CCNA Security
Which type of security control is defense in depth? A. threat mitigation B. risk analysis C. botnet mitigation D. overt and covert channels
A. threat mitigation
When STP mitigation features are configured, where should the root guard feature be deployed? A. toward ports that connect to switches that should not be the root bridge B. on all switch ports C. toward user-facing ports D. Root guard should be configured globally on the switch.
A. toward ports that connect to switches that should not be the root bridge
Which type of management reporting is defined by separating management traffic from production traffic? A. IPsec encrypted B. in-band C. out-of-band D. SSH
C. out-of-band
Which option is the correct representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0000:150C:0000:0000:41B1:45A3:041D? A. 2001::150c::41b1:45a3:041d B. 2001:0:150c:0::41b1:45a3:04d1 C. 2001:150c::41b1:45a3::41d D. 2001:0:150c::41b1:45a3:41d
D. 2001:0:150c::41b1:45a3:41d
Which syslog level is associated with LOG_WARNING? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 F. 6 G. 7 H. 0
D. 4
Under which higher-level policy is a VPN security policy categorized? A. application policy B. DLP policy C. remote access policy D. compliance policy E. corporate WAN policy
C. remote access policy
Which two statements about SSL-based VPNs are true? (Choose two.) A. Asymmetric algorithms are used for authentication and key exchange. B. SSL VPNs and IPsec VPNs cannot be configured concurrently on the same router. C. The application programming interface can be used to modify extensively the SSL client software for use in special applications. D. The authentication process uses hashing technologies. E. Both client and clientless SSL VPNs require special-purpose client software to be installed on the client machine.
A. Asymmetric algorithms are used for authentication and key exchange. D. The authentication process uses hashing technologies.
Which priority is most important when you plan out access control lists? A. Build ACLs based upon your security policy. B. Always put the ACL closest to the source of origination. C. Place deny statements near the top of the ACL to prevent unwanted traffic from passing through the router. D. Always test ACLs in a small, controlled production environment before you roll it out into the larger production network.
A. Build ACLs based upon your security policy.
Which statement is a benefit of using Cisco IOS IPS? A. It uses the underlying routing infrastructure to provide an additional layer of security. B. It works in passive mode so as not to impact traffic flow. C. It supports the complete signature database as a Cisco IPS sensor appliance. D. The signature database is tied closely with the Cisco IOS image.
A. It uses the underlying routing infrastructure to provide an additional layer of security.
Which security measure must you take for native VLANs on a trunk port? A. Native VLANs for trunk ports should never be used anywhere else on the switch. B. The native VLAN for trunk ports should be VLAN 1. C. Native VLANs for trunk ports should match access VLANs to ensure that cross-VLAN traffic from multiple switches can be delivered to physically disparate switches. D. Native VLANs for trunk ports should be tagged with 802.1Q.
A. Native VLANs for trunk ports should never be used anywhere else on the switch.
Which three statements about applying access control lists to a Cisco router are true? (Choose three.) A. Place more specific ACL entries at the top of the ACL. B. Place generic ACL entries at the top of the ACL to filter general traffic and thereby reduce "noise" on the network. C. ACLs always search for the most specific entry before taking any filtering action. D. Router-generated packets cannot be filtered by ACLs on the router. E. If an access list is applied but it is not configured, all traffic passes.
A. Place more specific ACL entries at the top of the ACL. D. Router-generated packets cannot be filtered by ACLs on the router E. If an access list is applied but it is not configured, all traffic passes.
Which four types of VPN are supported using Cisco ISRs and Cisco ASA appliances? (Choose four.) A. SSL clientless remote-access VPNs B. SSL full-tunnel client remote-access VPNs C. SSL site-to-site VPNs D. IPsec site-to-site VPNs E. IPsec client remote-access VPNs F. IPsec clientless remote-access VPNs
A. SSL clientless remote-access VPNs B. SSL full-tunnel client remote-access VPNs D. IPsec site-to-site VPNs E. IPsec client remote-access VPNs
Which four tasks are required when you configure Cisco IOS IPS using the Cisco Configuration Professional IPS wizard? (Choose four.) A. Select the interface(s) to apply the IPS rule. B. Select the traffic flow direction that should be applied by the IPS rule. C. Add or remove IPS alerts actions based on the risk rating. D. Specify the signature file and the Cisco public key. E. Select the IPS bypass mode (fail-open or fail-close). F. Specify the configuration location and select the category of signatures to be applied to the selected interface(s).
A. Select the interface(s) to apply the IPS rule. B. Select the traffic flow direction that should be applied by the IPS rule. D. Specify the signature file and the Cisco public key. F. Specify the configuration location and select the category of signatures to be applied to the selected interface(s).
Which three statements about the Cisco ASA appliance are true? (Choose three.) A. The DMZ interface(s) on the Cisco ASA appliance most typically use a security level between 1 and 99. B. The Cisco ASA appliance supports Active/Active or Active/Standby failover. C. The Cisco ASA appliance has no default MPF configurations. D. The Cisco ASA appliance uses security contexts to virtually partition the ASA into multiple virtual firewalls. E. The Cisco ASA appliance supports user-based access control using 802.1x. F. An SSM is required on the Cisco ASA appliance to support Botnet Traffic Filtering.
A. The DMZ interface(s) on the Cisco ASA appliance most typically use a security level between 1 and 99. B. The Cisco ASA appliance supports Active/Active or Active/Standby failover. D. The Cisco ASA appliance uses security contexts to virtually partition the ASA into multiple virtual firewalls.
Which three statements about the IPsec ESP modes of operation are true? (Choose three.) A. Tunnel mode is used between a host and a security gateway. B. Tunnel mode is used between two security gateways. C. Tunnel mode only encrypts and authenticates the data. D. Transport mode authenticates the IP header. E. Transport mode leaves the original IP header in the clear.
A. Tunnel mode is used between a host and a security gateway. B. Tunnel mode is used between two security gateways. E. Transport mode leaves the original IP header in the clear.
Which three options are common examples of AAA implementation on Cisco routers? (Choose three.) A. authenticating remote users who are accessing the corporate LAN through IPsec VPN connections B. authenticating administrator access to the router console port, auxiliary port, and vty ports C. implementing PKI to authenticate and authorize IPsec VPN peers using digital certificates D. tracking Cisco NetFlow accounting statistics E. securing the router by locking down all unused services F. performing router commands authorization using TACACS+
A. authenticating remote users who are accessing the corporate LAN through IPsec VPN connections B. authenticating administrator access to the router console port, auxiliary port, and vty ports F. performing router commands authorization using TACACS+
Which two options are characteristics of the Cisco Configuration Professional Security Audit wizard? (Choose two.) A. displays a screen with fix-it check boxes to let you choose which potential security-related configuration changes to implement B. has two modes of operation: interactive and non-interactive C. automatically enables Cisco IOS firewall and Cisco IOS IPS to secure the router D. uses interactive dialogs and prompts to implement role-based CLI E. requires users to first identify which router interfaces connect to the inside network and which connect to the outside network
A. displays a screen with fix-it check boxes to let you choose which potential security-related configuration changes to implement E. requires users to first identify which router interfaces connect to the inside network and which connect to the outside network
Which three modes of access can be delivered by SSL VPN? (Choose three.) A. full tunnel client B. IPsec SSL C. TLS transport mode D. thin client E. clientless F. TLS tunnel mode
A. full tunnel client D. thin client E. clientless
Which two considerations about secure network management are important? (Choose two.) A. log tampering B. encryption algorithm strength C. accurate time stamping D. off-site storage E. Use RADIUS for router commands authorization. F. Do not use a loopback interface for device management access.
A. log tampering C. accurate time stamping
A Cisco ASA appliance has three interfaces configured. The first interface is the inside interface with a security level of 100. The second interface is the DMZ interface with a security level of 50. The third interface is the outside interface with a security level of 0. By default, without any access list configured, which five types of traffic are permitted? (Choose five.) A. outbound traffic initiated from the inside to the DMZ B. outbound traffic initiated from the DMZ to the outside C. outbound traffic initiated from the inside to the outside D. inbound traffic initiated from the outside to the DMZ E. inbound traffic initiated from the outside to the inside F. inbound traffic initiated from the DMZ to the inside G. HTTP return traffic originating from the inside network and returning via the outside interface H. HTTP return traffic originating from the inside network and returning via the DMZ interface I. HTTP return traffic originating from the DMZ network and returning via the inside interface J. HTTP return traffic originating from the outside network and returning via the inside interface
A. outbound traffic initiated from the inside to the DMZ B. outbound traffic initiated from the DMZ to the outside C. outbound traffic initiated from the inside to the outside G. HTTP return traffic originating from the inside network and returning via the outside interface H. HTTP return traffic originating from the inside network and returning via the DMZ interface
When Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall is configured, which three actions can be applied to a traffic class? (Choose three.) A. pass B. police C. inspect D. drop E. queue F. shape
A. pass C. inspect D. drop
Which router management feature provides for the ability to configure multiple administrative views? A. role-based CLI B. virtual routing and forwarding C. secure config privilege {level} D. parser view view name
A. role-based CLI
Which two features are supported by Cisco IronPort Security Gateway? (Choose two.) A. spam protection B. outbreak intelligence C. HTTP and HTTPS scanning D. email encryption E. DDoS protection
A. spam protection D. email encryption
You want to use the Cisco Configuration Professional site-to-site VPN wizard to implement a site-to-site IPsec VPN using pre-shared key. Which four configurations are required (with no defaults)? (Choose four.) A. the interface for the VPN connection B. the VPN peer IP address C. the IPsec transform-set D. the IKE policy E. the interesting traffic (the traffic to be protected) F. the pre-shared key
A. the interface for the VPN connection B. the VPN peer IP address E. the interesting traffic (the traffic to be protected) F. the pre-shared key
Which type of Layer 2 attack causes a switch to flood all incoming traffic to all ports? A. MAC spoofing attack B. CAM overflow attack C. VLAN hopping attack D. STP attack
B. CAM overflow attack
Which two protocols enable Cisco Configuration Professional to pull IPS alerts from a Cisco ISR router? (Choose two.) A. syslog B. SDEE C. FTP D. TFTP E. SSH F. HTTPS
B. SDEE F. HTTPS
Which statement describes a result of securing the Cisco IOS image using the Cisco IOS image resilience feature? A. The show version command does not show the Cisco IOS image file location. B. The Cisco IOS image file is not visible in the output from the show flash command. C. When the router boots up, the Cisco IOS image is loaded from a secured FTP location. D. The running Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to the NVRAM. E. The running Cisco IOS image is encrypted and then automatically backed up to a TFTP server.
B. The Cisco IOS image file is not visible in the output from the show flash command.
When port security is enabled on a Cisco Catalyst switch, what is the default action when the configured maximum number of allowed MAC addresses value is exceeded? A. The port remains enabled, but bandwidth is throttled until old MAC addresses are aged out. B. The port is shut down. C. The MAC address table is cleared and the new MAC address is entered into the table. D. The violation mode of the port is set to restrict.
B. The port is shut down.
Which statement about PVLAN Edge is true? A. PVLAN Edge can be configured to restrict the number of MAC addresses that appear on a single port. B. The switch does not forward any traffic from one protected port to any other protected port. C. By default, when a port policy error occurs, the switchport shuts down. D. The switch only forwards traffic to ports within the same VLAN Edge.
B. The switch does not forward any traffic from one protected port to any other protected port.
Which access list permits HTTP traffic sourced from host 10.1.129.100 port 3030 destined to host 192.168.1.10? A. access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 3030 B. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1 .255 eq 3030 192.1 68.1 .0 0.0.0.15 eq www C. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.129.0 0.0.0.255 eq www 192.168.1.10 0.0.0.0 eq www D. access-list 101 permit tcp host 192.1 68.1 .10 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 eq 3030 E. access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.1.10 0.0.0.0 eq 80 10.1.0.0 0.0.255.255 F. access-list 101 permit ip host 10.1.129.100 eq 3030 host 192.168.1.10 eq 80
B. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.128.0 0.0.1 .255 eq 3030 192.1 68.1 .0 0.0.0.15 eq www
Which option is a characteristic of a stateful firewall? A. can analyze traffic at the application layer B. allows modification of security rule sets in real time to allow return traffic C. will allow outbound communication, but return traffic must be explicitly permitted D. supports user authentication
B. allows modification of security rule sets in real time to allow return traffic
Which option is a feature of Cisco ScanSafe technology? A. spam protection B. consistent cloud-based policy C. DDoS protection D. RSA Email DLP
B. consistent cloud-based policy
Which type of NAT is used where you translate multiple internal IP addresses to a single global, routable IP address? A. policy NAT B. dynamic PAT C. static NAT D. dynamic NAT E. policy PAT
B. dynamic PAT
Which type of Cisco IOS access control list is identified by 100 to 199 and 2000 to 2699? A. standard B. extended C. named D. IPv4 for 100 to 199 and IPv6 for 2000 to 2699
B. extended
Which two options are advantages of an application layer firewall? (Choose two.) A. provides high-performance filtering B. makes DoS attacks difficult C. supports a large number of applications D. authenticates devices E. authenticates individuals
B. makes DoS attacks difficult E. authenticates individuals
Which two options are two of the built-in features of IPv6? (Choose two.) A. VLSM B. native IPsec C. controlled broadcasts D. mobile IP E. NAT
B. native IPsec D. mobile IP
Which single Cisco IOS ACL entry permits IP addresses from 172.16.80.0 to 172.16.87.255? A. permit 172.16.80.0 0.0.3.255 B. permit 172.16.80.0 0.0.7.255 C. permit 172.16.80.0 0.0.248.255 D. permit 176.16.80.0 255.255.252.0 E. permit 172.16.80.0 255.255.248.0 F. permit 172.16.80.0 255.255.240.0
B. permit 172.16.80.0 0.0.7.255
Which option can be used to authenticate the IPsec peers during IKE Phase 1? A. Diffie-Hellman Nonce B. pre-shared key C. XAUTH D. integrity check value E. ACS F. AH
B. pre-shared key
Which two characteristics of the TACACS+ protocol are true? (Choose two.) A. uses UDP ports 1645 or 1812 B. separates AAA functions C. encrypts the body of every packet D. offers extensive accounting capabilities E. is an open RFC standard protocol
B. separates AAA functions C. encrypts the body of every packet
For what purpose is the Cisco ASA appliance web launch SSL VPN feature used? A. to enable split tunneling when using clientless SSL VPN access B. to enable users to login to a web portal to download and launch the AnyConnect client C. to enable smart tunnel access for applications that are not web-based D. to optimize the SSL VPN connections using DTLS E. to enable single-sign-on so the SSL VPN users need only log in once
B. to enable users to login to a web portal to download and launch the AnyConnect clien
With Cisco IOS zone-based policy firewall, by default, which three types of traffic are permitted by the router when some of the router interfaces are assigned to a zone? (Choose three.) A. traffic flowing between a zone member interface and any interface that is not a zone member B. traffic flowing to and from the router interfaces (the self zone) C. traffic flowing among the interfaces that are members of the same zone D. traffic flowing among the interfaces that are not assigned to any zone E. traffic flowing between a zone member interface and another interface that belongs in a different zone F. traffic flowing to the zone member interface that is returned traffic
B. traffic flowing to and from the router interfaces (the self zone) C. traffic flowing among the interfaces that are members of the same zone D. traffic flowing among the interfaces that are not assigned to any zone
Which two characteristics represent a blended threat? (Choose two.) A. man-in-the-middle attack B. trojan horse attack C. pharming attack D. denial of service attack E. day zero attack
B. trojan horse attack E. day zero attack
On Cisco ISR routers, for what purpose is the realm-cisco.pub public encryption key used? A. used for SSH server/client authentication and encryption B. used to verify the digital signature of the IPS signature file C. used to generate a persistent self-signed identity certificate for the ISR so administrators can authenticate the ISR when accessing it using Cisco Configuration Professional D. used to enable asymmetric encryption on IPsec and SSL VPNs E. used during the DH exchanges on IPsec VPNs
B. used to verify the digital signature of the IPS signature file
Which statement best represents the characteristics of a VLAN? A. Ports in a VLAN will not share broadcasts amongst physically separate switches. B. A VLAN can only connect across a LAN within the same building. C. A VLAN is a logical broadcast domain that can span multiple physical LAN segments. D. A VLAN provides individual port security.
C. A VLAN is a logical broadcast domain that can span multiple physical LAN segments.
Which Cisco IPS product offers an inline, deep-packet inspection feature that is available in integrated services routers? A. Cisco iSDM B. Cisco AIM C. Cisco IOS IPS D. Cisco AIP-SSM
C. Cisco IOS IPS
Which Cisco management tool provides the ability to centrally provision all aspects of device configuration across the Cisco family of security products? A. Cisco Configuration Professional B. Security Device Manager C. Cisco Security Manager D. Cisco Secure Management Server
C. Cisco Security Manager
What is the best way to prevent a VLAN hopping attack? A. Encapsulate trunk ports with IEEE 802.1Q. B. Physically secure data closets. C. Disable DTP negotiations. D. Enable BDPU guard.
C. Disable DTP negotiations.
When configuring SSL VPN on the Cisco ASA appliance, which configuration step is required only for Cisco AnyConnect full tunnel SSL VPN access and not required for clientless SSL VPN? A. user authentication B. group policy C. IP address pool D. SSL VPN interface E. connection profile
C. IP address pool
Refer to the exhibit. What does the option secret 5 in the username global configuration mode command indicate about the user password? ```router# sh run | include username username test secret 5 $1 $knm.GOGQBIL8TK77P0LWxvX4O0``` A. It is hashed using SHA. B. It is encrypted using DH group 5. C. It is hashed using MD5. D. It is encrypted using the service password-encryption command. E. It is hashed using a proprietary Cisco hashing algorithm. F. It is encrypted using a proprietary Cisco encryption algorithm.
C. It is hashed using MD5.
Which option is a key difference between Cisco IOS interface ACL configurations and Cisco ASA appliance interface ACL configurations? A. The Cisco IOS interface ACL has an implicit permit-all rule at the end of each interface ACL. B. Cisco IOS supports interface ACL and also global ACL. Global ACL is applied to all interfaces. C. The Cisco ASA appliance interface ACL configurations use netmasks instead of wildcard masks. D. The Cisco ASA appliance interface ACL also applies to traffic directed to the IP addresses of the Cisco ASA appliance interfaces. E. The Cisco ASA appliance does not support standard ACL. The Cisco ASA appliance only support extended ACL.
C. The Cisco ASA appliance interface ACL configurations use netmasks instead of wildcard masks.
Which statement describes how the sender of the message is verified when asymmetric encryption is used? A. The sender encrypts the message using the sender's public key, and the receiver decrypts themessage using the sender's private key. B. The sender encrypts the message using the sender's private key, and the receiver decrypts the message using the sender's public key. C. The sender encrypts the message using the receiver's public key, and the receiver decrypts the message using the receiver's private key. D. The sender encrypts the message using the receiver's private key, and the receiver decrypts the message using the receiver's public key. E. The sender encrypts the message using the receiver's public key, and the receiver decrypts the message using the sender's public key.
C. The sender encrypts the message using the receiver's public key, and the receiver decrypts the message using the receiver's private key.
Which statement about asymmetric encryption algorithms is true? A. They use the same key for encryption and decryption of data. B. They use the same key for decryption but different keys for encryption of data. C. They use different keys for encryption and decryption of data. D. They use different keys for decryption but the same key for encryption of data.
C. They use different keys for encryption and decryption of data.
Which aaa accounting command is used to enable logging of the start and stop records for user terminal sessions on the router? A. aaa accounting network start-stop tacacs+ B. aaa accounting system start-stop tacacs+ C. aaa accounting exec start-stop tacacs+ D. aaa accounting connection start-stop tacacs+ E. aaa accounting commands 15 start-stop tacacs+
C. aaa accounting exec start-stop tacacs+
During role-based CLI configuration, what must be enabled before any user views can be created? A. multiple privilege levels B. usernames and passwords C. aaa new-model command D. secret password for the root user E. HTTP and/or HTTPS server F. TACACS server group
C. aaa new-model command
Which option is a characteristic of the RADIUS protocol? A. uses TCP B. offers multiprotocol support C. combines authentication and authorization in one process D. supports bi-directional challenge
C. combines authentication and authorization in one process
Which IPsec transform set provides the strongest protection? A. crypto ipsec transform-set 1 esp-3des esp-sha-hmac B. crypto ipsec transform-set 2 esp-3des esp-md5-hmac C. crypto ipsec transform-set 3 esp-aes 256 esp-sha-hmac D. crypto ipsec transform-set 4 esp-aes esp-md5-hmac E. crypto ipsec transform-set 5 esp-des esp-sha-hmac F. crypto ipsec transform-set 6 esp-des esp-md5-hmac
C. crypto ipsec transform-set 3 esp-aes 256 esp-sha-hmac
Which option is the resulting action in a zone-based policy firewall configuration with these conditions? Source: Zone 1 Destination: Zone 2 Zone pair exists?: Yes Policy exists?: No A. no impact to zoning or policy B. no policy lookup (pass) C. drop D. apply default policy
C. drop
Which two options represent a threat to the physical installation of an enterprise network? (Choose two.) A. surveillance camera B. security guards C. electrical power D. computer room access E. change control
C. electrical power D. computer room access
When AAA login authentication is configured on Cisco routers, which two authentication methods should be used as the final method to ensure that the administrator can still log in to the router in case the external AAA server fails? (Choose two.) A. group RADIUS B. group TACACS+ C. local D. krb5 E. enable F. if-authenticated
C. local E. enable
Which type of firewall technology is considered the versatile and commonly used firewall technology? A. static packet filter firewall B. application layer firewall C. stateful packet filter firewall D. proxy firewall E. adaptive layer firewall
C. stateful packet filter firewall
Which two functions are required for IPsec operation? (Choose two.) A. using SHA for encryption B. using PKI for pre-shared key authentication C. using IKE to negotiate the SA D. using AH protocols for encryption and authentication E. using Diffie-Hellman to establish a shared-secret key
C. using IKE to negotiate the SA E. using Diffie-Hellman to establish a shared-secret key
How are Cisco IOS access control lists processed? A. Standard ACLs are processed first. B. The best match ACL is matched first. C. Permit ACL entries are matched first before the deny ACL entries. D. ACLs are matched from top down. E. The global ACL is matched first before the interface ACL.
D. ACLs are matched from top down.
Which description of the Diffie-Hellman protocol is true? A. It uses symmetrical encryption to provide data confidentiality over an unsecured communications channel. B. It uses asymmetrical encryption to provide authentication over an unsecured communications channel. C. It is used within the IKE Phase 1 exchange to provide peer authentication. D. It provides a way for two peers to establish a shared-secret key, which only they will know, even though they are communicating over an unsecured channel. E. It is a data integrity algorithm that is used within the IKE exchanges to guarantee the integrity of the message of the IKE exchanges.
D. It provides a way for two peers to establish a shared-secret key, which only they will know, even though they are communicating over an unsecured channel
Which option represents a step that should be taken when a security policy is developed? A. Perform penetration testing. B. Determine device risk scores. C. Implement a security monitoring system. D. Perform quantitative risk analysis.
D. Perform quantitative risk analysis.
Which protocol secures router management session traffic? A. SSTP B. POP C. Telnet D. SSH
D. SSH
Which Layer 2 protocol provides loop resolution by managing the physical paths to given network segments? A. root guard B. port fast C. HSRP D. STP
D. STP
In which type of Layer 2 attack does an attacker broadcast BDPUs with a lower switch priority? A. MAC spoofing attack B. CAM overflow attack C. VLAN hopping attack D. STP attack
D. STP attack
You suspect that an attacker in your network has configured a rogue Layer 2 device to intercept traffic from multiple VLANs, which allows the attacker to capture potentially sensitive data. Which two methods will help to mitigate this type of activity? (Choose two.) A. Turn off all trunk ports and manually configure each VLAN as required on each port. B. Place unused active ports in an unused VLAN. C. Secure the native VLAN, VLAN 1, with encryption. D. Set the native VLAN on the trunk ports to an unused VLAN. E. Disable DTP on ports that require trunking.
D. Set the native VLAN on the trunk ports to an unused VLAN. E. Disable DTP on ports that require trunking.
Which step is important to take when implementing secure network management? A. Implement in-band management whenever possible. B. Implement telnet for encrypted device management access. C. Implement SNMP with read/write access for troubleshooting purposes. D. Synchronize clocks on hosts and devices. E. Implement management plane protection using routing protocol authentication.
D. Synchronize clocks on hosts and devices.
You have been tasked by your manager to implement syslog in your network. Which option is an important factor to consider in your implementation? A. Use SSH to access your syslog information. B. Enable the highest level of syslog function available to ensure that all possible event messages are logged. C. Log all messages to the system buffer so that they can be displayed when accessing the router. D. Synchronize clocks on the network with a protocol such as Network Time Protocol.
D. Synchronize clocks on the network with a protocol such as Network Time Protocol.
Which location is recommended for extended or extended named ACLs? A. an intermediate location to filter as much traffic as possible B. a location as close to the destination traffic as possible C. when using the established keyword, a location close to the destination point to ensure that return traffic is allowed D. a location as close to the source traffic as possible
D. a location as close to the source traffic as possible
You are the security administrator for a large enterprise network with many remote locations. You have been given the assignment to deploy a Cisco IPS solution. Where in the network would be the best place to deploy Cisco IOS IPS? A. inside the firewall of the corporate headquarters Internet connection B. at the entry point into the data center C. outside the firewall of the corporate headquarters Internet connection D. at remote branch offices
D. at remote branch offices
Which type of Cisco ASA access list entry can be configured to match multiple entries in a single statement? A. nested object-class B. class-map C. extended wildcard matching D. object groups
D. object groups
Which IPS technique commonly is used to improve accuracy and context awareness, aiming to detect and respond to relevant incidents only and therefore, reduce noise? A. attack relevancy B. target asset value C. signature accuracy D. risk rating
D. risk rating
Which command enables Cisco IOS image resilience? A. secure boot-<IOS image filename> B. secure boot-running-config C. secure boot-start D. secure boot-image
D. secure boot-image
If you are implementing VLAN trunking, which additional configuration parameter should be added to the trunking configuration? A. no switchport mode access B. no switchport trunk native VLAN 1 C. switchport mode DTP D. switchport nonnegotiate
D. switchport nonnegotiate
Which option describes the purpose of Diffie-Hellman? A. used between the initiator and the responder to establish a basic security policy B. used to verify the identity of the peer C. used for asymmetric public key encryption D. used to establish a symmetric shared key via a public key exchange process
D. used to establish a symmetric shared key via a public key exchange process
Which type of network masking is used when Cisco IOS access control lists are configured? A. extended subnet masking B. standard subnet masking C. priority masking D. wildcard masking
D. wildcard masking
Which statement describes a best practice when configuring trunking on a switch port? A. Disable double tagging by enabling DTP on the trunk port. B. Enable encryption on the trunk port. C. Enable authentication and encryption on the trunk port. D. Limit the allowed VLAN(s) on the trunk to the native VLAN only. E. Configure an unused VLAN as the native VLAN.
E. Configure an unused VLAN as the native VLAN.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this partial CLI configuration of an access control list is true? access-list 2 permit 10.10.0.10 access-list 2 deny 10.10.0.0.0.0.255.255 access-list 2permit 10.0.0.0.0.255.255.255 interface FastEthernet0/0 ip access-group 2 in A. The access list accepts all traffic on the 10.0.0.0 subnets. B. All traffic from the 10.10.0.0 subnets is denied. C. Only traffic from 10.10.0.10 is allowed. D. This configuration is invalid. It should be configured as an extended ACL to permit the associated wildcard mask. E. From the 10.10.0.0 subnet, only traffic sourced from 10.10.0.10 is allowed; traffic sourced from the other 10.0.0.0 subnets also is allowed. F. The access list permits traffic destined to the 10.10.0.10 host on FastEthernet0/0 from any source.
E. From the 10.10.0.0 subnet, only traffic sourced from 10.10.0.10 is allowed; traffic sourced from the other 10.0.0.0 subnets also is allowed.
What does level 5 in this enable secret global configuration mode command indicate? router#enable secret level 5 password A. The enable secret password is hashed using MD5. B. The enable secret password is hashed using SHA. C. The enable secret password is encrypted using Cisco proprietary level 5 encryption. D. Set the enable secret command to privilege level 5. E. The enable secret password is for accessing exec privilege level 5.
E. The enable secret password is for accessing exec privilege level 5.
Which statement describes how VPN traffic is encrypted to provide confidentiality when using asymmetric encryption? A. The sender encrypts the data using the sender's private key, and the receiver decrypts thedata using the sender's public key. B. The sender encrypts the data using the sender's public key, and the receiver decrypts the data using the sender's private key. C. The sender encrypts the data using the sender's public key, and the receiver decrypts the data using the receiver's public key. D. The sender encrypts the data using the receiver's private key, and the receiver decrypts the data using the receiver's public key. E. The sender encrypts the data using the receiver's public key, and the receiver decrypts the data using the receiver's private key. F. The sender encrypts the data using the receiver's private key, and the receiver decrypts the data using the sender's public key.
E. The sender encrypts the data using the receiver's public key, and the receiver decrypts the data using the receiver's private key.
You use Cisco Configuration Professional to enable Cisco IOS IPS. Which state must a signature be in before any actions can be taken when an attack matches that signature? A. enabled B. unretired C. successfully complied D. successfully complied and unretired E. successfully complied and enabled F. unretired and enabled G. enabled, unretired, and successfully complied
G. enabled, unretired, and successfully complied