C400
What is the principal difference between the Army design methodology and the military decision-making process?
ADM is for conceptual planning, while MDMP is for detailed planning and results in an executable order
USNORTHCOM does NOT conduct DSCA in which US states and territories?
American Samoa, Guam, Hawaii
As part of defensive operations planning, commanders ensure that subordinate unit defensive plans are compatible and that control measures, such as contact points and phase lines, are sufficient for coordination when assigning areas. This best describes which warfighting function?
Command and Control
Which warfighting function's primary purpose is to assist commanders in integrating the other warfighting functions effectively at each echelon, and to apply combat power to achieve objectives and accomplish missions?
Command and control
Army doctrine describes the strategic situation through three contexts in which Army forces conduct operations. What are the contexts?
Competition, crisis, and armed conflict
What best describes the integrated efforts of the commander's broad approach and the staff's scientific approach to produce a plan?
Conceptual planning and detailed planning
In opposing force tactics, what is the primary mission of the Depth Defense Group?
Conduct decisive counterattacks against the enemy main effort
When commanders have tactical control (TACON) over forces, they have the authority to do which of the following?
Control or direct the application of force within an assigned mission or task
What Army echelon is the most versatile due to its ability to operate at both the tactical and operational levels?
Corps
If the commander as part of planning considerations wants to destroy, defeat or repel all enemy reconnaissance, which tactical mission task would you assign a formation?
Counter reconnaissance
During a recent natural disaster covering multiple areas and jurisdictions of Kansas and Oklahoma, National Guard forces from both states were mobilized in a Title 32 status and the President along with both governors agreed to the commitment of federal forces (Title 10 status). During a recent IPR involving all military and civilian representatives, it was determined that a lack of integration was hindering recovery efforts. To better unify military efforts what type of command status would you recommend to the governors and the President?
Dual status command
What organizational structure might a state use if it needed to provide unity of command for both Soldiers and Airmen responding to an emergency?
Joint task force - state
What term means extensive joint combat operations involving multiple corps and divisions?
Large-scale combat operations
What components of the operational framework describe the operation in terms of resources and priorities of support?
Main effort and supporting effort
Arriving in your area of operations ahead of your attacker, the commander wants to create overwhelming combat power at specific locations to support the main effort. What characteristic of the defense is being described?
Mass and concentration
If, at the conclusion of offensive operations, the ABCT commander instructs his staff to acquire additional stockage of Class I and Class VIII, and to start identifying key leaders within the host nation security forces, what tasks is he most likely preparing his unit for?
Minimum-essential stability tasks
In a/an _________ defense, transitioning to the offense generally follows the striking force's counterattack.
Mobile
Identify this defensive operations symbol.
Mobile defense
What is the combined arms employment of joint and Army capabilities to create and exploit relative advantages that achieve objectives, defeat enemy forces, and consolidate gains on behalf of joint force commanders.
Multdomain operations
You would like to review national response principles, partner roles, emergency support functions, and structures for coordinating a national disaster response. Identify which document would describe best practices for responding to specific incidents?
National Response Framework (NRF)
Under which condition would a BCT most likely transition from the offense?
The BCT reaches a culmination point
What does a good operational approach provide the staff?
The basis for detailed planning and establishment of a logical framework
During orders production, which member of the staff establishes and enforces timings, directs the order type and format, and specifies the annexes each staff section publishes?
The executive officer or chief of staff
Which one of the following is a key defensive operations intelligence warfighting function planning consideration?
Commanders direct their information collection assets to determine the locations, strengths, and probable intentions of attacking enemy forces before and throughout their defense
How does the commander drive the operations process?
Through activities of understanding, visualizing, describing, directing, leading, and assessing (UVDDLA)
Whenever state National Guard forces respond in support of another state, each JFHQ-State (supporting and supported) ensures certain coordination requirements are met. Most National Guard commitments are for how long?
30 days
During DSCA operations, what best illustrates the principle of tiered response?
A local mayor initiates a request to the governor for state national guard assistance
Increasing the enemy's vulnerability by forcing the enemy to concentrate subordinate forces is an example of what?
A purpose of defensive operations
Which type of defensive operation concentrates on denying enemy forces access to designated terrain for a specific time rather than destroying the enemy outright?
Area defense
Given the inherently complex and uncertain nature of operations, particularly stability operations, what planning process assists organizations in understanding the root causes of instability?
Army design methodology (ADM)
If your commander emphasized the criticality of making final provisions under cover and concealment before the main effort and supporting effort advance towards the objective, what control measure should be used to graphically depict the location of the provisions your commander described?
Assault position
Which of the following terms is a tactical mission task?
Attack by fire
In opposing force defensive tactics, what formation from a Combined Arms Brigade (CA-BDE) conducts forward reconnaissance and counter-reconnaissance while screening the main body and is charged with disrupting enemy operations?
Cover Group
What are the two descriptors the US Agency for International Development (USAID) uses to define the status of fragile states?
Crisis and vulnerable states
At the division level, what integration cell is most likely responsible for conducting RDSP and issuing FRAGORDs based upon a change in the existing plan?
Current operations cell
How do stability operations differ from defense support of civil authorities (DSCA)?
DSCA operations are solely executed in the US homeland and US territories
According to opposing force defensive tactics, a defensive zone consists of?
Deep area, frontal blocking zone, frontier defense zone, depth defense zone, and rear defense zone
In multidomain operations, which part of the operational framework articulates how commanders organize their operations in terms of time, space, and purpose?
Deep, close and rear operations
Which of the following is a tenet of multidomain operations (MDO)?
Depth (Others include: Convergence , Endurance, Agility)
What best describes the content of a doctrinally correct end state?
Desired condition of friendly forces with relationship to the enemy, terrain, and civilian populace
While conducting defensive operations planning, the 2/2ID SBCT commander directs the staff to ensure all COAs deceive or destroy enemy recon forces and break up combat formations, separates echelons, and impede the enemy's ability to synchronize its combined arms. Which characteristic of defensive operations is the commander addressing?
Disruption
A/An __________ is a physically defined portion of an operational environment requiring a unique set of warfighting capabilities and skills.
Domain
Which of the following is NOT an objective of OPFOR offensive operations?
Enable enemy freedom of maneuver
UAS platforms have limited effectiveness in locating which of the following?
Enemy forces that are well covered or concealed
What best describes security operations?
Focuses on protecting/providing early warning to the secured force/facility
Which OPFOR offensive operations framework contains the territory in which the main offensive action is to occur? Early objectives, along with the enemy's main defensive line, are typically located here.
Frontline zone
If the ABCT staff identifies during planning that an enemy BCG (Motorized) will likely commit its reserve; if its defensive positions are penetrated, then what best describes what the staff should do to ensure that this action is analyzed during COA analysis and war gaming?
Identify this as a critical event
What allows/authorizes a local commander to temporarily support a local community's civil authority's request for military assistance in an emergency situation for a limited duration without higher authority approval?
Immediate response authority
What are actions Army forces must take to defeat enemy forces and achieve objectives at acceptable cost?
Imperatives
What is your commander describing if he tells the staff to conduct undetected movement through or into an area occupied by enemy forces to occupy a position of advantage behind those enemy positions while exposing only small elements to enemy defensive fires?
Infiltration
Which of the following is one of the five dynamics of combat power?
Information
Which METT-TC (I) consideration addresses those aspects of the human, information, and physical dimensions?
Informational considerations
What best describes the OPFOR offensive principle of coordination?
Informationized battlefield is incredibly complex, fast moving, and intense. Proactive cooperation between different organizations is a key enabler of offensive actions on the modern battlefield
If a commander was able to select the time, place and method used by his attacking force, which of the following would the commander have?
Initiative
What major command and control activity of the operations process includes exchanging of liaison officers (LNOs), conducting rehearsals, and refining the plan via FRAGORDs?
Prepare
Which of the following is a DSCA primary/key task?
Provide support for domestic CBRN incidents
During defensive operations, your commander wants to create conditions for the offense that allows Army forces to regain the initiative. This statement best describes what doctrinal concept?
Purpose of a defensive operation
If 1/2ID SBCT were to attack with the aim of gaining control of terrain, resources, or key population centers, which doctrinal concept is best represented?
Purposes of offensive operations
During 1/2ID SBCT's offensive operations along PL BRONZE, the S-2 informs the commander that an enemy armor battalion is attacking west towards their flank. The commander's decision support matrix did not account for this event. Given the situation, what is the most appropriate planning methodology for adjusting the ABCT's course of action?
Rapid decision-making and synchronization process
What is the action that occurs between two elements to coordinate the transfer of information and responsibility for observation of potential threat contact, or the transfer of an assigned area from one element to another?
Reconnaissance handover
What type of reconnaissance management should the commander employ to improve the chances the reconnaissance element collects the required information?
Redundancy
Which of the following is a cavalry squadron constraint?
Require augmentation to perform effective offensive and defensive actions as an economy of force role
Which of the following is a purpose of the defense?
Retain decisive terrain or deny a vital area to an enemy force
Which type of defensive operation is an organized movement away from the enemy? It may be forced by enemy actions, or it may be made voluntarily. In either case, the higher echelon commander of the force must approve this type of defensive operation prior to execution.
Retrograde
Understanding a state's rules for the use of force (RUF) and the federal standing rules for the use of force (SRUF) during DSCA missions is analogous to understanding which of the following during other operations?
Rules of engagement
Each staff section is responsible for assisting the commander with understanding the situation, assessing progress, and making decisions. This is a continuous process. What tool best supports the staff in this responsibility?
Running estimates
Which staff product consists of a continuous assessment of the current situation used to determine if the current operation is proceeding according to the commander's intent and if planned future operations are supportable?
Running estimates
This operational area is assigned to a unit in the defense that has rear and lateral boundaries with interlocking fires.
Sector
What is the main difference between security and reconnaissance operations?
Security operations orient on the protected force, area, or facility to be protected, while reconnaissance is enemy, infrastructure, terrain and weather effects and society oriented
Transition from one type of operation to another requires accurate __________________ capabilities as well as mental and physical agility of all those involved.
Situational assessment
Doctrinally, what conditions best describe stability?
The populace believing their government is legitimate and their living situation is acceptable and predictable
What are the two sub-categories of a fragile state?
The two sub-categories of a fragile state are crisis and vulnerable. A crisis state is a state the does not exert effective control over its sovereign territory. A vulnerable state is a state cannot or does not want to provide security and basic services to significant portion of its population.
How does the Army apply the operational concept of multidomain operations (MDO)?
Through the combined arms employment of joint and Army capabilities to create and exploit relative advantages that achieve objectives, defeat enemy forces, and consolidate gains on behalf of joint force commanders
Why do commanders use defeat and stability mechanisms?
to isolate and defeat enemy forces, functions, and capabilities.
If your active-duty battalion/squadron is committed for a DSCA mission, this is usually based on a disaster declaration under which act?
Stafford Act
What does this graphic control measure depict?
SBF
What are three types of opposing force defensive operations?
Positional, Mobile, and Urban
Which type of operation is the commander preparing his staff for if, following control of a nearby city, he tells his staff to prepare to support civil authorities and reconciliation efforts in the AO?
Stability
You are an advisor to the governor of a large gulf coast state dealing with a major natural disaster from a tropical storm. The storm caused significant damage to infrastructure. The governor wants to mobilize National Guard forces in support of other state agencies and is asking the federal government for funding. He wants to retain control of those forces but is concerned about the money available to pay for those forces. What type of duty status should you recommend that best meets the governor's requirements?
Title 32
Which of the following is a purpose for why the US Army conducts offensive operations?
To destroy enemy forces
During stability operations, if there is no legitimate government to support, what alternative governance entity might US forces support instead?
Transitional military authority
Units assigned responsibilities for governance, law and order, and providing essential services are referred to as which of the following?
Transitional military authority
Which of the following is a form of maneuver that seeks to cause the enemy force to move out of its position?
Turning movement
During a catastrophic event when the demand for resources exceeds the National Guard capacity, requests for federal Army forces are supported by?
USNORTHCOM and USINDOPACOM
Army units must do which of the following to prevent the perception of favoritism to an ethnic or political group during the conduct of Army stability operations tasks?
Use approved contractors for all projects
If the commander states that he wants to "keep the enemy on the defense and not allow them to recover from the speed of our actions and the application of combined arms effects across multiple domains," what doctrinal concept is the commander emphasizing?
Using characteristics of offensive operations
Which of the following is a DSCA primary/core purpose?
Protect infrastructure and property
What are the characteristics of the offense?
Audacity, concentration, surprise, tempo
What type of offensive operation would an ABCT most likely use if the unit knows some or all of the enemy's disposition?
Attack
What is the Army's primary combined arms, close-combat maneuver force that can maneuver against, close with, and destroy enemy forces?
Brigade Combat Team
What fundamental of stabilization includes gaining buy-in, coordinating training and operations, and conducting foreign military sales with the host-nation government?
Building host-nation capacity and capabilities
In which MDMP step do commanders issue final planning guidance that communicates acceptable risk?
COA approval
As part of security operations planning considerations, which formation is best suited to conduct extensive coordination to enable a forward or rearward passage of lines?
Cavalry squadron
Which of the following is an area where the commander intends to contain and destroy an enemy force with the massed effects of all available weapons and supporting systems?
Engagement area
At the tactical level, which form of maneuver avoids an enemy's principal defense by attacking along an assailable flank and interdicts enemy withdrawal routes?
Envelopment
What type of decisions are based upon anticipated conditions (CCIRs) and captured on the unit's decision support matrix to aid the commander?
Execution decisions
What type of offensive operation would an ABCT execute to disorganize the enemy in depth following a successful attack?
Exploitation
If a commander was able to converge indirect fires, direct fires, and electronic warfare simultaneously against a heavily fortified enemy position what is the most likely result of this?
Fire superiority
Which characteristic of the defense focuses on developing plans that anticipate a range of enemy actions and allocate resources?
Flexibility
What are the three elements of the commander's reconnaissance guidance?
Focus, reconnaissance tempo, engagement criteria and disengagement criteria (both lethal and nonlethal)
