CCNA - EXAM A
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/8
FF00::/8
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.) A. 2000::/3 B. 2002::5 C. FC00::/7 D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2
FF02::1 FF02::2
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices? A. southbound B. overlay C. northbound D. underlay
southbound
Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network? A. northbound API B. REST API C. SOAP API D. southbound API
southbound API
Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two.) A. Enable NTP authentication. B. Verify the time zone. C. Specify the IP address of the NTP server. D. Set the NTP server private key. E. Disable NTP broadcasts.
. Enable NTP authentication. Specify the IP address of the NTP server.
Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks? A. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane. B. Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations. C. Only traditional networks natively support centralized management. D. Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane.
. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane.
Which statement about the nature of NAT overload is true? A. applies a one-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses B. applies a one-to-one relationship to internal IP addresses C. applies a many-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses D. can be configured only on Gigabit interface
. applies a one-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers. A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 and R2? A. nonbroadcast B. point-to-point C. point-to-multipoint D. broadcast
. point-to-point
Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address? A. 0000.5E00.010a B. 0005.3709.8968 C. 0000.0C07.AC99 D. 0007.C070.AB01
0000.5E00.010a
When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two.) A. decimal B. ASCII C. hexadecimal D. binary E. base64
ASCII hexadecimal
Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does CertBus-R use to Host A? A. 10.10.10.0/28 B. 10.10.13.0/25 C. 10.10.13.144/28 D. 10.10.13.208/29
10.10.13.208/29
R1# show ip interface brief Interface FastEthernet0/0 unassigned GigabitEthernet1/0 192.168.0.1 GigabitEthernet4/0 10.10.10.20 Loopback0 172.16.15.10 What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID? A. 10.10.1.10 B. 10.10.10.20 C. 172.16.15.10 D. 192.168.0.1
172.16.15.10
An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct. Which IP address is the source IP? A. 10.4.4.4 B. 10.4.4.5 C. 172.23.103.10 D. 172.23.104.4
172.23.104.4
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet? A. 172.9.0.0/16 B. 172.28.0.0/16 C. 192.0.0.0/8 D. 209.165.201.0/24
172.28.0.0/16
CertBus-R1#show ip route 192.168.16.0/26 via 192.168.1.1 192.168.16.0/24 via 192.168.1.2 192.168.16.0/21 via 192.168.1.3 192.168.16.0/27 vi 192.168.1.4 Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2? A. 192.168.16.0/21 B. 192.168.16.0/24 C. 192.168.26.0/26 D. 192.168.16.0/27
192.168.16.0/27
Which option is a valid IPv6 address? A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1 C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4 D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Which IPv6 address is valid? A. 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B B. 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B C. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
R1#show ip route | begin gateway Gateway of last resort is 209.165.200.246 172.16.0.0/16 is subnetted 172.16.0.0/24 via 207.165.200.250 172.16.0.128/25 [110/38443] via 207.165.200.254 172.16.0.192/29 [90/3184439] via 207.165.200.254 Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned? A. 0 B. 110 C. 38443 D. 3184439
38443
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors; one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor, and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table? A. 20 B. 90 C. 110 D. 115
90
Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1? A. ::1 B. :: C. 2000::/3 D. 0::/10
::1
Which option best describes an API? A. A contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other. B. an architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications; C. a stateless client-server model D. request a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data
A contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other.
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required? A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them. B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks. C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch. D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred? A. A network device has restarted. B. A debug operation is running. C. A routing instance has flapped. D. An ARP inspection has failed.
A routing instance has flapped
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement? A. WEP B. AES C. RC4 D. TKIP
AES
Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode? A. AES-128 B. TKIP with RC4 C. AES-256 D. RC4
AES-256
CertBus-R2#access-list 101 deny tcp 10.20.0 smtp CertBus-R2#access-list 101 deny tcp 10.20.0 www An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2. The configuration failed to work as intended. Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two.) A. Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. B. Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. C. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2. D. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101. E. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1.
Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101.
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router? A. Configure VTY access. B. Configure the version of SSH. C. Assign a DNS domain name. D. Create a user with a password.
Assign a DNS domain name.
What is the primary difference between AAA authentication and authorization? A. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls that tasks the user can perform. B. Authentication controls the system processes a user can access, and authorization logs the activities the user initiates. C. Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database. D. Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the user's password.
Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls that tasks the user can perform.
What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72? A. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72 B. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72 C. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72 D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72
B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72
A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2? A. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode active switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk B. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 2 mode auto switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk C. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk D. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode passive switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk
C. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks? A. TACACS B. CPU ACL C. Flex ACL D. RADIUS
CPU ACL
Refer to the exhibit. The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing, workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet. Which action corrects the configuration issue? A. Add the default-information originate command on R2. B. Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1. C. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1. D. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2.
Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1.
The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another? (Choose two.) A. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router. B. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router. C. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router. D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router. E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.
Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.
An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two.) A. Configure the ports as trunk ports. B. Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol. C. Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99. D. Administratively shut down the ports. E. Configure the ports in an EtherChannel.
Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99. Administratively shut down the ports.
Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.) A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network C. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer D. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach
Defines the network functions that occur at each layer Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network
Which two statements about EtherChannel technology are true? (Choose two.) A. EtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet or Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single EtherChannel. B. STP does not block EtherChannel links. C. You can configure multiple EtherChannel links between two switches, using up to a limit of sixteen physical ports. D. EtherChannel does not allow load sharing of traffic among the physical links within the EtherChannel. E. EtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail.
EtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet or Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single EtherChannel. EtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail.
An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode? A. Init B. 2-way C. Exchange D. Full
Full
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.) A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3. B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12. C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10. D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1. E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
Global addresses start with 2000::/3. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data? A. IPsec B. IKEv1 C. MD5 D. IKEv2
IPsec
Which action is taken by switch port enabled for PoE power classification override? A. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and errdisabled. B. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port, a syslog message is generated. C. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked, data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused. D. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power, it assumes the device has failed and disconnects it.
If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled.
R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS, OSPF, RIP, and Internal EIGRP. Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table? A. IS-IS B. Internal EIGRP C. RIP D. OSPF
Internal EIGRP
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring the New Your router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two.) A. Ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 B. Ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 5 C. Ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2 D. Ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2023::2 5 E. Ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2023::3 5
Ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 Ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2023::3 5
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks? A. Its modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization. B. It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment. C. It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode. D. It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration.
It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration.
A Cisco IP phone receives untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone? A. It drops the traffic. B. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged. C. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN. D. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN
It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.
Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two.) A. It supports protocol discovery. B. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets. C. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity. D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up. E. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets.
It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets.
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.) A. It requires the use of ARP. B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link. C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link. D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link. It routes over links rather than over networks.
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks 10.10.10.8/30 is directly connected 10.10.13.0/25 via 10.10.10.9 10.10.10.4/30 is directly connected If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A? A. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only. B. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only. C. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2. D. It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25
It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25
What will happen if you configure the logging trap debug command on a router? A. It causes the router to send messages with lower severity levels to the syslog server. B. It causes the router to send all messages with the severity levels Warning, Error, Critical, and Emergency to the syslog server. C. It causes the router to send all messages to the syslog server. D. It causes the router to stop sending all messages to the syslog server.
It causes the router to send all messages to the syslog server.
When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route? A. For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth. B. It counts the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the route with the lowest metric. C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the exiting interface to calculate the route with the lowest cost. D. It multiples the active K values by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.
It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the exiting interface to calculate the route with the lowest cost.
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually. B. Central AP management requires more complex configurations. C. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method. D. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs
It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
CertBus-SW2 vtp domain cisco vtp mode transparent vtp password ciscotest How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain? A. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its trunk ports. B. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports. C. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports. D. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports
It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports
If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond? A. It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1. B. It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route. C. It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes. D. It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed.
It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed.
CertBus-Router(config)#interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 CertBus-Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.16.143 255.255.255.240 Bad mask /28 address 192.168.16.143 Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received? A. It belongs to a private IP address range. B. The router does not support /28 mask. C. It is a network IP address. D. It is a broadcast IP address
It is a broadcast IP address
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command? A. It immediately enables the port in the listening state. B. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded. C. It enabled BPDU messages. D. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time.
It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.) A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB. B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB. C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1. D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB. E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy? A. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN. B. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN. C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links in the data path. D. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination in the IP routing table.
It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.) A. It uses Telnet to report system issues. B. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI. C. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers. D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions. E. It moves the control plane to a central point.
It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers. It moves the control plane to a central point.
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path? A. as-path B. administrative distance C. metric D. cost
Metric
What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two.) A. Thrift B. DSC C. CORBA D. NETCONF E. OpenFlow
NETCONF OpenFlow
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implementing on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true? A. The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active". B. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps. C. To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured. D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic
One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic
Secure Static Aging Disabled Maximum Mac Address 5 Total Mac Address 1 Configured Mac Address 1 Sticky MAC address 0 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the interface that generated the output is true? A. Five secure MAC addresses are dynamically learned on the interface. B. A syslog message is generated when a violation occurs. C. One secure MAC address is manually configured on the interface. D. One secure MAC address is dynamically configured on the interface.
One secure MAC address is manually configured on the interface.
int vlan 10 - ip address 10.10.0/24 int vlan 20 - ip address 10.20.0/24 int vlan 30 - ip address 10.30.0/24 A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task? A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
Option B
Which output displays a JSON data representation? { "response"-{ "taskId":{}, "url":"string" }, "version":"string" } A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
Option C
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment? A. Platinum B. Bronze C. Gold D. Silver
Platinum
Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two.) A. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center B. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS Software C. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment D. modular design that is upgradable as needed E. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises
REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router 1. The new circuit uses eBGP and learns the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25? A. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces. B. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmetrical. C. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1. D. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the Gi0/0 interface remains in the routing table.
Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.
A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB? A. ARP B. SNMP C. SMTP D. CDP
SNMP
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two.) A. QoS settings B. IP address of one or more access points C. SSID D. profile name E. management interface settings
SSID profile name
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration becomes the root bridge? A. SW1 B. SW2 C. SW3 D. SW4
SW3
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch? A. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down. B. After spanning tree converges, PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs. C. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically. D. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
Which three statements about network characteristics are true? (Choose three.) A. Speed is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network. B. Scalability indicates how many nodes are currently on the network. C. The logical topology is the arrangement of cables, network devices, and end systems. D. Availability is a measure of the probability that the network will be available for use when it is required. E. Reliability indicates the dependability of the components that make up the network
Speed is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network. Availability is a measure of the probability that the network will be available for use when it is required. Reliability indicates the dependability of the components that make up the network
Which statement about static and dynamic routes is true? A. Dynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while static routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol. B. Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol. C. Static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected. D. Dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.
Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery. B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgement packets. C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol. D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.
TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received? A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table. B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning. C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN. D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
Designated Router (ID) 10.11.11.11 Backup designated Router (ID) 10.3.3.3 Time intervals, Hello 10, Dead 40, Wait 40 oob-resync timeout 40 The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1. How is OSPF configured? A. A point-to-point network type is configured. B. The interface is not participating in OSPF. C. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use. D. There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface.
The default Hello and Dead timers are in use.
When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails? A. The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary. B. The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table. C. The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance that the primary route so it is used as a backup. D. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance that the primary route so it is used as a backup
The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance that the primary route so it is used as a backup
MAC Address Table Fa0/1 0000.00bb.bbbb Fa0/2 0000.00cc.cccc The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.) A. The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address. B. The frame will be forwarded out of all the ports on the switch. C. The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table. D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0. E. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table. F. The frame will be forwarded out of fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0. The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines? A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources. B. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch. C. The hypervisor can virtual physical components including CPU, memory, and storage. D. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.
The hypervisor can virtual physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.
Aging Time: 0 mins Aging Type: Absolute Secure Static Aging Disabled Maximum Mac Address 2 Total Mac Address 2 Configured Mac Address 0 Sticky MAC address 2 Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.) A. Two secure MAC address are manually configured on the interface. B. A syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface. C. The interface is error -disabled. D. The interface dynamic ally learned two secure MAC addresses. E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface.
The interface is error -disabled. The interface dynamic ally learned two secure MAC addresses.
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration? A. The link becomes an access port. B. The link is in an error disabled state. C. The link is in a down state. D. The link becomes a trunk port.
The link becomes a trunk port.
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two.) A. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link. B. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route. C. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route. D. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor. E. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256
The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.
Secure Static Aging Disabled Maximum Mac Address 4 Total Mac Address 3 Configured Mac Address 1 Sticky MAC address 2 Security Violation Count 0 Refer to the exhibit. Which two events occur on the interface, if packets from an unknown Source address arrive after the interface learns the maximum number of secure MAC address? (Choose two.) A. The security violation counter dose not increment B. The port LED turns off C. The interface is error-disabled D. A syslog message is generated E. The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC address
The security violation counter dose not increment The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC address
ip arp inspection vlan 5-10 interface fastethernet 0/1 switchport node access siwtchport access vlan 5 Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration A. The switch discards all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings. B. All ARP packets are dropped by the switch. C. Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server. D. All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted.
The switch discards all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.
Which two conditions must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two.) A. IP routing must be enabled on the switch. B. A console password must be configured on the switch. C. Telnet must be disabled on the switch. D. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. E. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch
The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch
ip arp inspection vlan 2 interface fastethernet 0/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 2 Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration? A. The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch. B. Dynamic ARP Inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing. C. The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted. D. The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets.
The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted.
Which action do the switches take on the trunk link? A. The trunk does not form, and the ports go into an err-disabled status. B. The trunk forms, but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain. C. The trunk forms, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state. D. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.
The trunk forms, but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.) A. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router. B. The two routers share the same interface IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them. C. The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding. D. Each router has a different IP address, both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load-balanced between them. E. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.
The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.
Which set of actions satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication? A. The user enters a user name and password, and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen. B. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link. C. The users enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device. D. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen.
The users enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be true? (Choose two.) A. There are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network. B. A static default route to 10.85.33.14 was defined C. Ten routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100 D. The 10.0.0.0/8 network was learned via external EIGRP E. The EIGRP administrative distance was manually changed from 90 to 170
There are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network. Ten routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100
After the switch configuration, the ping test fails between PC A and PC B. Based on the output for switch 1, which error must be corrected? A. The PCs are in the incorrect VLAN. B. All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk. C. Access mode is configured on the switch ports. D. There is a native VLAN mismatch.
There is a native VLAN mismatch.
Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.) A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address. B. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address. C. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges. D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware. E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8: D6:65:90. F. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network.
To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8: D6:65:90.
AAA stands for authentication, authorization, and accounting A. False B. True
True
CertBus-SW1#sh lacp neighbor Flags: S - Device is requesting slow F- Device is requesting fast A- Device is in Active mode Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured? A. mode on B. active C. passive D. auto
active
R2 ip dhcp excluded-address 10.120.26.1 10.120.26.10 ipdhcp pool VLAN120 network 10.120.26.0 255.255.255.0 default-router 10.120.26.1 Refer to the exhibit. Users in your office are complaining that they cannot connect to the severs at a remote site. When troubleshooting, you find that you can successfully reach the severs from router R2. What is the most likely reason that the other users are experiencing connection failure? A. interface ports are shut down on the remote servers B. The DHCP address pool has been exhausted C. The ip helper-address command is missing on the R2 interface that connects to the switch D. VLSM is misconfigured between the router interface and the DHCP pool.
VLSM is misconfigured between the router interface and the DHCP pool.
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two.) A. SGML B. YAML C. XML D. JSON E. EBCDIC
XML JSON
Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols? A. dual algorithm B. metric C. administrative distance D. hop count
administrative distance
How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used? A. to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports B. to determine the hardware platform of the device C. to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices D. all of the above
all of the above
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure? A. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another B. disabling TCP so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices C. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps D. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.) A. anycast B. broadcast C. multicast D. podcast E. allcast
anycast multicast
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to? A. point-to-multipoint B. point-to-point C. broadcast D. nonbroadcast
broadcast
What is the purpose of the show ip ospf interface command? A. displaying OSPF-related interface information B. displaying general information about OSPF routing processes C. displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface basis D. displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface-type basis
displaying OSPF-related interface information
In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose two.) A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. local B. mesh C. flexconnect D. sniffer
flexconnect
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine? A. platform-as-a-service B. network-as-a-service C. software-as-a-service D. infrastructure-as-a-service
infrastructure-as-a-service
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.) A. input errors B. frame C. giants D. CRC E. runts
input errors CRC
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device? A. outside global B. outsdwde local C. inside global D. insride local E. outside public F. inside public
inside global
An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria? A. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 B. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 C. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 D. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252
interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address 209.165.201.2 225.255.255.252
Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client? A. ip address dhcp B. ip dhcp client C. ip helper-address D. ip dhcp pool
ip address dhcp
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface? A. ipv6 address dhcp B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64 C. ipv6 address autoconfig D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local
ipv6 address autoconfig
The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two) A. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 B. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3 C. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0 D. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2 E. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1
ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3
Which command is used to configure an IPv6 static default route? A. ipv6 route ::/0 interface next-hop5 B. ipv6 route default interface next-hop C. ipv6 route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop D. ip route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop
ipv6 route ::/0 interface next-hop5
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? A. ipv6 local B. ipv6 host C. ipv6 unicast-routing D. ipv6 neighbor
ipv6 unicast-routing
Secure Static Aging Disabled Maximum Mac Address 3 Total Mac Address 3 Configured Mac Address 1 Sticky MAC address 2 Security Violation Count 0 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.) A. learned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity B. the interface is error-diabled if packets arrive from a new unknown source address C. it has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses D. it has dynamically learned three secure MAC addresses E. the security violation counter increments if packets arrive from a new unknown source address
it has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses the security violation counter increments if packets arrive from a new unknown source address
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers? A. bridge B. lightweight C. mobility express D. autonomous
lightweight
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface? A. lldp timer B. lldp tlv-select C. lldp reinit D. lldp holdtime
lldp reinit
Which type of attack is mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection? A. DDoS B. malware C. man-in-the-middle D. worm
man-in-the-middle
Which 802.11 frame type is association response? A. management B. protected frame C. action D. control
management
A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior? A. trunk mode mismatches B. allowing only VLAN 2 on the destination C. native VLAN mismatches D. VLANs that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
native VLAN mismatches
Gateway of last resort 10.10.10.18 to 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/8 is vaiably subnetted, 4 subnets, 3 masks 10.10.10.0/30 is directly connected 10.10.13.0/25 via 10.10.10.1 10.10.10.16/30 is directly connected 0.0.0.0/0 via 10.10.10.18 Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32? A. default route B. network route C. host route D. floating static route
network route
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol? A. active B. on C. auto D. desirable
on
Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.) A. one-to-many communication model B. one-to-nearest communication model C. any-to-many communication model D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group E. the same address for multiple devices in the group F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
one-to-nearest communication model the same address for multiple devices in the group delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2? A. TTL B. MAC address forwarding C. Collision avoidance D. Port blocking
port blocking
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.) A. reduced hardware footprint B. reduced operational costs C. faster changes with more reliable results D. fewer network failures E. increased network security
reduced operational costs faster changes with more reliable results
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch? A. enable secret B. enable password C. service password-encryption D. username cisco password encrypt
service password-encryption
Which command provides this output? A. show ip route B. show cdp neighbor C. show ip interface D. show interface
show cdp neighbor
Which Cisco IOS command will indicate that interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 is configured via DHCP? A. show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 dhcp B. show interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 C. show ip interface dhcp D. show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 E. show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 brief
show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0
Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router? A. show ipv6 interface B. show access-list C. show ipv6 access-list D. show ipv6 route
show ipv6 access-list
Refer to the exhibit. When PC1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2? A. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 10.10.2.2 B. source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1 C. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10 D. source 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2.2
source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10
CertBus-Atlanta#conf t CertBus-Atlanta(config)#aaa new-model CertBus-Atlanta(config)#aaa authentication login default local CertBus-Atlanta(config-line)#login authentication defualt CertBus-Atlanta(config-line)#exit CertBus-Atlanta(config)#username ciscoadmin password CertBus-Atlanta(config)#enable secret testing1234 CertBus-Atlanta(config)#end Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode? A. adminadmin123 B. cisco123 C. default D. testing1234
testing1234
Which command can you enter to allow Telnet to be supported in addition to SSH? A. transport input telnet ssh B. transport input telnet C. no transport input telnet D. privilege level 15
transport input telnet ssh
Which IPv6 address type communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet? A. link-local B. unique local C. multicast D. global unicast
unique local
Which option about JSON is true? A. uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays C. used for storing information D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML
used to describe structured data that includes arrays
Which option about JSON is true? A. uses predefined tags or angle brackets (<>) to delimit markup text B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays C. used for storing information D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML
used to describe structured data that includes arrays
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe, but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place? A. user awareness B. brute force attack C. physical access control D. social engineering attack
user awareness
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two.) A. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used B. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex C. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again D. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted E. when the cable length limits are exceeded
when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex when the cable length limits are exceeded
Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash? A. {"key":"value"} B. ["key","value"] C. {"key","value"} D. ("key":"value")
{"key":"value"}