C400
Under which condition would a BCT most likely transition from the offense? (C400)
The BCT reaches a culmination point
During stability operations, if there is no legitimate government to support, what alternative governance entity might US forces support instead?
Transitional military authority
Which warfighting function's primary purpose is to assist commanders in integrating the other warfighting functions effectively at each echelon, and to apply combat power to achieve objectives and accomplish missions? (C400)
Command and control
Army doctrine describes the strategic situation through three contexts in which Army forces conduct operations. What are the contexts?
Competition, crisis, and armed conflict
The commander provides guidance to develop an offensive COA attack that focuses all of the BCT's maneuver forces, indirect fires, joint fires, and intelligence collection on a thinly protected portion of the enemy's defensive line. This COA best maximizes which characteristic of the offense? (C400)
Concentration
What best describes the integrated efforts of the commander's broad approach and the staff's scientific approach to produce a plan? (C400)
Conceptual planning and detailed planning
When commanders have tactical control (TACON) over forces, they have the authority to do which of the following? (C400)
Control or direct the application of force within an assigned mission or task
What Army echelon is the most versatile due to its ability to operate at both the tactical and operational levels? (C400)
Corps
If the commander as part of planning considerations wants to destroy, defeat or repel all enemy reconnaissance, which tactical mission task would you assign a formation? (C400)
Counterreconnaissance
At the division level, what integration cell is most likely responsible for conducting RDSP and issuing FRAGORDs based upon a change in the plan? (C400)
Current operations cell
During planning for defensive operations, the commander describes the necessity to prioritize engineer assets to conduct the survivability tasks of constructing combat vehicle fighting positions and protecting artillery firing positions and radar systems. This guidance is from which warfighting function?
Protection
Which of the following is a DSCA primary/key task?
Provide support for domestic CBRN incidents
If 1/4 SBCT were to attack with the aim of gaining control of terrain, resources, or key population centers, which doctrinal concept is best represented?
Purposes of offensive operations
During 1/4 ID SBCT's defense along PL BRONZE, the S2 informs the commander that an enemy armor battalion is attacking west towards their flank. The commander's decision support matrix did not account for this event. Given the situation, what is the most appropriate planning methodology for adjusting the SBCT's course of action?
Rapid decision-making and synchronization process (RDSP)
What is the action that occurs between two elements to coordinate the transfer of information and responsibility for observation of potential threat contact, or the transfer of an assigned area from one element to another? (C400)
Reconnaissance handover
What type of reconnaissance management should the commander employ to improve the chances the reconnaissance element collects the required information? (C400)
Redundancy
Which of the following is a cavalry squadron constraint? (C400)
Require augmentation to perform effective offensive and defensive actions as an economy of force role
Which of the following is a purpose of the defense?
Retain decisive terrain or deny a vital area to an enemy
A/an ____________ is a type of defensive operation that involves organized movement away from the enemy. An enemy force may compel these operations, or a commander may perform them voluntarily
Retrograde
Understanding a state's rules for the use of force (RUF) and the federal standing rules for the use of force (SRUF) during DSCA missions is analogous to understanding which of the following during other decisive action operations?
Rules of engagement
Each staff section is responsible for assisting the commander with understanding the situation, assessing progress, and making decisions. This is a continuous process. What tool best supports the staff in this responsibility? (C400)
Running estimates
What is the main difference between security and reconnaissance operations? (C400)
Security operations orient on the protected force, area, or facility to be protected, while reconnaissance is enemy, infrastructure, terrain and weather effects and society oriented
How do commanders and staffs synchronize specific functions throughout the operations process?
With integrating processes
If your active duty battalion/squadron is committed for a DSCA mission, this is usually based on a disaster declaration under which act?
The Stafford Act
Which of the following is an inherent strength of defensive operations?
The defender is able to occupy positions prior to being attacked and prepare defenses in the time available
If information collection reports indicate the enemy is conducting information warfare and distributes their forces over a wide area during tactical offensive operations, what type offensive action is the enemy force most likely conducting?
The enemy is conducting a dispersed attack due to encountering a superior enemy
As the commander visualizes the defensive operation being conducted, how can success best be measured?
The enemy's ability to synchronize a combined arms team or enemy's soldiers' will to fight
During orders production, which member of the staff establishes and enforces timings, directs the order type and format, and specifies the attachments each staff section publishes?
The executive officer / chief of staff
Doctrinally, what conditions best describe stability?
The populace believing their government is legitimate and their living situation is acceptable and predictable
Given the threat model depicted in the scenario sketch what unit represents the uncommitted force?
The tank company vicinity OBJ HAMILTON
What are the two sub-categories of a fragile state?
The two sub-categories of a fragile state are crisis and vulnerable. A crisis state is a state the does not exert effective control over its sovereign territory. A vulnerable state is a state cannot or does not want to provide security and basic services to significant portion of its population.
What might the commander be planning to do if, following a successful defense during which the enemy force suffered severe losses, the commander directs reconnaissance assets forward to maintain contact with the enemy and requests an updated status of adjacent friendly units?
The unit will transition to offensive operations
How does the Army apply the operational concept of Unified Land Operations (ULO)?
Through simultaneous execution of offense, defense, stability, or DSCA across multiple domains to shape operational environments, prevent conflict, prevail in large-scale ground combat, and consolidate gains as part of unified action
How does the Army apply the operational concept of multidomain operations?
Through the combined arms employment of joint and Army capabilities to create and exploit relative advantages that achieve objectives, defeat enemy forces, and consolidate gains on behalf of joint force commanders
Following a tropical storm, the governor wants to mobilize the National Guard in support of other state agencies, retaining control of those forces backed by federal funding. What type of duty status would you recommend?
Title 32
Which of the following is a purpose for why the US Army conducts offensive operations? (C400)
To destroy enemy forces
Why do commanders use defeat mechanisms? (C400)
To help commanders describe an operational approach
Units assigned responsibilities for governance, law and order, and providing essential services are referred to as which of the following?
Transitional military authority
Which of the following is a form of maneuver that seeks to cause the enemy force to move out of its position? (C400)
Turning movement
During a catastrophic event when the demand for resources exceeds the National Guard capacity, requests for federal Army forces are supported by?
US NORTHCOM and USINDOPACOM
Army units must do which of the following to prevent the perception of favoritism to an ethnic or political group during the conduct of Army stability operations tasks?
Use approved contractors for projects
If the commander states that he wants to "keep the enemy on the defense and not allow them to recover from the speed of our actions and the application of combined arms effects across multiple domains," what doctrinal concept is the commander emphasizing?
Using characteristics of offensive operations
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a battle handover line (BHL)?
A designated phase line where responsibility transitions from the stationary force to the moving force and vice versa
If the 1/4ID SBCT commander elects to include initial information requirements in WARNORD 1, which requirements below would be MOST APPROPRIATE for the cavalry squadron?
What is the composition and disposition of the enemy in the disruption zone?
As part of a defensive operation, a commander is directed to conduct a retrograde. What is a general consideration when conducting a retrograde?
Preserve the force or avoid combat under undesirable conditions.
Increasing the enemy's vulnerability by forcing the enemy to concentrate subordinate forces is an example of what?
A purpose of defensive operations
As part of security operations planning considerations, which formation is best suited to conduct extensive coordination to enable a forward or rearward passage of lines?
Cavalry squadron
Which of the following conditions would NOT initiate stability operations?
Civil unrest in US territory
Whenever state National Guard forces respond in support of another state, each JFHQ-State (supporting and supported) ensures certain coordination requirements are met. Most National Guard commitments are for how long?
30 days
During DSCA operations, what best illustrates the principle of tiered response?
A local mayor initiates a request to the governor for state national guard assistance
In opposing force tactics, what is a battle zone?
A zone where the OPFOR expects to conduct decisive actions
The 1/4ID SBCT staff completed COA development and presented three COAs for the commander to consider to control OBJ HAMILTON. IAW with doctrine what can the commander do at this point?
All alternatives are appropriate
USNORTHCOM does NOT conduct DSCA in which US states and territories?
American Samoa, Guam, Hawaii
In opposing force tactics, what is a formation that prevents enemy reconnaissance or small groups from penetrating friendly positions and force the enemy to prematurely deploy and lose his momentum in the attack? (C400)
Combat security outpost (CSOP)
Which defensive operation concentrates on denying the enemy access to terrain for a specific time rather than destruction of the enemy by concentrating the bulk of defending forces in mutually supporting prepared positions?
Area defense
Given the inherently complex and uncertain nature of operations, particularly stability operations, what planning process assists organizations in understanding the root causes of instability?
Army design methodology (ADM)
What are the Army planning methodologies available to commanders and staffs?
Army design methodology, military decision-making process, troop leading procedures, rapid decision and synchronization process, and Army problem solving process
If your commander emphasized the criticality of making final provisions under cover and concealment before the main effort and supporting effort advance towards the objective, what control measure should be used to graphically depict the location of the provisions your commander described? (C400)
Assault position
What type of offensive operation would an ABCT most likely use if the unit knows some or all of the enemy's disposition? (C400)
Attack
Which of the following terms is a tactical mission task? (C400)
Attack by fire
While in the defense, why would the BCT commander direct an uncommitted force to attack an enemy force that appears to be at a reduced strength?
Attacking with an uncommitted force is a preferred method of transitioning to the offense
What are the characteristics of the offense? (C400)
Audacity, concentration, surprise, tempo
What is the Army's primary combined arms, close-combat maneuver force that can maneuver against, close with, and destroy enemy forces? (C400)
Brigade Combat Team
What fundamental of stabilization includes gaining buy-in, coordinating training and operations, and conducting foreign military sales with the host-nation government?
Building host-nation capacity and capabilities
In which MDMP step do commanders issue final planning guidance that communicates acceptable risk?
COA approval
How do stability operations differ from defense support of civil authorities (DSCA)?
DSCA operations are solely executed in the US homeland and US territories
During defensive operations, your commander seeks to disrupt enemy attacks. What actions would you recommend employing to desynchronize the enemy force's preparations?
Deceiving or destroying enemy reconnaissance forces
In multidomain operations, which part of the operational framework articulates how commanders organize their operations in terms of time, space, and purpose?
Deep, close and rear operations
The BCT commander considers a retrograde operation as part of the defensive plan. Which retrograde variant best reflects a change of mission that directs preservation of combat power while maintaining contact with the attacking enemy force?
Delay
Which of the following is a tenet of multidomain operations? (C400)
Depth
What best describes the content of a doctrinally correct end state? (C400)
Desired condition of friendly forces with relationship to the enemy, terrain, and civilian populace
According to opposing force tactics, the standard functional organization of a detachment for defense is? (C400)
Disruption element, main defense element, support element, and reserve element
A/An __________ is a physically defined portion of an operational environment requiring a unique set of warfighting capabilities and skills. (C400)
Domain
During a recent natural disaster spanning two U.S. states, National Guard forces mobilized in a Title 32 status. Later, the President and both governors agreed to commit federal forces under Title 10 status. To better unify federal and state military efforts, what type of command status would you recommend?
Dual status command
UAS platforms have limited effectiveness in locating which of the following? (C400)
Enemy forces that are well covered or concealed
At the tactical level, which form of maneuver focuses on seizing terrain, destroying specific enemy forces, and interdicting enemy withdrawal routes?
Envelopment
What type of decisions are based upon anticipated conditions (CCIRs) and captured on the unit's decision support matrix to aid the commander? (C400)
Execution decisions
What type of offensive operation would an ABCT execute to disorganize the enemy in depth following a successful attack? (C400)
Exploitation
If a commander was able to converge indirect fires, direct fires, and electronic warfare simultaneously against a heavily fortified enemy position what is the most likely result of this? (C400)
Fire superiority
What are the three elements of the commander's reconnaissance guidance?
Focus, reconnaissance tempo, engagement criteria and disengagement criteria (both lethal and nonlethal)
If the ABCT staff identifies during planning that an enemy BTG (Motorized) will likely commit its reserve, if its defensive positions are penetrated; then what best describes what the staff should do to ensure that this action is analyzed during COA analysis and war gaming?
Identify this as a critical event
What allows/authorizes a local commander to temporarily support a local community's civil authority's request for military assistance in an emergency situation for a limited duration without higher authority approval?
Immediate response authority
What are actions Army forces must take to defeat enemy forces and achieve objectives at acceptable cost? (C400)
Imperatives
Which of the following is one of the five dynamics of combat power? (C400)
Information
Which intelligence warfighting function planning product allows a commander to better understand an attacking force's objective and approaches?
Information collection plan
Which METT-TC (I) consideration addresses those aspects of the human, information, and physical dimensions? (C400)
Informational considerations
If a commander was able to select the time, place and method used by his attacking force, which of the following would the commander have? (C400)
Initiative
How does a shaping operation enable the decisive operation?
It creates and preserves conditions for success through effects on the enemy, other actors, and terrain
What term means extensive joint combat operations typically involving multiple corps and divisions? (C400)
Large-scale combat operations
4ID is using Phase Line (PL) BLUE in the scenario as what type of offensive control measure?
Limit of advance
What components of the operational framework describe the operation in terms of resources and priorities of support? (C400)
Main effort and supporting effort
During the initial attack if 1/4ID was able to follow up quickly to deny the enemy an opportunity to adjust or adapt, which of the following would their actions allow for?
Maintaining the momentum
During defensive operations, your commander wants to maneuver to new positions prior to enemy attack. What would you recommend the defending force do before close combat begins?
Maneuver to place enemy forces in a position of disadvantage
According to OPFOR tactics, which of the following is a characteristic of a dispersed attack?
Massing at the last moment possible
If, at the conclusion of offensive operations, the 1/3ID ABCT commander instructs his staff to acquire additional stockage of Class I and Class VIII, and to start identifying key leaders within the host nation security forces, what tasks is he most likely preparing his unit for?
Minimum-essential stability tasks
What is the combined arms employment of joint and Army capabilities to create and exploit relative advantages that achieve objectives, defeat enemy forces, and consolidate gains on behalf of joint force commanders. (C400)
Multidomain operations
You would like to review national response principles, partner roles, emergency support functions, and structures for coordinating a national disaster response. Identify which document would describe best practices for responding to specific incidents?
National Response Framework (NRF)
Which is the decisive form of warfare and the ultimate means of forcing your will on enemy forces? (C400)
Offense
Arriving in your area of operations ahead of your attacker, you study the terrain to find positions that allow the massing of fires on likely approaches and combines natural and man-made obstacles to canalize attacking forces into engagement areas. What characteristic of defense is being described?
Preparation
According to OPFOR tactics, what are preferred conditions for conducting an integrated attack?
The OPFOR possesses significant overmatch in combat power over enemy forces