CCNA 2: Practice Final

Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)​

1) In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers. 2) They are not associated with a particular VLAN. Routed ports are physical ports that act similarly to a router interface. They are not associated with a particular VLAN, they do not support subinterfaces, and they are used for point-to-point links. In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers. To configure routed ports, the no switchport interface command has to be used on the appropriate ports.

When routing a large number of VLANs, what are two disadvantages of using the router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing method rather than the multilayer switch inter-VLAN routing method? (Choose two.)

1) Multiple subinterfaces may impact the traffic flow speed. 2) A dedicated router is required. With the router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing method, a dedicated router is required. It only needs one physical interface on the router to route traffic among multiple VLANs, by using subinterfaces on one physical interface. On the other hand, since traffic of all VLANs will have to go through the same physical interfaces, the throughput will be impacted. Also, a multilayer switch can use multiple SVIs to perform inter-VLAN routing.

How many classful networks are summarized by the static summary route ip route 192.168.32.0 255.255.248.0 S0/0/0?

8

Which DHCP IPv4 message contains the following information? Destination address: 255.255.255.255 Client IPv4 address: 0.0.0.0 Default gateway address: 0.0.0.0 Subnet mask: 0.0.0.0

A: DHCPDISCOVER A client will first send the DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message to find DHCPv4 servers on the network. This message will have the limited broadcast address, 255.255.255.255, as the destination address. The client IPv4 address, the default gateway address, and subnet fields will all be 0.0.0.0 because these have not yet been configured on the client. When the DHCPv4 server receives a DHCPDISCOVER message, it reserves an available IPv4 address to lease to the client and sends the unicast DHCPOFFER message to the requesting client. When the client receives the DHCPOFFER from the server, it sends back a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message. On receiving the DHCPREQUEST message, the server replies with a unicast DHCPACK message.

What is the effect of entering the network 192.168.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command in router configuration mode?

OSPF advertisements will include the network on the interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1. The command enables OSPF routing on a specific interface. Using a quad zero wildcard mask identifies the interface. OSPF will advertise the network that is on that specific interface. Configuring a passive interface requires the use of the passive-interface command in router configuration mode.

An administrator attempts to change the router ID on a router that is running OSPFv3 by changing the IPv4 address on the router loopback interface. Once the IPv4 address is changed, the administrator notes that the router ID did not change. What two actions can the administrator take so that the router will use the new IPv4 address as the router ID? (Choose two.)

Reboot the router. Clear the IPv6 OSPF process. There are two methods that can be used to change the router ID of an OSPF router. The router can be rebooted or the OSPF process can be cleared.

Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)

S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan In resetting a trunk port on a Cisco 3560 switch, the following changes occur: DTP is changed back to dynamic auto; the default native VLAN is reset to 1 via the no switchport trunk native vlan command; and the application of the no switchport trunk allowed vlan command means all VLANs will be allowed to traverse the trunk by default.

A college student is studying for the Cisco CCENT certification and is visualizing extended access lists. Which three keywords could immediately follow the keywords permit or deny as part of an extended access list? (Choose three.)

TCP, ICMP, UDP Four commonly used keywords that could follow the keywords permit or deny in an IPv4 extended access list are ip, tcp, udp, and icmp. If the keyword ip is used, then the entire TCP/IP suite is affected (all TCP/IP protocols).

An administrator created and applied an outbound Telnet extended ACL on a router to prevent router-initiated Telnet sessions. What is a consequence of this configuration?

The ACL will not work as desired because an outbound ACL cannot block router-initiated traffic. Standard and extended access control lists apply to packets that travel through a router. They are not designed to block packets that originate from within the router. An outbound Telnet extended ACL does not prevent router-initiated Telnet sessions.

When does a switch use frame filtering?

The destination MAC address is for a host on the same network segment as the source of the traffic.

What is the effect of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15? (Choose two.)

The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored. The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.

Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

The path a static route uses to send data is known. Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does. Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security. Static routes are prone to errors from incorrect configuration by the administrator. They do not scale well, because the routes must be manually reconfigured to accommodate a growing network. Intervention is required each time a route change is necessary. They do provide better security, use less bandwidth, and provide a known path to the destination.

What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?

They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?

a collapsed core network design

What is an advantage of using dynamic routing protocols instead of static routing?

ability to actively search for new routes if the current path becomes unavailable​ Dynamic routing has the ability to search and find a new best path if the current path is no longer available. The other options are actually the advantages of static routing.

Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)

any, host

________________ command configures a switch port to operate in the full-duplex mode.

duplex full

Which type of static route typically uses the distance parameter in the ip route global configuration command?

floating static route Because a floating static route is not designed to be used as a primary route, its configuration requires a higher administrative distance than the usual default value of 1. When set higher than the administrative distance for the current routing protocol, the distance parameter allows the route to be used only when the primary route fails. All other forms of static routes have specific uses as primary routes.

What is meant by the term "best match" when applied to the routing table lookup process?

longest match

A network administrator is testing IPv6 connectivity to a web server. The network administrator does not want any other host to connect to the web server except for the one test computer. Which type of IPv6 ACL could be used for this situation?

only a named ACL IPv6 access lists are configured by issuing the ipv6 access-list name command. The name must be unique and can include case-sensitive characters and numbers. IPv6 ACLs do not use numbered access lists. Unlike IPv4 ACLs, there is no need for a standard or extended option with IPv6 ACLs.

In a routing table which route can never be an ultimate route?

parent route A level 1 parent route is a level 1 network that is subnetted. It cannot be an ultimate route because an ultimate route contains the IP address of the next hop or the exit interface.

What does an OSPF area contain?

routers that have the same link-state information in their LSDBs An OSPF area contains one set of link-state information, although each router within the area will process that information individually to form its own SPF tree. OSPF process IDs are locally significant and are created by the administrator. Router IDs uniquely identify each router.

A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?

routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol

What is associated with link-state routing protocols?

shortest-path first calculations

Which command will verify the status of both the physical and the virtual interfaces on a switch?

show ip interface brief The show ip interface brief command will show the status of both the physical and the virtual interfaces on a switch. The show vlan command will only verify the status of physical interfaces. The show running-config and show startup-config commands will verify configuration settings, but not the status of switch interfaces.

Which command would be best to use on an unused switch port if a company adheres to the best practices as recommended by Cisco?

shutdown Unlike router Ethernet ports, switch ports are enabled by default. Cisco recommends disabling any port that is not used. The ip dhcp snooping command globally enables DHCP snooping on a switch. Further configuration allows defining ports that can respond to DHCP requests. The switchport port-security command is used to protect the network from unidentified or unauthorized attachment of network devices.

Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)

source address and wildcard mask access list number between 1 and 99

Which switching method provides error-free data transmission?

store-and-forward

How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?

the highest IPv4 address on an active interface Just like OSPF for IPv4, OSPFv3 uses a 32-bit dotted decimal number as the router ID. The ID can be manually configured or the router will use the highest IPv4 address on an active interface with preference given to the highest loopback interface IPv4 address, if one is configured.

A small company has a web server in the office that is accessible from the Internet. The IP address 192.168.10.15 is assigned to the web server. The network administrator is configuring the router so that external clients can access the web server over the Internet. Which item is required in the NAT configuration?

the ip nat inside source command to link the inside local and inside global addresses

A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

A: It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network. Stateless DHCPv6 or stateful DHCPv6 uses a DHCP server, but Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) does not. A SLAAC client can automatically generate an address that is based on information from local routers via Router Advertisement (RA) messages. Once an address has been assigned to an interface via SLAAC, the client must ensure via Duplicate Address Detection (DAD) that the address is not already in use. It does this by sending out an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message and listening for a response. If a response is received, then it means that another device is already using this address.

Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN. Configure SSH for remote management.

What is a disadvantage when both sides of a communication use PAT?

End-to-end IPv4 traceability is lost. With the use of NAT, especially PAT, end-to-end traceability is lost. This is because the host IP address in the packets during a communication is translated when it leaves and enters the network. With the use of NAT/PAT, both the flexibility of connections to the Internet and security are actually enhanced. Host IPv4 addressing is provided by DHCP and not related to NAT/PAT.

How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?

Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies. In most platforms running IOS 12.0 or later, Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled by default. Cisco Express Forwarding eliminates the need for the recursive lookup. If Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled, multiaccess network interfaces require fully specified static routes in order to avoid inconsistencies in their routing tables. Point-to-point interfaces do not have this problem, because multiple end points are not present. With or without Cisco Express Forwarding enabled, using an exit interface when configuring a static route is a viable option.

What is the order of packet types used by an OSPF router to establish convergence?

Hello, DBD, LSR, LSU, LSAck An OSPF router progresses in this order to convergence, using the following packets: 1. Hello packet, used for OSPF election and establishing neighbor adjacencies 2. DBD packet, used to synchronize databases with neighbors 3. LSR packet, used to request more information in synchronizing databases 4. LSU packet, used to send link-state updates to neighbors 5. LSAck packet, used to acknowledge receipt of an LSU

what is the administrative distance?

In a routing table entry, the administrative distance is the first number displayed inside the brackets, so the administrative distance would be 120. The 24 indicates the subnet mask for the destination network. The 2 indicates the metric.