CCNA Automation and Programmability D6

19. Which is a potential disadvantage with controller-based networking? A. Scalability B. Security C. Maturity D. Centralized provisioning

19. C. Controller-based networking, also known as software-defined networking (SDN), is roughly 15 years old. Many see this maturity as a disadvantage when comparing it to traditional networking equipment that is much older in theory. Scalability, security, and centralized provisioning are advantages to using controller-based networking and far outweigh the disadvantage of the youth of SDN.

22. Which technology allows for the central remote monitoring of network switches and routers? A. SNMP B. Syslog C. SDN D. CDP

22. A. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) allows for the central monitoring of switches and routers by using traps and polling of network metrics. Syslog is a method of collecting logs for passive analysis after an event has been brought to your attention. Software- defined networking (SDN) allows for the centralized control of switches and routers. The Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is used to discover Cisco devices on the immediate network.

32. Which platform is Cisco's SDN controller offering for enterprise connectivity? A. APIC-EM B. OpenSDN C. OpenStack D. OpenDaylight

32. A. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller - Enterprise Module (APIC-EM) is a Cisco SDN controller. This package is freely downloadable from the Cisco DevNet website as of the writing of this book. It comes with several built-in apps, such as a plug and play module and a path trace module. Many other apps can be built on top of the APIC to extend functionality of the controller. However, the product has been largely replaced with Cisco DNA and is now licensed. OpenSDN is an open-source SDN controller platform that utilized the open-source OpenDaylight (ODL) protocol. OpenStack is another open-source SDN controller aimed at data centers.

41. Which networking plane is responsible for routing of packets to specific destinations? A. Control plane B. Data plane C. Management plane D. Routing plane

41. B. The data plane is responsible for the routing of packets to specific destinations. The control plane would be responsible for the management of the routes for the functional routing of packets. The management plane would be responsible for the management of all functions of the router. There is no plane called the routing plane; therefore, option D is an invalid answer.

79. Which Puppet component contains the configuration for the managed hosts? A. Manifest B. Agent C. Class D. Module

79. A. The Manifest component of Puppet contains the configuration for the managed hosts. The Agent component of Puppet is used to apply the configuration from the master server. The Class component is used to organize the configuration inside of the Manifest. The Module component is similar to a Class with the exception that it is used to organize and create tasks for the Manifest component.

84. Which Ansible tool will allow you to try commands against a host without making a Playbook? A. Knife interface B. ansible_playbook command C. Ad-hoc interface D. Ansible Tower

84. C. The Ad-hoc interface allows you to try commands against a host without making a Playbook. The Knife interface is a command-line interface (CLI) for the Chef configuration management utility. The ansible_playbook command is used to execute an Ansible playbook. Ansible Tower is a paid version of Ansible supported by Red Hat that adds central management.

85. What are global variables that contain information specific to Puppet called? A. Resource B. Class C. Module D. Facts

85. D. In the Puppet configuration management utility, the term Facts describes global variables that contain information that is specific to Puppet. One example of a global variable is the IP address of the Puppet system. A Resource declares a task to be executed and how the task should be executed. The Class component is used to organize the configuration inside of the Manifest. The Module component is similar to a Class with the exception that it is used to organize and create tasks for the Manifest component.

92. Which format must a custom Ansible module be written in? A. YAML B. CSV C. JSON D. XML

92. C. Ansible is installed with a number of modules compiled already. However, if you want to make custom modules, they must be created in JSON format. All of the other options are incorrect.

93. What is at the beginning of every JSON file that helps you identify the format? A. Three dashes B. A square bracket C. A double quote D. A curly bracket

93. D. JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) always starts with a curly bracket, sometimes called a brace. If the file starts with three dashes, the file is most likely YAML. A square bracket is found inside of JSON files when more than one key-value pair exists. A double quote is often found at the beginning of each line in a comma-separated values (CSV) file.

97. When you request information from the Cisco DNA Center via a REST-based API, what format is the response in? A. JSON B. XML C. CSV D. YAML

97. A. Cisco DNA Center will return REST-based requests in JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) format. All of the other options are incorrect.

1. Which is a reason to automate a process for the configuration of several routers? A. To increase the possibility for misconfiguration B. To create an outcome that can be reproduced C. To decrease problems from the new configuration D. To allow you to do less work

1. B. A reason to automate a process for the configuration of several routers is to create a positive outcome that can be reproduced. Automating processes for configuration decreases the possibility for misconfiguration. Automation of configuration does not decrease problems from the new configuration; if anything, it automates the increase of possible problems. Although it might seem like automating a process for configuration allows you to do less work, it is not always the case.

10. Which data format is structured by white space? A. YAML B. JSON C. XML D. CSV

10. A. YAML Ain't Markup Language (YAML) is a white space structured file that is also used to store data for the interchange of information. JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) is structured with curly and square brackets. Extensible Markup Language (XML) was adopted from HyperText Markup Language (HTML), which uses opening and closing tags. Comma-separated values (CSV) is a flat data storage method that uses commas to delimit the fields of information held on each line.

100. Using the following exhibit, which statement best represents the JSON data? { "interface": { "ipaddress": [ "192.168.1.2", [ "192.168.1.4" ] "subnet_mask": [ "255.255.255.0", [ "255.255.255.0" ] ], "defaultgw": "192.168.1.1" } A. The interface data is incorrect because it is missing a comma after defaultgw. B. The interface data is incorrect because it is missing a closing square bracket after the list of IP addresses. C. The interface data is incorrect because it contains an illegal underscore character. D. Nothing is wrong with the exhibit.

100. B. The JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) data is incorrect because it is missing a closing square bracket after the IP addresses. The last comma is not needed in JSON files, as it defines the end of the hierarchy. The underscore in a JSON key or value data is not considered an illegal character.

11. You are creating a network automation script to configure a network device. What should you research to identify what can be controlled with your script? A. User interface layout B. API reference C. Source code of the device D. Data storage of the device

11. B. The application programming interface (API) on the device that is to be controlled through automation should be researched. The API is a method for controlling devices with programmability control; this includes the import and export of information. The user interface layout is more accustomed to users and manual configuration, since programs do not use the user interface. The source code and data storage methods for the device are not normally attainable and do not really get you what you need to control the device.

12. You are developing a network automation script that retrieves information. Which interface can you implement that will act similar to an API? A. CLI B. SNMP C. Syslog D. SSH

12. B. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) was originally created to allow retrieval of information from network devices and can be programmatically controlled, similar to an application programming interface (API). The command-line interface (CLI) is what the user will interface with; therefore, it is considered a type of user interface (UI). Syslog is a method of sending logging information to remote syslog servers. Secure Shell (SSH) is a method for connectivity and not used as an API.

13. Which protocol was created as a replacement for SNMP? A. NETCONF B. Syslog C. REST D. SSH

13. A. The NETCONF protocol was created as a replacement for the dated Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP). Syslog is a system of formatted messages for log file storage, either local or remote, via the syslog protocol. Representational state transfer (REST) is a set of constraints used for sending data to and from services. Secure Shell (SSH) is a method of connecting to network devices through a console-based terminal emulator.

14. Which protocol uses the YANG data model? A. NETCONF B. REST C. SNMP D. YAML

14. A. The NETCONF protocol was created to interface with network devices over the SSH protocol. Data transferred to and from network devices with the NETCONF protocol must adhere to the Yet Another Next Generation (YANG) data model. Representational state transfer (REST) is a set of constraints used for sending data to and from services. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a network management protocol used to retrieve and send information to remote network devices. YAML is a markup language used to store and transfer data between applications.

15. Which protocol uses an HTTPS transport to configure and retrieve details programmatically? A. NETCONF B. RESTCONF C. SNMP D. Syslog

15. B. The RESTCONF protocol is used with a Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) transport protocol. RESTCONF is the successor of NETCONF, which uses SSH for device access. RESTCONF now uses a common transport of HTTPS to send and retrieve information from network devices. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) defines its own standard of information set and retrieval and does not use HTTPS. Syslog is a system of formatted messages for log file storage either local or remote via the syslog protocol

16. Which is a benefit of controller-based networking? A. Increased security B. Decreased problems C. Increased throughput D. Increased complexity

16. A. A benefit of controller-based networking is increased security. When ACLs and filters are applied, they are applied informally to all nodes that are controlled by the controller. There is not a reduction of problems that can be encountered in a network with the introduction of controller-based networking. Throughput will not increase magically because of the introduction of controller-based networking. Complexity should be reduced with the introduction of controller- based networking because all of the configuration is centralized.

17. Which statement is correct about controller-based networking? A. Controller-based networking is always in the form of hardware appliances. B. Controller-based networking has a logically centralized control plane. C. Controller-based networking has a logically centralized data plane. D. Controller-based networking uses ASICs to centrally switch frames.

17. B. Controller-based networking has a logically centralized control plane to centrally control the data plane. The data plane is not centralized because switching and routing of data must be done very fast, usually with the use of application-specific integrated circuits (ASICs). Controller-based networking comes in many different forms, ranging from applications to hardware appliances. Both controller- based network switching and autonomous network switching use ASICs, but controller-based network switches do not centrally switch frames.

18. Which term is used with controller-based networking that combines multiple sites to act as one single network? A. SDN B. SD-WAN C. SD-LAN D. VPN

18. Software-Defined Wide Area Network (SD-WAN) is the term commonly used to describe the combination of multiple sites to act as one single network. Use cases of SD-WAN are disaster recovery and remote office and branch office planning. software-defined networking (SDN) is the term used to describe local area network (LAN) controller-based networking. SD-LAN is not a term commonly used, and therefore, option C is an invalid answer. A virtual private network (VPN) will allow multiple sites to act as one single network, but it is not centrally controlled with controller-based networking.

2. You need to configure a new static route on the existing 20 routers. Which is the best way to do this? A. Copy and paste scripts built in Notepad++ into each router. B. Copy and paste scripts built in Excel into each router. C. Create a Python script to configure each router. D. Work with a partner so that both of you can double-check each other's work and cut the time in half.

2. C. Creating a Python script to configure each router is the best way to complete this task. You can automate the process and save time since the entry of the route is a repetitious process. Copying and pasting scripts from Notepad++ or Excel into each router will require you to log into each router. Doing this increases the chances of missing a router. You could also work with a partner and start at different ends of the list, but again, this approach introduces the possibility of errors and ties up two technicians.

20. Which elements can be controlled with an SDN controller for an SDN- enabled switch? A. CPU utilization B. Memory utilization C. QoS D. Forwarding of traffic

20. C. Quality of service (QoS) can be directly controlled with an SDN controller. The SDN controller will push programming to the SDN- enabled switch so that the switch can control the flow of traffic. CPU and memory utilization can be reported upon, and arguably programming can be pushed out to alleviate central processing unit (CPU) and memory utilization, but CPU and memory utilization is not directly controlled with an SDN controller. The forwarding of traffic is a responsibility of the data plane, which can be changed by the control plane. However, the SDN controller does not forward packets explicitly; that is the function of the switch.

21. Which statement is correct about SDN switches? A. All data is centrally switched at the SDN controller. B. All SDN switches are stateless with respect to configuration. C. All SDN switches are stateful with respect to configuration. D. All data flowing through the switch is stateless.

21. B. All software-defined network (SDN) switches are stateless with respect to their configuration. The configuration is applied from the central controller, and therefore, any configuration contained on the switch does not matter if it is lost during a reboot. Data is not centrally switched at the SDN controller; this would make data transfer too slow and overburden the SDN controller. The data flowing through the switch is not consequential to the SDN controller; some data flows can be stateless, such as UDP, and some can be stateful, such as TCP.

23. What is the SNMP component that aggregates all SNMP messages and polled metrics? A. Trap B. SNMP agent C. Syslog server D. NMS

23. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) utilizes a component called the network management station (NMS) to collect all messages and poll metrics from all managed devices. An SNMP trap is a message generated from an SNMP agent installed on a host. An SNMP agent is a piece of software that monitors the operating system and hardware and either reports to the NMS or is polled by the NMS. A syslog server is a centralized server that collects logs for passive analysis of problems.

24. Which method for configuration is used with Cisco Prime Infrastructure? A. SNMP B. CAPWAP C. LWAPP D. RESTCONF

24. A. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) along with Telnet and Secure Shell (SSH) are used to configure network devices with Cisco Prime. Control And Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) and Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) are used with wireless LAN controllers for the configuration of wireless access points (WAPs). RESTCONF is used with Cisco Digital Network Architecture (DNA) for network device configuration.

25. Which type of architecture is used with controller-based networks? A. Three tier B. Spine/Leaf C. Collapsed core D. SAN fabric

25. B. The Spine/Leaf architecture model has been adopted in controller- based networks. The Leaf switch acts as the access and distribution, and the Spine acts as the core or backbone for the network. The three- tier network model and the collapsed core network model are used with controller-based networking. However, the concepts of the Cisco three-tier model are still applicable, such as the access, distribution, and core concepts as described above. A storage area network (SAN) fabric is not used in a network or controller-based network, as it is applicable only to storage area networks.

26. Which is a correct statement about Spine/Leaf architecture? A. The Leaf switches connect to other Leaf switches. B. There is only one Spine switch per network. C. Spine switches provide access to hosts. D. The Leaf switches never connect to other Leaf switches, only Spine switches.

26. D. Leaf switches never connect to other Leaf switches; they only connect to Spine switches. There can be many Spine switches per network; they are considered the backbone of the network. Although nothing stops you from connecting a host to a Spine switch, Spine switches should only provide core/backbone services.

27. What is the flow of traffic in a Spine/Leaf network? A. Leaf to Spine to Leaf B. Leaf to Leaf to Spine C. Spine to Leaf to Spine D. Leaf to Leaf

27. A. Traffic flow in a Spine/Leaf network flows from the host connected to the Leaf to the Spine, eventually to the destination Leaf and the awaiting host. Leaf switches are connected only to the Spine; therefore, traffic cannot flow from the host to a Leaf to another Leaf directly. Hosts should not be connected to Spine switches, so traffic will not flow from the host to the Spine to a Leaf and then a Spine switch.

28. Which current Cisco SDN solution is data center focused? A. Cisco APIC-EM B. OpenDaylight C. Cisco SD-WAN D. Cisco ACI

28. D. The Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure (ACI) software- defined networking (SDN) solution is data center - focused to deliver applications to end users. The Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller - Enterprise Module (APIC-EM) is a legacy SDN solution that is not part of Cisco Digital Network Architecture (DNA). OpenDaylight (ODL) is an open platform used for SDN solutions; it is not provided or maintained by Cisco. The Cisco Software-Defined Wide-Area Network (SD-WAN) is a scalable SDN solution for networks that operate over several data centers.

29. Your company has an application they need remote office/branch office employees to directly access. Which Cisco SDN solution should you implement? A. Cisco APIC-EM B. Cisco SD-WAN C. Cisco Prime Infrastructure D. OpenDaylight

29. B. Cisco Software Defined - Wide Area Network (SD-WAN) is a solution that will allow remote office/branch office (ROBO) personnel to access cloud-based applications directly. The Cisco Application Policy Infrastructure Controller - Enterprise Module (APIC-EM) is a legacy SDN solution that is not part of Cisco Digital Network Architecture (DNA). Cisco Prime Infrastructure is a legacy management tool for deployment of switches, routers, and wireless. OpenDaylight (ODL) is an open platform used for SDN solutions; it is not provided or maintained by Cisco.

3. Which is the number one motivating factor to use network automation? A. Reduce the number of changes to be made B. Reduce the complications that arise from changes C. Reduce the human error factor D. Reduce the planning time for the changes

3. C. The number one motivating factor to use network automation is to reduce the human error factor when creating bulk changes. Network automation will not reduce the number of changes to be made. As an example, an updated ACL on all the routers will still need to be updated on all the routers. Network automation also does not reduce the complications that arise from changes; it actually increases them. Network automation also increases the planning time for changes. A network automation script can change everything rapidly; if it's wrong, it can even lead to an outage of services.

30. What is the name of the networking model that incorporates a distribution layer? A. Spine/Leaf B. Campus C. CLOS D. SDN

30. B. The campus networking model is a traditional networking model that is deployed as either a three-tier model with a core, distribution, and access layer or a collapsed core model. In the collapsed core model, the core and distribution layers are the same functional equipment. The Spine/Leaf, also known as the CLOS model, is commonly found in software-defined networking (SDN).

31. Which statement is correct about the SDN controller? A. The SDN controller configures the management plane of network devices. B. The SDN controller monitors data plane traffic. C. The SDN controller replaces the control plane of the SDN. D. The SDN controller complements the control plane of the SDN device.

31. C. The software-defined network (SDN) controller replaces the control plane on SDN devices. The SDN devices in the network do not contain a control plane locally and instead are controlled by the SDN controller. The SDN controller does not configure the management plane of the network devices; it replaces the management plane of the network devices. The SDN controller does not monitor the data plane of traffic; it only controls the traffic. The SDN controller does not complement the control plane of the SDN device; it replaces the control plane of the SDN device.

33. Which network plane is used for Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A. Data plane B. Control plane C. Management plane D. Switch plane

33. B. The control plane refers to any mechanism that controls the data plane. STP is used to control the data plane by removing redundant links. The data plane is responsible for switching and routing data. Any data that is destined for endpoints is switched or routed on the data plane. The management plane is any mechanism that helps in the management of a router or switch. Switch plane is not a term normally used to describe data types; therefore, option D is an invalid answer.

34. Which network plane is used by syslog for delivering messages from the router or switch? A. Data plane B. Control plane C. Management plane D. Switch plane

34. C. The management plane is any mechanism that helps in the management of a router or switch. Some of the common mechanisms are SSH and Telnet. However, any mechanism that the router uses for management is considered part of the management plane. The control plane refers to any mechanism that controls the data plane. The data plane is responsible for switching and routing data. Any data that is destined for endpoints is switched or routed on the data plane. Switch plane is not a term normally used to describe data types; therefore, option D is an invalid answer.

35. When a network packet is routed in a router, which network plane is facilitating the traffic? A. Data plane B. Control plane C. Management plane D. Switch plane

35. A. The data plane is responsible for switching and routing data. Any data that is destined for endpoints is switched or routed on the data plane. For example, when one computer pings another, the ping is switched and routed on the data plane. The control plane refers to any mechanism that controls the data plane. The management plane is any mechanism that helps in the management of a router or switch. Switch plane is not a term normally used to describe data types; therefore, option C is an invalid answer.

36. On which network plane would a routing protocol perform? A. Data plane B. Control plane C. Management plane D. Routing plane

36. B. Routing protocols such as OSPF and EIGRP would perform their function on the control plane since they are controlling the routing of the data plane. The data plane is responsible for switching and routing data. Any data that is destined for endpoints is switched or routed on the data plane. For example, when one computer pings another, the ping is switched and routed on the data plane. The management plane is any mechanism that helps in the management of a router or switch. Routing plane is not a term normally used to describe data types; therefore, option D is an invalid answer.

37. On which SDN plane does CDP function? A. Data plane B. Control plane C. Network plane D. Management plane

37. D. The Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) functions on the management plane of the SDN model. It helps with management of the routers and switches and does not directly impact the data plane. The data plane is responsible for switching and routing data. Any data that is destined for endpoints is switched or routed on the data plane. Network plane is not a term normally used to describe data types; therefore, option C is an invalid answer. The management plane is any mechanism that helps in the management of a router or switch.

38. Which is used for communication directly to the SDN devices in the network? A. The northbound interface (NBI) B. The southbound interface (SBI) C. The core of the controller D. Applications hosted on the controller

38. B. The southbound interface (SBI) directly communicates with the SDN devices. This control is done via several different types of SBI protocols, such as OpenFlow, OpFlex, and CLI (Telnet/SSH). The northbound interface (NBI) is responsible for allowing communication between applications and the core of the controller. The core of the controller is the mechanism that connects the NBI to the SBI. Applications hosted on the controller interface with the NBI.

39. What is an application program interface (API)? A. An API is a program that allows for data transfer. B. An API is a programming language for network programmability. C. An API is a programming interface or standard allowing one program to communicate with another program. D. An API allows for programs to be virtualized.

39. C. An application program interface (API) is a method the programmer has created to allow other programs to communicate with their program. The interprogrammability is required when another program wants to share data with the API. Although an API allows data transfer, it is not a program specifically written for the transfer of data. An API is used for network programmability, but it is not a language for network programmability. An API does not allow for a program to be virtualized.

4. What is the term that is used to describe the framework responsible for assisting in network automation? A. NetOps B. DevOps C. SysOps D. SecOps

4. B. The term DevOps is used to describe the framework responsible for assisting in network automation. It is usually written in conjunction with network operations, but it is considered a development function using the DevOps framework. The term NetOps refers to the network operation team's responsibility. The term SysOps is used to describe the control of network systems such as DNS, Active Directory (AD), and DHCP, just to name a few. The term SecOps refers to the security operation as it pertains to the network.

40. When an application communicates with an SDN controller, which mechanism does it use to communicate? A. The southbound interface (SBI) B. The core of the controller C. The northbound interface (NBI) D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

40. C. The northbound interface (NBI) is responsible for allowing communication between applications and the core of the controller. Applications therefore directly communicate with the core through the northbound interface. The southbound interface (SBI) directly communicates with the SDN devices. The core of the controller is the mechanism that connects the NBI to the SBI. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used for the monitoring and collection of device metrics.

42. What is the maximum hop count of fabric switching? A. 1 hop B. 3 hops C. 4 hops D. 5 hops

42. B. The maximum hop count on fabric switching is a total of 3 hops. When a host transmits, it will enter a Leaf switch; the Leaf switch will then forward traffic to the Spine switch. The Spine switch will in turn forward traffic to the corresponding Leaf switch and to the destination host. Of course, traffic could be 1 hop away, if both hosts are on the same Leaf switch. However, the maximum hop count is 3 hops.

43. Which component of an SDN is where the MTU is set? A. Overlay B. Tunnel C. Leaf D. Underlay

43. D. The underlay is where you will set the maximum transmission unit (MTU). The overlay is where the tunnel or virtual circuit is built using the underlay as the transport. A Leaf switch is a part of the software- defined network (SDN), along with the Spine switch; both need to have the same MTU set.

44. You are connecting to a router and configuring ACLs through the web interface. Which plane are you affecting? A. Management plane B. Configuration plane C. Data plane D. Control plane

44. D. When you configure access control lists (ACLs) through any interface, you are affecting the control plane. This is because you are controlling the flow of data with the ACL. You are accessing the router through the management plane when you are connected to either the web interface or the command-line interface (CLI). The data plane is what you are controlling with the control plane. The data plane is the actual flow of information.

45. Which WAN technology uses the overlay to connect remote offices? A. DMVPN B. VXLAN C. VLAN D. ECMP

45. A. Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network (DMVPN) is a wide area network (WAN) technology that allows for virtual private networks (VPNs) to be created using the overlay of software-defined networking (SDN). Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN) is used to transport virtual local area network (VLAN) traffic over routed connections. Equal-cost multi-path routing (ECMP) is used by Leaf and Spine switches to provide a next-hop packet forwarding decision.

46. Which protocol allows for the tunneling of layer 2 traffic over a layer 3 network? A. ECMP B. DMVPN C. VXLAN D. EIGRP

46. C. The Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN) protocol is used to create layer 2 tunnels over a layer 3 network. The VXLAN protocol functions by encapsulating layer 2 traffic inside of a layer 3 packet. The Equal Cost Load Balancing Protocol (ECMP) is used by Leaf and Spine switches to provide next-hop packet forwarding decisions. Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network (DMVPN) is a point-to-multipoint VPN technology used for layer 3 connectivity over a wide area network (WAN) connection. The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is a Cisco proprietary layer 3 routing protocol.

47. Which is a protocol used on the management plane? A. SNMP B. CDP C. ICMP D. VTP

47. A. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a protocol used on the management plane. SNMP is used for the management of routers and switches because it can be writeable and allow for configuration. The Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) is a control protocol because it communicates port properties via layer 2 frames, such as power requirements. The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is a control protocol, because it is used to send control messages back to the originating device. The VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is used to communicate the control information of VLANs to other participating switches.

48. Which next-hop packet forwarding protocol is used with SDN switching networks? A. ECMP B. OSPF C. MPLS D. CLOS

48. A. The equal-cost multi-path routing (ECMP) packet forwarding protocol is used to calculate next-hop forwarding with SDN switching networks. The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is a layer 3 routing protocol and not used with SDN switching networks. The Multiprotocol Label Switching Protocol (MPLS) is a protocol used with MPLS wide area network (WAN) providers and not used with SDN switching networks. The CLOS network is also known as a Leaf/Spine network, but it is the topology and not a next-hop packet forwarding protocol.

49. Which product is a replacement for APIC-EM? A. OpenFlow B. Cisco Prime Infrastructure C. Cisco DNA Center D. Cisco SD-WAN

49. C. The Cisco DNA Center is Cisco's next-generation software-defined network (SDN) controller; it replaces Cisco's Application Policy Infrastructure Controller - Enterprise Module (APIC-EM) platform. OpenFlow is a protocol used to configure software-defined networks. Cisco Prime Infrastructure (CPI) is a network management software suite, but it does not provide SDN functionality. Cisco Software Defined - Wide Area Network (SD-WAN) is an SDN controller for building WAN connections.

5. Which management methodology is commonly used by developers for network automation? A. Lean and Agile B. Waterfall C. Kanban D. Scrum

5. A. The management methodology that is commonly used by developers for network automation is Lean and Agile. Agile focuses on an adaptive approach for simultaneous workflows, such as the configuration of a default route on several routers. The Waterfall management methodology is used for projects in a linear process that does not allow for going back to a prior phase. The Kanban management methodology is used to improve existing processes. Scrum is primarily focused on getting more work done more quickly.

50. Which protocol is not used by the DNA discovery process for reading the inventory of a network device? A. SSH B. HTTPS C. NETCONF D. OpenFlow

50. D. After the Cisco Digital Network Architecture (Cisco DNA) discovery process has found a device, it will use SSH, Telnet, SNMPv2, SNMPv3, HTTP, HTTPS, and NETCONF. The discovery process will not use OpenFlow, since this is a configuration protocol that is mainly used by open platforms.

51. Where would you see the overall health of the network inside of the Cisco DNA Center? A. Design B. Policy C. Assurance D. Platform

51. C. The Assurance section of the Cisco DNA Center allows you to see the overall health of network devices managed by the DNA Center. The Design section allows you to create a hierarchical design of the network with a graphical map. The Policy section allows you to create policies based upon applications, traffic, and IP-based access control lists (ACLs), just to name a few. The Platform section allows you to perform upgrades and search the API catalog.

52. Which Cisco DNA Center feature allows you to template and apply standard configuration such as DNS servers, NTP servers, and AAA servers? A. IP-based access control B. Plug and Play C. Group-based access control D. Assurance

52. B. Plug and Play (PnP) is a feature inside of the Cisco DNA Center that allows you to onboard network devices and apply standard configuration such as DNS servers, NTP servers, and AAA servers, just to name a few. IP-based access control allows us to create a policy based upon access control lists (ACLs). Group-based access control allows us to use group information populated from the Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) to create policies based upon user groups. Assurance is a section in the Cisco DNA Center that allows us to view the health of the network.

53. You want to see how everything is connected at a particular site. Which section contains a tool to obtain this information inside of the Cisco DNA Center? A. Provision B. Assurance C. Platform D. Policy

53. A. Under the Provision section, you can click on the hierarchy item that contains the site; then you will select the topology icon in the result pane. This will allow you to view how everything is connected at a particular site. The Assurance section of the Cisco DNA Center allows you to see the overall health of network devices managed by the DNA Center. The Platform section allows you to perform upgrades and search the API catalog. The Policy section allows you to create policies based upon applications, traffic, and IP-based access control lists (ACLs), just to name a few.

54. You need to add an OSPF area to a number of routers. What is the easiest method to achieve this with the Cisco DNA Center? A. IP-based access control B. Python C. DNA Command Runner D. Inventory

54. C. The easiest method for adding an OSPF area to a group of routers is using the DNA Command Runner tool. With this tool, you can execute a command on a group of devices. IP-based access control allows you to create policies based upon an IP-based access control list. Although Python can be used to add an OSPF area to a group of routers, it is harder to accomplish the task using Python than it is using DNA Command Runner. The Inventory section allows you to see the modules installed in a router or switch, as well as the firmware and IOS versions installed.

55. In which section inside of the Cisco DNA Center can you view and manage inventory of routers, switches, APs, and WLCs? A. Provision B. Policy C. Design D. Assurance

55. A. The Provision section allows you to view and edit the discovered inventory of network devices. The Policy section allows you to create policies based upon applications, traffic, and IP-based access control lists (ACLs), just to name a few. The Design section allows you to create a hierarchical design of the network with a graphical map. The Assurance section of the Cisco DNA Center allows you to see the overall health of network devices managed by the DNA Center.

56. You are developing a Python script that will interact with the Cisco DNA Center. Which section will detail the API that you will need to use? A. Design B. Policy C. Provision D. Platform

56. D. You can see the details of an API for the Cisco DNA Center by using the Platform section, then clicking Developer Toolkit and then APIs in the drop-down. The Design section allows you to create a hierarchical design of the network with a graphical map. The Policy section allows you to create policies based upon applications, traffic, and IP-based access control lists (ACLs), just to name a few. The Provision section allows you to apply configurations to network devices, such as DNS servers, AAA servers, or NTP servers, just to name a few.

57. What is the Cisco DNA Center feature that automates the fabric of the underlay and overlay of the network? A. Easy-QOS B. SD-Access C. System 360 D. Cisco ISE

57. B. The Cisco feature Software Defined-Access (SD-Access) is an automated Plug and Play (PnP) solution that automates the underlay and overlay of the fabric. Easy-QOS was a feature in the original Application Policy Infrastructure Controller-Enterprise Module (APIC-EM); it has since been renamed Application Policies in Cisco DNA Center. The System 360 feature inside of Cisco DNA Center allows you to view all of the settings and health of the controller. The Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE) is a product that integrates with Cisco DNA Center to provide information about security groups and identity of security principals.

58. Which feature does Cisco Prime Infrastructure provide that Cisco DNA Center cannot provide? A. Client coverage heat maps B. Client triangulation support C. Device configuration backup D. Application health

58. C. Cisco DNA Center cannot provide device configuration backups; that function still requires Cisco Prime Infrastructure (CPI). Cisco DNA Center can perform client coverage heat maps, client triangulation, and application health reports.

59. Which method(s) of connectivity must be configured for network discovery inside of the Cisco DNA Center? A. SSH B. SNMP C. Logging D. Both A and B

59. D. In order for network discovery to find new network devices, you must configure a command-line interface (CLI) of SSH or Telnet and Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP). Logging is not required for network discovery.

6. After you release a network automation script to production, which step should be completed? A. Testing B. Building C. Planning D. Monitoring

6. D. After a network automation script is released to production, the very next process should be to monitor its effects on the network. This step should already be considered with pre-built metrics so that you can positively conclude its intended function. The testing step should have been done prior to the deployment phase. The building phase is done when you are ready to test a completed configuration change. The planning phase is the first phase before anything is put into motion; it is where you have determined the metrics for the project, which determines if the changes are successful.

60. Which protocol is normally used with REST APIs? A. SNMP B. HTTP C. SNTP D. SOAP

60. B. Representational state transfer (REST) APIs normally utilize HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) for moving data. It performs this via a get URI and it receives a response in XML, JSON, or another data transfer language. Although you can encrypt the HTTP traffic with SSL (HTTPS), its core language is still HTTP. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and Simple Network Time Protocol (SNTP) are not used with REST APIs. Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) is considered an alternate technology to REST for API access.

61. You are writing a script to pull information from the Cisco DNA Center via the REST-based API. How do you authenticate so that you can communicate with the Cisco DNA Center API? A. Pass the username and password in every request. B. Send a POST to the API for an authentication token. C. Send a GET to the API for an auth token. D. Create a public private key pair for the Cisco DNA Center appliance.

61. B. You will authenticate with Cisco DNA Center by sending a POST request to the API for an authentication token. You can then use the authentication token for all subsequent requests to Cisco DNA Center. You will not pass the username and password; the username and password must be encoded in Base64 to obtain the authentication token. The dna/system/api/v1/auth/token API requires a POST request to obtain the authentication token, not a GET request. The Cisco DNA Center does not use public-private key pairs for API authentication.

62. What is the CRUD framework used for? A. Memory cleanup B. Replacement for REST-based APIs C. Data encoding D. Data actions

62. D. The CREATE, READ, UPDATE, DELETE (CRUD) framework describes the various actions that can be performed on data via the REST-based API. Although CRUD sounds like it might clean up memory, it has nothing to do with memory cleanup. It works in conjunction with REST-based APIs as a framework for the manipulation of data. The Base64 algorithm is used for data encoding, when it is needed.

63. Which type of authentication is used for REST-based token requests to the Cisco DNA Center? A. Basic B. AD integrated C. SSL D. Pass-through

63. A. Basic authentication is used for token requests with the Cisco DNA Center. Active Directory (AD) integrated authentication and pass- through authentication are Microsoft-only types of authentication, and the Cisco DNA Center does not support them. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a method of encryption for authentication requests, but it is not an authentication method.

64. After you obtain an authentication token, how do you apply it to subsequent actions? A. Add it as a variable named X-Auth-Token in the script. B. Place it in the header of the request as an X-Auth-Token element. C. Pass the token in the URI of subsequent requests. D. Perform a POST for the authentication token within 10 seconds of the subsequent request.

64. B. After the initial POST to obtain the authentication token, it should be placed in the header of subsequent requests as an X-Auth-Token element. You will most likely use a variable to store the token, but a variable by itself is not enough to authenticate subsequent requests. The token is not passed in the URI of subsequent requests. Although performing a POST within 10 seconds of the subsequent request is a good idea, if the token is not placed in the header, it will not authenticate you.

65. Which encoding method is used to transmit the username and password to obtain the X-Auth-Token from the Cisco DNA Center? A. SSL B. AAA C. Base64 D. Basic

65. C. When you process the POST to obtain the X-Auth-Token from the Cisco DNA Center, you will pass the username and password encoded in Base 64 encoding. Although you will request the X-Auth-Token over Secure Sockets Layer (SSL), it is an encryption protocol and not an encoding method. Authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) services are a means for authentication and often used with 802.1X; AAA is not an encoding method. When you request an X- Auth-Token, you will request it via basic authentication; this is a HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) method of submitting the username and password and not an encoding method.

66. You are creating a script to directly configure a Cisco switch using the YANG data model. Which network API will you use to perform this task? A. OpenFlow B. RESTCONF C. SNMP D. REST-based API

66. B. You will perform this task using the RESTCONF protocol. RESTCONF will encapsulate the YANG data model containing the configuration in a RESTCONF transport protocol. OpenFlow is used with the OpenDayLight Protocol and not commonly used with Cisco switches. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) does not support the YANG data model. A REST-based API is another API style that switches do not support directly, but Cisco DNA Center does.

67. Which is a RESTCONF content type that is used with a RESTCONF request? A. application/yang-data+json B. application/json C. data/json D. data/yaml

67. A. When a request is made with RESTCONF, the data is sent via the HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) using the Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (MIME) content type of application/yang-data+json. This MIME type is used because the request is interfacing with an application and the data is encapsulated inside of the Yet Another Next Generation (YANG) data model in the form of JavaScript Object Notation (JSON)

68. You've initiated a REST-based API call to an SDN controller and received a 500 status code. What will most likely fix the problem? A. Format your response correctly. B. Authenticate to the device first. C. Nothing; this code means OK. D. Restart the REST-based service.

68. D. The most likely course of action is to restart the REST-based service, since a 500 status code means that there is an internal server error. If a 400 status code was returned, it would most likely be the formatting of your request. If a 403 status code was returned, it would suggest that you have not authenticated to the software-defined network (SDN) controller or you are not authorized to access the API. A 200 status code means that everything was successful and the request is OK.

69. On which interface of the Cisco DNA Center would you most likely use a RESTCONF request? A. Northbound interface B. Eastbound interface C. Westbound interface D. Southbound interface

69. D. RESTCONF requests are used outbound to network devices on the southbound interface (SBI) of Cisco DNA Center. REST-based APIs are accessible via the northbound interface (NBI) of the Cisco DNA Center so that programmability can be achieved. The eastbound interface is used for events and notification on the Cisco DNA Center controller. The westbound interface is used for integration with third- party management products.

7. Which element of YAML defines a key-value pair? A. Definition B. Mapping C. Lists D. Keys

7. B. The YAML Ain't Markup Language (YAML) markup language uses mapping to define keys and values as pairs. Definition is not a term used with YAML; therefore, option A is an invalid answer. Lists are keys with multiple values in the form of a list. Keys are categories that contain a value in the key-value pair.

70. How is a status code passed to the client after a REST-based request has been processed? A. HTTP header B. HTTP body C. Script variable D. Script data object

70. A. The status code is passed back to the client via the HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) header. Web-based browsers do not show HTTP headers, and this is why using a tool such as Postman is recommended. The HTTP body is where the returned data of the request can be found. Script variables are used internally by the script so that data can be loaded into the variable and passed to other procedures within the script. Script data objects are also used internally by the script to load and pass complex data structures called objects.

71. You have received a return status code of 201 from an SDN controller after executing an API request via REST. Which CRUD action have you executed, judging by the status code? A. POST B. GET C. PATCH D. DELETE

71. A. A status code of 201 means that the item has been created; normally only a POST command can create a data item. A GET HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) verb will read an item and return a 200 status code. A PATCH HTTP verb will update an existing item and return a 200 status code. A DELETE HTTP verb will delete an item and return a 200 status code.

72. Which character signifies the starting point for a series of request query parameters in a URI string? A. Backslash B. Forward slash C. Question mark D. Ampersand

72. C. The question mark signifies the starting point for a series of request query parameters in a Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) string. For example, the URI string might look something like this: https://server/path/api?para1=test1&para2=test2. The backslash is not used in a URI. The forward slash helps delimit the various components of a URI. The ampersand delimits the various request query parameters if there is more than one.

73. Which HTTP action verb is used to insert or create a data item? A. GET B. UPDATE C. POST D. PUT

73. C. The HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) action verb POST will insert or create a data item when referencing an application programming interface (API). The HTTP action verb GET will read data from an API. The HTTP action verb UPDATE is not a valid verb; therefore, this is an invalid answer. The HTTP action verb PUT will only replace or update a data item; it will not insert a data item.

74. You just sent a request to the SDN controller, and after a little while, the result code came back as a 504 status code. What most likely happened? A. The command is missing parameters. B. The command has timed out. C. The command is restricted. D. The service is down.

74. B. A status code of 504 means that the command that was sent to the server did not return in a timely fashion and timed out. A status code of 400 would depict that the command is missing parameters. If a command is restricted for the authentication supplied, a status code of 403 would be returned. If a service is down or improperly responding, a status code of 500 would be returned.

75. Which function does Ansible, Chef, and Puppet perform in the network? A. Network management station B. Configuration management C. Software-defined networking D. Centralized logging

75. B. Ansible, Chef, and Puppet are configuration management tools. They operate by applying specific configurations to server or network devices. A network management station (NMS) is typically used with the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) to centralize polling of SNMP counters and allow for devices to send alerts. Software-defined networking (SDN) is a method of centralizing the control and management planes of a network so that the network device can focus on the data plane. Centralized logging is used with syslog so that all logs can be sent to a centralized area for analysis.

76. Which configuration management tool uses YAML to store configuration? A. Ansible B. Cisco DNA Center C. Chef D. Puppet

76. A. Ansible uses the YAML format to store configuration. The Cisco DNA Center stores configuration internally inside of its database, but many things are exportable via JavaScript Object Notation (JSON). Chef and Puppet both use Embedded Ruby (ERB) templates to store configuration.

77. Which component in an Ansible setup defines the connection information so that Ansible can perform configuration management? A. Playbook B. Settings C. Inventory D. Modules

77. C. The Inventory component defines the various hosts and their connection information in an Ansible setup. The Playbook component defines the script to execute to perform the configuration management. The ansible.cfg file controls the settings for the Ansible server. The Modules component allows Ansible to connect to and understand various systems.

78. Which configuration management tool does not require an agent to apply changes to a Linux-based server? A. Ansible B. Puppet C. Chef D. Cisco DNA Center

78. A. Ansible does not require an agent to apply changes to a Linux- based server or other network device. It uses Secure Shell (SSH) TCP port 22 to apply the configuration. Puppet and Chef both require agents to be installed on the managed hosts. Although Cisco DNA Center is installed on top of a Linux distribution, Cisco DNA Center does not support Linux servers; it is primarily used for the management of Cisco devices. You could certainly create an extensible package to send commands to a Linux box through an SNMP agent, but currently it would need to be developed. Ansible supports Linux- based servers without an agent and without any development for communications.

8. How can you identify that a file is a YAML file? A. The file begins with three dashes. B. The file begins with a hashbang preprocessor. C. The contents are contained between curly brackets. D. The contents are contained between square brackets.

8. A. A YAML file will always begin with three dashes. This is how you know you are working with a YAML file structure. Files that start with a hashbang preprocessor are normally scripts, and the hashbang describes to the operating system which command interpreter to use. A file that has its content contained between curly braces or square braces is normally a JSON file.

80. Which Chef component contains the set of instructions to configure a node? A. Cookbook B. Crock Pot C. Recipe D. Chef Node

80. C. The Recipe component of Chef contains the set of instructions that are carried out to configure a server. The Recipes are collected into the Cookbook component so that the task can be organized and applied to hosts. The Crock Pot component does not exist inside of Chef; therefore, it is an invalid answer. The Chef Node component is a host that is managed by a Chef Server component.

81. Which Chef component collects system state information and reports back to the Chef Server component? A. Chef-Client B. Chef Workstation C. Ohai D. Knife

81. C. The Ohai component is the second of two parts installed on the Chef Node; the first part is the Chef-Client component. Ohai is responsible for monitoring system state information and reporting back to the Chef Server component. If Ohai detects that an attribute of the system state is out of compliance, the system state for that component will be reapplied. The Chef Workstation command-line interface (CLI) component is called the Knife and interacts with the Chef Server to configure tasks when you are creating a Cookbook.

82. Which variable is checked to determine the location of the Ansible settings file? A. ANSIBLE_SETTINGS B. ANSIBLE_CONFIG C. ansible_connection D. /etc/ansible/hosts

82. B. The variable ANSIBLE_CONFIG is used to determine the location of the Ansible setting file named ansible.cfg. The variable ANSIBLE_SETTINGS is not used with Ansible and therefore option A is an invalid answer. The ansible_connection variable is used inside of the Inventory file to explain to Ansible how to connect to a remote system. The file /etc/ansible/hosts is not a variable; it specifies the various target nodes, also called the Inventory.

83. Which command will give detailed information on modules in Ansible? A. man B. cat C. ad-hoc D. ansible-doc

83. D. The command ansible-doc will give you detailed information on Ansible modules. The command is followed by the module name to give specific information on a particular module. For example, ansible-doc ios_vlan will display all of the configuration for VLANs on Cisco IOS. The man command will give Linux/Unix manual information of the command of ansible-doc, but not the individual modules. The cat command is short for concatenate; it allows you to display or create the contents of a file. Ad-hoc is not a command; it is a configuration mode in which you can test commands before they are run network wide.

86. Once you have completed a Cookbook for Chef, where do you upload the Cookbook so it is accessible on the Chef Server? A. Bookshelf B. Chef Workstation C. Chef Node D. Chef-Client

86. A. Once you have completed a Cookbook for Chef, you will upload the Cookbook to the Bookshelf located on the Chef Server. This will allow the Chef Server to execute the configuration management contained within the Cookbook. The Chef Workstation is where you manage the Chef Server. The Chef Node is the computer that is controlled by the Chef Server. The Chef Node has the Chef-Client installed, which calls back to the Chef Server for configuration management instructions

87. Which tool will allow for central management and RBAC and is supported by Red Hat? A. Ansible Tower B. Chef C. Puppet D. Ansible

87. A. Ansible Tower is a paid version of Ansible supported by Red Hat that adds central management. Ansible Tower also allows for role- based access control (RBAC) for the execution of Playbooks. The addition of RBAC adds greater security to Ansible while allowing users a specific role to administer their responsibilities inside of Ansible. All of the other options are incorrect.

88. Which configuration management utility allows for easy configuration of Cisco network devices? A. Ansible B. Puppet C. Chef D. Python

88. A. The Ansible configuration management utility allows for easy configuration of Cisco network devices because it has many modules dedicated to Cisco IOS. Ansible also does not require the installation of an agent, which Puppet and Chef require. Python can be used for configuration management, but it will not allow for periodic checks to make sure that the configuration does not drift.

89. What function does Knife serve in the Chef configuration management utility? A. Storage of the Bookshelf B. Storage of the configuration of Chef C. CLI utility for the management of Chef D. Client-side agent

89. C. The Knife utility is a command-line interface (CLI) that allows for the management of Chef. The storage of the Bookshelf is contained on the Chef Server. The configuration of Chef is also contained on the Chef Server. The Client-side agent has two parts: Ohai, which checks the current system state of the Chef Node, and the Chef Agent, which talks directly to the Chef Server for execution tasks.

9. Which structured data format closely resembles HTML? A. YAML B. JSON C. CSV D. XML

9. D. Extensible Markup Language (XML) was adopted from HyperText Markup Language (HTML) as a storage method for systems to interchange data. YAML Ain't Markup Language (YAML) is a white space structured file that is also used to store data for the interchange of information. JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) is another structured storage method for data and was originally created for use with JavaScript and gained popularity with other languages. Comma- separated values (CSV) is a flat data storage method that is popular when lists of information must be passed from system to system.

90. Which is a correct statement about configuration management? A. IaaS helps maintain configuration over the life cycle of the host. B. Configuration management prevents drift with NTP. C. IaC solutions prevent drift with Idempotence. D. Configuration management software requires per-host licensing.

90. C. Configuration management uses Infrastructure as Code (IaC) to prevent drift with the applied theory of Idempotence. Idempotence states that only required changes will be applied to servers that fall outside of the desired system state. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud model that defines components that can be purchased for a period, such as virtual router, switches, and virtual machines (VMs), just to name a few. Configuration management can install the Network Time Protocol (NTP) so time does not drift, but NTP will not prevent configuration drift. Configuration management software does not always require per-host licensing. Most configuration management utilities offer a community edition that is free; if you want enterprise features, you can then purchase licensing from the parent company.

91. Which configuration management utility is the easiest to set up? A. Chef B. Puppet C. Ansible D. Cisco DNA Center

91. C. Ansible is the easiest configuration management utility to set up as well as use. Chef and Puppet are a bit more involved to set up because they require clients to be installed on the hosts being managed. Cisco DNA Center is not a configuration management utility outside of Cisco devices; therefore, option D is an invalid answer.

94. You just opened a JSON file, and the key you are looking for has a square bracket. What can be concluded? A. The value that follows the square bracket is the value you are looking for. B. There are several key-value pairs for the key you need. C. The value is after the matching square bracket. D. The value is unknown.

94. B. When a square bracket is in place of a value inside a JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) file, it means there is a series of key-value pairs for the initial value. These key-value pairs are often called collections. All of the other options are incorrect.

95. In the following exhibit, what is wrong with this JSON file? { "interface": "Fa0/1", "bandwidth": "100mb", "status": "up", "address": { "ipaddress": "192.168.1.5", "subnetmask": "255.255.255.0", "default gateway": "192.168.1.1", } A. The interface of Fa0/1 is capitalized. B. The address should have a square bracket. C. There is a missing curly bracket. D. Nothing is wrong.

95. C. There is a missing curly bracket that ends the address value. The capitalization of Fa0/1 is fine because it is within double quotes, so therefore it is read literally. The address does not need to have square brackets unless there will be more than one address.

96. Which is an advantage in using JSON over a CSV file? A. Values can be used that contain spaces. B. There are multiple values for a particular key. C. The files can be read line by line for every value. D. Hierarchical structure allows for programmability.

96. D. JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) allows for a hierarchical structure that allows for programmability; this is somewhat similar to Extensible Markup Language (XML). Both JSON and comma- separated values (CSV) can contain spaces, because the values are enclosed within double quotes. Both JSON and CSV can have multiple values for a particular key. Only CSV can be read line by line; JSON files must be read in their entirety.

98. Using the following exhibit, which statement best represents the JSON data? { "ipaddress": "192.168.1.2", "subnet_mask": "255.255.255.0", "defaultgw": "192.168.1.1", "routes": [ { "route": "10.0.0.0/8 via 192.168.1.10" "route": "0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.1.1" } ] } A. The interface data is incorrect because it is missing a comma after the routes. B. The interface data is incorrect because it is missing a set of square brackets around the second route. C. The interface data is incorrect because it contains an illegal underscore character. D. Nothing is wrong with the exhibit.

98. B. The collection of routes contains two individual route statements that are named route (singular). All collections must be contained within square brackets, also called braces. All of the other options are incorrect.

99. Using the following exhibit, which statement best represents the JSON data? { "ipaddress": [ "192.168.1.2", [ "192.168.1.4" ] ], "subnet_mask": "255.255.255.0", "defaultgw": "192.168.1.1" } A. The interface data is incorrect because it is missing a comma after defaultgw. B. The interface data is incorrect because it is missing a subnet mask for the second IP address. C. The interface data is incorrect because it contains an illegal underscore character. D. Nothing is wrong with the exhibit.

99. D. Nothing is wrong with the exhibit. The IP address is defined as a collection of IP addresses using the JSON tag of ipaddress. Although for completeness a second subnet mask should be stated in the JSON data, it may be in the proper format that is expected. The last comma is not needed in JSON files, as it defines the end of the hierarchy. The underscore in a JSON key or value data is not considered an illegal character.