and exercise habits." D "I want you to stop taking this medication immediately, and I'm calling the doctor, because this is a very serious side effect and you may need dialysis."

B "Weight gain can be a side effect of the medication, so you need to watch your diet and exercise. How much weight have you gained?"

B "Weight gain can be a side effect of the medication, so you need to watch your diet and exercise. How much weight have you gained?" Rationale: Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is an antipsychotic agent that causes weight gain, a disadvantage of the medication. Weight gain, especially in a young woman, for whom it may be an especially serious blow to self-image, may lead to noncompliance with the medication regimen. "That medication isn't any more likely to cause weight gain than the others you're taking" offers incorrect information. "I think you're overreacting" minimizes the client's complaints. "I want you to stop taking this medication immediately" gives incorrect information and is presented in an unprofessional style.

At 1300, the nurse is documenting the receipt of a unit of packed blood cells at the hospital blood bank. The nurse calculates that the transfusion must be started by: A 1315 B 1330 C 1345 D 1400

B 1330 Rationale: Blood must be hung within 30 minutes after obtaining it from the blood bank. After that time, the temperature of the blood becomes warm and could be unsafe for use. Therefore 1345 and 1400 are incorrect. It is not necessary to hang the blood within 15 minutes of receiving it from the blood bank.

A nurse has just received a prescription to transfuse a unit of packed red blood cells for an assigned client. For how long does the nurse plan to stay with the client after the unit of blood is hung? A 5 minutes B 15 minutes C 45 minutes D 60 minutes

B 15 minutes

B 15 minutes Rationale: The nurse must remain with the client for the first 15 minutes of a transfusion, the time frame during which most transfusion reactions occur. This will enable the nurse to quickly detect a reaction and intervene quickly. Five minutes is too short; the nurse would not be present during the critical 15 minutes. Staying with the client for 45 or 60 minutes is unnecessary.

At 1600 the nurse checks a client's parenteral nutrition (PN) infusion bag and finds 1100 mL remaining in the 3000-mL bag. The solution is running at a rate of 100 mL/hr. The bag was hung the previous day at 1800. The nurse plans to change the infusion bag and tubing this evening at: A 1700 B 1800 C 2000 D 2100

B 1800

B 1800 Rationale: The PN solution should be changed every 24 hours as a means of helping prevent infection. Infection is also prevented with the use of aseptic technique during bag and tubing changes. Most agencies recommend that tubing be changed every 24 hours along with the PN infusion bag. Specific agency policies should always be followed. The nurse should also use a filter when administering PN in accordance with hospital protocol. Therefore the remaining options are incorrect.

A client has been given a prescription to begin using nitroglycerin transdermal patches for the management of angina pectoris. The nurse tells the client to: A Place the patch in the area of a skin fold to promote adherence B Apply the patch at the same time each day and leave it in place for 12 to 16 hours as directed C If the patch becomes dislodged, do not reapply and wait until the next day to apply a new patch. D Alternate daily dose times between the morning and the evening to prevent the development of tolerance to the medication

B Apply the patch at the same time each day and leave it in place for 12 to 16 hours as directed

B Apply the patch at the same time each day and leave it in place for 12 to 16 hours as directed Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a coronary vasodilator used in the management of angina pectoris. The client is generally advised to apply a new patch at the same time each day (usually each morning) and leave in place for 12 to 16 hours as per physician directions. This prevents the client from developing tolerance (such as that which happens with 24-hour use). The client should avoid placing patches in skin folds or excoriated areas. The client benefits from removing the patch for sleep as well, because the nitroglycerin may cause a headache, which could disrupt sleep. The client may apply a new patch if the old one is dislodged, because the dose is released continuously in small amounts through the skin.

B Clamps the PN infusion line Rationale: One complication of a subclavian central line is embolism, caused by air or thrombus. Sudden onset of chest pain shortly after the initiation of PN may mean that this complication has developed. The infusion is clamped (the line should not be discontinued, however), the client turned on the left side with the head down, and the physician notified immediately. Depending on agency protocol, the rapid response team would also be called. Blood cultures are not necessary in this situation, because infection is not the concern. Likewise, there is no useful reason for checking the blood glucose level. An ECG may be obtained, but this is not the immediate priority. If the client shows signs of an air embolism, the nurse should examine the catheter to determine whether an open port has allowed air into the circulatory system.

A nurse discontinues infusion of a unit of packed red blood cells (RBCs) because the client is experiencing a transfusion reaction. After discontinuing the transfusion, which of the following actions does the nurse take next? A Removing the IV catheter B Contacting the healthcare provider C Changing the solution to 5% dextrose in water D Obtaining a culture of the tip of the catheter device removed from the client

B Contacting the healthcare provider

B Contacting the healthcare provider Rationale: If the nurse suspects a transfusion reaction, the transfusion is stopped and normal saline solution infused at a keep-vein-open rate pending further physician prescriptions. The nurse then contacts the physician. Dextrose in water is not used, because it may cause clotting or hemolysis of blood cells. Normal saline solution is the only type of IV fluid that is compatible with blood. The nurse would not remove the IV catheter, because then there would be no IV access route through which to treat the reaction. There is no reason to obtain a culture of the catheter tip; this is done when an infection is suspected.

B Draw the regular insulin into the syringe first Rationale: Before different types of insulin are mixed, the bottle should be rotated for at least one minute between the hands. This resuspends the insulin and helps warm the medication. The bottles should not be shaken; shaking causes the formation of bubbles, which may trap particles of insulin and alter the dosage of the medication. Insulin may be maintained at room temperature. A 25- to 28-gauge 5/8-inch needle should be used for subcutaneous injection of insulin. Bottles of insulin intended for future use should be stored in the refrigerator. Regular insulin is drawn up before NPH insulin to ensure that there is no contamination of the rapid-acting insulin by the intermediate-acting insulin. It is not necessary to remove air from the insulin bottle.

B Drawing up the medication and discarding the unused portion Rationale: Epoetin alfa is dispensed in a 1-mL vial for subcutaneous or IV injection. The vial should not be shaken, because epoetin alfa is a protein that can be denatured with agitation. The nurse should use only one dose per single-dose vial and discard the unused portion. Epoetin alfa is not to be mixed with other medications. The medication should be stored at 2° to 8 °C (35° to 46° F) and should not be frozen.

A home health nurse provides instructions to a client who is taking allopurinol (Zyloprim) for the treatment of gout. The nurse should tell the client to: A Place an ice pack on the lips if they swell B Drink at least 8 glasses of fluid every day C Take the medication on an empty stomach 2 hours before meals D Use an over-the-counter (OTC) antihistamine lotion if a rash develops

B Drink at least 8 glasses of fluid every day

B Drink at least 8 glasses of fluid every day Rationale: Clients taking allopurinol are encouraged to drink 3000 mL/day of fluid. Allopurinol is to be given with or immediately after meals or milk. If a rash, irritation of the eyes, or swelling of the lips or mouth develops, the client should contact the physician, because this development may indicate hypersensitivity.

A client is taking a folic acid supplement (Folate). Which of the following laboratory parameters does the nurse use to evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy? Select all that apply. A Magnesium B Hemoglobin C Blood glucose D Hematocrit E Alkaline phosphatase

B Hemoglobin D Hematocrit

B Hemoglobin D Hematocrit Rationale: Folic acid, necessary for red blood cell production, is classified as a vitamin and as an antianemic agent. Both hematocrit and hemoglobin are appropriate parameters by which to assess the blood count. The nurse can gauge the effectiveness of therapy by monitoring the results of periodic complete blood counts, in particular the hematocrit.

Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) is prescribed for a client, and the nurse provides instruction regarding the use of the medication. The nurse tells the client that it is best to take the medication: A At lunchtime B In the morning C With the evening meal D Midafternoon, with an antacid

B In the morning

B In the morning Rationale: Fluoxetine hydrochloride (Prozac) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor that elicits an antidepressant response. It is best administered in the early morning, and there is no need to coordinate the dose with a meal. (If the medication causes lightheadedness or dizziness, the healthcare provider may advise the client to take it at bedtime.) The other options are incorrect.

B Jaundice Rationale: Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor used in the treatment of glaucoma to reduce the rate of aqueous humor formation and to lower intraocular pressure. Adverse effects include nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, and bone marrow depression. Jaundice is a sign of hepatotoxicity. Tinnitus is not related to this medication. Pupillary constriction in response to light is a normal response. Diminished peripheral vision would signal a complication of glaucoma.

A client is receiving intravenous bleomycin sulfate. During administration of the chemotherapy, which of the following nursing assessments is of the highest priority? A Heart rate B Lung sounds C Peripheral pulses D Level of consciousness

B Lung sounds

B Lung sounds Rationale: Bleomycin sulfate, an antineoplastic medication, can cause interstitial pneumonitis that may progress to pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary function parameters, along with hematologic, hepatic, and renal function tests, must be monitored. The nurse should monitor lung sounds for dyspnea and wheezes, indicative of pulmonary toxicity. The medication must be discontinued immediately if pulmonary toxicity occurs.

A nurse is providing instruction to a client who is taking codeine sulfate for severe back pain. The nurse should tell the client to: A Decrease fluid intake B Maintain a high-fiber diet C Avoid all exercise to help prevent lightheadedness D Avoid the use of stool softeners to help prevent diarrhea

B Maintain a high-fiber diet

B Maintain a high-fiber diet Rationale: Codeine sulfate can cause constipation. The client is instructed to increase fluid intake and maintain a high-fiber diet to help prevent constipation. The other options are incorrect because they do not address the side effects associated with the use of this medication. Although lightheadedness may occur with the use of this medication, all exercise is not avoided; in fact, the client should ambulate frequently.

Baclofen (Lioresal) is prescribed for a client with a spinal cord injury who is experiencing muscle spasms. While providing instructions to the client, which of the following side effects does the nurse tell the client is possible? A Photosensitivity B Nasal congestion C Increased appetite D Increased salivation

B Nasal congestion

B Nasal congestion Rationale: Common side effects of baclofen include drowsiness, dizziness, weakness, and nausea. Occasional side effects include headache, paresthesia of the hands and feet, constipation or diarrhea, anorexia, hypotension, confusion, and nasal congestion. Paradoxical central nervous system excitement and restlessness may occur, along with slurred speech, tremor, dry mouth, nocturia, and impotence. Photosensitivity is not a side effect of this medication.

A client with a peripheral intravenous (IV) line in place has a new prescription for infusion of parenteral nutrition (PN), a solution containing 25% glucose. Which of the following actions should be taken by the nurse? A Hanging the IV solution as prescribed B Questioning the healthcare provider about the prescription C Hanging the IV solution but setting the infusion at just half the prescribed rate D Diluting the solution with sterile water to half-strength

B Questioning the healthcare provider about the prescription

B Questioning the healthcare provider about the prescription Rationale: PN solutions containing as much as 10% glucose can be infused through peripheral vessels. A PN solution containing 25% glucose is hypertonic. The nurse should question the prescription in the absence of a central venous catheter or a peripherally inserted central catheter. Diluting the solution with sterile water to half-strength and hanging the IV solution as prescribed are both inappropriate. The nurse must not alter a prescribed solution independently.

A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) requires fat emulsion (lipids), which will be piggybacked to the PN solution. On obtaining a bottle of fat emulsion, the nurse notes that fat globules are floating at the top of the solution. Which of these actions should the nurse take? A Shaking the bottle vigorously B Requesting a new bottle from the pharmacy C Rotating the bottle gently back and forth to mix the globules D Running the bottle under warm water until the globules disappear

B Requesting a new bottle from the pharmacy

B Requesting a new bottle from the pharmacy Rationale: The nurse should not hang a fat emulsion that contains visible fat globules. Another bottle of solution should be obtained and used in its place. When PN is combined with fat emulsion, the solution should not be used if there is a visible "ring" noted in the container of solution. The actions in the other options are incorrect.

A client who is taking bupropion (Wellbutrin) in an attempt to stop smoking tells a nurse that he has been doubling the daily dose to make it easier to resist smoking. The nurse warns the client that doubling the daily dosage is dangerous. Of which adverse effect of the medication does the nurse warn the client? A Insomnia B Seizures C Weight gain D Orthostatic hypotension

B Seizures

B Seizures Rationale: Bupropion is an antidepressant. Seizure activity is common with dosages greater than 450 mg/day. It does not cause significant orthostatic blood pressure changes. Bupropion frequently causes a drop in body weight. Insomnia is a side effect, but seizure activity is more dangerous to the client.

A nurse is to administer a dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with atrial fibrillation. The client has a potassium level of 4.6 mEq/L. The nurse determines that the dose: A Should be withheld that day B Should be administered as prescribed C Should be withheld and the physician notified D Should be preceded with a dose of potassium

B Should be administered as prescribed

B Should be administered as prescribed Rationale: Hypokalemia can make the client more susceptible to digoxin toxicity, so the nurse monitors the client's potassium level. The normal reference range of potassium for an adult is 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L. If the potassium level is low, the dose is withheld and the physician is notified. In this situation, the dose should be administered as prescribed, because the potassium level is within the normal range.

B Sudden drop in fetal heart rate Rationale: Magnesium toxicity may result from magnesium sulfate therapy. Signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, related to the central nervous system-depressant effects of the medication, include respiratory depression, loss of deep tendon reflexes, sudden drop in fetal or maternal heart rate, and decreased blood pressure. The therapeutic serum range for magnesium is 4 to 7 mEq/L. Proteinuria of 3+ is likely to be noted in a client with preeclampsia.

A client who has undergone adrenalectomy is prescribed prednisone. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication? A Dry mouth B Tarry stools C Hypotension D Hypoglycemia

B Tarry stools

B Tarry stools Rationale: Glucocorticoids increase gastric secretion, which may result in the development of peptic ulcers and gastrointestinal bleeding. Corticosteroids increase blood glucose. Dry mouth and hypotension are not side effects of corticosteroid therapy.

B Tarry stools D Bleeding from the gums Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant, and the client who receives continuous IV heparin is at risk for bleeding. The nurse must be alert for signs of bleeding: bleeding from the gums, ecchymoses on the skin, cloudy or pink-tinged urine, tarry stools, and body fluids that test positive for occult blood.

A nurse is providing instructions to a client regarding quinapril hydrochloride (Accupril). The nurse teaches the client: A To take the medication with meals B To rise slowly from a lying to a sitting position C To discontinue the medication if nausea occurs D That a therapeutic effect will be felt immediately

B To rise slowly from a lying to a sitting position

B To rise slowly from a lying to a sitting position Rationale: Quinapril hydrochloride is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor used in the treatment of hypertension. The client should be instructed to rise slowly from a lying to a sitting position and to permit the legs to dangle from the bed momentarily before standing to reduce the hypotensive effect. The medication does not need to be taken with meals. It may be given without regard to food. If nausea occurs, the client should be instructed to drink a noncola carbonated beverage and eat some salted crackers or dry toast. The full therapeutic effect may take place in 1 to 2 weeks.

Intravenous tobramycin sulfate (Tobrex) is prescribed for a client with a respiratory tract infection. For which of the following symptoms, indicative of an adverse effect, does the nurse monitor the client? A Nausea B Vertigo C Vomiting D Hypotension

B Vertigo

B Vertigo Rationale: Ringing in the ears and vertigo are two symptoms that may indicate dysfunction of the eighth cranial nerve. Ototoxicity, a common adverse effect of therapy with the aminoglycosides, may result in permanent hearing loss. If signs of ototoxicity occur, the nurse should hold the next dose of the medication and notify the physician. Nausea, vomiting, and hypotension are rare side effects of the medication.

A nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank and properly checked the blood bag with another nurse. Which of the following parameters does the nurse assess just before hanging the transfusion? A Skin color B Vital signs C Latest platelet count D Urine output over the last 24 hours

B Vital signs

B Vital signs Rationale: A change in vital signs may indicate that a transfusion reaction is occurring. This is why the nurse assesses vital signs before the procedure, every 15 minutes for the first half-hour, and every half-hour thereafter. The other options do not need to be assessed just before the start of a transfusion. The nurse should be aware of fluid volume status, as well as weight. to help identify fluid volume overload, but this is not the priority before start of a blood infusion.

A client is brought to the emergency department having experienced blood loss related to an arterial laceration. Fresh-frozen plasma is prescribed and transfused to replace fluid and blood loss. The nurse understands that the rationale for transfusing fresh-frozen plasma in this client is: A. to treat the loss of platelets B. to promote rapid volume expansion C. That the transfusion must be done slowly D. That it will increase the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

B. to promote rapid volume expansion Fresh-frozen plasma is often used for volume expansion as a result of fluid and blood loss. It does not contain platelets, so it is not used to treat any type of low platelet count disorder. It is rich in clotting factors and can be thawed quickly and transfused quickly. It will not specifically increase the hemoglobin and hematocrit level.

The nurse has discontinued a unit of blood that was infusing into a client because the client experienced a transfusion reaction. After documenting the incident appropriately, the nurse sends the blood bag and tubing to which department? 1. Blood bank 2. Infection control 3. Risk management 4. Environmental services

Blood bank The nurse returns the blood transfusion bag containing any remaining blood to the blood bank. This allows the blood bank to complete any follow-up testing procedures needed once a transfusion reaction has been documented. The other options identify incorrect departments.

A client with angina pectoris is experiencing chest pain that radiates down the left arm. The nurse administers a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet to the client. The client's pain is unrelieved, and the nurse determines that the client needs another nitroglycerin tablet. Which vital sign is the most important for the nurse to check before administering the medication? 1. Temperature 2. Respirations 3. Blood pressure 4. Radial pulse rate

Blood pressure Nitroglycerin acts directly on the smooth muscle of the blood vessels, causing relaxation and dilation. As a result, hypotension can occur. The nurse would check the client's blood pressure before administering the second nitroglycerin tablet. Although the respirations and apical pulse may be checked, these vital signs are not affected by this medication. The temperature also is not associated with administration of this medication.

Blood return shows in the backflash chamber of the catheter. The IV catheter has entered the lumen of the vein successfully when blood backflash shows in the IV catheter. The vein should have been distended by the tourniquet before the vein was cannulated, and if further distention occurs after venipuncture, this could mean the needle went through the vein and into the tissue; therefore, the catheter should not be advanced. Client discomfort varies with the client, the site, and the nurse's insertion technique and is not a reliable measure of catheter placement. The nurse should not advance the catheter until placement in the vein is verified by blood return.

A client with severe blood loss resulting from multiple trauma requires rapid transfusion of several units of blood. The nurse asks another health team member to obtain which device for use during the transfusion procedure to help reduce the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias? 1. Infusion pump 2. Pulse oximeter 3. Cardiac monitor 4. Blood-warming device

Blood-warming device If several units of blood are to be administered rapidly, a blood warmer should be used. Rapid transfusion of cool blood places the client at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias. To prevent this, the nurse warms the blood with a blood-warming device. Pulse oximetry and cardiac monitoring equipment are useful for the early assessment of complications but do not reduce the occurrence of cardiac dysrhythmias. Electronic infusion devices are not helpful in this case because the infusion must be rapid, and infusion devices generally are used to control the flow rate. In addition, not all infusion devices are made to handle blood or blood products.

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of neurogenic shock after a traumatic motor vehicle collision. Which manifestation best characterizes this diagnosis? 1. Bradycardia 2. Hyperthermia 3. Hypoglycemia 4. Increased cardiac output

Bradycardia Neurogenic shock can occur after a spinal cord injury. Usually the body attempts to compensate massive vasodilation by becoming tachycardic to increase the amount of blood flow and oxygen delivered to the tissues; however, in neurogenic shock, the sympathetic nervous system is disrupted, so the parasympathetic system takes over, resulting in bradycardia. This insufficient pumping of the heart leads to a decrease in cardiac output. Hypoglycemia is not an indicator of neurogenic shock. Hypothermia develops because of the vasodilation and the inability to control body temperature through vasoconstriction.

Vasopressin is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of bleeding esophageal varices. The nurse should prepare to administer this medication by which route? 1. Orally 2. By inhalation 3. By intravenous infusion 4. Through a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube

By intravenous infusion If bleeding occurs, the health team intervenes quickly to control it by combining vasoactive medications with endoscopic therapies. Vasoactive medications reduce portal pressure. Vasopressin is a synthetic antidiuretic hormone. Administration of this hormone reduces bleeding. It acts directly on gastrointestinal smooth muscle as a vasoconstrictor. To take advantage of these effects, it should be administered via continuous intravenous infusion. It can also be administered via the subcutaneous route. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

Disulfiram (Antabuse) is prescribed for a client. Which questions does the nurse make a priority of asking the client before administering this medication? Select all that apply. A "When did you have your last full meal?" B "Do you have a history of diabetes insipidus?" C "When was your last drink of alcohol?" D "Do you have a history of thyroid problems?" E "Do you have a history of cancer in your family?"

C "When was your last drink of alcohol?" D "Do you have a history of thyroid problems?"

C "When was your last drink of alcohol?" D "Do you have a history of thyroid problems?" Rationale: Disulfiram (Antabuse) is used as an adjunct treatment for selected clients with alcoholism who want to remain in a state of enforced sobriety. Clients must abstain from alcohol intake for at least 12 hours before the initial dose of the medication is administered. The most important question is when the client had his last drink of alcohol. The medication is used with caution in clients with diabetes mellitus, hypothyroidism, epilepsy, cerebral damage, nephritis, and hepatic disease. It is also contraindicated in cases of severe heart disease, psychosis, or hypersensitivity to the medication.

A nurse is caring for a group of adult clients on an acute care nursing unit. Which of the following clients does the nurse recognize as the least likely candidate for parenteral nutrition (PN)? A 61-year-old client with pancreatitis B 52-year-old client with severe sepsis C 45-year-old client who has undergone repair of a hiatal hernia D 24-year-old client with a severe exacerbation of ulcerative colitis

C 45-year-old client who has undergone repair of a hiatal hernia

C 45-year-old client who has undergone repair of a hiatal hernia Rationale: PN is indicated in the client whose gastrointestinal tract is not functional or who cannot tolerate an enteral diet for extended periods. The client with sepsis is very ill and may require PN. Other candidates include clients who have undergone extensive surgery, sustained multiple fractures, or have advanced cancer or AIDS. The client who has undergone hiatal hernia repair is not a candidate, because this client would resume a normal diet within a relatively short period after the hernia repair.

A client who needs to receive a blood transfusion has experienced a pruritic rash during previous transfusions. The client asks the nurse whether it is safe to receive the transfusion. Which of the following medications does the nurse remember will likely be prescribed before the transfusion? A Ibuprofen (Motrin) B Acetaminophen (Tylenol) C Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) D Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA, aspirin)

C Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

C Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) Rationale: An urticarial reaction is characterized by a rash accompanied by pruritus. This type of transfusion reaction is prevented by pretreating the client with an antihistamine, such as diphenhydramine. Acetaminophen and acetylsalicylic acid are analgesics; ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medication.

The first bag of parenteral nutrition (PN) solution has arrived on the clinical unit for a client beginning this nutritional therapy. The solution is to be infused by way of a central line. Which of the following essential pieces of equipment does the nurse obtain before hanging the solution? A Pulse oximeter B Blood glucose meter C Electronic infusion device D Noninvasive blood pressure monitor

C Electronic infusion device

C Electronic infusion device Rationale: The nurse obtains an electronic infusion device before hanging a PN solution. Because of the high glucose load, it is necessary to use an infusion device to ensure that the solution does not infuse too rapidly or fall too far behind. Because the client's blood glucose is checked every 6 to 8 hours during administration of PN, a blood glucose meter will also be needed, but it is not essential before the solution is hung. A noninvasive blood pressure cuff is unnecessary for this procedure. Although oxygen saturation is important, in this situation, it is not the most important equipment to use at this time.

A nurse answers a call bell and finds that the parenteral nutrition (PN) solution bag of an assigned client is empty. The new prescription was written for a new bag at the beginning of the shift, but it has not yet arrived from the pharmacy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A Calling the healthcare provider B Calling the pharmacy for further instructions C Hanging a solution of 10% dextrose in water D Hanging a solution of 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride

C Hanging a solution of 10% dextrose in water

C Hanging a solution of 10% dextrose in water Rationale: The solution containing the highest amount of dextrose should be hung until the new bag of PN becomes available. Because PN solutions contain high glucose concentrations, the 10% dextrose solution is the best solution to infuse because it will minimize the risk of hypoglycemia. The pharmacy and physician should also be called, but care of the client is the immediate priority of the nurse.

A nurse has taught a client who is taking lithium carbonate (Lithobid) about the medication. The nurse determines that the client needs additional teaching if the client states that: A The medication should be taken with meals B The lithium blood levels must be monitored very closely C It is important to decrease fluid intake while taking the medication to avoid nausea D The physician must be called if excessive diarrhea, vomiting, or diaphoresis occurs

C It is important to decrease fluid intake while taking the medication to avoid nausea

C It is important to decrease fluid intake while taking the medication to avoid nausea Rationale: Because the therapeutic and toxic dosage ranges are so close, the blood level of lithium in a client taking the medication must be monitored closely; assessments are performed frequently at first and every several months after that. The client should be instructed to stop taking the medication if excessive diarrhea, vomiting, or diaphoresis occurs and to inform the physician if any of these problems develops. Lithium is irritating to the gastric mucosa; therefore lithium should be taken with meals. A normal diet and normal salt and fluid intake (1500 to 3000 mL/day of fluid) should be maintained, because lithium decreases sodium reabsorption in the renal tubules, which may result in sodium depletion. Low sodium intake causes an increase in lithium retention and could lead to toxicity.

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving parenteral nutrition (PN). Which of the following signs and symptoms causes the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing hyperglycemia as a complication? A Pallor, weak pulse, and anuria B Nausea, vomiting, and oliguria C Nausea, thirst, and increased urine output D Sweating, chills, and decreased urine output

C Nausea, thirst, and increased urine output

C Nausea, thirst, and increased urine output Rationale: The high glucose concentration in PN puts the client at risk for hyperglycemia. Signs of hyperglycemia include polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia, blurred vision, nausea and vomiting, and abdominal pain. The nurse checks the blood glucose level immediately if these symptoms develop. The signs and symptoms identified in the other options are unrelated to hyperglycemia.

A client has just undergone insertion of a central venous catheter by the healthcare provider at the bedside. Which of the following results would the nurse be sure to check before initiating infusion of the IV solution that the healthcare provider has prescribed? A Serum osmolality B Serum electrolytes C Portable chest x-ray D Intake and output record

C Portable chest x-ray

C Portable chest x-ray Rationale: Before beginning the administration of any volume of IV solution through a central venous catheter, the nurse should determine whether the results of the chest x-ray reveal that the catheter is in the proper place. This is necessary to prevent inadvertent infusion of IV fluid into pulmonary or subcutaneous tissues. The other options are items that are useful for the nurse in the general care of the client, but they are not related to this procedure.

A nurse hangs a 500-mL bag of intravenous (IV) fluid for an assigned client. One hour later the client complains of chest tightness, is dyspneic and apprehensive, and has an irregular pulse. The IV bag has 100 mL remaining. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A Removing the IV B Sitting the client up in bed C Shutting off the IV infusion D Slowing the rate of infusion

C Shutting off the IV

C Shutting off the IV Rationale: The client's symptoms are indicative of speed shock, which results from the rapid infusion of drugs or a bolus infusion. In this case, the nurse would note that 400 mL has infused over 60 minutes. The first action on the part of the nurse is shutting off the IV infusion. Other actions may follow in rapid sequence: The nurse may elevate the head of the bed to aid the client's breathing and then immediately notify the healthcare provider. Slowing the infusion rate is inappropriate because the client will continue to receive fluid. The IV does not need to be removed. It may be needed to manage the complication.

A client has been taking metoprolol (Lopressor, Toprol-XL). Which of the following findings indicates to the clinic nurse that the medication is effective? A The client's ankles are swollen. B The client's weight has increased. C The client's blood pressure has decreased. D The client has wheezes in the lower lobes of the lungs.

C The client's blood pressure has decreased.

C The client's blood pressure has decreased. Rationale: Metoprolol (Lopressor, Toprol-XL) is a cardioselective beta-blocking agent used after myocardial infarction, as well as for hypertension and angina. Side effects include bradycardia and such symptoms of congestive heart failure as weight gain and increased edema.

A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a pregnant client who will be given oxytocin (Pitocin) to induce labor. Which of the following occurrences does the nurse include in the plan of care as a reason for immediate discontinuation of the oxytocin infusion? A Uterine atony B Severe drowsiness C Uterine hyperstimulation D Early decelerations of the fetal heart rate

C Uterine hyperstimulation

C Uterine hyperstimulation Rationale: Oxytocin, a synthetic hormone that stimulates uterine contractions, is a commonly used pharmacological means of inducing labor. One major concern associated with oxytocin is hyperstimulation of uterine contractions. Hyperstimulation of the uterus, which may result in diminished placental perfusion, may cause fetal distress. Therefore an oxytocin infusion must be stopped if there are any signs of uterine hyperstimulation. Early decelerations of the fetal heart rate are a reassuring sign and do not indicate fetal distress. Uterine atony and severe drowsiness are not indications of the need to discontinue the infusion.

A client in cardiogenic shock has a pulmonary artery catheter (Swan-Ganz type) placed. The nurse would interpret which cardiac output (CO) and pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) readings as indicating that the client is most unstable? 1. CO 5 L/min, PCWP low 2. CO 3 L/min, PCWP low 3. CO 4 L/min, PCWP high 4. CO 3 L/min, PCWP high

CO 3 L/min, PCWP high The normal cardiac output is 4 to 7 L/min. With cardiogenic shock, the CO falls below normal because of failure of the heart as a pump. The PCWP, however, rises because it is a reflection of the left ventricular end-diastolic pressure, which rises with pump failure.

The home health nurse is visiting an older client whose family has gone out for the day. During the visit, the client experiences chest pain that is unrelieved by sublingual nitroglycerin tablets given by the nurse. Which action by the nurse would be appropriate at this time? 1. Notify a family member who is the next of kin. 2. Drive the client to the health care provider's (HCP's) office. 3. Inform the home care agency supervisor that the visit may be prolonged. 4. Call for an ambulance to transport the client to the hospital emergency department.

Call for an ambulance to transport the client to the hospital emergency department. Chest pain that is unrelieved by rest and nitroglycerin might not be typical anginal pain but may signal myocardial infarction (MI). Because the risk of sudden cardiac death is greatest in the first 24 hours after MI, it is imperative that the client receive emergency cardiac care. Communication with the family or home care agency delays client treatment, which is needed immediately. The HCP's office is not equipped to treat MI.

The nurse receives a telephone call from a neighbor, who states that her 3-year-old child was found sitting on the kitchen floor with an empty bottle of liquid furniture polish. The mother of the child tells the nurse that the bottle was half full, that the child's breath smells like the polish, and that spilled polish is present on the front of the child's shirt. What should the nurse tell the mother to do first? 1. Call the pediatrician. 2. Induce vomiting immediately. 3. Call the Poison Control Center. 4. Bring the child to the emergency department.

Call the Poison Control Center. If a poisoning occurs, the Poison Control Center should be contacted immediately. Calling the pediatrician would not be the immediate action because this would delay treatment. In addition, the pediatrician would immediately make a referral to the Poison Control Center. Vomiting should not be induced if the victim is unconscious or the substance ingested was a strong corrosive or a petroleum-based product. The Poison Control Center may advise the mother to bring the child to the emergency department, and if this is the case, the mother should call an ambulance.

During the early postoperative period, a client who has undergone a cataract extraction complains of nausea and severe eye pain over the operative site. What should be the initial nursing action? 1. Call the health care provider (HCP). 2. Reassure the client that this is normal. 3. Turn the client onto his or her operative side. 4. Administer the prescribed pain medication and antiemetic.

Call the health care provider (HCP). Severe pain or pain accompanied by nausea following a cataract extraction is an indicator of increased intraocular pressure and should be reported to the HCP immediately. Options 2, 3, and 4 are inappropriate actions.

A client in cardiogenic shock had an intra-aortic balloon pump inserted 24 hours earlier via the left femoral approach. The nurse notes that the client's left foot is cool and mottled and the left pedal pulse is weak. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Call the health care provider immediately. 2. Document these findings, which are expected. 3. Re-evaluate the neurovascular status in 1 hour. 4. Increase the rate of the intravenous nitroglycerin infusion.

Call the health care provider immediately. The nursing interventions for the client with an intra-aortic balloon pump are the same as for any client who has had cardiovascular surgery. The peripheral circulation to the affected limb is monitored for signs of occlusion, such as coolness, mottling, pain, tingling, and decreased or absent distal pulse. Adverse changes are reported immediately. The remaining options are incorrect

The nurse is providing morning care to a client who has a closed chest tube drainage system to treat a pneumothorax. When the nurse turns the client to the side, the chest tube is accidentally dislodged from the chest. The nurse immediately applies sterile gauze over the chest tube insertion site. Which is the nurse's next action? 1. Call the health care provider. 2. Replace the chest tube system. 3. Obtain a pulse oximetry reading. 4. Place the client in a Trendelenburg's position.

Call the health care provider. If the chest drainage system is dislodged from the insertion site, the nurse immediately applies sterile gauze over the site and calls the health care provider. The nurse would maintain the client in an upright position. A new chest tube system may be attached if the tube requires insertion, but this would not be the next action. Pulse oximetry readings would assist in determining the client's respiratory status, but the priority action would be to call the health care provider in this emergency situation.

A client returning to the nursing unit after a cardiac catheterization procedure has a stat prescription to receive a dose of intravenous procainamide. Which piece of equipment would be most appropriate for the nurse to use in determining the client's response to this medication? 1. Glucometer 2. Pulse oximeter 3. Cardiac monitor 4. Noninvasive blood pressure cuff

Cardiac monitor Procainamide is an antiarrhythmic medication often used to treat ventricular arrhythmias that do not respond adequately to lidocaine. The effectiveness of this medication is best determined by evaluating the client's cardiac rhythm. Therefore, a cardiac monitor would be the most appropriate device for determining the client's response, although the blood pressure cuff and the pulse oximeter would provide general information about the client's cardiovascular status. A glucometer is not needed for this client with the information presented.

A client is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain that is consistent with myocardial infarction based on elevated troponin levels. Heart sounds are normal and vital signs are noted on the client's chart. The nurse should alert the health care provider because these changes are most consistent with which complication? Refer to chart below. Time Pulse Respiratory Blood pressure 11:00 a.m. 92 beats/min 24 breaths/min 140/88 mm Hg 11:15 a.m. 96 beats/min 26 breaths/min 128/82 mm Hg 11:30 a.m. 104 beats/min 28 breaths/min 104/68 mm Hg 11:45 a.m. 118 beats/min 32 breaths/min 88/58 mm Hg 1. Cardiogenic shock 2. Cardiac tamponade 3. Pulmonary embolism 4. Dissecting thoracic aortic aneurysm

Cardiogenic shock Cardiogenic shock occurs with severe damage (more than 40%) to the left ventricle. Classic signs include hypotension; a rapid pulse that becomes weaker; decreased urine output; and cool, clammy skin. Respiratory rate increases as the body develops metabolic acidosis from shock. Cardiac tamponade is accompanied by distant, muffled heart sounds and prominent neck vessels. Pulmonary embolism presents suddenly with severe dyspnea accompanying the chest pain. Dissecting aortic aneurysms usually are accompanied by back pain.

The nurse has completed 5 cycles of compressions after beginning cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on a hospitalized adult client who experienced unmonitored cardiac arrest. What should the nurse plan to do next? 1. Prepare epinephrine. 2. Charge the defibrillator. 3. Check the client's heart rhythm. 4. Pause CPR for 20 seconds and reassess.

Charge the defibrillator. For witnessed adult cardiac arrest when a defibrillator is immediately available, it is reasonable that the defibrillator be used as soon as possible. For adults with unmonitored cardiac arrest or for whom a defibrillator is not immediately available, it is reasonable that CPR be initiated while the defibrillator equipment is being retrieved and applied and that defibrillation, if indicated, be attempted as soon as the device is ready for use. After completing 5 cycles of compressions and ventilations, the nurse should reassess the client by checking the heart rhythm. Defibrillation may be warranted depending on the assessed rhythm. Epinephrine may be prepared depending on the rhythm, but this would be prescribed by a health care provider (HCP). Chest compressions should not be interrupted for more than 10 seconds.

The nurse has a prescription to hang a 1000-mL intravenous (IV) bag of 5% dextrose in water with 20 mEq of potassium chloride. The nurse also needs to hang an IV infusion of piperacillin/tazobactam. The client has one IV site. The nurse should plan to take which action first? 1. Start a second IV site. 2. Check compatibility of the medication and IV fluids. 3. Mix the prepackaged piperacillin/tazobactam per agency policy. 4. Prime the tubing with the IV solution, and back-prime the medication.

Check compatibility of the medication and IV fluids. When hanging an IV antibiotic, the nurse should first check compatibility of the medication and the IV fluids currently prescribed. If the fluids and medication are incompatible, it would then be appropriate to start a second IV site. If they are compatible, the nurse should hang them together so as to avoid having to start another IV site. After this, the nurse should prepare the prepackaged piperacillin/tazobactam per agency policy, then prime the tubing with the IV solution, and then back-prime the medication. Back-priming prevents any medication from being lost during the priming process.

The nurse is documenting information in a client's chart when the electrocardiogram telemetry alarm sounds, and the nurse notes that the client is in ventricular tachycardia (VT). The nurse rushes to the client's bedside and should perform which assessment first? 1. Heart rate 2. Blood pressure 3. Respiratory rate 4. Check responsiveness

Check responsiveness VT is associated with a significant decrease in cardiac output. Assessing for unresponsiveness determines whether the client is affected by the decreased cardiac output. Therefore, the first action is to determine responsiveness of the client. Then the nurse should check the client's pulse to determine the next treatment strategy.

The nurse has a prescription to administer phenytoin by intravenous (IV) push through an IV line infusing 1000 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride. Arrange the actions in the order that they should be performed. All options must be used.

Check the compatibility of phenytoin with the IV solution. Draw up the medication in a 3-mL syringe. Check the client's identification (ID) bracelet. Pinch off the IV tubing above the injection port. Inject the medication. Document that the medication was administered.

The nurse has just received a prescription to transfuse a unit of packed red blood cells for an assigned client. What action should the nurse take next? 1. Check a set of vital signs. 2. Order the blood from the blood bank. 3. Obtain Y-site blood administration tubing. 4. Check to be sure that consent for the transfusion has been signed.

Check to be sure that consent for the transfusion has been signed. After receiving a prescription for a blood transfusion, the first action the nurse should take should be to check to be sure that consent for the transfusion has been signed by the client. If the client has consented, the nurse should then check a set of vital signs to be sure there is no contraindication for a transfusion at that time, such as an elevation in temperature. If the vital signs are acceptable, the nurse can then gather supplies to administer the transfusion and order the blood from the blood bank.

A client has just undergone insertion of a central venous catheter at the bedside under ultrasound. The nurse would be sure to check which results before initiating the flow rate of the client's intravenous (IV) solution at 100 mL/hour? 1. Serum osmolality 2. Serum electrolyte levels 3. Intake and output record 4. Chest radiology results

Chest radiology results Before beginning administration of IV solution, the nurse should assess whether the chest radiology results reveal that the central catheter is in the proper place. This is necessary to prevent infusion of IV fluid into pulmonary or subcutaneous tissues. The other options represent items that are useful for the nurse to be aware of in the general care of this client, but they do not relate to this procedure.

A client with the recent diagnosis of myocardial infarction and impaired renal function is recuperating on the cardiac step-down unit. The client's blood pressure has been borderline low, and intravenous (IV) fluids have been infusing at 100 mL/hour via a central line catheter in the right internal jugular vein for approximately 24 hours to increase renal output and maintain the blood pressure. Upon entering the client's room, the nurse notes that the client is breathing rapidly and is coughing. The nurse determines that the client is most likely experiencing which complication of IV therapy? 1. Hematoma 2. Air embolism 3. Systemic infection 4. Circulatory overload

Circulatory overload Circulatory (fluid) overload is a complication of IV therapy. Signs include rapid breathing, dyspnea, a moist cough, and crackles. When circulatory overload is present, the client's blood pressure also increases. Hematoma is characterized by ecchymosis, swelling, and leakage at the IV insertion site, as well as hard and painful lumps at the site. Air embolism is characterized by tachycardia, dyspnea, hypotension, cyanosis, and decreased level of consciousness. Systemic infection is characterized by chills, fever, malaise, headache, nausea, vomiting, backache, and tachycardia.

The nurse is administering lidocaine hydrochloride by the intravenous route. Which finding(s) should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately? 1. Urine output of 275 mL over the past 8 hours 2 Client complaints of blurred vision and nausea 3. Heart rate of 70 beats/min, blood pressure of 130/72 mm Hg 4. Client complaints of a headache and a temperature of 100°F (37.8°C) orally

Client complaints of blurred vision and nausea Blurred vision and nausea are common indicators of lidocaine toxicity. Urine output is greater than the minimum amount of 30 mL/hr, and therefore is adequate. The heart rate of 70 beats/min and the blood pressure of 130/72 mm Hg are normal. A headache and elevated temperature are important to note but are not related to the lidocaine.

The nurse is changing the central line dressing of a client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) and notes that the catheter insertion site appears reddened. The nurse should next assess which item? 1. Client's temperature 2. Expiration date on the bag 3. Time of last dressing change 4. Tightness of tubing connections

Client's temperature Redness at the catheter insertion site is a possible indication of infection. The nurse would next assess for other signs of infection. Of the options given, the temperature is the next item to assess. The tightness of tubing connections should be assessed each time the PN is checked; loose connections would result in leakage, not skin redness. The expiration date on the bag is a viable option, but this also should be checked at the time the solution is hung and with each shift change. The time of the last dressing change should be checked with each shift change.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion and is complaining of a cough. The nurse checks the client's vital signs, which include temperature of 97.2°F (36.2°C), pulse of 108 beats per minute, blood pressure of 152/76 mm Hg, respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and an oxygen saturation level of 95% on room air. The client denies pain at this time. Based on this information, what initial action should the nurse take? 1. Collect a urine sample for analysis. 2. Place the client in an upright position. 3. Compare current data to baseline data. 4. Slow the rate of the blood transfusion

Compare current data to baseline data. For the client receiving a blood transfusion, the nurse should monitor for potential complications of a transfusion. One of the complications is circulatory overload. Signs and symptoms of circulatory overload include cough, dyspnea, chest pain, wheezing on auscultation of the lungs, headache, hypertension, tachycardia and a bounding pulse, and distended neck veins. Based on the data in the question, the nurse should compare current data to baseline data. The nurse should also further assess the client for other signs and symptoms of circulatory overload. If the nurse still suspects this complication after comparing to baseline data, the nurse should then place the client in an upright position with the feet in a dependent position and slow the rate of the infusion. Collection of a urine sample should occur if the nurse suspects a transfusion reaction, such as a hemolytic reaction.

The nurse is assisting to defibrillate a client in ventricular fibrillation. After placing the pad on the client's chest and before discharge, which intervention is a priority? 1. Ensure that the client has been intubated. 2. Set the defibrillator to the "synchronize" mode. 3. Administer an amiodarone bolus intravenously. 4. Confirm that the rhythm is actually ventricular fibrillation.

Confirm that the rhythm is actually ventricular fibrillation. Until the defibrillator is attached and charged, the client is resuscitated by using cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Once the defibrillator has been attached, the electrocardiogram is checked to verify that the rhythm is ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Leads also are checked for any loose connections. A nitroglycerin patch, if present, is removed. The client does not have to be intubated to be defibrillated. The machine is not set to the synchronous mode because there is no underlying rhythm with which to synchronize. Amiodarone may be given subsequently but is not required before defibrillation.

The nurse in a neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) receives a telephone call to prepare for the admission of a 43-week gestation newborn with Apgar scores of 1 and 4. In planning for admission of this newborn, what is the nurse's highest priority? 1. Turn on the apnea and cardiorespiratory monitors. 2. Connect the resuscitation bag to the oxygen outlet. 3. Set up the intravenous line with 5% dextrose in water. 4. Set the radiant warmer control temperature at 36.5°C (97.6°F).

Connect the resuscitation bag to the oxygen outlet. The highest priority on admission to the nursery for a newborn with a low Apgar score is the airway, which would involve preparing respiratory resuscitation equipment and oxygen. The remaining options are also important, although they are of lower priority. The newborn would be placed on an apnea and cardiorespiratory monitor. Setting up an intravenous line with 5% dextrose in water would provide circulatory support. The radiant warmer would provide an external heat source, which is necessary to prevent further respiratory distress.

A client whose cardiac rhythm was normal sinus rhythm suddenly exhibits a different rhythm on the monitor. The nurse should take which action? Refer to Figure. 1. Continue to watch the monitor. 2. Contact the health care provider (HCP). 3. Check to see if cardiac medications are due. 4. Call respiratory therapy for a respiratory treatment.

Contact the health care provider (HCP). Atrial fibrillation is characterized by multiple rapid impulses from many atrial foci in a totally disorganized manner at a rate of 350 to 600 times per minute. The atria quiver in fibrillation. As a result, thrombi can form within the right atrium and move through the right ventricle to the lungs. This can be a life-threatening situation requiring pharmacological therapy. Therefore, the HCP needs to be contacted. Continuing to monitor and checking to see if cardiac medications are due delay necessary and required interventions. A respiratory treatment is not useful for this situation.

The community health nurse is providing a teaching session to firefighters in a small community regarding care of a burn victim at the scene of injury. The nurse instructs the firefighters that in the event of a tar burn, which is the immediate action? 1. Cooling the injury with water 2. Removing all clothing immediately 3. Removing the tar from the burn injury 4. Leaving any clothing that is saturated with tar in place

Cooling the injury with water Scald burns and tar or asphalt burns are treated by immediate cooling with saline solution or water, if available, or immediate removal of the saturated clothing. Clothing that is burned into the skin is not removed because increased tissue damage and bleeding may result. No attempt is made to remove tar from the skin at the scene.

A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Which finding would the nurse anticipate when auscultating the client's breath sounds? 1. Stridor 2. Crackles 3. Scattered rhonchi 4. Diminished breath sounds

Crackles Pulmonary edema is characterized by extreme breathlessness, dyspnea, air hunger, and the production of frothy, pink-tinged sputum. Auscultation of the lungs reveals crackles. Rhonchi and diminished breath sounds are not associated with pulmonary edema. Stridor is a crowing sound associated with laryngospasm or edema of the upper airway.

A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) in the home setting has a weight gain of 5 lb in 1 week. The nurse should next assess the client for the presence of which condition? 1. Thirst 2. Polyuria 3. Decreased blood pressure 4. Crackles on auscultation of the lungs

Crackles on auscultation of the lungs Optimal weight gain when the client is receiving PN is 1 to 2 lb/week. The client who has a weight gain of 5 lb/week while receiving PN is likely to have fluid retention. This can result in hypervolemia. Signs of hypervolemia include increased blood pressure, crackles on lung auscultation, a bounding pulse, jugular vein distention, headache, peripheral edema, and weight gain more than desired. Thirst and polyuria are associated with hyperglycemia. A decreased blood pressure is likely to be noted in deficient fluid volume.

The nurse overhears a health care provider (HCP) stating that a client diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) requires a transfusion. Which blood product should the nurse anticipate that the HCP will write a prescription for? 1. Albumin 2. Platelets 3. Cryoprecipitate 4. Packed red blood cells

Cryoprecipitate Cryoprecipitate is useful in treating bleeding from hemophilia or DIC because it is rich in clotting factors. Albumin may be used as a plasma expander in hypovolemia with or without shock. Platelets are used when the client's platelet count is low. Packed red blood cells replace erythrocytes, not fibrinogen.

D "Do you have any ringing in the ears?" Rationale: Mild intoxication with acetylsalicylic acid, called salicylism, is common when the daily dose is more than 4 g. Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) is the effect most frequently noted with intoxication. Hyperventilation may also occur, because salicylate stimulates the respiratory center. The client may have a fever, because salicylate interferes with oxygen consumption and heat production.

D A client whose PN solution was decreased to a rate of 25 mL/hr who is now complaining of weakness, headache, and sweating Rationale: The nurse should assess the client complaining of weakness, headache, and sweating first, because these are signs of hypoglycemia, which could be caused by the decrease in the PN rate. The client who has been receiving PN at a rate of 50 mL/hr for the last 24 hours should be assessed but does not need to be seen first. The client who complains of frequent trips to the bathroom should be assessed for hyperglycemia, one of the side effects of PN, but should not take precedence over the client showing signs of hypoglycemia. A client with an increased temperature should be monitored closely but does not take precedence over the client exhibiting signs of hypoglycemia.

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client receiving intravenous chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory findings prompts the nurse to initiate neutropenic precautions? A A clotting time of 10 minutes B An ammonia level of 20 mcg/dL C A platelet count of 100,000 cells/mm3 D A white blood cell (WBC) count of 2000 cells/mm3

D A white blood cell (WBC) count of 2000 cells/mm3

D A white blood cell (WBC) count of 2000 cells/mm3 Rationale: The normal WBC count is 4500 to 11,000 cells/mm3. When the WBC count drops, neutropenic precautions — including protective isolation to protect the client from infection — must be implemented. Bleeding precautions must be initiated when the platelet count drops. With bleeding precautions, traumatic procedures such as injections and rectal temperatures are avoided. The normal platelet count is 150,000 to 450,000 cells/mm3. The normal clotting time is 8 to 15 minutes. The normal ammonia value is 10 to 80 mcg/dL.

A nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client taking spironolactone (Aldactone). Which of the following foods does the nurse instruct the client to avoid? Select all that apply. A Rice B Cereal C Carrots D Bananas E Citrus fruits

D Bananas E Citrus fruits

D Bananas E Citrus fruits Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Hyperkalemia is the principal adverse effect. Clients are instructed to restrict their intake of potassium-rich foods, such as citrus fruits and bananas. Rice, cereal, and carrots are appropriate foods for the daily diet.

A client with heart failure is being given furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin). The client calls the nurse and complains of anorexia and nausea. Which action should the nurse take first? A Administering an antiemetic B Administering the daily dose of digoxin C Discontinuing the morning dose of furosemide D Checking the result of laboratory testing for potassium on the sample drawn 3 hours ago

D Checking the result of laboratory testing for potassium on the sample drawn 3 hours ago

D Checking the result of laboratory testing for potassium on the sample drawn 3 hours ago Rationale: Anorexia and nausea are symptoms commonly associated with digoxin toxicity, which is compounded by hypokalemia. Early clinical manifestations of digoxin toxicity include anorexia and mild nausea, but they are frequently overlooked or not associated with digoxin toxicity. Hallucinations and any change in pulse rhythm, color vision, or behavior should be investigated and reported to the healthcare provider. The nurse should first check the results of the potassium level, which will provide additional when the nurse calls the physician, an important follow-up action. The nurse should also check the digoxin reading if one is available. The nurse would not administer an antiemetic without further investigating the client's problem. Because digoxin toxicity is suspected, the nurse would withhold the digoxin until the physician has been consulted. The nurse would not discontinue a medication without a prescription to do so.

D Complete blood count (CBC) Rationale: Agranulocytopenia and anemia are common side effects of zidovudine. In some cases lactic acidosis develops. The nurse carefully monitors CBC results for these changes. With early HIV infection or in the client who is asymptomatic, a CBC is performed monthly for 3 months, then every 3 months thereafter. In clients with advanced disease, a CBC is performed every 2 weeks for the first 2 months and then once a month if the medication is tolerated well. The other options are incorrect.

D For measurement of blood pressure and apical pulse Rationale: Betaxolol is an antiglaucoma medication and a beta-adrenergic blocker. Hypotension (manifested as dizziness), nausea, diaphoresis, headache, fatigue, constipation, and diarrhea are side effects of the medication. Nursing interventions include blood pressure monitoring to detect hypotension and assessment of the pulse for strength, weakness, irregularity, and bradycardia. Blood glucose testing is not a part of follow-up with this medication; neither are weighing and urinalysis.

A nurse is preparing a client for the insertion of a central intravenous line into the subclavian vein by the healthcare provider. The nurse gathers the equipment, places it at the bedside, and prepares to assist the healthcare provider with the procedure. As further preparation for the procedure, the nurse places the client: A Flat on the left side B In the prone position C In the supine position D In a slight Trendelenburg position

D In a slight Trendelenburg position

D In a slight Trendelenburg position Rationale: The client is placed in a slight Trendelenburg position. This position is used to increase dilation of the veins and positive pressure in the central veins, reducing the risk of air embolus during insertion. The other options are incorrect because they will not achieve this goal.

A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with a diagnosis of cancer who is receiving morphine sulfate for pain. Which of the following actions does the nurse identify as a priority in the plan of care for this client? A Monitoring urine output B Encouraging increased fluids C Monitoring the client's temperature D Monitoring the client's respiratory rate

D Monitoring the client's respiratory rate

D Monitoring the client's respiratory rate Rationale: Morphine sulfate suppresses respiration, and monitoring respirations is a priority nursing action. Although the other options may be a component of the plan of care for this client, monitoring the client's respiratory rate is the priority nursing action.

D Reduce the risk of deep vein thrombosis Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that is administered to prevent deep vein thrombosis and thromboembolism in selected at-risk clients. It is not used to prevent pain, relieve back spasms, or increase the energy level.

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous infusion of morphine sulfate. Which finding should cause the nurse to contact the physician? A Temperature of 97.6° F B Urine output of 30 mL/hr C Blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg D Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min

D Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min

D Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min Rationale: Before an opioid is administered, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and pulse rate should be measured. The medication should be withheld and the physician notified if the respiratory rate is 12 breaths/min or slower, if the blood pressure is significantly below the pretreatment value, or if the pulse rate is significantly above or below the pretreatment value. A urine output of 30 mL/hr is normal. A temperature of 97.6° F is below normal, but it is not necessary to notify the physician of this reading.

D Sterile 2 × 2 gauze Rationale: A dry sterile dressing such as a 2 × 2 is used to apply pressure to the discontinued IV site. This material is absorbent, sterile, and nonirritating. An adhesive bandage may be used to cover the site once hemostasis has occurred. A povidone-iodine swab or alcohol swab would irritate the opened puncture site and would not stop the blood flow.

The nurse is preparing to change the solution bag and intravenous tubing of a client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) through a left subclavian central venous line. Which essential action does the nurse ask the client to perform just before switching the tubing? A Turn the head to the left B Turn the head to the right C Exhale slowly and evenly D Take a deep breath and hold it

D Take a deep breath and hold it

D Take a deep breath and hold it Rationale: The nurse must ask the client to take a deep breath and hold it. This effectively achieves the Valsalva maneuver during tubing changes, which helps prevent air embolism. If the line is on the left, it may be helpful to have the client turn the head to the right and vice versa. This allows more room for the nurse to work. However, it is not the most essential action. The other options are incorrect.

A client taking metronidazole (Flagyl) for the treatment of trichomoniasis vaginalis calls the clinic nurse to express concern because her urine has turned dark. The nurse should tell the client: A To increase her fluid intake B To discontinue the medication C To report to the clinic to see the physician D That darkening of the urine is a harmless side effect

D That darkening of the urine is a harmless side effect

D That darkening of the urine is a harmless side effect Rationale: Metronidazole can produce a variety of untoward effects, but they rarely require termination of treatment. Harmless darkening of the urine may occur, and the client should be forewarned of this effect. The nurse would not instruct the client to discontinue the medication. It is not necessary that the client see the physician. Increasing fluid intake is a good health measure but will not prevent this expected side effect.

A client with newly diagnosed angina pectoris has taken 2 sublingual nitroglycerin tablets for chest pain. The chest pain is relieved, but the client complains of a headache. The nurse tells the client that: A This is an indication that the medication should not be used again B Headache indicates medication tolerance, and the dosage must be increased C This may be an allergic reaction to the nitroglycerin, and the physician must be notified D This is an expected side effect of the nitroglycerin, and the client can relieve it by taking acetaminophen (Tylenol)

D This is an expected side effect of the nitroglycerin, and the client can relieve it by taking acetaminophen (Tylenol)

D This is an expected side effect of the nitroglycerin, and the client can relieve it by taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) Rationale: Headache is a frequent side effect of nitroglycerin, a result of the vasodilating action of the medication. Headaches, which may be treated effectively with the use of acetaminophen (Tylenol), usually diminish in frequency as the client becomes accustomed to the medication. The other options are incorrect.

Cyclophosphamide has been prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of breast cancer, and the nurse is providing instructions to the client. The nurse should tell the client: A To avoid salt while taking this medication B That it is best to take the medication with food C To drink at least 2 glasses of orange juice every day D To increase fluid intake to 2000 mL to 3000 mL/day

D To increase fluid intake to 2000 mL to 3000 mL/day

D To increase fluid intake to 2000 mL to 3000 mL/day Rationale: Hemorrhagic cystitis is a toxic effect of cyclophosphamide. The client must be instructed to drink copious amounts of fluid during administration of this medication. The client should also monitor her urine for hematuria. The medication should be taken on an empty stomach, unless gastrointestinal upset occurs. Hyperkalemia may also result from the use of the medication; therefore the client would not be encouraged to increase potassium intake (i.e., bananas and orange juice). The client also would not be instructed to alter her sodium intake.

Zidovudine (AZT) is prescribed for an adult client with HIV infection. The nurse, while providing instructions to the client, should tell the client: A That the medication must be taken with milk B That aspirin can be taken to treat headache C To discontinue the medication if nausea occurs D To space the doses evenly around the clock

D To space the doses evenly around the clock

D To space the doses evenly around the clock Rationale: The adult dosage of zidovudine is usually 200 mg every 8 hours or 300 mg every 12 hours. The client is instructed to space doses of the medication evenly around the clock. Food or milk does not affect the gastrointestinal absorption of the medication. The client is instructed to continue therapy for the full prescribed duration of treatment. The client is also instructed not to take any medication, including aspirin, without the physician's approval.

A client is being weaned from parenteral nutrition (PN) and is expected to begin taking solid food today. The ongoing solution rate has been 100 mL/hour. The nurse anticipates that which prescription regarding the PN solution will accompany the diet prescription? 1. Discontinue the PN. 2. Decrease PN rate to 50 mL/hour. 3. Start 0.9% normal saline at 25 mL/hour. 4. Continue current infusion rate prescriptions for PN.

Decrease PN rate to 50 mL/hour. When a client begins eating a regular diet after a period of receiving PN, the PN is decreased gradually. PN that is discontinued abruptly can cause hypoglycemia. Clients often have anorexia after being without food for some time, and the digestive tract also is not used to producing the digestive enzymes that will be needed. Gradually decreasing the infusion rate allows the client to remain adequately nourished during the transition to a normal diet and prevents the occurrence of hypoglycemia. Even before clients are started on a solid diet, they are given clear liquids followed by full liquids to further ease the transition. A solution of normal saline does not provide the glucose needed during the transition of discontinuing the PN and could cause the client to experience hypoglycemia.

A client has received a transfusion of platelets. The nurse evaluates that the client is benefiting most from this therapy if the client exhibits which finding? 1. Increased hematocrit level 2. Increased hemoglobin level 3. Decline of elevated temperature to normal 4. Decreased oozing of blood from puncture sites and gums

Decreased oozing of blood from puncture sites and gums Platelets are necessary for proper blood clotting. The client with insufficient platelets may exhibit frank bleeding or oozing of blood from puncture sites, wounds, and mucous membranes. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels would occur when the client has received a transfusion of red blood cells. An elevated temperature would decline to normal after infusion of granulocytes because these cells were instrumental in fighting infection in the body.

Packed red blood cells have been prescribed for a female client with a hemoglobin level of 7.6 g/dL (76 mmol/L) and a hematocrit level of 30% (0.30). The nurse takes the client's temperature before hanging the blood transfusion and records 100.6°F (38.1°C) orally. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Begin the transfusion as prescribed. 2. Administer an antihistamine and begin the transfusion. 3. Delay hanging the blood and notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Administer 2 tablets of acetaminophen and begin the transfusion.

Delay hanging the blood and notify the health care provider (HCP). If the client has a temperature higher than 100°F (37.8°C), the unit of blood should not be hung until the HCP is notified and has the opportunity to give further prescriptions. The HCP likely will prescribe that the blood be administered regardless of the temperature, or may instruct the nurse to administer prescribed acetaminophen and wait until the temperature has decreased before administration, but the decision is not within the nurse's scope of practice to make. The nurse needs an HCP's prescription to administer medications to the client.

An ultrasound is performed on a client at term gestation who is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. The results of the ultrasound indicate that abruptio placentae is present. On the basis of these findings, the nurse should prepare the client for which anticipated prescription? 1. Delivery of the fetus 2. Strict monitoring of intake and output 3. Complete bed rest for the remainder of the pregnancy 4. The need for weekly monitoring of coagulation studies until the time of delivery

Delivery of the fetus Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall after the twentieth week of gestation and before the fetus is delivered. The goal of management in abruptio placentae is to control the hemorrhage and deliver the fetus as soon as possible. Delivery is the treatment of choice if the fetus is at term gestation or if the bleeding is moderate to severe and the client or fetus is in jeopardy. Because delivery of the fetus is necessary, options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect regarding management of a client with abruptio placentae.

Acetylcysteine is prescribed for a client in the hospital emergency department after diagnosis of acetaminophen overdose. The nurse prepares to administer the medication using which procedure? 1. Diluting the medication in cola and administering it to the client orally 2. Calling the respiratory department to administer the medication via inhaler 3. Obtaining a 1-mL syringe to administer the small dose via the subcutaneous route 4. Obtaining an appropriate-size syringe and needle for intramuscular injection in the ventrogluteal muscle

Diluting the medication in cola and administering it to the client orally Acetylcysteine can be given orally or by nasogastric tube to treat acetaminophen overdose. It is administered by inhalation for use as a mucolytic. Before administration of the medication as an antidote, the nurse would ensure that the client's stomach is empty through emesis or gastric lavage. The solution is diluted in cola, water, or juice to make the solution more palatable. It is not administered via nebulizer, subcutaneously, or intramuscularly for the client experiencing acetaminophen overdose.

The nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. After 30 minutes of the infusion, the client begins to have chills and back pain. His temperature is 100.1°F (37.8°C). What action should the nurse take first? 1. Assess the client for other symptoms. 2. Slow the blood transfusion and monitor the client's vital signs. 3. Remind the client that these are expected reactions to a blood transfusion. 4. Discontinue the infusion and start an infusion of normal saline using new tubing.

Discontinue the infusion and start an infusion of normal saline using new tubing. Signs of a transfusion reaction include fever, chills, tachycardia, tachypnea, dyspnea, hives or skin rash, flushing, backache, and decreased blood pressure. If the client shows any symptoms of a blood transfusion reaction, the nurse needs to discontinue the infusion immediately and start an infusion of normal saline using new tubing connected to the hub of the intravenous insertion site. The nurse should stay with the client and monitor his or her condition while asking a colleague to notify the health care provider immediately.

The nurse is preparing to hang the first bag of parenteral nutrition (PN) solution via the central line of an assigned client. The nurse should obtain which most essential piece of equipment before hanging the solution? 1. Urine test strips 2. Blood glucose meter 3. Electronic infusion pump 4. Noninvasive blood pressure monitor

Electronic infusion pump The nurse obtains an electronic infusion pump before hanging a PN solution. Because of the high glucose content, use of an infusion pump is necessary to ensure that the solution does not infuse too rapidly or fall behind. Because the client's blood glucose level is monitored every 4 to 6 hours during administration of PN, a blood glucose meter also will be needed, but this is not the most essential item needed before hanging the solution because it is not directly related to administering the PN. Urine test strips (to measure glucose) rarely are used because of the advent of blood glucose monitoring. Although the blood pressure will be monitored, a noninvasive blood pressure monitor is not the most essential piece of equipment needed for this procedure.

The nurse has a prescription to administer acetylcysteine to a client admitted to the emergency department with acetaminophen overdose. Before giving this medication, what is the nurse's best action? 1. Administer the full-strength solution. 2. Empty the stomach by emesis or lavage. 3. Check that the antidote is readily available. 4. Ensure that the client knows how to use a nebulizer.

Empty the stomach by emesis or lavage. Acetylcysteine can be given orally or by nasogastric tube to treat acetaminophen overdose, or it may be given by inhalation for use as a mucolytic. Before giving the medication as an antidote to acetaminophen, the nurse ensures that the client's stomach is empty through emesis or gastric lavage. The solution is diluted in cola, water, or juice to make it more palatable. It is then administered orally or by nasogastric tube. Acetylcysteine is the antidote to acetaminophen.

A client experiencing cocaine toxicity is brought to the emergency department. The nurse should prepare to take which initial action? 1. Administer naloxone. 2. Ensure a patent airway. 3. Establish an intravenous access. 4. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).

Ensure a patent airway. Initial management when caring for a client with cocaine toxicity is to ensure a patent airway. Although options 1, 3, and 4 are components of care, airway is the priority.

The nurse is monitoring the status of a client's fat emulsion (lipid) infusion and notes that the infusion is 1 hour behind. Which action should the nurse take? 1. Adjust the infusion rate to catch up over the next hour. 2. Increase the infusion rate to catch up over the next 2 hours. 3. Ensure that the fat emulsion infusion rate is infusing at the prescribed rate. 4. Adjust the infusion rate to run wide open until the solution is back on time.

Ensure that the fat emulsion infusion rate is infusing at the prescribed rate. The nurse should not increase the rate of a fat emulsion to make up the difference if the infusion timing falls behind. Doing so could place the client at risk for fat overload. In addition, increasing the rate suddenly can cause fluid overload. The same principle (not increasing the rate) applies to parenteral nutrition or any intravenous infusion. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

The nurse is caring for a client in the emergency department who has sustained a head injury. The client momentarily lost consciousness at the time of the injury and then regained it. The client now has lost consciousness again. The nurse takes quick action, knowing that this sequence is compatible with which most likely condition? 1. Concussion 2. Skull fracture 3. Subdural hematoma 4. Epidural hematoma

Epidural hematoma he changes in neurological signs from an epidural hematoma begin with loss of consciousness as arterial blood collects in the epidural space and exerts pressure. The client regains consciousness as the cerebrospinal fluid is reabsorbed rapidly to compensate for the rising intracranial pressure. As the compensatory mechanisms fail, even small amounts of additional blood cause the intracranial pressure to rise rapidly, and the client's neurological status deteriorates quickly.

The nurse notes redness, warmth, and a yellowish drainage at the insertion site of a central venous catheter in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition. What is the nurse's initial action? 1. Administer diphenhydramine. 2. Decrease the rate of infusion. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Evaluate for signs of septicemia.

Evaluate for signs of septicemia. Redness, warmth, and purulent drainage are signs of an infection, not of an allergic reaction. Infiltration causes the surrounding tissue to become cool and pale. An infection of a central venous catheter site can lead to septicemia. The nurse should assess for signs of septicemia and then notify the HCP so that all of the assessment data can be reported. If infection is suspected, the infusion should be stopped. Diphenhydramine is prescribed for allergic reactions.

The nurse is performing a vaginal assessment of a pregnant woman who is in labor. The nurse notes that the umbilical cord is protruding from the vagina. The nurse would immediately take which action? 1. Administer oxygen to the woman. 2. Transport the woman to the delivery room. 3. Place an external fetal monitor on the woman. 4. Exert upward pressure against the presenting part.

Exert upward pressure against the presenting part. If the umbilical cord is protruding from the vagina, no attempt should be made to replace it because doing so could traumatize it and further reduce blood flow. The nurse would place a gloved hand into the vagina to the cervix and exert upward pressure against the presenting part to relieve compression of the cord. The nurse also would wrap the cord loosely in a sterile towel saturated with warm, sterile normal saline solution. Oxygen, 8 to 10 L/min by face mask, would be administered to the mother to increase fetal oxygenation, and the woman would be prepared for immediate delivery. However, the immediate action is to relieve pressure on the cord. The woman should already have an external fetal monitor in place.

The hospital code team is responding to a respiratory emergency of a client admitted during the night with a fractured hip and pelvis after a motor vehicle collision (MVC). The client first became confused and then developed dyspnea, chest pain, and a petechial rash on his neck, upper arms, and chest. What condition is this client at risk for? 1. Pulmonary fibrosis 2. Hypovolemic shock 3. Blood clot embolism 4. Fat embolism syndrome (FES)

Fat embolism syndrome (FES) FES generally happens within 12 to 48 hours after a long bone, hip, or pelvis fracture and occurs most often in young men between ages 20 and 40 years and in older adults between ages 70 and 80. FES is a serious complication in which fat globules are released from the yellow bone marrow into the bloodstream and clog small blood vessels that supply vital organs, most commonly the lungs.

The nurse plans to administer a medication by intravenous (IV) bolus through the primary IV line. The nurse notes that the medication is incompatible with the primary IV solution. Which is the appropriate nursing action to safely administer the medication? 1. Start a new IV line for the medication. 2. Flush the tubing after the medication with sterile water. 3. Flush the tubing before and after the medication with normal saline. 4. Call the health care provider for a prescription to change the route of the medication.

Flush the tubing before and after the medication with normal saline. When giving a medication by IV bolus, if the medication is incompatible with the IV solution, the tubing is flushed before and after the medication with infusions of normal saline. Option 1 is premature and not necessary. Sterile water is not used for an IV flush. Option 4 is inappropriate.

A client who suffered carbon monoxide poisoning from working on an automobile in a closed garage has a carbon monoxide level of 15%. The nurse should anticipate observing which sign or symptom? 1. Coma 2. Flushing 3. Dizziness 4. Tachycardia

Flushing The signs and symptoms worsen as the carbon monoxide level rises in the bloodstream. Impaired visual acuity occurs at 5% to 10%, whereas flushing and headache are seen at 11% to 20%. Nausea and impaired dexterity appear at levels of 21% to 30%, and a 31% to 40% level is accompanied by vomiting, dizziness, and syncope. Levels of 41% to 50% cause tachypnea and tachycardia, and those higher than 50% result in coma and death.

The nurse discovers that an infusion of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through a central line is empty, and a replacement bag is not yet ready. What should the nurse do next while waiting for the replacement bag? 1. Hang an intravenous infusion of normal saline. 2. Convert the intravenous infusion to a saline lock. 3. Hang an intravenous infusion of 5% dextrose in water. 4. Hang an intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose in water.

Hang an intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose in water. If TPN is discontinued abruptly, rebound hypoglycemia may occur because the pancreas has not yet had time to adjust its secretion of insulin in response to the lower amount of glucose. Therefore, a dextrose in water solution of 10% or 20% is infused temporarily until the replacement bag is available.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a client admitted to the burn unit 3 hours after an explosion that occurred at a worksite. The client has a severe burn injury that covers 35% of the total body surface area (TBSA). The nurse is most likely to note which finding on the laboratory report? 1. Hematocrit 60% (0.60) 2. Serum albumin 4.8 g/dL (48 g/L) 3. Serum sodium 144 mEq/L (144 mmol/L) 4. White blood cell (WBC) count 9000 mm3 (9 × 109/L)

Hematocrit 60% (0.60) Extensive burns greater than 25% of the TBSA result in generalized body edema in both burned and unburned tissues and a decrease in circulating intravascular blood volume. Hematocrit levels are elevated in the first 24 hours after injury as a result of hemoconcentration from the loss of intravascular fluid. The normal hematocrit level ranges from 37% to 47% (0.37 to 0.47) (female) and 42% to 52% (0.42 to 0.52) (male). The remaining options identify normal laboratory values.

The nurse is caring for a client who has overdosed on amphetamines. The nurse anticipates noting which assessment finding in this client? 1. Bradypnea 2. Bradycardia 3. Hypothermia 4. Hypertension

Hypertension An overdose from amphetamines can cause agitation, increased temperature, increased pulse, increased respiratory rate, increased blood pressure, cardiac dysrhythmias, myocardial infarction, hallucinations, seizures, and possible death. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) complains of a headache. The nurse notes that the client has an increased blood pressure, bounding pulse, jugular vein distention, and crackles bilaterally. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing which complication of PN therapy? 1. Sepsis 2. Air embolism 3. Hypervolemia 4. Hyperglycemia

Hypervolemia Hypervolemia is a critical situation and occurs from excessive fluid administration or administration of fluid too rapidly. Clients with cardiac, renal, or hepatic dysfunction are also at increased risk. The client's signs and symptoms presented in the question are consistent with hypervolemia. The increased intravascular volume increases the blood pressure, whereas the pulse rate increases as the heart tries to pump the extra fluid volume. The increased volume also causes neck vein distention and shifting of fluid into the alveoli, resulting in lung crackles. The signs and symptoms presented in the question do not indicate sepsis, air embolism, or hyperglycemia.

The client has developed atrial fibrillation, with a ventricular rate of 150 beats/minute. The nurse should assess the client for which associated signs and/or symptoms? 1. Flat neck veins 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Hypotension and dizziness 4. Hypertension and headache

Hypotension and dizziness The client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate more than 100 beats/minute is at risk for low cardiac output because of loss of atrial kick. The nurse assesses the client for palpitations, chest pain or discomfort, hypotension, pulse deficit, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, syncope, shortness of breath, and distended neck veins.

A client who sustained an inhalation injury arrives in the emergency department. On initial assessment, the nurse notes that the client is very confused and combative. The nurse determines that the client is most likely experiencing which condition? 1. Pain 2. Fear 3. Anxiety 4. Hypoxia

Hypoxia After a burn injury, clients normally are alert. If a client becomes confused or combative, hypoxia may be the cause. Hypoxia occurs after inhalation injury and also may occur after an electrical injury. Although anxiety, fear, and pain may occur, confusion and combativeness are most likely associated with hypoxia.

To perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), the nurse should use the method pictured to open the airway in which situation? Refer to figure. 1. If neck trauma is suspected 2. In all situations requiring CPR 3. If the client has a history of seizures 4. If the client has a history of headaches

If neck trauma is suspected The jaw thrust without the head tilt maneuver is used when head or neck trauma is suspected. This maneuver opens the airway while maintaining proper head and neck alignment, reducing the risk of further damage to the neck. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect. In addition, it is unlikely that the nurse would be able to obtain data about the client's history.

A client is undergoing fluid replacement after being burned on 20% of her body 12 hours ago. The nursing assessment reveals a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 110 beats/minute, and a urine output of 20 mL over the past hour. The nurse reports the findings to the health care provider (HCP) and anticipates which prescription? 1. Transfusing 1 unit of packed red blood cells 2. Administering a diuretic to increase urine output 3. Increasing the amount of intravenous (IV) lactated Ringer's solution administered per hour 4. Changing the IV lactated Ringer's solution to one that contains 5% dextrose in water

Increasing the amount of intravenous (IV) lactated Ringer's solution administered per hour Fluid management during the first 24 hours following a burn injury generally includes the infusion of (usually) lactated Ringer's solution. Lactated Ringer's solution is an isotonic solution that contains electrolytes that will maintain fluid volume in the circulation. Fluid resuscitation is determined by urine output and hourly urine output should be at least 30 mL/hour. The client's urine output is indicative of insufficient fluid resuscitation, which places the client at risk for inadequate perfusion of the brain, heart, kidneys, and other body organs. Therefore, the HCP would prescribe an increase in the amount of IV lactated Ringer's solution administered per hour. There is nothing in the situation that calls for blood resplacement, which is not used for fluid therapy for burn injuries. Administering a diuretic would not correct the problem because fluid replacement is needed. Diuretics promote the removal of the circulating volume, thereby further compromising the inadequate tissue perfusion. Intravenous 5% dextrose solution is isotonic before administered but is hypotonic once the dextrose is metabolized. Hypotonic solutions are not appropriate for fluid resuscitation of a client with significant burn injuries.

A client who is receiving intravenous (IV) fluid therapy complains of burning and a feeling of tightness at the IV insertion site. On assessment, the nurse detects coolness and swelling at the site and notes that the IV rate has slowed. The nurse determines that which complication has occurred? 1. Infection 2. Phlebitis 3. Infiltration 4. Thrombosis

Infiltration An infiltrated IV line is one that has dislodged from the vein and is lying in subcutaneous tissue. Pallor, coolness, and swelling at the IV site result when IV fluid is deposited in the subcutaneous tissue. When the pressure in the tissues exceeds the pressure in the tubing, the flow of IV solution will slow down or stop. The corrective action is to remove the catheter and start a new IV line at another site. The conditions identified in the remaining options are likely to be accompanied by warmth at the site, not coolness.

The nurse is assigned the care of a client who experienced a myocardial infarction and is being monitored by cardiac telemetry. The nurse notes the sudden onset of this cardiac rhythm on the monitor. The nurse should immediately take which action? Refer to Figure. 1. Take the client's blood pressure. 2. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). 3. Place a nitroglycerin tablet under the client's tongue. 4. Continue to monitor the client for 1 minute and then contact the health care provider (HCP).

Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). This cardiac rhythm identifies a coarse ventricular fibrillation (VF). The goals of treatment are to terminate VF promptly and to convert it to an organized rhythm. The HCP or an advanced cardiac life support-qualified nurse must immediately defibrillate the client. If a defibrillator is not readily available, CPR must be initiated until the defibrillator arrives. The remaining options are incorrect; these are not immediate actions and would delay life-saving treatment.

A 2-year-old child is being transported to the trauma center from a local community hospital for treatment of a burn injury that is estimated as covering more than 40% of the body. The burns are both partial- and full-thickness burns. The nurse is asked to prepare for the arrival of the child and gathers supplies, anticipating that which treatment will be prescribed initially? 1. Insertion of a Foley catheter 2. Insertion of a nasogastric tube 3. Administration of an anesthetic agent for sedation 4. Application of an antimicrobial agent to the burns

Insertion of a Foley catheter A Foley catheter is inserted into the child's bladder so that urine output can be accurately measured on an hourly basis. Although pain medication may be required, the child would not receive an anesthetic agent and should not be sedated. The burn wounds would be cleansed after assessment, but this would not be the initial action. Intravenous fluids are administered at a rate sufficient to keep the child's urine output at 1 to 2 mL/kg of body weight per hour for children weighing less than 30 kg, thus reflecting adequate tissue perfusion. A nasogastric tube may or may not be required but would not be the priority intervention.

A 5-year-old boy is brought by his mother to the emergency department after ingesting a bottle of acetylsalicylic acid. Which procedure should be initially instituted with this child? 1. Administer ipecac by mouth and monitor emesis. 2. Institute a gastric lavage and administer activated charcoal. 3. Administer a chelating agent such as edetate calcium disodium. 4. Institute a gastric lavage and administer the antidote acetylcysteine.

Institute a gastric lavage and administer activated charcoal. A gastric lavage must be performed after ingestion of acetylsalicylic acid, and activated charcoal is administered to prevent further absorption of the substance. N-acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen. Administering ipecac or edetate calcium disodium is not a treatment measure for acetylsalicylic acid poisoning. Edetate calcium disodium may be prescribed for the treatment of lead poisoning. Ipecac causes vomiting, and this substance is used only in specific poisoning conditions; in this situation, vomiting can cause irritation of the esophagus.

A woman was working in her garden. She accidentally sprayed insecticide into her right eye. She calls the emergency department, frantic and screaming for help. The nurse should instruct the woman to take which immediate action? 1. Irrigate the eyes with water. 2. Come to the emergency department. 3. Call the health care provider (HCP). 4. Irrigate the eyes with diluted hydrogen peroxide.

Irrigate the eyes with water. In this type of accident, the client is instructed to irrigate the eyes immediately with running water for at least 20 minutes, or until the emergency medical services personnel arrive. In the emergency department, the cleansing agent of choice is usually normal saline. Calling the HCP and going to the emergency department delays necessary intervention. Hydrogen peroxide is never placed in the eyes.

A client has frequent bursts of ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor. What should the nurse be most concerned about with this dysrhythmia? 1. It can develop into ventricular fibrillation at any time. 2. It is almost impossible to convert to a normal rhythm. 3. It is uncomfortable for the client, giving a sense of impending doom. 4. It produces a high cardiac output that quickly leads to cerebral and myocardial ischemia.

It can develop into ventricular fibrillation at any time. Ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening dysrhythmia that results from an irritable ectopic focus that takes over as the pacemaker for the heart. The low cardiac output that results can lead quickly to cerebral and myocardial ischemia. Clients frequently experience a feeling of impending doom. Ventricular tachycardia is treated with antidysrhythmic medications, cardioversion (if the client is awake), or defibrillation (loss of consciousness). Ventricular tachycardia can deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation at any time.

A client is scheduled for insertion of a peripherally inserted central catheter, and the nurse explains the advantages of this catheter. Which statement by the client indicates a need for follow-up? 1. "It is reasonable in cost." 2. "This type of catheter is very reliable." 3. "It is specifically designed for short-term use." 4. "I should not have pain or discomfort with this catheter."

It is specifically designed for short-term use." Peripherally inserted central catheters are intended to be used for clients who need long-term catheter placement. They can be left in place for several months. It is reasonable in cost because the catheter does not need routine replacement, as do traditional peripheral intravenous catheters. The catheter is more comfortable for the client because there is no repeated venipuncture with catheter change. The catheter is also very reliable. It is less likely to infiltrate and can be used for administration of a number of types of medications.

The nurse is teaching chest compressions for cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to a group of lay clients. Which behavior by one of the participants indicates a need for further teaching? 1. Keeping the shoulders directly over the hands 2. Straightening the arms and locking the elbows 3. Letting the right and left fingers rest on the chest 4. Performing compressions on the lower half of the sternum

Letting the right and left fingers rest on the chest To maximize the effectiveness of chest compressions, the rescuer avoids letting the fingers rest on the chest. This also helps prevent accidental injury to internal organs. The actions listed in the other options are all part of correct CPR procedures.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who was admitted with a diagnosis of carbon monoxide poisoning. Which assessment performed by the nurse would primarily elicit data related to a deterioration of the client's condition? 1. Skin color 2. Apical rate 3. Respiratory rate 4. Level of consciousness

Level of consciousness The neurological system is primarily affected by carbon monoxide poisoning. With high levels of carbon monoxide, the neurological status progressively deteriorates. Although skin color, apical rate, and respiratory rate would be components of the assessment of the client with carbon monoxide poisoning, assessment of the neurological status of the client would elicit data specific to a deterioration in the client's condition.

The nurse is caring for a child who was burned in a house fire. The nurse develops a plan of care for monitoring the child during the treatment for burn shock. The nurse identifies which assessment as providing the most accurate guide to determine the adequacy of fluid resuscitation? 1. Heart rate 2. Lung sounds 3. Level of consciousness 4. Amount of edema at the site of the burn injury

Level of consciousness The sensorium, or level of consciousness, is an important guide to the adequacy of fluid resuscitation. The burn injury itself does not affect the sensorium, so the child should be alert and oriented. Any alteration in sensorium should be evaluated further. A neurological assessment would determine the level of consciousness in the child. Although the remaining options are important in the assessment of the child with a burn injury, they would not provide an accurate assessment of the adequacy of fluid resuscitation.

The nurse is admitting a young child who arrived from the emergency department after treatment for acetaminophen overdose. After administering the antidote, the nurse should reassess the child, including which priority laboratory value? 1. Thyroid panel 2. Urine drug screen 3. Liver function panel 4. Kidney function tests

Liver function panel Acetaminophen overdose is harmful to the liver. Thyroid function is not affected by acetaminophen. A urine medication screen and kidney function tests may be evaluated; however, these laboratory values are not the priority concern.

The nurse is caring for a client who sustained a thermal burn caused by the inhalation of steam 24 hours ago. The nurse determines that the priority nursing action is to assess which item? 1. Pain level 2. Lung sounds 3. Ability to swallow 4. Laboratory results

Lung sounds The priority nursing action would be to assess lung sounds. Thermal burns to the lower airways can occur with the inhalation of steam or explosive gases or with the aspiration of scalding liquids. Thermal burns to the upper airways are more common and cause erythema and edema of the airways and mucosal blisters or ulcerations. The mucosal edema can lead to upper airway obstruction, particularly during the first 24 to 48 hours after burn injury.

A mother brings her child to the emergency department. Based on the child's sitting position, drooling, and apparent respiratory distress, a diagnosis of epiglottitis is suspected. In anticipation of the health care provider's prescriptions, in which order of priority would the nurse implement the actions? Arrange the actions in the order that they should be performed. All options must be used.

Maintain a patent airway. Assess breath sounds by auscultation. Obtain an oxygen saturation level using pulse oximetry. Insert an intravenous line for fluid administration. Obtain an axillary temperature. Administer an antipyretic. Maintenance of a patent airway is essential. Emergency intubation equipment should be readily available. Once a patent airway is determined or established and maintained, the breath sounds should be auscultated. This action is followed by checking the pulse oximetry. All of these interventions relate to the respiratory status and are the priority. Following this, fluid needs should be considered because their administration relates to maintaining circulatory status. Then the temperature is taken and an antipyretic is administered (usually by the rectal route) if needed.

A client who has just suffered a large flail chest is experiencing severe pain and dyspnea. The client's central venous pressure (CVP) is rising, and the arterial blood pressure is falling. Which condition should the nurse interpret that the client is experiencing? 1. Fat embolism 2. Mediastinal shift 3. Mediastinal flutter 4. Hypovolemic shock

Mediastinal flutter The client with severe flail chest will have significant paradoxical chest movement. This causes the mediastinal structures to swing back and forth with respiration. This movement can affect hemodynamics. Specifically, the client's CVP rises, the filling of the right side of the heart is impaired, and the arterial blood pressure falls. This is referred to as mediastinal flutter. The client with fat embolism experiences chest pain and dyspnea, but this condition occurs as a complication of a bone fracture. Mediastinal shift is a condition in which the structures of the mediastinum shift or move to the opposite side of the chest cavity; this may be caused by a pleural effusion or tension pneumothorax. In hypovolemic shock, the blood pressure falls and the pulse rises; this occurs following hemorrhage.

A client develops atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 140 beats/minute and signs of decreased cardiac output. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering first? 1. Warfarin 2. Lidocaine 3. Metoprolol 4. Atropine sulfate

Metoprolol Beta blockers such as metoprolol slow conduction of impulses through the atrioventricular node and decrease the heart rate. In rapid atrial fibrillation, the goal first is to slow the ventricular rate and improve the cardiac output and then attempt to restore normal sinus rhythm. Atropine sulfate will further increase the heart rate and will further decrease the cardiac output. Although warfarin is administered to clients with atrial fibrillation to prevent clots from forming in the atria, it will have no effect in decreasing the ventricular rate or restoring normal sinus rhythm. Lidocaine is useful only in suppressing ventricular dysrhythmias.

he nurse prepares to administer acetylcysteine to the client with an overdose of acetaminophen. What is the appropriate action when administering this antidote? 1. Administer the medication subcutaneously in the deltoid muscle. 2. Administer the medication by intramuscular (IM) injection in the gluteal muscle. 3. Mix the medication in a flavored ice drink, and allow the client to drink the medication. 4. Administer the medication mixed in 50 mL of normal saline and piggybacked through the main intravenous (IV) line.

Mix the medication in a flavored ice drink, and allow the client to drink the medication. Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen. Because acetylcysteine has a pervasive flavor of rotten eggs, it must be disguised in a flavored ice drink and is preferably drunk through a straw to minimize contact with the mouth. It is a solution that also is used as a mucolytic agent, administered via nebulization. It is not administered by the IV, IM, or subcutaneous route.

The nurse is developing a nursing care plan for a client with a circumferential burn injury of the right arm. What is the nurse's priority action? 1. Monitor the radial pulse every hour. 2. Keep the extremity in a dependent position. 3. Document any changes that occur in the pulse. 4. Place pressure dressings and wraps around the burn sites.

Monitor the radial pulse every hour. In a client with ineffective tissue perfusion related to a circumferential burn injury, peripheral pulses should be assessed every hour for 72 hours. The affected extremities should be elevated, and the health care provider should be notified of any changes in pulses, capillary refill, or pain sensation. Pressure dressings and wraps should not be applied around the circumferential burn because they could cause a further alteration in peripheral circulation.

The nurse in the recovery room is caring for a client who underwent neurosurgery. Sequential compression devices (SCDs) have been applied to prevent venous stasis. While awaiting client transfer to the intensive care unit, the recovery room nurse should perform which critical assessment? 1. Assess radial pulses. 2. Log roll client to check skin integrity. 3. Monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. 4. Monitor vascular status of the lower extremities.

Monitor vascular status of the lower extremities. SCDs may be useful to provide circulatory assistance after surgery. The critical nursing assessment includes monitoring the vascular status of the lower extremities. The remaining options may be components of the nursing assessment, but these actions are not part of the critical assessment required with use of SCDs.

A client has frequent runs of ventricular tachycardia. The health care provider has prescribed flecainide. What is the best nursing action related to the effects of this medication while the client is hospitalized? 1. Monitor the client's urinary output. 2. Assess the client for neurological changes. 3. Keep the call bell within the client's reach. 4. Monitor vital signs and cardiac rhythm frequently.

Monitor vital signs and cardiac rhythm frequently. Flecainide is an antidysrhythmic medication that slows conduction and decreases excitability, conduction velocity, and automaticity. The nurse needs to monitor the client's vital signs for changes and cardiac rhythm for the development of a new or a worsening dysrhythmia. The remaining options are components of standard care.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line. Which nursing intervention would specifically provide assessment data related to the most common complication associated with TPN 1. Weighing the client daily 2. Monitoring the temperature 3. Monitoring intake and output (I&O) 4. Monitoring the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

Monitoring the temperature The most common complication associated with TPN is infection. Monitoring the temperature provides assessment data that would indicate infection in the client. Weighing the client daily and monitoring I&O provides information related to fluid volume overload. Monitoring the BUN level does not provide information about infection and is most closely related to assessing renal function

A postpartum client who received an epidural analgesic after giving birth by cesarean section is lethargic and has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute. The nurse should obtain which medication from the emergency cart after notifying the health care provider? 1. Naloxone 2. Betamethasone 3. Morphine sulfate 4. Meperidine hydrochloride

Naloxone Opioids are used for epidural analgesia, which can lead to delayed respiratory depression. For this reason, respirations are monitored for 24 hours after administration of epidural analgesia. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist, which reverses the effects of opioids and is given if the respiratory rate falls below 8 breaths per minute. Betamethasone is a corticosteroid administered to enhance fetal lung maturity. Morphine sulfate and meperidine hydrochloride are opioids and would further compromise the respiratory rate.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute pulmonary edema. The health care provider (HCP) tells the nurse that medication will be prescribed to help reduce preload and afterload. Based on the HCP's statement, what medication should the nurse anticipate administering? 1. Digoxin 2. Prednisone 3. Furosemide 4. Nitroprusside sodium

Nitroprusside sodium Intravenous nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator that reduces preload and afterload. It is a medication used to treat the client with pulmonary edema. Prednisone is a steroidal antiinflammatory medication that is not usually prescribed for acute pulmonary edema and could aggravate the symptoms due to sodium and retention effects of this medication. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that increases cardiac contractility. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and can reduce preload by enhancing the renal excretion of sodium and water, which reduces circulating blood volume. Furosemide is often prescribed for acute pulmonary edema, but the action of the medication is not to decrease both preload and afterload.

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) and is going to have an intravenous (IV) nitroglycerin infusion started. Noting that the client does not have an intra-arterial monitoring line in place, what piece of equipment should the nurse obtain for use at the bedside? 1. Defibrillator 2. Pulse oximeter 3. Noninvasive blood pressure monitor 4. Central venous pressure (CVP) insertion tray

Noninvasive blood pressure monitor Nitroglycerin dilates both arteries and veins, causing peripheral blood pooling, thereby reducing preload, afterload, and myocardial work. This also accounts for the primary side effect of nitroglycerin, which is hypotension. In the absence of continuous direct arterial pressure (intra-arterial) monitoring, the nurse should use an automatic noninvasive blood pressure monitor. The remaining options are not specifically associated with the administration of IV nitroglycerin.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) at 125 mL/hour. On assessment, the nurse notes the presence of bilateral crackles in the lungs and 2+ pedal edema. The nurse also notes that the client has gained 3 pounds (1.5 kg) in 5 days. Which nursing action would be most appropriate for this client? 1. Slow the infusion rate to 100 mL/hour. 2. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP) of the assessment findings. 4. Administer the prescribed daily diuretic and reassess the client in 2 hours.

Notify the health care provider (HCP) of the assessment findings. Crackles, edema, and weight gain signify fluid shifts from intravascular spaces to the interstitial spaces and indicate signs of fluid retention and possible excess fluid intake. The problem may or may not be related to the TPN. Other possible causes of fluid retention are impaired respiratory and cardiovascular function and impaired kidney function. Deep breathing and coughing will have little, if any, effect on peripheral edema and weight gain. Administering the prescribed daily diuretic and reassessing in 2 hours may delay necessary and immediate treatment and is incorrect. Decreasing the rate of infusion by 25 mL is not very helpful; in addition, the nurse should obtain an HCP prescription for doing so because increasing or decreasing the rate of the infusion presents the potential for hyperosmolar diuresis, hypoglycemia, or hyperglycemia.

The nurse is assessing a client in the fourth stage of labor and notes that the fundus is firm, but that bleeding is excessive. Which should be the initial nursing action? 1. Record the findings. 2. Massage the fundus. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Place the client in Trendelenburg's position.

Notify the health care provider (HCP). If bleeding is excessive, the cause may be laceration of the cervix or birth canal. Massaging the fundus if it is firm would not assist in controlling the bleeding. Trendelenburg's position should be avoided because it may interfere with cardiac and respiratory function. Although the nurse would record the findings, the initial nursing action would be to notify the HCP.

A child undergoes surgical removal of a brain tumor. During the postoperative period, the nurse notes that the child is restless, the pulse rate is elevated, and the blood pressure has decreased significantly from the baseline value. The nurse suspects that the child is in shock. Which is the most appropriate nursing action? 1. Place the child in a supine position. 2. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 3. Place the child in Trendelenburg's position. 4. Increase the flow rate of the intravenous fluids.

Notify the health care provider (HCP). In the event of shock, the HCP is notified immediately before the nurse changes the child's position or increases intravenous fluids. After craniotomy, a child is never placed in the supine or Trendelenburg's position because it increases intracranial pressure (ICP) and the risk of bleeding. The head of the bed should be elevated. Increasing intravenous fluids can cause an increase in ICP.

A client's arterial blood gas results reveal a PaO2 of 55 mm Hg. The client's admitting diagnosis is acute respiratory failure secondary to community-acquired pneumonia. What is the nurse's best action? 1. Repeat arterial blood gas testing. 2. Maintain continuous pulse oximetry. 3. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 4. Decrease the amount of oxygen administered.

Notify the health care provider (HCP). Respiratory failure is defined as a PaO2 of 60 mm Hg or lower. The nurse should notify the HCP for further prescriptions. Common causes of hypoxemic respiratory failure are pneumonia, pulmonary embolism, and shock. This client should be receiving oxygen. Repeating the arterial blood gases and maintaining continuous pulse oximetry do nothing to correct the problem.

The nurse reviewing the operative record for a client who has just undergone cardiac surgery notes that the client's cardiac output immediately after surgery was 3.6 L/min. Which intervention is appropriate based on the client's cardiac output reading? 1. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 2. Continue to monitor the cardiac output. 3. Place the client in the shock position. 4. Increase the intravenous (IV) fluid rate.

Notify the health care provider (HCP). The normal cardiac output for the adult can range from 4 to 8 L/min and varies greatly with body size. The heart normally pumps 5 L of blood every minute. The HCP should be notified because the result falls below the normal limit. Continuing to monitor the client dismisses the fact that the cardiac output is decreased. Increasing fluids may exacerbate the cardiac workload, and the nurse should consult with the HCP before this intervention. There are no data to suggest the client is currently in shock, so placing the client in shock position would be of no benefit

The nurse is preparing to hang fat emulsion (lipids) and notes that fat globules are visible at the top of the solution. The nurse should take which action? 1. Roll the bottle of solution gently. 2. Obtain a different bottle of solution. 3. Shake the bottle of solution vigorously. 4. Run the bottle of solution under warm water.

Obtain a different bottle of solution. Fat emulsion (lipids) is a white, opaque solution administered intravenously during parenteral nutrition therapy to prevent fatty acid deficiency. The nurse should examine the bottle of fat emulsion for separation of emulsion into layers of fat globules or for the accumulation of froth. The nurse should not hang a fat emulsion if any of these are observed and should return the solution to the pharmacy. Therefore, the remaining options are inappropriate actions.

The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube who accidentally disconnects the tube from the drainage system when trying to get out of bed. The nurse immerses the end of the tube in sterile water. What immediate action should the nurse take? 1. Obtain a new drainage system. 2. Ask the client to hold his or her breath. 3. Place the client in a prone position. 4. Place a sterile dressing over the chest tube insertion site.

Obtain a new drainage system. If the drainage system is broken or interrupted or the tube disconnects, the end of the tube should be placed in a bottle of sterile water held below the level of the chest. A new drainage system is then immediately obtained and set up. Placing the client in the prone position and asking the client to hold his or her breath are not helpful. Placing a sterile dressing over the disconnection site will not prevent complications resulting from the tube disconnection. The nurse should also perform an assessment on the client and contact the health care provider.

A delivery room nurse is caring for a client in labor. The client tells the nurse that she feels that something is coming through the vagina. The nurse performs an assessment and notes the presence of the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. The nurse should immediately place the client in which position? 1. Prone 2. Supine 3. On the side 4. Reverse Trendelenburg's

On the side If cord prolapse or compression is suspected, the client is immediately repositioned. Cord compression needs to be relieved to allow for adequate fetal oxygenation. The client may be turned to the side or the hips may be elevated to shift the fetal presenting part toward the diaphragm, thereby relieving cord compression. A hands-and-knees position may reduce compression on a cord that is entrapped behind the fetus. Prone, supine, and reverse Trendelenburg's positions will not shift the presenting part toward the diaphragm and could worsen the condition.

The nurse is planning care for a client being admitted to the nursing unit who attempted suicide. Which priority nursing intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? 1. One-to-one suicide precautions 2. Suicide precautions with 30-minute checks 3. Checking the whereabouts of the client every 15 minutes 4. Asking the client to report suicidal thoughts immediately

One-to-one suicide precautions One-to-one suicide precautions are required for a client who has attempted suicide. Options 2 and 3 may be appropriate, but not at the present time, considering the situation. Option 4 also may be an appropriate nursing intervention, but the priority is identified in the correct option. The best intervention is constant supervision so that the nurse may intervene as needed if the client attempts to harm himself or herself.

External public access defibrillator (PAD) interprets that the rhythm of a pulseless victim is ventricular fibrillation and advises defibrillation. Which action should the rescuer take next? 1. Administer rescue breathing during the defibrillation. 2. Perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) for 1 minute before defibrillating. 3. Charge the machine and immediately push the discharge buttons on the console. 4. Order people away from the client, charge the machine, and depress the discharge buttons.

Order people away from the client, charge the machine, and depress the discharge buttons. If the victim is in ventricular fibrillation, defibrillation is necessary. If the PAD advises to defibrillate, the rescuer orders all people away from the client, charges the machine, and pushes both of the discharge buttons on the console at the same time. The charge is delivered through the patch electrodes, so this method is known as "hands off" defibrillation, which is safer for the rescuer. The sequence of charges is similar to that of conventional defibrillation.

A client with no history of respiratory disease is admitted to the hospital with respiratory failure. Which results on the arterial blood gas report that are consistent with this disorder should the nurse expect to note? 1. PaO2 58 mm Hg, PaCO2 32 mm Hg 2. PaO2 60 mm Hg, PaCO2 45 mm Hg 3. PaO2 49 mm Hg, PaCO2 52 mm Hg 4. PaO2 73 mm Hg, PaCO2 62 mm Hg

PaO2 49 mm Hg, PaCO2 52 mm Hg Respiratory failure is described as a PaO2 of 60 mm Hg or lower and a PaCO2 of 50 mm Hg or higher in a client with no history of respiratory disease. In a client with a history of a respiratory disorder with hypercapnia, increases of 5 mm Hg or more (PaCO2) from the client's baseline are considered diagnostic

A client in shock is receiving dopamine hydrochloride by intravenous (IV) infusion. The nurse should have which medication available for local injection if IV infiltration and medication extravasation occur? 1. Vitamin K 2. Phentolamine 3. Atropine sulfate 4. Protamine sulfate

Phentolamine Phentolamine is an alpha-adrenergic blocking agent that prevents dermal necrosis and sloughing after infiltration of norepinephrine or dopamine. Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin. Atropine sulfate is the antidote for cholinergic crisis. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin

The nurse in a labor room is performing a vaginal assessment on a pregnant client in labor. The nurse notes the presence of the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. What is the first nursing action with this finding? 1. Gently push the cord into the vagina. 2. Place the client in Trendelenburg's position. 3. Find the closest telephone and page the health care provider stat. 4. Call the delivery room to notify the staff that the client will be transported immediately.

Place the client in Trendelenburg's position. When cord prolapse occurs, prompt actions are taken to relieve cord compression and increase fetal oxygenation. The client should be positioned with the hips higher than the head to shift the fetal presenting part toward the diaphragm. The nurse should push the call light to summon help, and other staff members should call the health care provider and notify the delivery room. If the cord is protruding from the vagina, no attempt should be made to replace it because to do so could traumatize it and reduce blood flow further. Also as a first action, the examiner should place a gloved hand into the vagina, and hold the presenting part off the umbilical cord. Oxygen, 8 to 10 L/minute, by face mask is administered to the client to increase fetal oxygenation.

The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube drainage system. While the client is being assisted to sit up in bed in preparation for ambulation, the chest tube accidentally disconnects from the chest drainage system. Which is the initial nursing action? 1. Contact the health care provider (HCP). 2. Call a respiratory therapist to come to the bedside. 3. Encourage the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver. 4. Place the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile water.

Place the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile water. If a chest tube becomes disconnected, the nurse should as quickly as possible place the end of the tube in a container of sterile water until the drainage system can be replaced. It is not necessary to contact a respiratory therapist at this time. It may be necessary to contact the HCP, but this would not be the initial nursing action. Asking the client to perform a Valsalva maneuver is not appropriate and could be harmful.

A client has just undergone insertion of a central venous catheter at the bedside. The nurse would be sure to check which results before initiating the flow rate of the client's intravenous (IV) solution at 100 mL/hour? 1. Serum osmolality 2. Serum electrolyte levels 3. Portable chest x-ray film 4. Intake and output record

Portable chest x-ray film Before beginning administration of IV solution, the nurse should assess whether the chest radiograph reveals that the central catheter is in the proper place. This is necessary to prevent infusion of IV fluid into pulmonary or subcutaneous tissues. The other options represent items that are useful for the nurse to be aware of in the general care of this client, but they do not relate to this procedure.

A client in sinus bradycardia, with a heart rate of 45 beats/minute, complains of dizziness and has a blood pressure of 82/60 mm Hg. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed? 1. Administer digoxin. 2. Defibrillate the client. 3. Continue to monitor the client. 4. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing.

Prepare for transcutaneous pacing. Sinus bradycardia is noted with a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. This rhythm becomes a concern when the client becomes symptomatic. Hypotension and dizziness are signs of decreased cardiac output. Transcutaneous pacing provides a temporary measure to increase the heart rate and thus perfusion in the symptomatic client. Defibrillation is used for treatment of pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. Digoxin will further decrease the client's heart rate. Continuing to monitor the client delays necessary intervention.

A client receiving parenteral nutrition (PN) suddenly develops a fever. The nurse notifies the health care provider (HCP), and the HCP initially prescribes that the solution and tubing be changed. What should the nurse do with the discontinued materials? 1. Discard them in the unit trash. 2. Return them to the hospital pharmacy. 3. Save them for return to the manufacturer. 4. Prepare to send them to the laboratory for culture.

Prepare to send them to the laboratory for culture. When the client who is receiving PN develops a fever, a catheter-related infection should be suspected. The solution and tubing should be changed, and the discontinued materials should be cultured for infectious organisms per HCP prescription. The other options are incorrect. Because culture for infectious organisms is necessary, the discontinued materials are not discarded or returned to the pharmacy or manufacturer.

A mother brings her child to the emergency department. Based on the child's sitting position, drooling, and apparent respiratory distress, a diagnosis of epiglottitis is suspected. The nurse should plan for which priority intervention? 1. Obtaining a chest x-ray 2. Asking the mother about the precipitating events 3. Obtaining weight for correct antibiotic dose infusion 4. Providing assisted ventilation and obtaining the necessary equipment

Providing assisted ventilation and obtaining the necessary equipment The highest priority with epiglottitis is to have assisted ventilation available because the highest risk with this child is complete airway obstruction. Therefore, interventions related to airway are the priority. Physiological interventions continue to have the highest priority, with assessment of breath and heart sounds and then obtaining pulse oximetry being priorities. Once the airway is stabilized, the temperature, weight, and a chest x-ray can be obtained. The last priority is asking about precipitating events, which is done once physiological needs are met.

Which readings obtained from a client's pulmonary artery catheter suggest that the client is in left-sided heart failure? 1. Cardiac output of 5 L/min 2. Right atrial pressure of 9 mm Hg 3. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) of 20 mm Hg 4. Pulmonary artery systolic/diastolic pressures of 24/10 mm Hg

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) of 20 mm Hg Normal PCWP ranges from 8 to 15 mm Hg. A PCWP of 20 mm Hg is elevated and corresponds to volume overload of the left ventricle, such as occurs in heart failure. Options 1, 2, and 4 are normal values.

A client diagnosed with thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath and is visibly anxious. Which complication should the nurse immediately assess the client for? 1. Pneumonia 2. Pulmonary edema 3. Pulmonary embolism 4. Myocardial infarction

Pulmonary embolism Pulmonary embolism is a life-threatening complication of deep vein thrombosis and thrombophlebitis. Chest pain is the most common symptom; it is sudden in onset and may be aggravated by breathing. Other signs and symptoms include dyspnea, cough, diaphoresis, and apprehension. The conditions in the remaining options are not associated with thrombophlebitis.

A client is admitted to the hospital for an acute episode of angina pectoris. Which parameter is the priority for the nurse to monitor? 1. Pulse and blood pressure 2. Temperature and respirations 3. Food tolerance and urinary output 4. Right upper quadrant pain and fatigue

Pulse and blood pressure Angina pectoris is transient chest pain or discomfort that is caused by an imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply and demand. The discomfort typically occurs in the retrosternal area; may or may not radiate; and is described as a tight, heavy, squeezing, burning, or choking sensation. The two major types of angina pectoris are stable (classic exertional) angina and unstable angina. Stable angina, the most common type, is usually precipitated by physical exertion or emotional stress, lasts 3 to 5 minutes, and is relieved by rest and nitroglycerin. Acute intervention for the client who has an anginal attack includes vital signs, oxygen, pain relief, and continuous electrocardiographic monitoring.

A client with a spinal cord injury suddenly experiences an episode of autonomic dysreflexia. After checking the client's vital signs, the nurse takes the following actions. Arrange the actions in the order they should be performed. All options must be used.

Raise the head of the bed. Loosen tight clothing on the client Check for bladder distention. Contact the health care provider (HCP). Administer an antihypertensive medication. Document the occurrence, treatment, and response. Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by severe hypertension, bradycardia, severe headache, nasal stuffiness, and flushing. The cause is a noxious stimulus, most often a distended bladder or constipation. Autonomic dysreflexia is a neurological emergency and must be treated promptly to prevent a hypertensive stroke. Immediate nursing actions are to sit the client up in bed in a high Fowler's position and to remove the noxious stimulus. The nurse would loosen any tight clothing and then check for bladder distention. If the client has a Foley catheter, the nurse would check for kinks in the tubing. The nurse also would check for a fecal impaction and would disimpact the client, if necessary. The HCP is then contacted, especially if these actions do not relieve the signs and symptoms. Antihypertensive medication may be prescribed by the HCP to minimize cerebral hypertension. Finally, the nurse documents the occurrence, treatment, and client response.

A client with pancreatitis is being weaned from total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The client asks the nurse why the TPN cannot just be stopped. What is the nurse's best response? 1. Dehydration can result. 2. Hypokalemia may occur. 3. Hypernatremia will occur. 4. Rebound hypoglycemia is a risk.

Rebound hypoglycemia is a risk. Clients receiving TPN are receiving high concentrations of glucose. To give the pancreas time to adjust to decreasing glucose loads, the infusion rates are tapered down. Before discontinuing the TPN, the body must adjust to the lowered glucose level. If the TPN were suddenly withdrawn, the client could have rebound hypoglycemia. Although the other options are potential complications, they are not risks associated with discontinuing TPN abruptly.

The nurse has just obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank to transfuse into a client as prescribed. Before preparing the blood for transfusion, the nurse looks for which member of the health care team to assist in checking the unit of blood? 1. Phlebotomist 2. Medical student 3. Registered nurse (RN) 4. Blood bank technician

Registered nurse (RN) Depending on agency policy, two RNs or one RN and one licensed practical nurse (LPN) must check the label on the blood product together against the client's identification number, blood group, and complete name. This minimizes the risk of error in checking information on the blood bag and thereby minimizes the risk of harm or injury to the client. A blood bank technician verifies data with the nurse when the blood is obtained from the blood bank but does not verify information on the nursing unit or at the client's bedside. The other options are also incorrect.

The nurse notes that the client's intravenous (IV) site is cool, pale, and swollen and that the solution is not infusing. What is the nurse's priority action? 1. Elevate the extremity. 2. Remove the IV catheter. 3. Assess for signs of infection. 4. Decrease the rate of infusion.

Remove the IV catheter. The client's IV has infiltrated. An infiltrated IV is one that has dislodged from the vein and is lying in subcutaneous tissue. Pallor, coolness, and swelling are the results of IV fluid being deposited in the subcutaneous tissue. When the pressure in the tissues exceeds the pressure in the tubing, the flow of the IV solution will stop. The corrective action is to remove the catheter and start a new IV line at another site. Infection, phlebitis, and thrombosis are likely to be accompanied by warmth at the site, not coolness. Elevating the extremity should be implemented after removing the IV to reduce swelling.

The nurse is assessing a client's peripheral intravenous (IV) site after completion of a vancomycin infusion and notes that the area is reddened, warm, painful, and slightly edematous proximal to the insertion point of the IV catheter. At this time, which action by the nurse is best? 1. Check for the presence of blood return. 2. Remove the IV site and restart at another site. 3. Document the findings and continue to monitor the IV site. 4. Call the health care provider (HCP) and request that the vancomycin be given orally.

Remove the IV site and restart at another site. Phlebitis at an IV site can be distinguished by client discomfort at the site and by redness, warmth, and swelling proximal to the catheter. If phlebitis occurs, the nurse should remove the IV line and insert a new IV line at a different site, in a vein other than the one that has developed phlebitis. Checking for the presence of blood return should be done before the administration of vancomycin because this medication is a vesicant. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the IV site and calling the HCP and requesting that the vancomycin be given orally do not address the immediate problem. Additionally, there could be indications for the prescription of IV as opposed to oral vancomycin for the client. The HCP should be notified of the complications with the IV site, but not asked for a prescription for oral vancomycin.

A client experienced an open pneumothorax (sucking wound), which has been covered with an occlusive dressing. The client begins to experience severe dyspnea, and the blood pressure begins to fall. The nurse should first perform which action? 1. Remove the dressing. 2. Reinforce the dressing. 3. Call the health care provider (HCP). 4. Measure oxygen saturation by oximetry.

Remove the dressing. Placement of a dressing over a chest wound could convert an open pneumothorax to a closed (tension) pneumothorax. This may result in a sudden decline in respiratory status, mediastinal shift with twisting of the great vessels, and circulatory compromise. If clinical changes occur, the nurse should remove the dressing immediately, allowing air to escape. Therefore, reinforcing the dressing is an incorrect action. The nurse would measure oxygen saturation by oximetry and would call the HCP, but these would not be the first actions in this situation.

The industrial nurse is providing instructions to a group of employees regarding care to a client in the event of a chemical burn injury. The nurse instructs the employees that which is the first consideration in immediate care? 1. Removing all clothing, including gloves, shoes, and any undergarments 2. Determining the antidote for the chemical and placing the antidote on the burn site 3. Leaving all clothing in place until the client is brought to the emergency department 4. Lavaging the skin with water and avoiding brushing powdered chemicals off the clothing

Removing all clothing, including gloves, shoes, and any undergarments In a chemical burn injury the burning process continues as long as the chemical is in contact with the skin. All clothing, including gloves, shoes, and undergarments, is removed immediately, and water lavage is instituted before and during transport to the emergency department. Powdered chemicals are first brushed off the client before lavage is performed.

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). The client is experiencing chest pain that is unrelieved by the administration of nitroglycerin. The nurse administers morphine sulfate to the client as prescribed by the health care provider. After administration of the morphine sulfate, what is the priority assessment 1. Respirations 2. Mental status 3. Urinary output 4. Blood pressure

Respirations Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic that may be administered to relieve pain in a client with MI. The nurse would monitor the client's respirations and blood pressure. Signs of morphine toxicity include respiratory depression and hypotension. Respiratory depression is the priority concern using the ABCs-Airway, Breathing, and Circulation-assessment. Although monitoring mental status is a component of the nurse's assessment, it is not the priority after administration of morphine sulfate. Urinary output is unrelated to the administration of this medication. Monitoring the temperature also is not associated with the use of this medication.

Fat emulsion is prescribed for the client receiving total parenteral nutrition. The nurse is preparing to administer the fat emulsion and notes the presence of fat globules in the solution. What should the nurse do? 1. Call the health care provider (HCP). 2. Return the solution to the pharmacy. 3. Shake the solution to dissolve the globules. 4. Place the solution in a bath of warm water until the globules dissolve.

Return the solution to the pharmacy. The nurse should not hang a fat emulsion that has visible fat globules. Another solution should be obtained and used instead. Shaking the solution or placing the solution in a warm-water bath is not an appropriate action. Contacting the HCP also is inappropriate; the HCP's permission is not needed to obtain another bottle of solution.

A client has been admitted with chest trauma after a motor vehicle crash and has undergone subsequent intubation. The nurse checks the client when the high-pressure alarm on the ventilator sounds, and notes that the client has absence of breath sounds in the right upper lobe of the lung. The nurse immediately assesses for other signs of which condition? 1. Right pneumothorax 2. Pulmonary embolism 3. Displaced endotracheal tube 4. Acute respiratory distress syndrome

Right pneumothorax Pneumothorax is characterized by restlessness, tachycardia, dyspnea, pain with respiration, asymmetrical chest expansion, and diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side. Pneumothorax can cause increased airway pressure because of resistance to lung inflation. Acute respiratory distress syndrome and pulmonary embolism are not characterized by absent breath sounds. An endotracheal tube that is inserted too far can cause absent breath sounds, but the lack of breath sounds most likely would be on the left side because of the degree of curvature of the right and left mainstem bronchi.

The nurse has a prescription to hang a 1000-mL intravenous (IV) bag of 5% dextrose in water with 20 mEq of potassium chloride and needs to add the medication to the IV bag. The nurse should plan to take which action immediately after injecting the potassium chloride into the port of the IV bag? 1. Rotate the bag gently. 2. Attach the tubing to the client. 3. Prime the tubing with the IV solution. 4. Check the solution for yellowish discoloration.

Rotate the bag gently. After adding a medication to a bag of IV solution, the nurse should agitate or rotate the bag gently to mix the medication evenly in the solution. The nurse should then attach a completed medication label. The nurse can then prime the tubing. The IV solution should have been checked for discoloration before the medication was added to the solution. The tubing is attached to the client last.

The nurse determines that a client is having a transfusion reaction. After the nurse stops the transfusion, which action should be taken next? 1. Remove the intravenous (IV) line. 2. Run a solution of 5% dextrose in water. 3. Run normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate. 4. Obtain a culture of the tip of the catheter device removed from the client.

Run normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate. If the nurse suspects a transfusion reaction, the nurse stops the transfusion and infuses normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate pending further health care provider prescriptions. This maintains a patent IV access line and aids in maintaining the client's intravascular volume. The nurse would not remove the IV line because then there would be no IV access route. Obtaining a culture of the tip of the catheter device removed from the client is incorrect. First, the catheter should not be removed. Second, cultures are performed when infection, not transfusion reaction, is suspected. Normal saline is the solution of choice over solutions containing dextrose because saline does not cause red blood cells to clump.

A client receiving a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) begins to vomit. The client's blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg from a baseline of 125/78 mm Hg. The client's temperature is 100.8°F (38.2°C) orally from a baseline of 99.2°F (37.3°C) orally. The nurse determines that the client may be experiencing which complication of a blood transfusion? 1. Septicemia 2. Hyperkalemia 3. Circulatory overload 4. Delayed transfusion reaction

Septicemia Septicemia occurs with the transfusion of blood contaminated with microorganisms. Signs include chills, fever, vomiting, diarrhea, hypotension, and the development of shock. Hyperkalemia causes weakness, paresthesias, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, and dysrhythmias. Circulatory overload causes cough, dyspnea, chest pain, wheezing, tachycardia, and hypertension. A delayed transfusion reaction can occur days to years after a transfusion. Signs include fever, mild jaundice, and a decreased hematocrit level.

The nurse is caring for a client who has overdosed on phenobarbital. The nurse anticipates which assessment finding with this client? 1. Hyperthermia 2. Hyperreflexia 3. Deep respirations 4. Shallow respirations

Shallow respirations A client experiencing an overdose from barbiturates (such as phenobarbital) will experience shallow respirations; cold, clammy skin; weak, rapid pulse; hyporeflexia; coma; and possible death. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

A client had a 1000-mL bag of 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride hung at 1500. The nurse, making rounds at 1545, finds that the client is apprehensive, complaining of a pounding headache, is dyspneic with chills, and has an increased pulse rate. The intravenous (IV) bag has 400 mL remaining. The nurse should take which action first? 1. Shut off the infusion. 2. Sit the client up in bed. 3. Remove the angiocatheter and IV quickly. 4. Place the client in the Trendelenburg's position.

Shut off the infusion. The client's symptoms are compatible with speed shock (fluid volume overload). This may be verified by noting that 600 mL has infused in the course of 45 minutes. The first action of the nurse from the options presented is to shut off the infusion. The nurse may elevate the head of the bed to aid the client's breathing. Placing the client in the Trendelenburg's position is not an appropriate action and will increase the dyspnea. The nurse also notifies the health care provider. The angiocatheter is not removed. An IV access may be needed to treat the complication and may continue to be needed when the complication has been managed.

A client had a 1000-mL bag of 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride hung at 1500. The nurse making rounds at 1545 finds that the client is complaining of a pounding headache and is dyspneic, experiencing chills, and apprehensive, with an increased pulse rate. The intravenous (IV) bag has 400 mL remaining. The nurse should take which action first? 1. Slow the IV infusion. 2. Sit the client up in bed. 3. Remove the IV catheter. 4. Call the health care provider (HCP).

Slow the IV infusion. The client's symptoms are compatible with circulatory overload. This may be verified by noting that 600 mL has infused in the course of 45 minutes. The first action of the nurse is to slow the infusion. Other actions may follow in rapid sequence. The nurse may elevate the head of the bed to aid the client's breathing, if necessary. The nurse also notifies the HCP. The IV catheter is not removed; it may be needed for the administration of medications to resolve the complication.

The nurse notes that a 14-year-old child is choking but is awake and alert at this time. The nurse rushes to perform the abdominal thrust maneuver. The child becomes unconscious. What procedure should the nurse perform next? 1. Perform a finger sweep. 2. Start chest compressions. 3. Attempt rescue breathing. 4. Ask the parent what happened.

Start chest compressions. To perform the abdominal thrust maneuver for a conscious child, the rescuer stands or kneels behind the child and places the arms directly under the child's axillae and then around the child. The thumb side of 1 fist is placed against the child's abdomen in the midline slightly above the umbilicus and well below the tip of the xiphoid process. The xiphoid process and ribs are avoided to prevent damage to internal organs. The fist is grasped with the other hand, and upward thrusts are delivered. If the child becomes unconscious, the nurse should start cardiopulmonary resuscitation, first beginning compressions. Performing a blind finger sweep is not recommended. If the object can be visualized and is retrievable, it is acceptable to attempt to remove the object. Rescue breathing is not appropriate at this time but may be necessary later. It will be necessary at some point to determine what happened, but this would not be the nurse's next action.

A health care provider has written a prescription to discontinue an intravenous (IV) line. The nurse should obtain which item from the unit supply area for applying pressure to the site after removing the IV catheter? 1. Elastic wrap 2. Povidone iodine swab 3. Adhesive bandage 4. Sterile 2 × 2 gauze

Sterile 2 × 2 gauze A dry sterile dressing such as a sterile 2 × 2 gauze is used to apply pressure to the discontinued IV site. This material is absorbent, sterile, and nonirritating. A povidone iodine swab would irritate the opened puncture site and would not stop the blood flow. An adhesive bandage or elastic wrap may be used to cover the site once hemostasis has occurred.

A health care provider has written a prescription to discontinue an intravenous (IV) line. The nurse should obtain which item from the unit supply area for applying pressure to the site after removing the IV catheter? 1. Elastic wrap 2. Sterile 2 × 2 gauze 3. Adhesive bandage 4. Povidine-iodine swab

Sterile 2 × 2 gauze A dry sterile dressing such as sterile 2 × 2 gauze is used to apply pressure to the discontinued IV site. This material is absorbent, sterile, and nonirritating. A povidine-iodine swab would irritate the opened puncture site and would not stop the blood flow. An adhesive bandage or elastic wrap may be used to cover the site once hemostasis has occurred.

A client receiving thrombolytic therapy with a continuous infusion of alteplase suddenly becomes extremely anxious and complains of itching. The nurse hears stridor and notes generalized urticaria and hypotension. Which nursing action is the priority? 1. Administer oxygen and protamine sulfate. 2. Cut the infusion rate in half and sit the client up in bed. 3. Stop the infusion and call for the Rapid Response Team (RRT). 4. Administer diphenhydramine and epinephrine and continue the infusion.

Stop the infusion and call for the Rapid Response Team (RRT). The client is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. Therefore, the priority action is to stop the infusion and notify the RRT. The health care provider should be contacted once the client has been stabilized. The client may be treated with epinephrine, antihistamines, and corticosteroids as prescribed, but the infusion should not be continued.

A client has an epidural catheter in place after colon surgery and is receiving pain medication through the catheter. During the night the client calls the nurse and says, "I have a terrible headache that just started now." The nurse checks the epidural catheter insertion site and notes a small amount of clear drainage leaking from the bandage. What is the first action the nurse should take? 1. Stop the infusion. 2. Change the dressing bandage. 3. Remove the epidural catheter. 4. Notify the health care provider (HCP).

Stop the infusion. If a client complains of a sudden headache and clear drainage is present near the epidural insertion site, it is possible that the catheter has migrated. The immediate actions by the nurse are to stop the infusion and then to notify the HCP. The HCP needs to be notified, but the nurse can delegate that task to a colleague while caring for the client. It is not appropriate for the nurse to remove the epidural catheter without a prescription. Simply changing the bandage does not address the critical problem.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving feedings by nasogastric tube. The client suddenly begins to vomit, and the nurse quickly repositions the client. The client is coughing and having difficulty breathing. What is the nurse's priority action? 1. Call a code. 2. Suction the client. 3. Check the client's vital signs 4. Call the health care provider (HCP

Suction the client. This client is at high risk for aspiration due to vomiting with a nasogastric tube in place. If the client aspirates a feeding, the nurse should immediately suction the client's airway. The client's respiratory status will then be monitored closely until a normal respiratory pattern resumes. The question presents no data indicating the need to call a code. The client's vital signs may need to be monitored, but this is not the priority action. Although the HCP may need to be notified, ensuring a patent airway is the priority.

A child is admitted to the hospital after being seen in the emergency department with complaints of right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills. The health care provider (HCP) suspects appendicitis. Which assessment finding should the nurse immediately report to the HCP? 1. Decreasing oral temperature 2. Increasing complaints of pain 3. Refusal to take fluids by mouth 4. Sudden relief of abdominal pain

Sudden relief of abdominal pain A sudden relief of pain from a suspected appendicitis is commonly indicative of a ruptured appendix. This places the individual at risk for peritonitis and shock. The HCP should be notified immediately because of the need to begin intravenous antibiotics to prevent further complications. Although increasing complaints of pain is a concern, the higher priority is sudden relief of pain because of the risk of peritonitis and shock. Temperature should be monitored but is not of highest priority. The child will be placed on NPO (nothing by mouth) status in anticipation of surgery; therefore, option 4 is incorrect.

The nurse is preparing to change the parenteral nutrition (PN) solution bag and tubing. The client's central venous line is located in the right subclavian vein. The nurse asks the client to take which essential action during the tubing change? 1. Breathe normally. 2. Turn the head to the right. 3. Exhale slowly and evenly. 4. Take a deep breath, hold it, and bear down.

Take a deep breath, hold it, and bear down. The client should be asked to perform the Valsalva maneuver during tubing changes. This helps avoid air embolism during tubing changes. The nurse asks the client to take a deep breath, hold it, and bear down. If the intravenous line is on the right, the client turns his or her head to the left. This position increases intrathoracic pressure. Breathing normally and exhaling slowly and evenly are inappropriate and could enhance the potential for an air embolism during the tubing change.

A client presents to the urgent care center with complaints of abdominal pain and vomits bright red blood. Which is the priority nursing action? 1. Take the client's vital signs. 2. Perform a complete abdominal assessment. 3. Obtain a thorough history of the recent health status. 4. Prepare to insert a nasogastric tube and test pH and occult blood.

Take the client's vital signs. The nurse should take the client's vital signs first to determine whether they are hypovolemic or in shock from blood loss. This also provides a baseline blood pressure and pulse by which to gauge the effectiveness of treatment. Signs and symptoms of shock include low blood pressure; rapid, weak pulse; increased thirst; cold, clammy skin; and restlessness. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

A client has been discharged to home on parenteral nutrition (PN). With each visit, the home care nurse should assess which parameter most closely in monitoring this therapy? 1. Pulse and weight 2. Temperature and weight 3. Pulse and blood pressure 4. Temperature and blood pressure

Temperature and weight The client receiving PN at home should have her or his temperature monitored as a means of detecting infection, which is a potential complication of this therapy. An infection also could result in sepsis because the catheter is in a blood vessel. The client's weight is monitored as a measure of the effectiveness of this nutritional therapy and to detect hypervolemia. The pulse and blood pressure are important parameters to assess, but they do not relate specifically to the effects of PN.

The health care provider (HCP) arrives on the nursing unit and deflates the esophageal balloon of a client's Sengstaken-Blakemore tube. The nurse should contact the HCP immediately if which occurs? 1. The client has some diarrhea that is bloody. 2. The client's blood pressure is 128/78 mm Hg. 3. The client complains of abdominal discomfort. 4. The client complains of nausea and vomits blood.

The client complains of nausea and vomits blood. A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube may be used in a client with a diagnosis of cirrhosis and ruptured esophageal varices if other interventions are unsuccessful. The tube has an esophageal and a gastric balloon. The esophageal balloon exerts pressure on the ruptured esophageal varices and stops the bleeding. The pressure of the esophageal balloon is released at intervals to decrease the risk of trauma to esophageal tissues, including esophageal rupture or necrosis. When the balloon is deflated, the client may begin to bleed again from the esophageal varices; this would be manifested by vomiting of blood (hematemesis). The remaining options are not specifically associated with esophageal deflation.

The health care provider (HCP) prescribes fat emulsion, given intravenously, for a client. The nurse should consult with the HCP before administering the fat emulsion solution if which is noted in the client's record? 1. The client has an allergy to iodine. 2. The client has an allergy to egg yolks. 3. The client is receiving total parenteral nutrition. 4. The client has a blood glucose level of 120 mg/dL (6.9 mmol/L).

The client has an allergy to egg yolks. Before administering any medication, the nurse must assess for allergy or hypersensitivity to substances used in producing the medication. Fat emulsions may contain an emulsifying agent obtained from egg yolks. Clients sensitive to eggs are at risk for developing hypersensitivity reactions. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not contraindications to the administration of fat emulsions.

The dosage is too high.

The dosage is within safe range

Cloxacillin sodium 100 mg orally every 8 hours is prescribed for a child with an elevated temperature who is suspected of having a respiratory tract infection. The child weighs 17 pounds. The safe pediatric dosage is 50 mg/kg/day. Which statement accurately describes the prescribed dosage for this child?

The dosage is within the safe dosage range.

Penicillin V 250 mg orally every 8 hours, is prescribed for a child with a respiratory infection. The child's weight is 45 pounds. The safe pediatric dosage is 25 to 50 mg/kg/day. Which statement accurately describes the prescribed dosage for this child?

The dosage is within the safe dosage range.

The nurse is checking postoperative prescriptions and planning care for a 110-pound child after spinal fusion. Morphine sulfate, 8 mg subcutaneously every 4 hours as needed (PRN) for pain, is prescribed. The pediatric drug reference states that the safe dosage is 0.1 to 0.2 mg/kg/dose every 2 to 4 hours. What should the nurse determine about the medication dosage?

The dosage is within the safe range.

A client with a probable minor head injury resulting from a motor vehicle crash is admitted to the hospital for observation. The nurse leaves the cervical collar applied to the client in place until when? 1. The family comes to visit 2. The nurse needs to do physical care 3. The health care provider makes rounds 4. The results of spinal radiography are known

The results of spinal radiography are known There is a significant association between cervical spine injury and head injury. For this reason, the nurse leaves any form of spinal immobilization in place until spinal radiographs rule out fracture or other damage. The remaining options are incorrect.

Which should the nurse do when setting up an arterial line? 1. Tighten all tubing connections. 2. Use macrodrop intravenous tubing. 3. Level the transducer to the ventricle. 4. Raise the height of the normal saline infusion to prevent backup.

Tighten all tubing connections. Because the arterial vasculature is a high-pressure system, all tubing connections must be tight to avoid blood loss from loose connections. High-pressure tubing with a transducer is used (not macrodrip tubing). The transducer should be level to the atrium, not the ventricle. Raising the height of the infusion is not sufficient to prevent backflow.

To perform defibrillation, the defibrillator pads should be placed in which areas of the client's chest? 1. Behind the right and left shoulders in the scapular area 2. 1 inch (2.5 cm) below the sternum and 4 inches (10 cm) to the left of the sternum 3. 1 inch (2.5 cm) below the umbilicus and 2 inches (5 cm) to the right of the left nipple 4. To the right of the sternum just below the clavicle and to the left side, just below and to the left of the pectoral muscle

To the right of the sternum just below the clavicle and to the left side, just below and to the left of the pectoral muscle The anterior-apex placement works well for defibrillation and cardioversion, as well as for monitoring an electrocardiogram. In this placement, the anterior pad is placed on the right, below the clavicle. The other is applied to the left side of the client, just below and to the left of the pectoral muscle.

The client who has experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) is recovering from cardiogenic shock. The nurse knows that which observation of the client's clinical condition is most favorable? 1. Urine output of 40 mL/hr 2. Heart rate of 110 beats/minute 3. Frequent premature ventricular contractions 4. Central venous pressure (CVP) of 15 mm Hg

Urine output of 40 mL/hr Urine output of greater than 30 mL/hr indicates adequate perfusion to the kidneys, so the other organs are most likely equally perfused. Classic cardiovascular signs of cardiogenic shock include low blood pressure and tachycardia. Dysrhythmias commonly occur as a result of decreased oxygenation to the myocardium and are not a favorable sign. The CVP rises as the effects of the backward blood flow caused by the left ventricular failure became apparent.

The nurse is caring for a client who sustained a burn injury to the anterior arms and anterior chest area from a fire. Which assessment finding would indicate that the client sustained a respiratory injury as a result of the burn? 1. Fear and anxiety 2. Complaints of pain 3. Clear breath sounds 4. Use of accessory muscles for breathing

Use of accessory muscles for breathing Clinical indicators of respiratory injury in a burn-injured client include the presence of facial burns, the presence of soot around the mouth or nose, and singed nasal hairs. Signs of respiratory difficulty include changes in respiratory rate and the use of accessory muscles for breathing. Although anxiety may be a sign of hypoxemia, anxiety along with bradycardia, dysrhythmias, and lethargy would be more likely to indicate a concern related to a respiratory injury. Abnormal breath sounds and abnormal arterial blood gas values also would be noted.

The low-pressure alarm sounds on a ventilator. The nurse assesses the client and then attempts to determine the cause of the alarm. If unsuccessful in determining the cause of the alarm, the nurse should take what initial action? 1. Administer oxygen. 2. Check the client's vital signs. 3. Ventilate the client manually. 4. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation.

Ventilate the client manually. If at any time an alarm is sounding and the nurse cannot quickly ascertain the problem, the client is disconnected from the ventilator and manual resuscitation is used to support respirations until the problem can be corrected. No reason is given to begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Checking vital signs is not the initial action. Although oxygen is helpful, it will not provide ventilation to the client.

A client with myocardial infarction is developing cardiogenic shock. Because of the risk of myocardial ischemia, what condition should the nurse carefully assess the client for? 1. Bradycardia 2. Ventricular dysrhythmias 3. Rising diastolic blood pressure 4. Falling central venous pressure

Ventricular dysrhythmias Classic signs of cardiogenic shock as they relate to myocardial ischemia include low blood pressure and tachycardia. The central venous pressure would rise as the backward effects of the severe left ventricular failure became apparent. Dysrhythmias commonly occur as a result of decreased oxygenation and severe damage to greater than 40% of the myocardium.

A client being admitted to the coronary care unit from the emergency department has a stat prescription to receive a dose of intravenous procainamide followed by a continuous infusion. Based on this prescription, the nurse should assess for which condition? 1. Dyspnea 2. Bradycardia 3. Hypertension 4. Ventricular ectopy

Ventricular ectopy Procainamide is an antidysrhythmic medication used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias unresponsive to lidocaine. The other options are not indications for giving this medication.

The nurse notes that a client with sinus rhythm has a premature ventricular contraction that falls on the T wave of the preceding beat. The client's rhythm suddenly changes to one with no P waves, no definable QRS complexes, and coarse wavy lines of varying amplitude. How should the nurse correctly interpret this rhythm? 1. Asystole 2. Atrial fibrillation 3. Ventricular fibrillation 4. Ventricular tachycardia

Ventricular fibrillation Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by irregular chaotic undulations of varying amplitudes. Ventricular fibrillation has no measurable rate and no visible P waves or QRS complexes and results from electrical chaos in the ventricles.

The nurse is making a note in the care plan for a client who has a multilumen central venous catheter. The nurse should write to change the injection caps on the lumens at which times? 1. Once a week 2. At the change of each shift 3. After administration of each medication 4. Whenever blood is drawn from the lumen

Whenever blood is drawn from the lumen Changing the injection caps is done to reduce systemic infection, which can be caused by contaminated caps. The injection cap should be discarded and a new one applied once it has been removed from the actual lumen. It is removed whenever blood work is drawn from the lumen. Once a week is too infrequent. At the change of shift is too frequent. It is not necessary to change the injection caps after administration of each medication because it is unnecessary to remove the cap to administer medication. In addition, agencies have policies that guide the frequency of routine injection cap changes (often every 48 hours). Agency policies should always be followed.

A pregnant client being admitted to the labor room tells the nurse that she felt a large gush of fluid before arriving at the hospital. The nurse performs an assessment on the client and notes that the fetal heart rate is 90 beats/minute and that the umbilical cord is protruding from the vagina. What is the appropriate nursing action 1. Place the woman in a high Fowler's position. 2. Palpate and evaluate contractions while administering a tocolytic. 3. Wrap the cord loosely in a sterile towel saturated with warm, sterile normal saline. 4. Start an intravenous (IV) line with fluids to be administered at a keep-vein-open (KVO) rate only.

Wrap the cord loosely in a sterile towel saturated with warm, sterile normal saline. When an umbilical cord is protruding, nursing actions are immediately directed at reducing cord compression and facilitating delivery of the fetus. The cord is wrapped loosely in a sterile towel saturated with warm normal saline to prevent it from drying out and becoming compressed. The client is placed in an extreme Trendelenburg's or modified Sims' position or knee-chest position to reduce compression. A tocolytic is used for inadequate uterine relaxation. IV solutions are administered at a rate greater than a KVO rate.

The nurse has received a prescription to transfuse a client with a unit of packed red blood cells. Before explaining the procedure to the client, the nurse asks which initial question? a. "have you ever had a transfusion before?" b. "why do you think that you need the transfusion?" c. "have you ever gone into shock for any reason in the past?" e. "do you know the complications and risks of a transfusion?"

a. "have you ever had a transfusion before?" Asking the client about personal experience with transfusion therapy provides a good starting point for client teaching about this procedure. Options C and E are not helpful because they may elicit a fearful response from the client. Although determining whether the client knows the reason for the transfusion is important, option B is not an appropriate statement in terms of eliciting information from the client regarding an understanding of the need for the transfusion

A nurse has an order to transfuse a unit of packed red blood cells to a client who does not currently have an IV line inserted. When obtaining supplies to start the IV infusion the nurse selects an angiocatheter with a size of: a. 18 gauge b. 21 gauge c. 22 gauge d. 24 gauge

a. 18 gauge The IV catheter used for a blood transfusion should be at least 18 or 19 gauge. Compared with IV solutions, blood has a thicker and stickier consistency, and use of an 18 or 19 gauge catheter will ensure that the bore of the catheter is large enough to prevent damage to the blood cells.

A client requiring surgery is anxious about the possible need for a blood transfusion during or after the procedure. The nurse suggests to the client to do which of the following to reduce the risk of possible transfusion complications? a. give an autologous blood donation before the surgery b. ask a friend or family member to donate blood ahead of time c. take iron supplements before surgery to boost hemoglobin levels d. request that any donated blood be screened twice by the blood bank.

a. give an autologous blood donation before the surgery A donation of the client's own blood before a scheduled procedure is autologous. Donating autologous blood to be reinfused as needed during or after surgery reduces the risk of disease transmission and potential transfusion complications. The next most effective way is ask a family member to donate blood before surgery. Blood banks do not provide extra screening on request. Preoperative iron supplements are not helpful in replacing blood lost during the surgery.

51. Client who has been receiving parenteral nutrition by way of central venous access device complains of chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse quickyl assesses the client's vital signs and notes the pulse rate has increased, and the blood pressure has dropped. The nurse determines the client is experiencing?

air embolism

Why are clients on renal dialysis likely to have fluid overload?

anuria sometimes occurs, when urine is not excreted or the low output of urine (oliguric)

Why return the blood to the blood bank?

any follow-up testing procedures that are needed after a transfusion reaction have been documented

What are alike options to eliminate?

aspirate the NG tube after med administration, change the suction setting to low intermittent suction

Packed red blood cells have been prescribed for a client with low hemoglobin and hematocrit levels. The nurse takes the client's temperature before hanging the blood transfusion and records 100.6F orally. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action? a. Begin the transfusion as prescribed b. Delay hanging the blood and notify the physician c. Administer an antihistamine and begin the transfusion d. Administer two tablets of acetaminophen (Tylenol) and begin the transfusion

b. Delay hanging the blood and notify the physician If the client's temperature is higher than 100F the unit of blood should not be hung until the physician is notified and has the opportunity to give further prescriptions. The physician will likely prescribe that the blood be administered regardless of the temperature, but the decision is not within the nurse's scope of practice to make.

A client has a prescription to receive a unit of packed red blood cells. The nurse should obtain which of the following IV solutions form the IV storage area to hang with the blood product at the client's bedside? a. Lactated Ringer's b. 0.9% sodium chloride c. 5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride d. 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride

c. 0.9% sodium chloride Sodium chloride 0.9% (normal saline) is a standard isotonic solution used to precede and follow infusion of blood products. Dextrose is not used because it could result in clumping and subsequent hemolysis of red blood cells. Lactated ringer's is not the solution of choice with this procedure.

A client has experienced a rash with pruritus during previous blood transfusions. The client asks the nurse whether it is safe to receive another transfusion. In formulating a response, the nurse incorporates the understanding that which medication will most likely be prescribed before the transfusion is begun? a. Ibuprofen (Motrin) b. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) c. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) d. Acetylsalicylic Acid (ASA Aspirin)

c. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) An urticarial reaction is characterized by a rash accompanied by pruritus. This type of transfusion reaction is prevented by pretreating the client with an antihistamine such as diphenhydramine. Acetaminophen and ASA are analgesics and ibuprofen is a NSAID

A nurse is preparing an IV solution and tubing for a client who needs IV fluids. When prepping to prime the tubing, the tubing drops. The nurse should do what?

change the IV tubing

14. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a unit of packed red blood cells. The nurse tells the client to report what sign immediately?

chills, itching or rash

What clients cannot tolerate excessive fluid volume, and are therefore most likely to develop fluid overload?

client with respiratory, renal , cardiac, liver disease, older/very young

6. Client has prescription to receive 1000 mL of 5% dextrose in 0.45% sodium chloride. After gathering appropriate equipment, the nurse takes which action prior to spiking the IV bag with tubing?

closes the roller clamp on the IV tubing

What are signs and symptoms of air embolus?

confusion, pallor, lightheadedness, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, anxiety (hypotension, rapid heart rate, rapid breathing, confused, pale,)

A client has received a transfusion of platelets. The nurse evaluates that the client is benefiting most from this therapy if the client exhibits which of the following? a. Increased hematocrit level b. Increased hemoglobin level c. Decline of elevated temperature to normal d. Decreased oozing of blood from puncture sites and gums

d. Decreased oozing of blood from puncture sites and gums Platelets are necessary for proper blood clotting. The client with insufficient platelets may exhibit frank bleeding or oozing of blood from puncture sites, wounds, and mucous membranes. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels would occur when the client has received a transfusion of red blood cells. An elevated temperature would decline to normal after infusion of granulocytes if those cells were instrumental in fighting infection in the body.

8. Nurse is caring for patient with peripheral IV infusion. The nurse is providing hygiene care, and would avoid which of the following when changing gown?

disconnecting IV tubing from catheter

What does infiltration mean, and why does it cause a pale/swollen/cool site?

dislodged from the vein, in the subcutaneous tissue. The coolness, pallor, and swelling is due to the IV fluid being deposited in subcutaneous tissue. The stopping of flowage is due to an increase in pressure in the tissues, which is greater than the pressure in the tubing

When are the vital signs assessed when beginning the transfusion?

every 15 minutes for the first half hour after beginning the transfusion, and every half hour thereafter (not important to check skin color, O2 saturation, or latest hematocrit level)

If a client has bacteremia, what are signs?

fever

What are the signs of sepsis?

fever, malaise, chills

42. Client who is receiving PN complains of a headache. THe nurse notes that the client has increased blood pressure and a bounding pulse. The nurse reports the findings, knowing that these signs are indicative of which complicatio nof therapy?

fluid overload

16. Medication prescribed is hydropmorphone (Dilaudid) 3 mg intramuscular every 4 hours. THe med reads hydromorphone hydrochloride (Dilaudid), 4 mg/1 mL. The nurse administers how many mL to the client?

formula which can be used: desired (3)/available (4) * mL

10% dextrose in water?

hypertonic solution

10% dextrose in water, 5% dextrose in 0.9% normal saline, 5% dextrose in 0.45% normal saline are?

hypertonic solutions

5% dextrose in 0.9% saline?

hypertonic solutions

What is 0.45% normal saline?

hypotonic

Distilled water is an example of a?

hypotonic solution

What will not be affected by transfusion of platelets?

increase in hematocrit, increase in hemoglobin, decline in temperature to normal

52. A client receiving IV fluid therapy complains of burning and feeling of tightness at the IV insertion site. On assessment, the nurse detects coolness and swelling, and notes the IV flow rate has slowed. What has occured?

infiltration

Why is the appropirate action to remove the IV for infiltration?

infiltration is damagint to the surrounding tissue, most appropriate to remove IV to prevent further damage

3 mL syringe is used to administer?

intramuscular or subcutaneous injections

76. A normal saline 0.9% IV solution is prescribed. The IV is to run at 100 mL/hour. The nurse prepares the solution, understanding which of the following is characteristic of the solution?

is the same solution as sodium chloride 0.9%

What type of solution is 5% dextrose in water?

isotonic solution

Normal saline 0.9% is?

isotonic, and are used for IV infusions because they do not influence the plasma osmolarity

Describe the tuberculin syringe?

long, thin barrel, calibrated in sixteenths of a minim and hundredths of a milliliter with a capacity of 1 mL. It is used to prepare small amounts of medication such as precise doses for infants or young children

With air embolism, what would the nurse hear over the pericardium upon auscultation?

loud churning sound

15. Which of the clients are most likely to develop fluid overload? A premature infant A 101-year-old man A client on renal dialysis A client with diabetes mellitus A 29-year-old woman with pneumonia A client with congestive heart failure

premature infant, 101-year old man, client on renal dialysis, client with congestive heart failure

80. A nurse notes the client's peripheral IV catheter is red, warm, painful, slightly edematous proximal to insertion point of IV catheter. Based on these findings, initial nursing action?

remove the IV

When would a fever be present?

sepsis

Remember to eliminat?

similar options (in practice question hypersensitivity/ and allergic reaction were elimnated)

3. A client is experiencing a transfusion reaction. The nurse sends the blood bag that was used for the client to which area?

the blood bank

What does the increased intravascular volume increase?

the blood pressure

4. Nurse takes client's temp prior to blood transfusion, and the temperature is 100 degrees F orally. The nurse anticipates which action?

the blood will be held, and the health care provider will be notified

What can phlebitis result in?

thrombophlebitis, clot development

What syringe is best to give an infant medication?

tuberculin syringe

1. A nurse is helping a client who will receive a unit of blood. Prior to the infusion, it is MOST important for the nurse to check the client's?

Blood Administration NCLEX Practice Questions, NUR 211 Blood Transfusion NCLEX Questions, 1- blood nclex, 6-NCLEX Medication/IV Calculations, 5-Part 1: Medications/Blood IV therapy PN NCLEX Oct, 4-Module 8: Pharmacology and Intravenous Therapies, 3-S...

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